Medical PG Surgery

Medical PG Surgery

1. Immediate management of a patient with Multiple fracture and Fluid loss includes the infusion of

(A) Blood

(B) Dextran

(C) Normal Saline 

(D) Ringer lactate 

Answer: (D)

2. Which of the following is the best parameter to assess fluid intake in a poly-trauma patient

(A) Urine output

(B) BP

(C) Pulse

(D) Pulse oximetry 

Answer: (A)

3. Cleft palate is best repaired at

(A) Soon after birth 

(B) At 1 month 

(C) At 6-8 months 

(D) Between 1-1.5 years 

Answer: (D)

4. The commonest site of Branchial cysts is

(A) Upper 1/3rd of the SCM 

(B) Lower 1/3rht of the SCM 

(C) Upper 2/3rd of the SCM 

(D) Lower 2/3rd of the SCM 

Answer: (A)

5. Which of the following cutaneous malignancies do not metastasize through the lymphatics

(A) Squamous cell carcinoma 

(B) Basal cell carcinoma 

(C) Melanoma

(D) Kaposi’s sarcoma 

Answer: (B)

6. Lymph node metastasis is least commonly seen with

(A) Papillary Ca Thyroid 

(B) Medullary Ca Thyroid 

(C) Follicular Ca Thyroid 

(D) Anaplastic Ca Thyroid 

Answer: (C)

7. One of the following will always present with Bilious vomiting

(A) Pyloric stenosis 

(B) Esophageal atresia 

(C) Atresia of the 3rd part of the duodenum 

(D) Malrotation of the gut 

Answer: (C)

8. A neonate with a scaphoid abdomen and respiratory distress has

(A) Congenital pyloric stenosis 

(B) Diaphragmatic hernia 

(C) Volvulus

(D) Wilm’s tumor 

Answer: (B)

9. Meckel’s diverticulum is a derivative of

(A) Allantoic diverticulum 

(B) Vitellointestinal duct 

(C) Ventral mesogastrium 

(D) Ductus arteriosus 

Answer: (B)

10. Acute mesenteric lymphadenitis is caused by

(A) E. coli 

(B) α-hemolytic streptococci 

(C) Hemophilus

(D) Yersinia

Answer: (D)

11. The commonest site of obstruction in Gall stone ileus is

(A) Proximal ileum 

(B) Distal ileum 

(C) Ileocecal junction 

(D) Transverse colon 

Answer: (B)

12. Resection of 90% of the ileum and jejunum causes all the following except

(A) Hypogastrinemia

(B) Steatorrhea

(C) Anemia

(D) Extracellular volume depletion 

Answer: (A)

13. The most unlikely clinical feature of Hepatocellular carcinoma is

(A) Hepatomegaly

(B) Raised α-fetoprotein levels 

(C) Raised alkaline phosphate 

(D) Jaundice

Answer: (D)

14. α-Fetoprotein increase in all the following except

(A) Hepatocellular carcinoma 

(B) Seminoma of the testes 

(C) GI neoplasms 

(D) Embryonal cell carcinoma 

Answer: (B)

15. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is due to tumor of the

(A) α cells 

(B) β cells 

(C) PP cells 

(D) PP cells 

Answer: (D)

16. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is characterized by all of the following except

(A) Post bulbar ulcer 

(B) Recurrent duodenal ulce 

(C) Severe diarrhea 

(D) Massive HCL in response to histamine injection 

Answer: (D)

17. Pancreatic pseudocyst most commonly occurs after

(A) Trauma

(B) Pancreatitis

(C) Pancreatic surgery 

(D) Pancreatic malignancy

Answer: (B)

18. Painless gross hematuria occurs in

(A) Renal cell carcinoma

(B) Polycystic kidney 

(C) Stricture of urethra 

(D) Wilm’s tumor 

Answer: (A)

19. A 75-year-old frail elderly man underwent TURP. The biopsy revealed adenocarcinoma. What is the next line of management

(A) Radiotherapy

(B) Surgery followed by Hormonal replacement therapy 

(C) Conservative treatment 

(D) Surgery followed by radiotherapy 

Answer: (C)

20. Trousseau’s sign is seen in all the following except

(A) Ca Lung 

(B) Ca Stomach 

(C) Ca Pancreas 

(D) Liposarcoma

Answer: (D)

21. All of the following produce Osteoblastic secondaries except

(A) Ca Prostate 

(B) Carcinoid tumors 

(C) Ca Breast 

(D) Multiple myeloma 

Answer: (D)

22. Bleeding from the umbilicus in an adult female during menstruation is suggestive of

(A) Bleeding diathesis 

(B) Vicarious menstruation

(C) Persistent urachus 

(D) Purpura

Answer: (B)

23. Commonest site of a rodent ulcer is

(A) Limbs

(B) Face

(C) Abdomen

(D) Trunk

Answer: (B)

24. In hand injuries the first structure to be repaired is

(A) Bone

(B) Skin

(C) Tendon

(D) Verve

Answer: (B)

25. FNAC is useful in all the following types of thyroid carcinoma except

(A) Papillary

(B) Follicular

(C) Anaplastic

(D) Medullary

Answer: (B)

26. Serum calcitonin is a marker for

(A) Anaplastic carcinoma 

(B) Papillary carcinoma 

(C) Medullary carcinoma 

(D) Follicular carcinoma 

Answer: (C)

27. Thyroid carcinoma with pulstile vascular skeletal metastasis is

(A) Papillary

(B) Follicular

(C) Medullary

(D) Anaplastic

Answer: (B)

28. ‘Hurthle cells’ are seen in

(A) Agranulomatous Thyroiditis 

(B) Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis 

(C) Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid 

(D) Thyroglossal cyst 

Answer: (B)

29. Paget’s disease of the nipple is treated by

(A) Radiotherapy 

(B) Radical mastectomy

(C) Biopsy and simple mastectomy 

(D) Chemotherapy

Answer: (C)

30. The commonest pre-malignant condition of oral cancer is

(A) Leukoplakia

(B) Aphthous ulcer

(C) Lichen planus 

(D) Erythro-leukoplakia 

Answer: (A)

31.Which of the following is TURE and Zeker’s diverticulum

(A) It is asymptomatic

(B) Occurs in the mid-esophagus 

(C) Treatment is simple excision 

(D) It occurs in children 

Answer: (C)

32. The best prognosis in carcinoma stomach is with

(A) Superficial spreading type 

(B) Ulcerative type 

(C) Linitis plastica type 

(D) Polypoidal fungating type 

Answer: (A)

33. Distended abdomen in intestinal obstruction is mainly due to

(A) Diffusion of gas from blood 

(B) Fermentation of residual food 

(C) Bacterial action 

(D) Swallowed air 

Answer: (D)

34. The following are important in maintenance of normal fecal continence except

(A) Anorectal angulation 

(B) Rectal innervation 

(C) Internal sphincter 

(D) Haustral valve 

Answer: (D)

35. Kehr sign seen in splenic injury is

(A) Pain over left shoulder 

(B) Pain over right shoulder 

(C) Pain over renal angle 

(D) Pain over pera-umbilical region 

Answer: (A)

36. ‘Carcot’s triad’s is

(A) Fever, pain, vomiting 

(B) Fever, stone, jaundice 

(C) Fever, pain, jaundice 

(D) Gall stone, vomiting-jaundice 

Answer: (C)

37. Which of the following is the preferred treatment modality for annual pancreas

(A) Whipple’s operation 

(B) Duodeno-jejunostomy 

(C) Gastro-jejunostomy 

(D) Jejuno-cystostomy 

Answer: (B)

38. Which of the following is true about renal trauma

(A) Urgent IVP is indicated 

(B) Exploration of the kidney to be done in all cases 

(C) Lumbar approach to kidney is preferred 

(D) Renal artery aneurysm is common 

Answer: (A)

39. A symptom of medullary sponge kidney disease is

(A) Nocturia

(B) Anemia

(C) Azotemia

(D) UTI

Answer: (D)

40. Most common content in ‘Hernia on glissade’ is

(A) Omentum

(B) Urinary bladder 

(C) Caecum

(D) Sigmoid colon 

Answer: (D)

41. Secondaries of all the following cause osterolytic lesions except

(A) Prostate

(B) Kidney

(C) Bronchus

(D) Thyroid

Answer: (A)

42. The most common site of enlargement of the lymph nodes in Hodgkin’s lymphoma is

(A) Mediastinal

(B) Axillary

(C) Cervical

(D) Abdominal

Answer: (C)

43. Extradural hematoma indicates rupture of

(A) Maxillary artery

(B) Middle meningeal artery

(C) Internal carotid artery 

(D) Ophthalmic artery 

Answer: (B)

44. In skull fracture, the condition in which an operation is not done immediately is

(A) Depressed fracture 

(B) Compound fracture 

(C) CSF leak 

(D) CSF leak 

Answer: (C)

45. Best treatment modality for Warthin’s tumor is

(A) Superficial parotidectomy 

(B) Radical parotidectomy 

(C) Radiotherapy

(D) Curettage

Answer: (A)

46. Which malignancy of parotid gland spreads through the neural sheath

(A) Adenoid cystic carcinoma 

(B) Adenocarcinoma

(C) Pleomorphic adenoma with malignant change 

(D) Sarcoma

Answer: (A)

47. The most common presentation of endemic goiter is

(A) Hypothyroid

(B) Diffuse goiter

(C) Hyperthyroid

(D) Solitary nodule

Answer: (B)

48. Which type of thyroid carcinoma has the best prognosis

(A) Papillary Ca 

(B) Anaplastic Ca 

(C) Follicular Ca 

(D) Medullary Ca 

Answer: (A)

49. Most probable malignancy that develops in a case of long-standing goiter is

(A) Follicular Ca 

(B) Anaplastic Ca 

(C) Papillary Ca 

(D) Medullary Ca 

Answer: (A)

50. All the following are true of DeQuervan’s Thyroiditis except

(A) Pain

(B) Increased ESR 

(C) Increased radioactive iodine uptake 

(D) Fever

Answer: (C)

51. The treatment of choice in Duct papilloma of the breast is

(A) Simple mastectomy 

(B) Microdochectomy

(C) Local wide excision 

(D) Chemotherapy

Answer: (B)

52. Mondor’s disease is

(A) Thrombophlebitis of the Superficial veins of Breast 

(B) Carcinoma of the breast 

(C) Premalignant condition of the breast 

(D) Filariasis of the breast 

Answer: (A)

53. Which histological variant of breast carcinoma is multicentric and bilateral

(A) Ductal Ca 

(B) Lobular Ca 

(C) Mucoid Ca 

(D) Colloid Ca 

Answer: (B)

54. Multiple painfull ulcers on tongue are seen in all except

(A) Aphthous ulcers 

(B) Tuberculous ulcers 

(C) Herpes ulcers 

(D) Carcinomatous ulcers 

Answer: (D)

55. Which neo-adjuvant chemotherapy is used in Esophageal carcinoma

(A) Cisplatin

(B) Cyclophosphamide

(C) Doxorubicin

(D) Methotrexate

Answer: (A)

56. Best substitute of esophagus after esophagectomy is

(A) Stomach

(B) Jejunum

(C) Left colon

(D) Right colon

Answer: (A)

57. All the following are true about Meckel’s diverticulum except

(A) Bleeding

(B) Intussusception

(C) Arises at the mesenteric border 

(D) Located 60 cm from the cecal valve 

Answer: (C)

58. The most common cause of small intestinal obstruction is

(A) Intussuception

(B) Iatrogenic adhesions 

(C) Trauma

(D) Carcinoma

Answer: (B)

59. Commonest tumor of the small intestine is

(A) Leiomyoma

(B) Lymphoma

(C) Adenocarcinoma

(D) Hemangioma

Answer: (A)

60. Meconium ileus can be caused by

(A) Fibrocystic disease of the pancreas 

(B) Liver aplasia 

(C) Cirrhosis of the liver 

(D) Malnutrition

Answer: (A)

61. All of the following are removed in Whipple’s operation except

(A) Duodenum

(B) Head of pancreas 

(C) Portal vein 

(D) Common bile duct 

Answer: (C)

62. Lithogenic bile has the following properties

(A) ↑ Bile and Cholesterol ratio 

(B) ↓ Bile and cholesterol ratio 

(C) Equal bile and cholesterol ratio 

(D) ↓ Cholesterol only 

Answer: (B)

63. Stone formation in Gall bladder is enhanced by all except

(A) Clofibrate therapy 

(B) Ilial resection

(C) Cholestyramine therapy 

(D) Vagal stimulation 

Answer: (D)

64. Which of the following does not predispose to Cholangiocarcinoma

(A) Ulcerative colitis 

(B) Clonorchis sinensis 

(C) Choledochal cyst 

(D) Chronic pancreatitis 

Answer: (D)

65. Charcot’s triad includes all of the following except

(A) Pain

(B) Fever

(C) Jaundice

(D) Vomiting

Answer: (D)

66. Triad of Renal colic, Swelling in loin which disappears after passing urine is called

(A) Kocher’s triad 

(B) Saint’s triad 

(C) Dietel’s crisis 

(D) Charcot’s triad 

Answer: (C)

67. Splenectomy is most useful in

(A) Sickle cell anemia 

(B) Thallassemia

(C) Hereditary spherocytosis 

(D) Acquired auto ammonia hemolytic anemia 

Answer: (C)

68. An absolute contraindication for IVP is

(A) Allergy to the drug 

(B) Multiple myeloma 

(C) Blood urea > 200 mg 

(D) Renal tumor 

Answer: (A)

69. True about Acute Epididymitis is

(A) Associated with urinary infection 

(B) Paintless

(C) Scrotum size is reduced

(D) Clinically does not mimic torsion of testes

Answer: (A)

70. Which type of haemangioma resolves spontaneously :

(A) Port wine stain 

(B) Strawberry angioma 

(C) Cavernous angioma 

(D) Plexiform angioma 

Answer: (B)

71. True statement for axial flap is :

(A) Carries its own vessels within it 

(B) Kept in limb 

(C) Transverse flap 

(D) Carries its own nerve in it 

Answer: (A)

72. All of the following statements about malignant melanoma are true except :

(A) Prognosis is better in female than in male 

(B) Acral lentiginous melanoma carrier a good prognosis 

(C) Stage IIA shows satellite deposits 

(D) Most common type is superficial spreading melanoma 

Answer: (B)

73. Carcinoma of buccal mucosa commonly drain to the following lymph node sites

(A) Sub mental 

(B) Sub mandibular 

(C) Supraclavicular 

(D) Cervical

Answer: (B)

74. Treatment of pleomorphic adenoma of parotid is

(A) Superfacial parodictomy 

(B) Radical removal 

(C) Deep lobe removal 

(D) Total removal 

Answer: (A)

75. Lymphnode metastasis is common feature with the following variant of soft tissue sarcoma :

(A) Fibrosarcoma

(B) Angiosarcoma

(C) Liposarcoma

(D) Neurofibrosarcoma

Answer: (B)

76. MEN-II is seen with the following type of thyroid carcinoma :

(A) Papillary

(B) Medullary

(C) anaplastic

(D) Follicular

Answer: (B)

77. Screening method for medullary carcinoma thyroid is :

(A) Serum calcitonin 

(B) S. calcium 

(C) S. alkaline phosphate 

(D) S. acid phosphatase 

Answer: (A)

78. All of the following are required for visualization of gall bladder in an oral cholecystogram except :

(A) Motor mechanism of gall bladder 

(B) Patency of cystic duct 

(C) Ability to absorb water 

(D) Functioning hepatocytes 

Answer: (A)

79. Most common site of gall stone impactation is

(A) Duedenojejunal junction 

(B) Proximal to ileocaecal junction

(C) Distal to ileocaecal junction 

(D) Colon

Answer: (B)

80. The treatment of choice for silent stones in Gall bladder is

(A) Observation

(B) Chenodeoxy cholic acid 

(C) Cholecytectomy

(D) Lithotripsy

Answer: (A)

81. All of the following are known predesposing factors for cholangiocarcinoma except :

(A) CBD stones 

(B) Clonorchis sinensis 

(C) Ulcerative colitis 

(D) Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Answer: (A)

82. All of the following statements about Pseudopancreatic cysts are true except :

(A) Percutaneous aspiration is treatment of choice

(B) Cystojejunostomy is treatment of choice 

(C) Serum amylase levels are increased 

(D) Presents as an epigastric mass 

Answer: (A)

83. True statements about congeniatal megacolon include all of the following except :

(A) Dilatation & hyper trophy of pelvic colon 

(B) Loud borborygmi 

(C) Symptoms appear with in 3 days following birth 

(D) Large stool 

Answer: (D)

84. All of the following are features of exstrophy of the bladder except :

(A) Epispadias

(B) Cloacal membrane is present 

(C) Posterior b ladder wall protrudes through the defects 

(D) Umblical and inguinal hernia 

Answer: (B)

85. Best indication for ‘Testicular biopsy in a male is

(A) Polysperamia

(B) Oligopermia

(C) Necrospermia

(D) Azoospermia

Answer: (D)

86. All of the following statements regarding bronchial cysts are true except :

(A) Seen in mediastinum 

(B) 50-70% occur in lung 

(C) Are Commonly infected

(D) Multilocular

Answer: (D)

87. Orthobaric oxygen is used in :

(A) CO poisoning 

(B) Ventilation failure 

(C) Anerobic infection 

(D) Gangrene

Answer: (A)

88. Most common cancer in India :

(A)  CA cervix

(B)  CA breast

(C)  CA lung

(D) CA oral cavity

Answer: (D)

89. Clinical features of fracture of Zygomatic bone include all of the following except :

(A) Diplopia

(B) Trismus

(C) Bleeding

(D) C.S.F. rhinorrhea 

Answer: (D)

90. β2 microglobulin is a marker for prognosis in

(A) SLE

(B) Multiple myeloma 

(C) AIDS

(D) AIDS

Answer: (B)

91. Increased acetyl cholinesterase enzyme is seen in :

(A) Neural tube defects 

(B) Diaphrgmatic hernia 

(C) Cardiac difect 

(D) Oesophgeal atresia 

Answer: (A)

92. Spontaneous regression is seen in :

(A) Portwine haemangioma 

(B) Strawberry haemangioma 

(C) Cavernous haemangioma

(D) Arterial angioma 

Answer: (B)

93. Following tumour may regress spontaneously except

(A) Retinoblastoma

(B) Malignant melanoma

(C) Osteosarcoma

(D) Choricoarcinoma

Answer: (C)

94. Treatment of choice of warthiin’s tumour is :

(A) Superficial paroidectomy 

(B) Excision 

(C) Radiotherapy

(D) Chemotherapy

Answer: (A)

95. Cleft palate is ideally repaired at :

(A) 5 month of age 

(B) 1 year of age 

(C) Before going to school 

(D) 6-8 years of age 

Answer: (B)

96. Hyoid bone is closely associated with :

(A) Bronchiogenic cyst 

(B) Cystic hygroma 

(C) Thyroglossal cyst/fistula 

(D) Branchial cyst 

Answer: (C)

97. In hand injury firs structure to be repaired should be :

(A) Skin

(B) Nerve

(C) Muscle

(D) Bone

Answer: (A)

98. All may be seen in deep burns except :

(A) Hyperthermia

(B) Increase vascular permeability

(C) Fluidloss by evoperation 

(D) Vasodilatation

Answer: (A)

99. Following drug lowers intracranial pressure except

(A) Mannitol infusion

(B) Furesemide

(C) Corticosteroids

(D) None

Answer: (D)

100. Bony metastasis is common with all of the following except :

(A) CA breast 

(B) CA lung 

(C) CA testis 

(D) CA prostate 

Answer: (C)

101. In soft tissue sarcoma the prognosis depends best upon :

(A) Site of tumour 

(B) Site of tumour 

(C) Size of tumour 

(D) Lymphadenopathy 

Answer: (B)

102. In breast carcinoma metastasis, prognosis depends best upon :

(A) Extrogen receptor status 

(B) Axillary lymphnode status 

(C) Size of tumour 

(D) Site of tumour 

Answer: (A)

103. The risk factor for increased incidence relapse in stage I, carcinoma breast includes all except :

(A) -ve estrogen / progesterone receptor status 

(B) High ‘s’ phase 

(C) Aneuploidy

(D) Decreased Her-2/neu oncogene 

Answer: (D)

104. Best prognosis amongst the following histoligical variants of breast carcinoma is seen with :

(A) Intraductal

(B) Colloid

(C) Lobular

(D) Ductal

Answer: (A)

105. Treatment of choice in duct papilloma of breast is :

(A) Simple mastectomy 

(B) Microdochectomy

(C) Local wide excision 

(D) Chemotherapy

Answer: (B)

106. Gyancomastia may be seen in all of the following conditions except :

(A) Klinefelter syndrome 

(B) Cirrhosis of liver 

(C) Cryptorchidism 

(D) Sexcordtumour of sertoli cells 

Answer: (C)

107. Adenocarcinoma of esophagus is commonly found in :

(A) Achlasia acardia 

(B) Barret’s oesophagus 

(C) Plummer Vinson syndrome 

(D) Chronic smoking 

Answer: (B)

108. Short bowel syndrome is characterized by all of the following except :

(A) Diarrhoea

(B) Weight loss 

(C) Steatorrhoea

(D) Hypogastrinemia

Answer: (D)

109. A patient was operated for colonic carcinoma and later a solitary nodule was found in the liver Treatment of choice is :

(A) Surgery

(B) Radiation

(C) Chemotherapy

(D) Conservative treatment 

Answer: (A)

110. All are ture about pseudopancreatic cyst of pancreas except :

(A) Common after acute pancreatitis 

(B) Presents as an abdominal mass 

(C) Serum amylase is increased 

(D) Most common site is in head of pancreas 

Answer: (D)

111. Meconium ileus is associated with :

(A) Fibrocystic disease of pancreas 

(B) Liver aplasia 

(C) Cirrhosis of liver 

(D) Malnutrition 

Answer: (A)

112. Commonest cause of surgical obstructive jaundice is :

(A) CBD stone 

(B) Sclerosing cholongitis 

(C) Carcinoma of liver 

(D) Chromic cholecystitis 

Answer: (A)

113. Medical treatment for gall bladder stone is amenable for :

(A) Stones less than 15 mm in size 

(B) Radioopaque stone 

(C) Calcium bilirubinate oxalate stone 

(D) Nonfunctioning stones associated with gall bladder 

Answer: (A)

114. Commonest presentation of primary biliary cirrhosis

(A) Prurtitis

(B) Pain

(C) Pain

(D) Fever

Answer: (A)

115. Gall bladder stone formation in influenced by A/E

(A) Clofibrate therapy 

(B) Clofibrate therapy 

(C) Primary biliary cirrhosis 

(D) Hypercholesterolemia 

Answer: (D)

116. Features of hypospaedias are all except :

(A) Chordae

(B) Hooded prepuce 

(C) No-treatment required with glandular veriety 

(D) Cryptorchidism

Answer: (D)

117. Ureter is diagnosed during operation by :

(A) Venous plexus 

(B) High arterial supply 

(C) Peristaltic movements 

(D) Circumferance 

Answer: (C)

118. Varicocele is common on left testis because :

(A) Left testicular vein drains into IVC which has high pressure 

(B) Left testicular vein drains into leftrenal vein which has high pressure 

(C) Left lestis is lower situated 

(D) Compression of testicular vein by rectum 

Answer: (B)

119. Commonest site of peptic ulcer is :

(A) Ist part of Duodenum 

(B) IInd part duodenum 

(C) Distal 1/3 of stomach 

(D) Pylorus of the stomach 

Answer: (A)

120. Common sites for cushing ulcers include all of the following except :

(A) Esophagus

(B) Stomach

(C) Ist part of duodenum

(D) Distal duodenum

Answer: (D)

121. Metabolic changes associated with excessive vomiting includes the following:

(A) Metabolic acidosis 

(B) Hyperchloremia

(C) Hypokalemia

(D) Decreases bicarbonates 

Answer: (C)

122. Dumping syndrome is due to :

(A) Diarrhoea

(B) Presence of hypertonic content in small intestine 

(C) Vagotomy

(D) Reduced gastric capacity 

Answer: (B)

123. Most common site for impaction of gell stones in gall stone lieus is :

(A) Ist part of duodenum 

(B) IInd part of duodenum 

(C) Terminal ileum 

(D) Colon

Answer: (C)

124. Pyoderma-gangrenosum is most commonly associated with :

(A) Ulcerative colitis 

(B) Crohns disease 

(C) Amoebic colitis 

(D) Ischemic colitis 

Answer: (A)

125. Colvesical fistula most commonly arises from :

(A) Crohn’s disease 

(B) Ulcerative colitis 

(C) Carcinoma colon 

(D) Abdomino-perineal resection 

Answer: (A)

126. Anchovy sauce pus is a feature of :

(A) Amoebic liver abscess

(B) Lung abscess 

(C) Splenic abscess 

(D) Splenic abscess 

Answer: (A)

127. Most common cause of pseudopancreatic cyst in children is:

(A) Chloledochal cyst 

(B) Annular pancreas 

(C) Drug induced pancreatitis

(D) Traumatic pancreatitis 

Answer: (D)

128. Which of the following causes least irritation of the peritoneal cavity :

(A) Bile

(B) Blood

(C) Gastric enzyme 

(D) Pancreatic enzyme 

Answer: (B)

129. Most common type of Intussusception is :

(A) Ilio-colic 

(B) Ilio-ileal 

(C) Colo-colic 

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

130. 1 year After cholecystectomy, a patient presented with 2.5 cm size stone in CBD, Treatment of choice is :

(A) Choledocholithotomy with T-tube drainage ment 

(B) Supraduodenal choledochotomy with exploration 

(C) Trans duodenal choledochojejunostony with spincturoplasty 

(D) Endoscopic sphincterotomy with stone extraction 

Answer: (D)

131. Spigelian hernia is seen in :

(A) Lumbar triangle 

(B) Subumblical region 

(C) Paraumblical region 

(D) Supraumblical region 

Answer: (B)

132. A 9 year boy presented with abdominal pain and recurrent UTI, IVP reveales duplication of left ureter. The most likely site of ectopic opening would be :

(A) Prostatic urethra 

(B) Ejaculatory duct

(C) Seminal vesicle 

(D) Vas-deference 

Answer: (A)

133. A 6 week neonate presented with undescended testes on the right side and normal testes on left side. The treatment of choice would be :

(A) Orchipexy at 2 years 

(B) Immediately

(C) 5 year age before going to school 

(D) Puberty 

Answer: (A)

134. Treatment of extragonadal germ cell tumour is :

(A) Chemotherapy

(B) Radiotherapy

(C) Surgery

(D) Immunotherapy

Answer: (A)

135. A 60 year diabetic & hypertensive male with second grade prostatism admitted for prostatectomy developed myocardial infarction. Treatment now would be :

(A) Finasteride

(B) Radiotherapy

(C) Surgery

(D) Immunotherapy

Answer: (B)

136. A 55 year old diabetic patient presented with impotence with history of failure to get erection after papaverine intracavernous injection. Colour Doppler shows no. abnormality of arteries but shows mold venous run-off, Treatment of choice here would be :

(A) Intracavernous injection of papaverine 

(B) Penile prosthetic implants 

(C) Vacuum constriction device 

(D) Psychotherapy

Answer: (C)

137. A 25 year old married male presents with infertility. He had undergone retroperitoneal lymphnode dissection at age of 15 years for embryonal carcinoma of right testis. Semen analysis shows-quantity-0.5 ml, no. sperm, no fructose. Biopsy of testis shows normal spermato genesis. best treatment here would be :

(A) Artificial insemination of donor 

(B) Penile-prosthesis 

(C) Microtestcular aspiration and intracyto plasmic injection 

(D) None of the above 

Answer: (C)

138. Which of the following carcinomas is familial :

(A) Breast

(B) Prostate

(C) Cervix

(D) Vaginal

Answer: (A)

139. Commonest cause of pulmonary embolism is

(A) Thrombosis of leg veins 

(B) Thrombosis of prostatic veins 

(C) IVC thrombosis 

(D) Thrombosis of internal pudendal artery 

Answer: (A)

140. CABG is done for all of the following indications except :

(A) To reduces symptoms 

(B) To prevent further catastrophics 

(C) To prolong life 

(D) To prevent progress of native blood vessel disease 

Answer: (D)

141. Commonest presentation of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is

(A) Painless enlargement of lymphnode 

(B) Pruritis

(C) Fever

(D) Leuocytosis

Answer: (A)

142. A 50 year old man presented with 3 moth history of right sided cervical lymphnode enlargements. The best investigation to establish the diagnosis in this case would be :

(A) FNAC

(B) X-ray 

(C) Tuberaulin test 

(D) Lymph-node biopsy 

Answer: (D)

143. Ainhum is seen in :

(A) base of great toe 

(B) Base of fingers tips 

(C) Base of toe 

(D) Ankle

Answer: (C)

144. Renal collar which surrounds the aorta has its two limbs split by :

(A) Left renal vein 

(B) Left renal artery 

(C) Isthumus of horsechoe kidney 

(D) All of the above 

Answer: (A)

145. A lady presented with VVF due to prolong labour one year back, on examination ectopic opening is found on the interuretic bar close to the opening of right ureter. Treatment of choice is :

(A) Transvaginal repair of VVF 

(B) Transvesical VVF repair 

(C) Transperitoneal trans fistula repair with reimplantation of right ureter 

(D) All the above 

Answer: (C)

146. Commonest cancer in burn scar is:

(A) Sq. cell Ca 

(B) Fibrosarcoma 

(C) Adeno Ca 

(D) Adeno-squamous Ca 

Answer: (A)

147. In hepatocellular carcinoma, factor important is :

(A) Alcoholic hepatitis 

(B) Schistomiasis

(C) Cirrhosis

(D) Fasciolepsis buski infestation 

Answer: (C)

148. Precancerous condition of Ca stomach is:

(A) Peptic ulcer 

(B) Chronic gastric atrophy 

(C) Achalasia cardia 

(D) Curling’s ulcer

Answer: (B)

149. Definitive treatment of sigmoid volvulus is:

(A) Surgical correction 

(B) Colectomy

(C) Enema

(D) Endoscopic correction 

Answer: (A)

150. Most common malignancy affecting spleen is:

(A) Angiosarcoma

(B) Hamartoma

(C) Secondaries

(D) Lymphoma

Answer: (D)

151. What is more appropriate for diagnosis of CBD stones :

(A) Ultrasonography 

(B) ERCP

(C) OCG

(D) IV cholangiography 

Answer: (B)

152. Most common tumor of urinary bladder is:

(A) Sq. cell carcinoma 

(B) Adeno carcinoma 

(C) Transitional carcinoma 

(D) Str. squamous carcinoma 

Answer: (C)

153. Deep vein thrombosis is best diagnosed by:

(A) Plethysmography

(B) Duplex ultrasound 

(C) Radionuclide scan 

(D) CT scan 

Answer: (B)

154. Anal carcinoma is most commonly carcinoma of type

(A) Adeno carcinoma 

(B) Epidermoid

(C) Mixed

(D) None of the above 

Answer: (B)

155. Most common cause of acute intestinal obstruction:

(A) Adhesions

(B) Carcinoma

(C) Int. hernia 

(D) Lymphoma

Answer: (A)

156. Treatment of annular pancreas is:

(A) Excision of head of pancreas 

(B) Duodeno Jejunostomy 

(C) Excision of tail of pancreas 

(D) Any of the above 

Answer: (B)

157. Bilateral pulseless disease in upper limbs in caused by

(A) Aortoarteritis

(B) Coarctation of aorta 

(C) Fibromuscular dysplsia 

(D) Buerger’s disease 

Answer: (A)

158. Most favorable prognosis after radiotherapy is in:

(A) Melanoma

(B) Teratoma

(C) Seminoma

(D) Desmoid

Answer: (C)

159. In severe injury, first to be maintained is:

(A) Hypotension

(B) Dehydration

(C) Airway

(D) Cardiac status 

Answer: (C)

160. After splenectomy, most common infection is:

(A) Pneumococcus

(B) Staphylococcus

(C) Esch. coli 

(D) Pneumocystis carinii 

Answer: (A)

161. Duplication of GIT most commonly involves:

(A) Esophagus

(B) Stomach

(C) Duodenum

(D) IIeum

Answer: (D)

162. A patient comes with single thyroid nodule initial investigation of choice is:

(A) FNAC

(B) Thyroid function test 

(C) Radio nuclide scan 

(D) MRI

Answer: (A)

163. Absence of myenteric ganglion is seen in:

(A) Crohn’s disease 

(B) Ulcerative colitis 

(C) Hirschsprung’s disease 

(D) Intussuception

Answer: (C)

164. Blood stained discharge from nipple is indicative of

(A) Intra alveolar papilloma 

(B) Duct ectasia 

(C) Paget’s disease 

(D) Lobular Ca 

Answer: (B)

165. For prophylaxis of deep vein thrombosis used is:

(A) Warfarin

(B) Heparin

(C) Pneumatic shock garment 

(D) Graded stoking 

Answer: (B

166. Cervical lymph node involvement in papillary ca thyroid, best treatment is:

(A) Radio active iodine 

(B) Chemotherapy 

(C) Radical neck dissection 

(D) Steroid

Answer: (A)

167. In dysphagia lusoria true is:

(A) Esophagela web 

(B) Aberrant vessels 

(C) Oesophageal stricture 

(D) Oesophageal carcinoma 

Answer: (B)

168. In retrosternal goiter, most common presenting feature is:

(A) Dysphagia

(B) Stridor

(C) Dyspnoea

(D) Sup. vena caval syndrome 

Answer: (C)

169. Commonest artery for cannulation is:

(A) Radial

(B) Ulnar

(C) Brachial

(D) Cubital

Answer: (A)

170. Dermoid arises from:

(A) Pluripotent cell 

(B) Totipotent cell 

(C) Ectoderm

(D) Mesoderm

Answer: (B)

171. Investigation of choice in upper GI bleeding is:

(A) Ba swallow 

(B) X-ray 

(C) Endoscopy

(D) Ultrasound

Answer: (C)

172. Antenatal double bubble appearance on ultrasound is due to:

(A) Diaphragmatic hernia 

(B) Duodenal atresia 

(C) Volvulus

(D) Intussusception

Answer: (B)

173. Earliest feature of sudden increase in ICT in infant is

(A) Boggy swelling of fontanelle

(B) Papilloedema

(C) Paralysis

(D) Seizures

Answer: (B)

174. In pyloric stenosis, true is:

(A) Hypochloremic hyponatermic metabolic alkalosis with acidic urine 

(B) Hypochloremic hyponatremic metabolic alkalosis with alkaline urine

(C) Hypochloremic hyponatremic metabolic acidosis 

(D) Hyperchloremic hyponatremic metabolic acidosis 

Answer: (A)

175. Most common neoplasm of adrenal medulla is:

(A) Pheochromocytoma 

(B) Neurofibroma

(C) Neuroblastoma

(D) Adenocarcinoma

Answer: (A)

176. All are true about cancrum oris except:

(A) Associated with malnutrition and vitamin deficiency 

(B) Follows chronic infection 

(C) Involves jaw 

(D) Treatment is excision and skin grafting with tubed pedicle graft 

Answer: (C)

177. Regarding pectus excavatum all are true except:

(A) Gross CVS dysfunction

(B) Decrease in lung capacity 

(C) Cosmetic deformity 

(D) Depression in chest 

Answer: (A)

178. What is intussuscepiens :

(A) The entire complex of intussuception 

(B) The entering layer 

(C) The outer layer 

(D) The process of reducing the intussusception 

Answer: (C)

179. Which is not used in carcinoma prostate

(A) Estrogen

(B) Progesterone

(C) Cyproterone acetate 

(D) Flutamide

Answer: (B)

180. True about mesenteric cysts is:

(A) Enterogenous cyst is commonest type 

(B) Recurrence is common after enucleation 

(C) Mensentric cyst are usually multiple 

(D) Encleation is the treatment of choice of chylolymphatic cyst 

Answer: (D)

181. Cystoscopic findings in TB bladder are all except

(A) Cobblestone mucosa 

(B) Thimble bladder 

(C) Golf hole ureter 

(D) Whitish efflux form the ureteric holes 

Answer: (D)

182. Rx of congen, pyloric stenosis:

(A) Pyloromyotomy

(B) Gastroileostomy

(C) Gastrojejunostomy

(D) Vagotomy

Answer: (A)

183. Whipples triad is seen in:

(A) Islet cell tumour 

(B) Ca head pancreas 

(C) Argentaffinoma

(D) Cholangicarcinoma

Answer: (A)

184. Hypersplenism is seen in

(A) Pancytopenia

(B) Thrombocytopenia

(C) Leukopenia

(D) Polycythemia

Answer: (A)

185. Pseudolymphoma is seen in:

(A) Sjogren’s syndrome 

(B) SLE

(C) Mixed connective tissue disease 

(D) Behcet’s syndrome 

Answer: (A)

185. Pseudolymphoma is seen in:

(A) Sjogren’s syndrome 

(B) SLE

(C) Mixed connective tissue disease 

(D) Behcet’s syndrome 

Answer: (A)

186. Paget’s disease of breast following are true except:

(A) Treated by simple mastectomy 

(B) Represents underlying malignancy 

(C) Presents as eczema 

(D) Cytology diagnostic 

Answer: (D)

187. DVT, investigation of choice is:

(A) Doppler

(B) Plethysmography

(C) Venography

(D) X-ray 

Answer: (A)

188. Renal transplantation is most commonly done in:

(A) Chr. glomerulonephritis 

(B) Bilateral staghorn calculus 

(C) Horse shoe kidney 

(D) Oxalosis 

Answer: (A)

189. In pneumoperitoneum following are seen except:

(A) Hypertension

(B) Bradycardia

(C) Tachycardia

(D) Hypercapnia

Answer: (B)

190. In normal pressure hydrocephalus seen are all except:

(A) Convulsion

(B) Ataxia

(C) Dementia

(D) Incontinence

Answer: (A)

191. In gastrectomy following occurs except:

(A) Calcium deficiency

(B) Steatorrhoea

(C) Fe. deficiency 

(D) Fluid loss 

Answer: (D)

192. Lymphovenous anastomosis is done for:

(A) Filarial lymphoedema 

(B) Lymphoid cyst 

(C) Cystic hygroma 

(D) Malignant lymphoedema 

Answer: (A)

193. Radial nerve palsy causes:

(A) Claw hand 

(B) Wrist drop 

(C) Policeman’s tip deformity 

(D) Carpal tunnel syndrome 

Answer: (B)

194. Shock is clinically best assessed by:

(A) Urine output 

(B) CVP

(C) BP

(D) Hydration

Answer: (B)

195. Opsomyoclonus is seen in:

(A) Neuroblastoma

(B) Meningioma

(C) Medulloblastoma

(D) Wilms tumour 

Answer: (A)

196. In arterial injury following should be done except:

(A) Thrombectomy

(B) End-end anastomosis

(C) Ligation

(D) Venous graft 

Answer: (A)

197. Commonest site of ischemic colitis

(A) Splenic flexure 

(B) Transverse colon 

(C) Hepatic flexure 

(D) Ileocaecal junction 

Answer: (A)

198. Ulcerative colitis progressing to malignancy is characterized by following except:

(A) Risk increases with the time 

(B) Prognosis worsens 

(C) Prognosis depends on period 

(D) Forms pseudopolyps 

Answer: (D)

199. Mallory weiss syndrome in partial thickness rupture occurs at:

(A) Gastric cardia 

(B) Oesophatus mucosa 

(C) Gastro oesophageal junction 

(D) Gastroduodenal junction 

Answer: (C)

200. IVC filter is used in following except:

(A) Massive emboli 

(B) Negligible size of emboli 

(C) Repeated emboli 

(D) None

Answer: (B)

201. In pulmonary embolism, fibrinolytic therapy is responsible for

(A) Risk of haemorrhage 

(B) Prognosis good 

(C) Massive emboli 

(D) All of the above 

Answer: (A)

202. True about marjolins ulcer is:

(A) Ulcer over scar 

(B) Rapid growth 

(C) Rodent ulcer 

(D) Painful

Answer: (A)

203. Cork screw oesophagus is seen in:

(A) Diffuse oesophageal spasm 

(B) Achalasia cardia 

(C) Ca. oesophagus 

(D) Pulsion diverticulum 

Answer: (A)

204. Valvoplasty done in following except:

(A) Coarctation of aorta 

(B) PS

(C) MS

(D) AS

Answer: (A)

205. In AIDS, lymphadenopathy is most often due to:

(A) TB

(B) Lymphoma

(C) None specific enlargement of lymph node 

(D) Kaposi’s sacroma 

Answer: (C)

206. Esthesio neuroblastoma arises from

(A) Olfactory N 

(B) Maxillary N 

(C) Ophtalmic N 

(D) Nasociliary N 

Answer: (A)

207. Inverted “3” sign seen in:

(A) Ampullary Ca 

(B) Insulinoma

(C) Ca. head pancreas 

(D) Ca stomach 

Answer: (A)

208. Ca oesophagus is characterized by following except :

(A) Adenocarcinoma

(B) Middle 1/3 affected 

(C) Dysphagia is characteristic 

(D) Pernicious anemia often present 

Answer: (D)

209. Correct about diverticulosis is :

(A) Arise from diverticula of colon 

(B) Common in ileum 

(C) Protrusion of mucosa through muscular layers at point of blood vessel 

(D) All of the above 

Answer: (C)

210. Diagnostic procedure for basal cell ca :

(A) WEDGE biopsy 

(B) Shave

(C) Incisional biopsy 

(D) Punch biopsy 

Answer: (A)

211. Most haemorrhagic tumor is :

(A) Leiomyosarcoma stomach 

(B) Ca stomach 

(C) Adeno Ca GB 

(D) Ca pancreas 

Answer: (A)

212. In pancoast tumor, following is seen except:

(A) Horner’s syndrome 

(B) Rib erosion 

(C) Haemoptysis

(D) Pain in shoulder and arm 

Answer: (C)

213. Treatment of ruptured pneumo-peritoneum, as a result off colonscopy in a young patient is :

(A) Temporary colostomy 

(B) Closure + lavage 

(C) Permanent colostomy 

(D) Symptomatic

Answer: (B)

214. Opsomyoclonus is encountered as C/F of :

(A) Meningioma

(B) Neuroblastoma

(C) Neurofirbomatosis

(D) Excision

Answer: (B)

215. In pigmented basal cell carcinoma, treatment of choice is :

(A) Chemotherapy

(B) Radiotherapy

(C) Cryosurgery

(D) Cryosurgery

Answer: (C)

216. True about TIPSS :

(A) It is type of portocaval shunt

(B) It is intrahepatic shunt 

(C) Performed by passing endoscopes 

(D) Most suitable for patient going for liver transplant 

Answer: (B)

217. Liver transplant is not possible for :

(A) Liver

(B) Pancreas

(C) Small intestine

(D) Cornea

Answer: (C)

218. Gold standard for reflux esophagitis is :

(A) Manometry

(B) Barium swallow 

(C) 24 hours pH study 

(D) X-ray abdomen 

Answer: (C)

219. Metastasis in thyroid gland come most commonly from carcinoma of :

(A) Testis

(B) Prostate

(C) Breast

(D) Lungs

Answer: (C)

220. Most common presentation of intracranial aneurysm is :

(A) Coarctation of aorta 

(B) Systemic hypertension 

(C) Hypotension

(D) Intracranial haemorrhage 

Answer: (D)

221. About Ectopia vesicae, following is true except :

(A) CA bladder may occur 

(B) Ventral curvature of penis 

(C) Incontinence of urine 

(D) Visible uretero – vesical efflux 

Answer: (B)

222. Diagnosis of Hydatid disease is  by :

(A) Biopsy

(B) X-ray 

(C) Casoni test 

(D) Serum examination 

Answer: (A)

223. True about duplication of intestine is :

(A) Spherical type is MC 

(B) Tubular type is attached longitudinally with bowel 

(C) Spherical cyst communicates with lumen 

(D) All of the above 

Answer: (B)

224. Fluid levels are not visible in :

(A) Meconeum ileus 

(B) Intussusception

(C) Colon pouch 

(D) Duodenal obstruction 

Answer: (A)

225. Following are premalignant except :

(A) Tubulo villous adenoma 

(B) Hyperplastic polyp 

(C) Familial adenomatosis 

(D) Villous adenoma 

Answer: (B)

226. Following are premalignant except :

(A) Tubulo villous adenoma 

(B) Hyperplastic polyp 

(C) Familial adenomatosis 

(D) Villous adenoma 

Answer: (B)

227. During sclerotherapy (by endoscopy), following are complications except :

(A) Hepatic encephalopathy 

(B) Perforation

(C) Stenosis

(D) Fibrosis

Answer: (A)

228. In children MC type of polyp is :

(A) Juvenile poly 

(B) Solitary polyp 

(C) Familial polyposis 

(D) Multiple adenomatous polyp 

Answer: (A)

229. In ulcerative colitis, Ca arises from :

(A) Pseudopolyps 

(B) Dysplastic sites 

(C) Familial polyposis 

(D) Multiple adenomatous polyp

Answer: (B)

230. Extradural haematoma is associated with what % of severe trauma:

(A) 36% 

(B) 10% 

(C) 77% 

(D) 96% 

Answer: (B)

231. Absence of fructose in semen indicates :

(A) Obstruction of seminal vesicles 

(B) Obstruction at prostatic urethra 

(C) Vas deferens obstruction 

(D) Testicular failure 

Answer: ()

232. True about femoral hernia is:

(A) Occurs exclusively in females 

(B) Pregnancy is common cause 

(C) Doesn’t strangulate 

(D) In male associated with cryptorchidism 

Answer: (B)

233. Muscle not cut in posterolateral thoracotomy is:

(A) Serratus anterior 

(B) Lattisimus dorsi 

(C) Rhomboidus major 

(D) Pectoralis major 

Answer: (D)

234. Schatazki’s ring is:

(A) Mucosal ring at sq-columnar in 

(B) Muscular ring 

(C) Dysphagia is the symptom 

(D) Inflammatory structure 

Answer: (A)

235. What % of testicular Ca is associated with cryp torchidism:

(A) 10% 

(B) 30% 

(C) 70% 

(D) 90% 

Answer: (A)

236. Meningomyelocele patient after being operated developed hydrocephalus due to:

(A) Arnold chairi malformation 

(B) Injury to absorptive surface 

(C) Central canal injury 

(D) Arachnoidal block 

Answer: (A)

237. Hernia through foramen of bochdalek true is:

(A) Congenital hernia 

(B) In asymptomatic 

(C) Seen executive in males 

(D) Least common 

Answer: (A)

238. Left Ioin nephrectomy, Str. not cut is:

(A) Trapezius

(B) Seratus inf. post 

(C) Lat. dorsi 

(D) Internal oblique 

Answer: (A)

239. True about colonic organisms is :

(A) Distal ileum 10³ – 10⁵ org

(B) Colon 10¹⁰ – 10¹¹ org 

(C) First org in new born is coliforms and streptococcus 

(D) Chyme in jejunum contains many bacteria 

Answer: (B)

240. Peaud’ orange is due to:

(A) Skin involvement 

(B) Contraction of ligaments 

(C) Lymphatic permeation 

(D) Bacterial infection 

Answer: (C)

241. Ac. arterial ischemia, all are seen except:

(A) Pallor

(B) Rubor

(C) Pain 

(D) Paraesthesia

Answer: (B)

242. Nicoladoni branham sign is :

(A) Compression cause bradycardia 

(B) Compression cause tachycardia 

(C) Hypotension

(D) Systolic filling 

Answer: (A)

243. In Genitourinary TB, True is:

(A) Sterile pyurias consistent finding 

(B) AFB in early morning sample is always positive 

(C) MC site is pelvis 

(D) Commonest cause of pyelonephritis 

Answer: (A)

244. Investigation of choice hirschsprug’s disease is:

(A) Rectal manometry 

(B) Rectal examination 

(C) Rectal biopsy 

(D) Ba enema 

Answer: (C)

245. Major causes of distention in intestinal obstruction:

(A) Papillary Ca 

(B) Islet cell tumour 

(C) Pheochromocytoma 

(D) Glucagonoma

Answer: (C)

246. Major causes of distention in intestinal obstruction:

(A) Gas produced by coliform organism 

(B) Swallowed air 

(C) Diffuse from arterial surface 

(D) Not known 

Answer: (B)

247. Prolonged Post-op ileus is best treated by:

(A) Long tube insertion 

(B) Calcium pentothenate 

(C) Laporotomy and exploration 

(D) Peristaltic stimulants 

Answer: (C)

248. Fiberoptic endoscopy is contraindicated in:

(A) Children

(B) Aneurysm of arch of aorta 

(C) Cervical spondylosis 

(D) Hemoptysis

Answer: (B)

249. AV fistula causes:

(A) ↓Diastolic pressure 

(B) ↑enous return 

(C) ↓Venous congestion 

(D) ↑Systolic filling 

Answer: (B)

250. In testicular ca, investigation not done is:

(A) Aortography

(B) CT

(C) Biopsy

(D) Serum AFP 

Answer: (C)

251. Circumcission is included in management of Ca penis at:

(A) Glans

(B) Prepuce

(C) Glandulo prepucial 

(D) Shaft of penis 

Answer: (B)

252. The treatment of metastatic testicular carcinoma is :

(A) Bleomycin, Etoposide, Cisplatin 

(B) Vinblastine, Etoposide, Cisplatin 

(C) Doxorubicin, 5-FU mercaptopurine 

(D) Methotrexate, 5-FU, Vincristine 

Answer: (A)

253. Deficiency of the abdominal muscle is associated with :

(A) Eagle-Barrette syndrome 

(B) Christopher syndrome 

(C) Megacystitis 

(D) Megaureter 

Answer: (A)

254. The resting uretric pressure in mm :

(A) 5-7 

(B) 15 -30 

(C) 7-10 

(D) 0-5 

Answer: (B)

255. Which among the following is a feature of fracture of zygoma :

(A) Diplopia

(B) Epistaxis

(C) Bell’s palsy 

(D) Frey’s syndrome 

Answer: (A)

256. The commonest type of trachea-esophageal fistula is :

(A) Proximal end blind; distal end communicating with trachea 

(B) istal end; blind proximal and communicating with trachea 

(C) Both ends blind 

(D) Both ends open 

Answer: (A)

257. Which is not a feature of Dupuytren’s contracture:

(A) Recurrent trauma 

(B) Genetic predilection 

(C) Bilateral lesions rare 

(D) Seen equally in males and females 

Answer: (D)

258. Split skin graft can be applied over :

(A) Muscle

(B) Bone 

(C) Cartilage

(D) Eyelid

Answer: (A)

259. True about sliding esophageal hernia in all cases :

(A) Esophagus always short 

(B) Cardia goes through hiatus

(C) Cardia and fundus goes through hiatus 

(D) Peritoneal sac goes with paraesophageal hernia 

Answer: (B)

260. Burns with vesiculation, destruction of the epidermis and upper dermis is :

(A) 1st degree 

(B) 2nd degree 

(C) 3rd degree 

(D) 4th degree 

Answer: (B)

261. The most malignant form of malignant melanoma is :

(A) Nodular

(B) Hutchinson’s melanotic freckle 

(C) Lentigomaligna 

(D) Superficial spreading 

Answer: (A)

262. Uinlateral cleft lip is associated with :

(A) Posterior displacement of alar cartilage

(B) Columella elongated 

(C) Always cleft palate 

(D) Defective sucking 

Answer: (A)

263. Esophageal carcinoma is not predisposed by :

(A) Achalasia

(B) Scleroderma

(C) Corrosive intake

(D) Barret’s esophagus 

Answer: (B)

264. Meconium peritonitis occurs :

(A) Just before birth 

(B) Just after birth 

(C) Before and after birth 

(D) Due to birth trauma 

Answer: (C)

265. Not true about malignancy arising from Ulcerative colitis is :

(A) Takes atleast 10 years to develop

(B) Left sided is more common 

(C) Associated with dysplasia of the rest of the colon 

(D) Younger age of onset is associated with increased chance of carcinoma 

Answer: (B)

266. Blood loss during major surgery is best estimated by :

(A) Visual assessment 

(B) Suction bottles 

(C) Transesophageal USG Doppler 

(D) Cardiac output by thermodilution 

Answer: (B)

267. A foreign body completely obstructing the right main bronchus causes :

(A) Decreased ventilation perfusion ratio (VRF) 

(B) Increased ventilation in left lung 

(C) Perfusion doubles in right lung 

(D) Increased VF ratio in right lung

Answer: (A)

268. Least common site of lung abscess is :

(A) Left upper lobe 

(B) Left lower lobe 

(C) Right upper lobe 

(D) Right low lobe 

Answer: (A)

269. True regarding epispadias is :

(A) Always associated with dystrophy of bladder 

(B) Penile torsion 

(C) Common congenital anomaly 

(D) None of these 

Answer: (A)

270. Which is not a feature of pancreatic ascites :

(A) Low protein 

(B) Somatostatin is the drug of choice 

(C) Communication with pancreatic duct in 80%

(D) Raised amylase levels

Answer: (A)

271. Which is most malignant :

(A) Villous adenoma 

(B) Tubulovillous adenoma 

(C) Tubular adenoma 

(D) Familial polyposis 

Answer: (D)

272. In prostatic metastasis, the site most commonly involved is :

(A) Obturator nodes 

(B) Perivesical nodes 

(C) Pre-sacral nodes 

(D) Paraaortic nodes

Answer: (A)

273. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma of parotid arises from :

(A) Secretory cells 

(B) Excretory cells

(C) Myoepithelial cells 

(D) Myofibril

Answer: (A)

274. Erythma chronicum migrans is seen in :

(A) Lyme’s disease 

(B) Glucagonoma 

(C) Gastrinoma

(D) Phaeochromocytoma 

Answer: (A)

275. Which among the following is not pre-malignant :

(A) Ulcerative colitis 

(B) Peutz-jeghers syndrome 

(C) Villous adenoma 

(D) Familial adenomatoses polyopsis 

Answer: (B)

276. In extensive small bowel resection, all are seen except :

(A) Gastric hyposecretion 

(B) Decreased protein absorption 

(C) Decreased protein absorption 

(D) Oxalate stone increased 

Answer: (A)

277. The treatment of gall stone ileus is :

(A) Cholecystectomy alone 

(B) Removal of obstruction 

(C) Cholecystectomy, closure of fistula and removal of stone by enterotomy

(D) Cholecystectomy with closure of fistula 

Answer: (B)

278. Fecal soiling in children is most commonly due to :

(A) Hirschsprung’s disease 

(B) Chronic constipation 

(C) Rectal atresia 

(D) None of the above 

Answer: (B)

279. Tear-drop bladder is seen in :

(A) Tuberculosis

(B) Hunner’s ulcer

(C) Perivescial hemorrhage with rupture 

(D) Perivescial hemorrhage without rupture 

Answer: (C)

280. True about melanoma of the anal canal is :

(A) Presents usually as anal bleeding 

(B) AP resection gives better result than local excision 

(C) Local recurrence at the same site after resection 

(D) Radiosensitive

Answer: (A)

281. The CNS tumor present with calcification :

(A) Oligodendroglioma

(B) Astrocytoma

(C) Medulloblastoma

(D) Phaeochromocytoma 

Answer: (A)

282. The ideal treatment for hemothorax of  blood loss greater than 500 ml/hour:

(A) Wait and watch 

(B) Needle aspiration 

(C) Intercostal tube 

(D) Open thoracotomy with ligation of vessel 

Answer: (D)

283. Which among the following does not lead to pigment gallstones:

(A) TPN

(B) Clonorchis sinensis 

(C) Hemolytic anemia 

(D) Intercostal tube 

Answer: (A)

284. All are indicators of malingnancy in mammography except :

(A) Nodular calcification 

(B) Speckled margin 

(C) Attenuated architecture 

(D) Irregular mass 

Answer: (A)

285. Seminoma correspond to :

(A) Choriocarcinoma

(B) Dysgerminoma

(C) Granulosa tumor 

(D) Leutal cyst 

Answer: (B)

286. Placental alkaline phosphatase is marker of:

(A) Theca cell tumour 

(B) Teratoma

(C) Choriocarcinoma

(D) Seminoma

Answer: (D)

287. In hypospadias all are seen except:

(A) Hooded penis 

(B) Dorsal chordee 

(C) Spatulated glans 

(D) Meatal stenosis 

Answer: (B)

288. Epulis arises from:

(A) Epulis arises from:

(B) Root of teeth 

(C) Gingiva

(D) Pulp

Answer: (C)

289. All predisposes to oral cancer except :

(A) Erythroplakia

(B) Leukoplakia

(C) Submucosal fibrosis

(D) Lichen planus

Answer: (D)

290. About mallory weiss syndrome true is

(A) Gastrointestinal reflux 

(B) Obestiy

(C) Tumour at gastroesophageal junction 

(D) Seen in alcoholics 

Answer: (D)

291. Not included in charcot’s triad is:

(A) Fever with chills 

(B) Pain abdomen 

(C) Shock

(D) Jaundice

Answer: (C)

292. In non hemolytic jaundice, urobillinogen is seen in:

(A) Obstructive jaundice 

(B) Hepatic fibrosis 

(C) Fatty liver 

(D) Infective hepatitis 

Answer: (D)

293. Specific marker for prostatic cancer is

(A) Alkaline phosphatase 

(B) Prostate specific antigen 

(C) Acid phosphatase 

(D) CA 125 

Answer: (B)

294. Which is true about intestinal tuberculosis:

(A) Common site is appendix 

(B) Causes intestinal perforation 

(C) Commonly associated with pulmonary TB 

(D) Caused by mycobacterium TB 

Answer: (D)

295. Curling ulcer is seen in :

(A) Burns

(B) Head injury 

(C) Trauma

(D) Surgical operations 

Answer: (A)

296. Late deaths in burns is due to :

(A) Sepsis

(B) Hypovolemia

(C) Contractures

(D) Neurogenic shock 

Answer: (A)

297. All are recongnised tumour markers except :

(A) Beta HCG 

(B) Beta 2 microglobulin 

(C) Alpha fetoprotein 

(D) Acid phosphatase 

Answer: (B)

298. Connective tissue disorder which is associated with gastroesophageal reflux is :

(A) SLE

(B) Sceleroderma

(C) Behcet’s syndrome

(D) Dermatomyositis

Answer: (B)

299. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma arises form:

(A) Myothelium

(B) Epithelium

(C) Acinus

(D) Mucin secreting and epidermal cells

Answer: (D)

300. Tt. for pleomorphic adenoma is:

(A) Total parotidectomy 

(B) Superficial parotidectomy

(C) Enucleation

(D) Conservative managment 

Answer: (B)

301. True about papillary carcinoma thyroid is:

(A) Comprises 10-15% of all thyroid cancers 

(B) Cells have intranuclear vacuolation 

(C) Amyloid deposition seen 

(D) Encapsulated

Answer: (D)

302. All are true associations of ulcerative colitis except :

(A) Ertythema nodosum 

(B) Circinate balanitis 

(C) Scelrosing cholangitis 

(D) Aphtohous stomatitis 

Answer: (B)

303. All are seen in hemobilia except :

(A) Shock

(B) Colicky pain 

(C) Melena

(D) Jaundice

Answer: (A)

304. All are true about cystic hygroma except :

(A) Aspiration is diagnostic 

(B) 50% present at birth 

(C) Presents as posterior cervical swelling 

(D) Sequstration of lymphatic tissue 

Answer: (B)

305. Most common artery involved in perforation of duodenal ulcer is :

(A) Gastroduodenal artery

(B) Gastroepiploic artery 

(C) Rt gastric artery 

(D) Pancreaticoduodenal A 

Answer: (B)

306. True about appendicular rupture is A/E:

(A) Common in extremes of age 

(B) Common in people with Fecolith obstruction

(C) Early antibiotics prevent rupture 

(D) Appendicectomy is done always in presence of rupture 

Answer: (D)

307. MC abdominal organ injured in blunt trauma abdomen is:

(A) Spleen

(B) Liver

(C) Pancreas

(D) Stomach

Answer: (A)

308. Spastic ileus is seen in :

(A) Porphyria

(B) Retroperitoneal abscess

(C) Hypokalemia

(D) MI 

Answer: (A)

309. Recurrent pain abdomen with intestinal obstruction and mass passes per rectum goes in favour of :

(A) Internal herniation 

(B) Stricutre

(C) Strangulated hernia

(D) Intussusception

Answer: (D)

310. Pyloric stenosis with severe vomiting presents as:

(A) Hypokalemia hypochloremia with alkaline urine 

(B) Hyperkalemia hypochloremia with alkaline urine 

(C) Hypokalemia hypochloremia with acidic urine 

(D) Hyperkalemia hypochloremia with acidic urine 

Answer: (C)

311. Gleasons’ classification is applied for:

(A) Prostate carcinoma 

(B) Lung carcinoma 

(C) Ewing’s sarcoma 

(D) CA rectum 

Answer: (A)

312. Pancost tumour is seen with cancer of:

(A) Apical lobe of lung 

(B) Lingual lobe 

(C) Thyroid

(D) Pyriform fossa 

Answer: (A)

313. 4 cm breast tumour with 2 ipsilateral involved lymphonodes come under:

(A) T₃ N­₁ 

(B) T₃ N₂ 

(C) T₂ N₁ 

(D) T₄ N­₁ 

Answer: (C)

314. Spigelian hernia :

(A) Lateral to rectus abdominis 

(B) Obturator internus 

(C) Lies above int. oblique 

(D) Common in men 

Answer: (A)

315. Pt with recurrent diarrhea, pseudopolyp, lead pipe appearance on Ba enema has :

(A) Ulcerative colitis 

(B) Crohn’s disease

(C) Irritable bowel syndrome 

(D) Short bowel syndrome 

Answer: (A)

316. True about Berry-aneurysm is following except :

(A) Associated with familial syndrome 

(B) Most common site of rupture is apex which causes SAH 

(C) Wall contains smooth muscle fibroblasts 

(D) 90% occurs at ant. part of circulation at branching point 

Answer: (C)

317. Risk factor for carcinoma stomach are all except :

(A) Blood group A 

(B) Post gastrectomy 

(C) Old peptic ulcer

(D) Atrophic gastritis 

Answer: (C)

318. Head & neck involvement in burns in infant is :

(A) 9% 

(B) 18% 

(C) 27%

(D) 32% 

Answer: (B)

319. Gold standard test in insulinoma :

(A) CT scan

(B) Ultrasound

(C) MRI

(D) Arteriography

Answer: (D)

320. Dysphagia lusoria is due to :

(A) Oesophageal webs 

(B) Abnormalities of Arch of Aorta 

(C) Aortic aneurysm 

(D) Enlarged left atrium 

Answer: (B)

321. Commonest complication of pancreatic pseudocyst :

(A) Rupture

(B) Infection

(C) Pressure on viscera

(D) Hemorrhage

Answer: (B)

322. Mucinous ascites is seen in :

(A) Stomach Ca

(B) TB

(C) Nephrotic syndrome

(D) Cirrhosis

Answer: (A)

323. In achalasia cardia, true is :

(A) Pressure at distal end ↑ with no peristalsis

(B) Low pr. at LES with no periotalins 

(C) Pressure > 50 mm Hg with peristalsis 

(D) None

Answer: (A)

324. Recurrent obstruction, mass per rectum and diarrhea in child :

(A) Intussusception

(B) Rectal prolapse 

(C) Internal hernia 

(D) Haemorrhoids

Answer: (A)

325. 4 cm breast nodule with ipsilatral mobile LN in axilla staging :

(A) T₂N₁M₀ 

(B) T₂N2M₀ 

(C) T₁N₁M₀ 

(D) T₁N₁M₀ 

Answer: (A)

326. Patterson Brown Kelly syndrome is characterized by all except :

(A) Lower oesophageal web 

(B) Iron deficiency andema 

(C) Common in adult female 

(D) premalignant

Answer: (A)

327. Gleason’s staging is done in :

(A) Ca prostate 

(B) Ca Pancreas 

(C) CA kidney 

(D) Ca Cx 

Answer: (A)

328. 5 H. indole acetic acid in urine is seen in :

(A) Carcinoid

(B) Pheochromocytoma

(C) Hirschsprung’s disease

(D) Wilm’s tumor 

Answer: (A)

329. Dissection of which artery is seen in pregnancy :

(A) Carotid artery 

(B) Aorta

(C) Coronary A 

(D) Femoral artery 

Answer: (B)

330. Peripheral arterial occlusion (sudden onset) is characterized all expect :

(A) Paresthesia

(B) Rubor

(C) Pallor

(D) Pain

Answer: (B)

331. Most diagnostic of pulmonary emboli is :

(A) Segmental perfusion defects corresponding to abnormal chest X-ray 

(B) Multiple segmental perfusion defect with normal chest X-ray and ventilation scan 

(C) Normal chest X-ray 

(D) Tenting of diaphragm 

Answer: (A)

332. A patient presents with dysphagia of 4 weeks duration. Now he is able to swallow liquid food only. Which of the following is the one investigation to be done :

(A) Barium studies are the best in this case

(B) Upper GI endoscopy is to be done

(C) Upper GI endoscopy is to be done

(D) Esophageal manometry 

Answer: (B)

333. Which of the following is the most common site for the carcinoma of pancreas :

(A) Head

(B) Ampulla

(C) Body

(D) Tail

Answer: (A)

334. Neuroblastomas – good prognostic factor is :

(A) N-myc amplification 

(B) RAS oncogene 

(C) Hyperdiploidy

(D) Translocations

Answer: (C)

335. All are elaborated by small cell carcinoma lung, except :

(A) ADH

(B) ACTH

(C) 5-HT 

(D) Noradrenaline

Answer: (D)

336. Mucinous peritoneal fluid is found in “

(A) Carcinoma stomach

(B) Leimyosarcoma 

(C) Teratoma ovary 

(D) Mucocele of appendix 

Answer: (D)

337. Post splenectomy sepsis is common in :

(A) ITP

(B) Thalassemia

(C) Hereditary spherocytosis 

(D) Trauma

Answer: (A)

338. Treatment of choice in mixed tumor of parotid gland :

(A) Superficial parotidectomy 

(B) Total parotidectomy 

(C) Radiotherapy

(D) Chemotherapy

Answer: (A)

339. Mismatched blood transfusion in anaesthesia presents as :

(A) Hyperthermia & hypertension 

(B) Hypotension & bleeding from site of wound 

(C) Bradycardia & hypotension 

(D) Tachyacardia and hypertension 

Answer: (B)

340. True about acute pancreatitis a/e :

(A) Gallstones & alcohol are common causes

(B) Sr. amylase levels increase after 72 hr. of attack

(C) Can cause secondary pleural effusion 

(D) Can present with shock 

Answer: (B)

341. Artery to bleed in duodenal ulcer h’ge :

(A) Spleenic

(B) Gastroduodenal

(C) Left gastric

(D) Sup. mesenteric

Answer: (B)

342. Treatment of chronic cholecystitis :

(A) Cholecystectomy 

(B) Choledochocystectomy 

(C) Feculant

(D) Conservative

Answer: (A)

343. True about mesenteric venous thrombosis :

(A) Peritoneal signs are always present 

(B) Invariably involves long length of bowel

(C) I.V. Heparin is the treatment of choice 

(D) Surgery can lead to short-bowel syndrome 

Answer: (D)

344. True about enterocutaneous fistula :

(A) High output fistula drains 500 ml/day 

(B) Malignancy is most common cause 

(C) Fluid & electrolyte loss can occur

(D) No skin damage 

Answer: (C)

345. True regarding cancer colon :

(A) Obstructive features are more common with right colon 

(B) 40% cases at presentation show liver metastasis 

(C) Resection possible in 25% cases 

(D) More common in AIDS patients 

Answer: (B)

346. True about stomach carcinoma :

(A) Weightloss is commonest feature 

(B) Secondaries are most commonly seen in peritoneum & omentum 

(C) Lymphatic & hematogenous spread are rare 

(D) Radioresistant

Answer: (D)

347. Predisposition for carcinoma ethmoid sinus is by :

(A) Wood dust 

(B) Thorotrast

(C) Vinyl chloride 

(D) Nitrosamines

Answer: (A)

348. True about burns :

(A) Hyperglycemia is seen in early burns 

(B) Child with burns should have damp dressing 

(C) Chemical powder burns should be kept dry 

(D) 3rd degree burns are painfull 

Answer: (A)

349. Investigation of choice for blunt trauma abdomen in unstable patient :

(A) X-ray abdomen 

(B) USG

(C) Diagnostic Peritoneal lavage 

(D) MRI

Answer: (C)

350. Which of the following is used in the treatment of thyroid malignancy :

(A) 131I

(B) 125I

(C) 99Tc

(D) 32p

Answer: (A)

351. True about left sided colon carcinoma :

(A) Anemia

(B) Obstruction

(C) Melena

(D) Feculant

Answer: (B)

352. True about pseudocyst of pancreas :

(A) Is a true cyst 

(B) Common with penetrating trauma abdomen 

(C) Treated with cystogastrostomy if size > 2 cm 

(D) Contains a wall of firbrous granulation tissue

Answer: (D)

353. Which is true regarding Trendelenburg operations :

(A) Stripping of the superficial varicose vein 

(B) Flush ligation of the superficial varicose vein

(C) Ligation of the perforators 

(D) Ligation of small tributaries at the distal end of Superficial varicose vein

Answer: (B)

354. A 30 year old female comes with hypovolumic shock after blunt trauma of the abdomen. An emergency USG of abdomen shows splenic tear. Which of the following is to be done :

(A) CECT of the abdomen

(B) Diagnostic lavage of peritoneal cavity before proceeding

(C) Monitor the patient to assess for progression 

(D) Immediate surgery 

Answer: (D)

355. Sphincter saving surgery for rectal malignancy is not done in :

(A) Age over 50 years 

(B) Lymph node involvement 

(C) Infiltration of lamina propria 

(D) More than 4 cm from anal verge

Answer: (D)

356. Breast carcinoma is seen in women who :

(A) Consume fatty food 

(B) Have early menopause 

(C) Smoke

(D) Have nultiple sex-parterns 

Answer: (A)

357. Migratory thrombophlebitis is seen most commonly with :

(A) Pancreatic ca 

(B) Testicular ca 

(C) Gastric ca 

(D) Breast ca 

Answer: (A)

358. Abdomino-perineal resection is done in colorectal Ca on the basis of :

(A) Age of patient 

(B) Distance from anal-verge 

(C) Fixity of tomor 

(D) Hepatic metastasis 

Answer: (B)

359. True of autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease I and II respectively :

(A) Chromosomes 16 and 5 

(B) 16 and 4 

(C) 11 and 5 

(D) 11 and 4 

Answer: (B)

360. CA-125 is associated with :

(A) Colon ca 

(B) Breast ca 

(C) Ovarian ca 

(D) Bronchogenic ca 

Answer: (B)

361. In the management of thyroglossal cyst :

(A) Central portion of hyoid excised 

(B) Sternothyroid muscle dissected 

(C) Isthmusectomy e subtotal thyroidectomy 

(D) Strap muscle of neck 

Answer: (A)

362. Posterior urethral valve is diagnosed by :

(A) MCU

(B) Cystograph

(C) Retrograde cystography 

(D) Nephrogram

Answer: (A)

363. True about gall stones :

(A) More common in female 

(B) Gall stones, hiatus hernia, CBD stones form Saints triad 

(C) Limely bile precipitated 

(D) Lithotripsy always done 

Answer: (A)

364. A patient having multiple Gall stones and CBD shows 8 mm dilation and 4 stones in CBD, the best treatment modalities are :

(A) Cholecystectomy with choledecholithotomy done at same setting at same setting 

(B) ESWL

(C) Cholecystectomy and wait for ERCP 

(D) Sphicterotomy and then cholecystectomy 

Answer: (A)

365. Suprasellar calcification with polyuria seen in :

(A) Langerhan cell histocytosis 

(B) Medulloblastoma

(C) Pinealoma

(D) Craniopharyngioma

Answer: (D)

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