National Institute of Fashions & Technology (NIFT) Post Graduate Question Paper-2011
General Ability Test
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5): Choose the best alternative as the answer.
1. Controversy always involves
(A) Dislike
(B) Injustice
(C) Anger
(D) Disagree
2. A school always has
(A) Building
(B) Classes
(C) Teacher
(D) Principal
3. A hospital always has
(A) Nurse
(B) Doctor
(C) Room
(D) Bed
4. A tree always has
(A) Roots
(B) Leaves
(C) Branches
(D)Shadow
5. An Oasis always has
(A) Forest
(B) Water
(C) Camels
(D) Sand
Directions (Q. 6-7): In each of the following question series of letters & number in accordance with a pattern, is given. Discover the pattern in each series & pick the correct answer from the answer choice.
6. 23B – 6 – FG – 5D – 8 – HI
(A) W, 8, 7, I, 6
(B) C, 7, 4, E, 9
(C) D, 8, 6, C, 7
(D) E, 8, 7, D, 9
7. D – 6EGP – HJ – 12 KMBH15
(A) J, 9, V, N
(B) E, 7, J, L
(C) F, 8, M, K
(D) G, 9, I, M
Directions (Q. Nos. 8-11): Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In a society, there are five buildings, A, B, C, D and E, in a straight line in the same order’. Each one of them is having different number. of floors. The numbers of floors in two consecutive buildings are not consecutive numbers. One ,lay Mr. Sharma planned to assign a number to each of these floor. He picked up one of the five buildings randomly and gave an arbitrary number to its ground floor. I{e then proceeded from the ground floor to the top floor, giving consecutive numbers to the floors. For example, he could give the numb r 41 to the ground floor, 42 to the first floor, 43 to the second floor and so on. After reaching the top floor of the building, he chose the next building randomly and numbered its ground floor as the next number after that of the top floor of the previous building and proceeded again in the previous manner. After numbering all the floors of all the buildings, he observed the following:
(i) Sum of the numbers of all the top floors is 119.
(ii) Sum of the numbers of all the ground floors is 109.
(iii) The sum of all the floors of building B is 81.
(iv) The number of Mr. Sharma’s flat, which is at the top floor of building A, is 21.
8. Find out the sum of all the floors of building E?
(A) 61
(B) 60
(C) 55
(D) 31
9. Find out the number of floors in building C?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
10. What is the highest number assigned to floor by Mr. Sharma?
(A) 28
(B) 29
(C) 30
(D) 31
11. If sum of all the top floors and ground floors are 134 and 114, respectively, what is the sum of the floors of all the building?
(A) 20
(B) 24
(C) 25
(D) 30
Directions (Q. 12-16): Study the given diagram carefully and answer these questions.
12. Which of the following represents the teachers who are professors and lecturers, but not authors?
(A) B
(B) E
(C) C
(D) None of these
13. ‘G’ represents the region of
(A) teachers who are authors and professors but not lecturers
(B) lectures who are authors and professors but not teachers
(C) authors who are teachers and lectures but not professors
(D) lecturers who are authors but not professors and teachers
14. Lecturers who are not authors, teachers, and professors are represented by
(A) E
(B) F
(C) I
(D) L
15. Which of the following statement is true?
(A) B represents the region of teachers who are professors but not lecturers
(B) J represents the region of lecturers who are professors but not authors and teachers
(C) C represents the region of teachers who are professors and lecturers but not authors
(D) None of these
16. Only teachers, professors, lecturers and authors are represented respectively by
(A) A, F, D, I
(B) A, D, I, H
(C) A, D, H, I
(D) A, D, L, H
Directions (Q. 17-20): These questions are based on the following arrangement of letters, numbers and symbols. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow.
H 6 7 I L $ 3 % 1 F M @ 5 R E # Q A 2 B C J U 4 ↑ 8 D N 9
17. How many such letters are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a symbol and also immediately preceded by a vowel?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
18. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?
H I 7 $ 1 % M R 5 ?
(A) #2A
(B) EA#
(C) #2Q
(D) EAQ
19. If all the elements in the above arrangement are p laced in reverse order which element will be sixth to the right of eleventh element from the right?
(A) ↑
(B) 4
(C) L
(D) $
20. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(A) 31$
(B) EQR
(C) 48U
(D) F%M
Directions (Q. 21-24): These questions have three or four statements. Each set of statements further divided into three segments. Choose of alternative where the third segment in the statement can be logically deduced using both the preceding two, but not just from one of them.
21. 1 : A few professors are scientists. Some scientists eat grass. A few professors eat grass.
2 : Ajay is a tree. Some trees are made of iron. Ajay is made of iron.
3 : Now cows eat grass. All bulls eat grass. No bulls are cows.
4 : Some squirrels are donkeys. All squirrels are wolves. Some wolves are donkeys.
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 3 and 4
22. 1 : No cowboys laugh. Some who laugh are sphinxes. Some sphinxes are not cowboys.
2 : All ghosts are florescent. Some ghosts do not sing. Some singers are not florescent.
3 : Cricketers indulge in swearing. Those who swear are hanged. Some who are hanged are not cricketers.
4 : Some crazy people are painter. All crazy people are whistlers. Some whistler are painters.
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 4 only
23. 1 : Citizens of X Islands speak only the truth. Citizens of X islands are young people. Young people speak only the truth.
2 : Citizens of X Islands speak only the truth. Some X Islands are in Atlantic. Some citizens of X Islands are in the Atlantic.
3 : Citizens of X Islands speak only the truth. Some young people are citizens of X Islands. Some young people speak only the truth.
4 : Some people speak only the truth. Some citizens of X Islands speak on the truth. Some people who speak only the truth are citizens of X Islands.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 4 only
24. 1 : Many poets are not readers. All singers are poets. Some singers are not readers.
2 : Boys play cricket. Some girls do not play cricket. Some girls are not boys.
3 : All Eskimos live in igloos. Some penguins live in igloos. Some penguins are Eskimos.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 2 and 3
Directions (Q. 25-27): These questions contains a small paragraph followed by a question. Read each paragraph carefully and answer the question given below it.
25. The only true education comes through the stimulation of the child’s powers by the demands of the social situations in which he finds himself. Through these demands he is stimulated to act as a member of a unity, to emerge from his original narrowness of action and feeling, and to conceive himself from the standpoint of the welfare of the group to which he belongs.
The passage best supports the statement that real education
(A) will take place if the children imbibe action and feeling.
(B) will take place if the children are physically strong.
(C) is not provided in our schools today.
(D) comes through the interaction with social situations.
26. The prevention of accidents makes it necessary not only that safety devices be used to guard exposed machinery but also that mechanics be instructed in safety rules which they must follow for their own protection, and that lighting in the plant be adequate.
The passage best supports the statement that industrial accidents
(A) are always avoidable.
(B) may be due to ignorance.
(C) cannot be entirely overcome.
(D) can be eliminated with the help of safety rules.
27. The press should not be afraid of upholding and supporting a just and righteous cause. It should not the afraid of criticizing the government in a healthy manner. The press has to be eternally vigilant to protect the rights of the workers, backward and suppressed sections of the society. It should also give a balanced view of the things so that people can be helped in the formation of a healthy public opinion.
The passage best supports statement that
(A) press has a great role to play in a democracy.
(B) the press is the only means to project to the masses the policies of the government.
(C) the freedom of press is essential for the proper functioning of democracy.
(D) the press can be used by the governments as an effective media for the upliftment of the backward sections of society.
Directions (Q. 28-32): A solid block is formed by arranging some cubes of equal dimensions, a shown in the figure. Whole of the block (visible surfaces) except the base has been coloured pink. Answer these questions based upon this information.
28. How many cubes have four faces coloured?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
29. How many cubes have exactly three faces coloured?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 11
30. How many cubes exactly two faces coloured.
(A) 9
(B) 11
(C) 13
(D) 15
31. How many cubes have only one face coloured?
(A) 22
(B) 24
(C) 25
(D) 27
32. How many cubes are not coloured on any face?
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 11
Directions (Q. 33-35): In these questions, find out which of the answer figures A, B, C and D completes the figure matrix?
33.
34.
35.
Directions (Q. 36-40): Answer these questions based on the information given below.
The bar graph given below, gives details about the number of passengers who boarded a certain bus and the number of passengers who got down from the bus at six different stops-P, Q, R, S, T and U. The bus which did not have any passengers initially, starts at P and finally reaches U, which is the last stop.
The bus passes through the stops Q, R, S and T, in the same order, and the time it takes to travel from P to Q is same as that it takes to travel from P to Q is same as that it takes to travel from S to T, which in turn is equal to 20 minutes. The time it takes to travel from Q to R is the same as that it takes to travel from R to S, which in turn is equal to 40 minutes. The time it takes to travel from T to U is 60 minutes.
36. What is the maximum number of passengers carried by the bus between any two successive stations?
(A) 30
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
37. If ‘n’ passengers who boarded at R got down at T, then which of the following represents the range of n, most accurately?
(A) 5 ≤ n ≤ 30
(B) 5 ≤ n ≤ 25
(C) 0 ≤ n ≤ 25
(D) 0 ≤ n ≤ 23
38. What is the maximum possible number of passengers who travelled for more than two hours in the bus?
(A) 25
(B) 20
(C) 15
(D) 10
39. What is the least possible number of passengers who travelled for at least one hour in the bus?
(A) 25
(B) 45
(C) 30
(D) 35
40. What is the maximum possible number of passengers, who travelled for not more than one hour, but had R as either their boarding stop or their destination stop?
(A) 20
(B) 30
(C) 40
(D) 50
Directions (Q. 41-45): Study the information given below to answer these questions.
A significant amount of traffic flows from point S to point T in the one-way street network shown below. Points A, B, C and D are junctions in the network, and the arrows mark the direction of traffic flow. The fuel cost in rupees for travelling along a street is indicated by the number adjacent to the arrow representing the street.
Motorists travelling from point S to point T would obviously take the route for which the total cost of travelling is the minimum. If two or more routes have the same least travel cost, then motorists are indifferent between them. Hence, the traffic gets evenly distributed among all the least cost routes. The government can control the flow of traffic only be levying appropriate toll at each junction. For example, if a motorist takes the routes-S-A-T (using junction A alone), then the total cost of travel would be Rs 14(i.e., Rs 9 +Rs 5) plus the toll charged at junction A.
41. If the government wants to ensure that all motorists travelling from S to T pay the same amount (Fuel costs and toll combined) regardless of the route they choose and the street from B to C is under repairs (and hence unusable), then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C and D respectively to achieve this goal is:
(A) 2, 5, 3, 2
(B) 0, 5, 3, 1
(C) 1, 5, 3, 2
(D) 2, 3, 5, 1
42. If the government wants to ensure that the traffic at S gets evenly distributed along streets from S to A, from S to B, and from S to D, then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C and D respectively to achieve this goal is:
(A) 0, 5, 4, 1
(B) 0, 5, 2, 2
(C) 1, 5, 3, 3
(D) 1, 5, 3, 2
43. If the government wants to ensure that no traffic flows on the street from D to T, while equal amount of traffic flows through junctions A and C, then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C and D respectively to achieve this goal is:
(A) 1, 5, 3, 3
(B) 1, 4, 4, 3
(C) 0, 5, 2, 2
(D) 0, 5, 2, 3
44. If the government wants to ensure that all routes from S to T get the same amount of traffic, then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C and D respectively to achieve this goal is:
(A) 0, 5, 2, 2
(B) 0, 5. 4, 1
(C) 1, 5, 3, 3
(D) 1, 5, 3, 2
45. The government wants to devise a toll policy such that the total cost to the commuters per trip is minimized. The policy should also ensure that not more than 70 per cent of the total traffic passes through junction B. The cost incurred by the commuter travelling from point S to point T under this policy will be:
(A) Rs. 7
(B) Rs. 9
(C) Rs. 10
(D) Rs. 13
Directions (Q. 46-66) : Read the following business situations and answer questions given at the end of each situation on the basis of information given in each situation.
SITUATION-1
Ganpati Enterprises (GE), a firm with about 8 years of experience in FMCG and Confectionary business, operates as District Level Distributor and Super Stockist for Vadilal Ice Cream, Godrej Jump-in and Super Gold Confectionary. The growth recorded by Ganpati Enterprises in last one year is 30% from Rs. 10 Crore turnover in 2008. Its profitability is around 2.5% after expenses. Now, there is an opportunity to become a Super Stockist of an MNC brand, but the only condition is that then Ganpati will not be allowed to continue with Super Gold products as there is a clash of product profile. Given the fact that Ganpati Enterprises started its operations with Super Gold and its major revenues come from Super Gold, it is in a dilemma about its action.
46. From the situation, it is obvious that Super Gold is
(A) a high level brand.
(B) a middle level brand.
(C) Nothing can be said.
(D) None of these
47. Ganpati Enterprises is a firm which has been in trading of Confectioneries
(A) for a few decades.
(B) and this is one of the few other businesses that they have.
(C) for about 8 years.
(D) None of these
48. Your advice to Ganpati Enterprises would be to
(A) continue with Super Gold.
(B) go for MNC brand.
(C) start a new setup and shift Super Gold here and get MNC brand in GE.
(D) None of these
49. What is the profit of GE at present?
(A) Rs 26.0 Lakh
(B) Rs 32.5 Lakh
(C) Rs 25.0 Lakh
(D) None of these
SITUATION-2
Roadblock Advertising strategy can be considered as an alternative even in subsequent stages of PLC. A case in point is Hindustan Unilever Ltd. Which recently adopted the roadblock strategy to get better brand exposure in the wake of increasing competition, diminishing share and saturation across product lines. The FMCG market leader with 110 brands in its portfolio signed a deal blocking airtime with two major channels : Zee and star Group. The company booked about 4500 ad spots covering 40 hours of advertising time and expected to reach over 100 million customers across the country. The idea was to reach across customers, create a strong impression and recall by enhancing customer engagement quotient. A 10 second ad spot on leading channels costs somewhere around Rs 10,000. However, for this roadblock initiative, HUL is known to have paid a 100% premium, spending a whopping Rs 8-9 Crore per day.
50. Roadblock advertising is
(A) a contemporary concept.
(B) a traditional concept.
(C) useful for the initial stages of PLC.
(D) None of these
51. Previously, HUL was spending on advertising of its products
(A) more than Rs 8-9 Crore
(B) less than Rs 8-9 Crore
(C) Nothing can be said
(D) None of these
52. How much money per 10 second ad shot has HUL paid to leading channels for roadblock advertised
(A) Rs 10,000
(B) Rs 8-9 Crore
(C) Rs 20,000
(D) None of these
53. HUL has looked with the two leading groups
(A) 40 hours of advertising time/month.
(B) 40 hours of advertising time/day.
(C) 40 hours of advertising time/year.
(D) None of these
SITUATION-3
The Food Factory is a set up engaged in serving and home delivering Vegetarian Meals including Breakfast, Lunch and Dinner. It has got 32 outlets in and around Delhi and is known for reasonable priced, well cooked and clean food. It has also got Tiffin supply system. Most of its outlets being in the vicinity of educational institutions such as university, it caters to about 4000 students on regular basis. Its turnover at present is approximately Rs 6 Crore per annum. Very recently, it has got an offer from an international chain – TacoMax – for franchise tie up at a License Fee of Rs 4 Crore per annum. With TacoMax brand name, it will be able to cater to the corporate clients too for the regular Tiffin requirements and it will be able to charge a price premium of almost 10%. A rece survey indicated that its student population is likely to shift to another similar set up the moment the Food. Factory becomes a franchise of TacoMax.
54. The assumption made by students in shifting to another supplier on Food Factory tying up with TacoMax is that
(A) the food will become costly.
(B) it will no more serve homecooked food.
(C) the quality will suffer.
(D) None of these
55. Financially, the Food Factory on tying up with TacoMax will
(A) be better off.
(B) be worse off.
(C) Nothing can be said.
(D) None of these
56. The Food Factory food post-tie up with TacoMax will
(A) be as costly as it is at present.
(B) become more costly as compared to present.
(C) be lesser costly as compared to present.
(D) None of these
57. At present, the major share of the Food Factory’s customers comes from
(A) Households
(B) Corporates
(C) Students
(D) None of these
SITUATION-4
Established in the 1980s, CavinKare has been immensely successful in tapping the rural and semi-urban markets and is widely recognized as pioneer of sachet marketing and mass marketing in rural areas. In 1983, CavinKare launched Chik Shampoo in 10 ml packs. It later launched the product in 50 paise sachets, especially for the rural markets. In 1992, Chik Shampoo became the numero uno shampoo brand in South India. Where MNCs sold products in fancy bottles and to big stores, CavinKare concentrated on small retail shops in rural markets. It 1993, CavinKare began to work on its plans of having a national presence. The market share of Chik Shampoo grew from 5.6% in 1999 to 23.0% in 2004. In 2005, Chik Shampoo was a Rs 100 Crore brand and emerged as Number One brand of rural India, and 65% of its sales were generated in rural India. The company logged sales of Rs 700 Crore in 2009 and has set an ambitious sales target of Rs 5,000 Crore by 2012.
58. CavinKare is a
(A) national presence company.
(B) MNC.
(C) regional company
(D) None of these
59. Most of the MNCs have been selling their shampoo products
(A) in urban big stores.
(B) in urban small stores.
(C) in rural areas.
(D) None of these
60. 65% of the revenues of the CavinKare in 2005 came from
(A) urban markets.
(B) rural markets of South India.
(C) rural markets of India.
(D) None of these
61. If CavinKare’s revenues have been doubling since 2009, what will be its revenue in 2012?
(A) Rs 5,000 Crore
(B) Rs 5,200 Crore
(C) Rs 5,600 Crore
(D) None of these
SITUATION-5
Gokul Sweets has been operating in Agra for the last 60 years with a very small scale operation. All along they have been a small time set up with just three members of the family running the shop. All of a sudden, one of their dishes – Gojroula – clicked in the market in 2005 and now Gokul has become a household name in the state. Gokul started expanding its operations and has a network of 12 outlets in major cities. Its turnover in the year 2008 was reported to be Rs 120 Crore. It is no more limited to Gajroula. Actually, it stopped producing Gajroula. Now, it produces whole range of sweets in Bengali, Punjabi and Lucknavi tastes. The original three members of the family have retracted to just supervision and policy making. Most of its operations today are handled by hired staff. Each outlet is controlled by a manager. Whereas the preparations are made by traditional halwais, the business is supervised by managers who have absolutely no idea about sweets and their process of production. Invariably there is a conflict between the two interest groups. Last month, more than half of the halwais have left Gokul to join its almost insignificant competitor. There are rumours that the competitor has actually been bought out by a corporate house and it has been renamed as Gopal Sweets. The first advertising campaign of Gopal focuses on – ‘Gopal, the original Gajroula people’.
62. Stopping production of Gajroula by Gokul was a
(A) good decision by Gokul
(B) a strategic mistake
(C) a well thought over strategy for image makeover.
(D) None of these
63. The advertising campaign by – ‘Gopal, the original Gajroula people’
(A) is an ethical behaviour of Gopal.
(B) must be ignored by Gokul.
(C) is an unethical practice by Gopal.
(D) None of these
64. Success of Gokul was actually fuelled by
(A) dearth of good sweet makers in the state.
(B) positioning of Gajroula as a standard taste sweet.
(C) exceilent commercial campaigns.
(D) None of these
65. Which one of the following focused on professional advertising?
(A) Gopal
(B) Gokul
(C) Both Gopal & Gokul
(D) Nothing can be said
66. Which one of the following can be said to be true for the situation?
(A) Gokul is no more traditional in its management operations.
(B) Gokul’s growth has been well managed.
(C) Gopal has managerial experience which can be useful.
(D) Nothing can be said
Directions (Q. 67-75): Answer these questions independent of each other.
67. In a recent report, the gross enrolment ratios at the primary level, that is, the number of children enrolled in classes one to five as a proportion of all children aged 6 to 10, were shown to be very high for most states; in many cases they were way above 100 percent, These figures are not worth anything, since they are based on the official enrolment data compiled from school records. They might as well stand for ‘gross exaggeration ratios’.
Which of the following options best supports the claim that the ratios are exaggerated?
(A) The definition of gross enrolment ratio does not exclude, in its numerator, children below 6 years or above l0 years enrolled in classes one to five.
(B) A school attendance study found that many children enrolled in the school records were not meeting a minimum attendance requirement of 80 percent.
(C) A study estimated that close to 22 percent of children enrolled in class one were below 6 years of age and still to start going to school
(D) Demographic surveys show shifts in the population profile, which indicate that the number of children in the age group 6 to l0 years is declining
68. Szymanski suggests that the problem of racism in football may be present even today. He begins by verifying an earlier hypothesis that clubs’ wage bills explain 90% of their performance. Thus, if players’ salaries were to be only based on their abilities, clubs that spend more should finish higher. If there is pay discrimination against some group of players-fewer teams bidding for black players thus lowering the salaries for blacks with the same ability as whites-that neat relation may no longer: hold. He concludes that certain clubs seem to have achieved much less than what they could have, by not recruiting black players.
Which one of the following findings would best support Szymanski’s conclusion?
(A) Certain clubs took advantage of the situation by hiring above-average shares of black players.
(B) Clubs hired white players at relatively high wages and did not show proportionately good performance.
(C) During the study period, clubs in towns with a history of discrimination against blacks, under ‘performed relative to their wage bills.
(D) Clubs in one region, which had higher proportions of black players, had significantly lower wage bills than their counterparts in another region which had predominantly white players.
69. The offer of the government to make iodized salt available at a low price of one rupee per kilo is welcomed, especially since the government seems to be so concerned about the ill effects of non-iodized salt. But it is doubtful whether the offer will actually be implemented. Way back in 1994, the government, in an earlier effort, had prepared reports outlining three new and simple but experimental methods for reducing the costs of iodization to about five paise per kilo. But these reports have remained just those-reports on paper.
Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the author’s contention that it doubtful whether the offer will be actually implemented?
(A) A government proposes to save on costs by using the three methods it has already devised for iodization.
(B) The chain of fair-price distribution outlets now covers all the districts of the state.
(C) Many small-scale and joint-sector units have completed trails to use the three iodization methods for regular production.
(D) The government which initiated the earlier effort is in place even today and has more information on the effects of non-iodized salt.
70. The problem of traffic congestion in Athens has been testing the ingenuity of politicians and town planners for years. But the measures adopted to date have not succeeded in decreasing the number of cars on the road in the city centre. In 1980, an odds and evens number-plate legislation was introduced under which odd and even plates were banned in the city centre on alternate days, thereby expecting to halve the number of-cars in the city centre. Then in 1993 it was decreed that all cars in use in the city centre must be fitted with catalytic converters: a regulation had just then been introduced, substantially reducing import taxes on cars with catalytic converters, the only condition being that the buyer of such a ‘clean’ car offered for destruction a car at least 15 years old. Which one of the following, if true, would best support the claim that the measures adopted to date have not succeeded?
(A) In the 1980s, many families purchased second ears with the requisite odd or even number plate.
(B) In the mid-1990s, many families found it feasible to become first-time car owners by buying a car more than 15 years old and turning it in for a new car with catalytic converters.
(C) Post-1993, many families seized the opportunity to sell their more than 15 year-old cars and buy ‘clean’ cars from the open market, even if it meant forgoing the import tax subsidy.
(D) All of the above
71. He dropped off to sleep. The cigarette slipped out of his mouth and burnt a great black hole in his only shirt. The smoke of the burn awoke him, and he got up, cursing under his breath and fumbled in the dark for a needle in order to sew up the hole. Otherwise his wife would see it in the morning and would nag away at him for a couple of hours. But he could not find a needle. He fell asleep again.
Which one of the following statement best sums up the Man’s reaction to his problem:
(A) The man is extremely upset to find the shirt burnt and frantically tries to repair the damage
(B) The hole in the shirt and the wife’s anticipated nagging are minor problems, the greater one is that the man cannot find a needle.
(C) Neither the shirt-hole nor the nagging nor the lack of a needle is of great consequence.
(D) The man is terrified of his wife and dreads her discovering the burned shirt.
72. The Rajputs occupy an honoured place in the history of India. They were a war-like people, proud and patriotic. They were jealous of their honour, and would lay down their lives to uphold it. They loved their homes and fought bravely to defend the honour of their women-folk. Nothing would tame their spirits. Perils only called forth their courage and poverty only increased their power of resistance. None could fight like them. Their motto was ‘Better death than dishonour’.
Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage?
(A) The Rajputs achieved eminence in history due to their great braveyr.
(B) They were homely people and would fight for upholding women’s honour.
(C) In moments of danger they would exhibit great courage.
(D) They could not, however, face the challenge of poverty.
73. From Cochin to Shimla, the new culture vultures are tearing down acres of India’s architectural treasures. Ancestral owners often fobbed off with a few hundred rupees for an exquisitely carved door or window, which fetches fifty times that much from foreign dealers, and yet more from the drawing room sophisticates of Europes and the US. The reason for such shameless rape of the Indian architectural wealth can perhaps, not wrongly, be attributed to the unfortunate blend of activist disunity and local indifference.
It can be inferred from the above passage that:
(A) the environment created by the meeting between activist disunity and local difference is ideal for antique dealers to thrive in India.
(B) Only Indians are not proud of their cultural heritage and are hungry for the foreign currency that is easily available in return of artefacts.
(C) most Indian families have heirlooms which can be sold at high prices to Europeans and Americans.
(D) India provides a rich market for unscrupulous antique dealers.
74. The study has revealed that Indian executives were highly action-focussed, complex and creative, which means they make decisions considering many options with focus on high quality, They are strategic and as strategic as their counterparts in the West.
What does the above study imply about the Indian executives?
(A) They are not as focused as their counterparts in the West.
(B) They come out with original ideas.
(C) They find difficulty in making strategies.
(D) They often get distracted from their goals.
75. Thereafter, USA fully supported the approval of NPT (Non-Proliferation Treaty) which effectively blocked new entrants to the nuclear club. After initial hesitation. China also joined the NPT in 1992. After India’s nuclear test in 1974, the US did put pressure on India and objected to fuel supplies to the Tarapur Plant, which India built with the US assistance. But Russia offered help to India in this regard.
Why did USA threaten to cut off supplies for Tarapur Plant?
(A) To compel India to close down Tarapur Plant.
(B) To pressurize India to arrange supplies from our countries.
(C) To urge India to develop its own resources on its own soil.
(D) To press India to become a member of NPT.
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