National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) Post Graduate 2022 Question Paper With Answer Key

National Institute of Fashion and Technology

Solver Paper 2022

1. If a + b – c : b + c – a : a + c – b = 5 : 6 : 7, then find a : b : c.

(a)  12 : 13 : 11

(b)  12 : 11 : 13

(c)  13 : 12 : 11

(d)  13 : 11 : 12

2. The cost price of 80 articles is Rs. 12.50 per article. 20 opf them were sold for Rs. 18 each. At what price should each of the remaining articles be sold so as to get an overall profit of Rs 4.50 per article?

(a)  Rs. 15

(b)

(c)

(d)  Rs. 18

3. Divide Rs 6600 into two parts so that the simple interest on the first part for 5 yr at 6% per annum is equal to the simple interest on the second part for 3 yr at 12% per annum.

(a)  Rs. 4000, Rs. 2600

(b)  Rs. 3500, Rs 3100

(c)  Rs. 3800, Rs. 2800

(d)  Rs. 3600, Rs. 3000

4. A vessel is full of a mixture of milk and water with 9% milk. 9 L are withdrawn and then replaced with pure water. If the milk is now 6%, then how much does the vessel hold?

(a)  27 L

(b)  18 L

(c)  36 L

(d)  40 L

5. There are two containers having mixtures of hydrochloric acid and water. In container 1, the ratio of hydrochloric acid and water is 1 : 2 and in container 2, the ratio of hydrochloric acid and water is 4 : 1. Find the amount of mixture that should be taken from container 1 in order to make 28 L of a mixture containing equal amount of water and hydrochloric acid.

(a)  15 L

(b)  14 L

(c)  20 L

(d)  18 L

6. P, Q and R can together earn Rs 3100 in 10 days. Q and R together can earn Rs 1320 in 6 days. P and R together can earn Rs 1050 in 5 days. Find R’s daily earning.

(a)  Rs 100

(b)  Rs 110

(c)  Rs 120

(d)  Rs 90

7. A train overtakes two persons, cycling at 9 km/h and 18 km/h in 40s and 48 s respectively. Find the length of the train.

(a)  550 m

(b)  580 m

(c)  625 m

(d)  600 m

8. A, B, C and D play four different games among Baseball, Cricket, Kabaddi and Volleyball. A does not play Baseball or Cricket. B does not play Kabaddi or Volleyball. C plays Volleyball and D plays either Baseball or Volleyball. Who plays Cricket?

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  C

(d)  D

9. What is the angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock at 3 h 4 min ?

(a)  20°

(b)  70°

(c)  90°

(d)  130°

10. If 1st January, 1992 is a Tuesday, then on which day of the week will 1st January, 1993 fall?

(a)  Tuesday

(b)  Thursday

(c)  Friday

(d)  Saturday

11. Five villages P, Q, R, S and T situated close to each other. P is to the West of Q, R is to the South of P, T is to the North of Q and S is to the East of T. In which direction R is with respect to S?

(a)  North-West

(b)  South-East

(c)  South-West

Directions (Q. Nos. 12-16) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members of a club. Each of them likes one day of the week, viz. Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday and Sunday, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them owns a different car, viz. Swift, Alto, Figo, Beat, SX4, Estilo and Optra, not necessarily in the same order.

C likes Wednesday and his favolurite car is neither SX4 nor Optra. E does not like Monday and his favourite car is Beat. The favourite car of one who likes Friday is Figo. The one whose favourite car of one who likes Friday is Figo. The one whose favourite car is Estilo likes Tuesday. D likes Saturday and D’s favourite car is not SX4. G’s favourite car is Alto. F likes Thursday. B does not like Estilo.

12. Who among the following likes Tuesday?

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  D

13. Whose favourite car is Figo?

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  F

(d)  C

14. Who among the following likes Sunday?

(a)  A

(b)  C

(c)  F

(d)  E

15. Whose favourite car is SX4?

(a)  B

(b)  A

(c)  F

(d)  D

16. Which of the following combinations is correct?

(a)  F-Thursday-Estilo

(b)  C-Wednesday-Alto

(c)  D-Saturday-Beat

(d)  All are incorrect

Directions (Q. Nos. 17-21) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a straight line facing North with equal distances between them, but not necessarily in the same order.

Each one is pursuing a different profession-Actor, Reporter, Doctor, Engineer, Lawyer, Teacher and Painter but not necessarily in the same order.

G is fifth to the left of C. The Reporter is third to the right of G. F is fifth to the right of A. E is second to the left of B. The Engineer is second to the left of D. There are only three people between the Engineer and the Painter. The Doctor is to the immediate left of the Engineer. The Lawyer is to the immediate right of the Teacher.

17. What is A’s profession?

(a)  Painter

(b)  Doctor

(c)  Teacher

(d)  Actor

18. Which one is true according to the given arrangement?

(a)  F is the Teacher

(b)  F is third to the left of E

(c)  The Painter is to the immediate left of B

(d)  The Lawyer is standing in the exact middle of the arrangement

19. Who among the following is an Actor?

(a)  E

(b)  F

(c)  C

(d)  B

20. What is D’s position with respect to the Painter?

(a)  Third to the left

(b)  Second to the right

(c)  Third to the right

(d)  Second to the left

21. Who is an Engineer?

(a)  G

(b)  E

(c)  B

(d)  F

22. The first n even natural numbers is equal to k times the sum of first n odd natural numbers.

23. If 12 pumps working 7 h a day can lift 2800 tonnes of water in 20 days, then in how many days can 20 pumps working 9 h a day lift 3000 tonnes?

(a)  12

(b)  14

(c)  10

(d)  8

24. The ratio of present age of two brothers is 1 : 2 and 5 yr back the ratio was 1 : 3. What will be the ratio their age after 5 yr?

(a)  2 : 5

(b)  4 : 5

(c)  3 : 5

(d)  1 : 5

25. The price of petrol increased by 2% in a certain week and increased by 4% in the next week. Find the net percentage increase in the price of petrol over these two weeks.

(a)  6.12%

(b)  6.08%

(c)  6.16%

(d)  6.20%

26. At what per cent will simple interest on Rs 1950 amount to Rs 253.50 in

(a)  3%

(b)  5%

(c)  4%

(d)  4.5%

27. What annual installment will discharge a debt of Rs 3094 due in 4 yr at 7% simple interest?

(a)  Rs 650

(b)  Rs 1200

(c)  Rs 900

(d)  Rs 700

28. In how many years interest of a sum will be (3/5)th of the total amount at 10% simple interest?

(a)  10  yr

(b)  12 yr

(c)  15 yr

(d)  13 yr

29. P and Q working together can complete a job in 16 days. P alone can complete it in 18 days. Both work together for 4 days and then Q leaves. Find the time taken by P to complete the remaining work.

(a)  12.5 days

(b)  13.5 days

(c)  14 days

(d)  14.5 days

30. A tank has a leak at its bottom which empties it at 6 L/min. It also has a filling tap which can fill the tank in 6 h. The tank takes 18 h to become full. Find the capacity of the tank.

(a)  3403 L

(b)  4023 L

(c)  3402 L

(d)  3240 L

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31. A person covered a certain distance at a certain speed. If his speed was 20% more, he would take 10 min less to cover the same distance. Find the time he takes to cover the distance.

(a)  60 min

(b)  50 min

(c)  45 min

(d)  42 min

32. What number will replace the question mark?

(a)  5

(b)  6

(c)  7

(d)  12

33. Which of the following countries is known as the Clove Bowl of the World?

(a)  Baharin

(b)  Zanzibar

(c)  Gibralter

(d)  Brazil

34. The land of Thousand Islands is

(a)  Malaysia

(b)  Indonesia

(c)  Ireland

(d)  Finland

35. Which of the following countries is known as Cockpit of Europe?

(a)  Sweden

(b)  Netherlands

(c)  Belgium

(d)  Germany

36. National Start Up day is

(a)  January 13

(b)  January 14

(c)  January 15

(d)  January 16

37. Where Atacama Desert is located?

(a)  Peru

(b)  Iran

(c)  Chile

(d)  Namibia

38. Who is the Managing Director of International Monetary Fund?

(a)  Kristalina Georgieva

(b)  Gita Gopinath

(c)  Geoffery W.S. Okamoto

(d)  Rodrigo Rato

39. The singer of Samaveda is known as

(a)  Ardhavayu

(b)  Udgatr

(c)  Hotra

(d)  None of these

40. The river Parushini is known as

(a)  Swati

(b)  Ravi

(c)  Ghaggar

(d)  Kabul

41. Who wrote the book “Hasanat-ul-Arifin”?

(a)  Abul Fazl

(b)  Dara Shikoh

(c)  Nizamuddin Ahmed

(d)  Abbas Khan Sherwani

42. What is the capital of Macedonia?

(a)  Vilnius

(b)  Riga

(c)  Valletta

(d)  Skopje

43. The imaginary line in southern hemisphere that can be drawn at  of equator is known as

(a)  Tropic of Cancer

(b)  Tropic of Capricorn

(c)  Antarctic Circle

(d)  Arctic Circle

44. Damon Galgut won the Booker Prize, 2021 for the book

(a)  In a Strange Room

(b)  The Good Doctor

(c)  Arctic Summer

(d)  The Promise

45. The Study of spiders and related animals is known as

(a)  Ophiology

(b)  Arachnology

(c)  Ethology

(d)  Myology

46. The capital of the country Mozambique is

(a)  Maputo

(b)  Rabat

(c)  Lilongwe

(d)  Accra

47. The Asiatic Society in Kolkata was established on

(a)  15 January 1854

(b)  25 January 1784

(c)  15 January 1874

(d)  15 January 1784

48. A car covered a certain distance at 90 km/h and returned back at 60 km/h. Find his average speed (in km/h) for the entire journey.

(a)  80

(b)  70

(c)  72

(d)  75

49. Find the time taken by a 200 m long train running at 36 km/h to cross a boy standing on a platform.

(a)  15 s

(b)  20 s

(c)  23 s

(d)  25 s

50. In a 600 m race, P gives Q a start of 200 m. Ratio of speeds of P and Q is 5 : 4. By what distance Q wins the race?

(a)  100 m

(b)  125 m

(c)  150 m

(d)  175 m

Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are eight employees of a concern. Each is allotted a different locker out of eight lockers numbered 1 to 8 in a cupboard. The lockers are arranged in four rows with two lockers in each now.

Lockers 1 and 2 are in the top row from left to right, respectively while lockers 7 and 8 are in the bottom row arranged from left to right, respectively. Lockers 3 and 4 are in the second row from the top – arranged from right to left, respectively. So are lockers 5 and 6 – arranged from right to left, respectively – in the second row from the bottom. P has been allotted locker 1 while V has been allotted locker 8. T’s locker is just above that of Q which is just above that of R, whereas W’s locker is in the bottom row.

51. Which of the following cannot be the correct locker number-occupant pair?

(a)  3-Q

(b)  7-W

(c)  4-U

(d)  6-R

52. If U’s locker is not beside Q’s locker, whose locker is just above the of W’s locker?

(a)  U

(b)  S

(c)  R

(d)  Q

53. Which of these pairs cannot have lockers that are diagonally placed?

(a)  P-Q

(b)  S-R

(c)  U-R

(d)  Either option (b) or (c)

54. Which of the following groups consists only occupants of odd numbered lockers?

(a)  Q, R, W

(b)  R, V, W

(c)  T, R, Q

(d)  P, T, Q

55. If U’s locker is in the same row as that of R and S exchanges his locker with V, then who is the new neighbor of V in the same row? (assume that nothing else is distributed from the original arrangement)

(a)  P

(b)  Q

(c)  R

(d)  U

Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

P, Q, R, S and T sit around a table. P sits two seats to the left of R and Q sits two seats to the right of R.

56. If S sits in between Q and R, who sits to the immediate right of P?

(a)  T

(b)  S

(c)  Q

(d)  R

57. Which of the following cannot be the correct seating arrangement of the five persons in either the clockwise direction or the anti-clockwise direction?

(a)  P, Q, R, S, T

(b)  P, S, R, T, Q

(c)  P, Q, S, R, T

(d)  P, T, R, S, Q

58. If S is not sitting next to Q, who is sitting between Q and S ?

(a)  R

(b)  P

(c)  T

(d)  Both R and P

59. If a new person U joins the group such that the initial conditions for the seating arrangement should be observed and also a new condition that U does not sit next to R be satisfied, then which of the following statements is true?

(a)  U sits to the immediate right of S

(b)  U sits to the immediate left of T

(c)  U sits to the immediate left of P

(d)  Either a or b

60. If a new person U joins the group such that the initial conditions for the seating arrangement should be observed and also a new condition that U does not sit next to P, S or T be satisfied, then who will be the neighbours of P (one on either side) ?

(a)  S and T

(b)  S and Q

(c)  T and R

(d)  R and Q

Directions (Q. Nos. 61-65) Choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

61. Commencement of adjacent words with the same letter.

(a)  Consonance

(b)  Concubine

(c)  Alliteration

(d)  Euphemism

62. A wall built to prevent the sea or a river from flooding an area-

(a)  Dyke

(b)  Surveillance

(c)  Nuance

(d)  Reconnaissance

63. An entertainer who performs difficult physical actions

(a)  Clown

(b)  Gymnast

(c)  Nuance

(d)  Acrobat

64. A white skinned woman with dark brown hair-

(a)  Amazon

(b)  Brunette

(c)  Swashbuckler

(d)  Anodyne

65. Bitter and violent attack in words-

(a)  Pandemonium

(b)  Prototype

(c)  Diatribe

(d)  Profanity

Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) Groups of four words are given. In each group one word is wrongly spelt, Find out the wrongly spelt word.

66.

(a)  Connoisseur

(b)  Insolvent

(c)  Jubillee

(d)  Spendthrift

67.

(a)  Renunciation

(b)  Quotiant

(c)  Survivor

(d)  Efficient

68.

(a)  Commemoration

(b)  Accommodation

(c)  Asassination

(d)  Association

69.

(a)  Abarrant

(b)  Abecedarian

(c)  Barouche

(d)  Barbarian

70.

(a)  Replaceable

(b)  Presumptuous

(c)  Prerogative

(d)  Predater

Directions (Q. Nos. 71-75) Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

(a)  Thoughtless

(b)  Unintentional

(c)  Insane

(d)  Unintelligent

72. INFURIATE

(a)  Burn

(b)  Disgrace

(c)  Threaten

(d)  Enrage

73. PROSPECTIVE

(a)  Potential

(b)  Prosperous

(c)  Perplexed

(d)  Possible

74. LOUSY

(a)  Unbearable

(b)  Unpleasant

(c)  Awful

(d)  Stinking

75. ACCENTUATED

(a)  Exhibited

(b)  Devalued

(c)  Mitigated

(d)  Sharpened

Directions (Q. Nos. 76-80) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

76. LACERATION

(a)  Convalescence

(b)  Recuperation

(c)  Healing

(d)  Palpitation

77. IMPLICATE

(a)  Disentangle

(b)  Impersonate

(c)  Complicate

(d)  Impose

78. INGEST

(a)  Disrupt

(b)  Disgorge

(c)  Dismiss

(d)  Display

79. HERETICAL

(b)  Doubtful

(c)  Impious

(d)  Orthodox

80. PHILISTINE

(a)  Cultured

(b)  Libertine

(c)  Sober

(d)  Educated

Directions (Q. Nos. 81-85) In the following question a part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part as (a), (b), (c), and (d) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative.

81. The young boy was considered uncorrectable by his parents.

(a)  impolite

(b)  incorrigible

(c)  unruly

(d)  no improvement

82. Write down the address lest you may forget.

(a)  you may not forget

(b)  you cannot forget

(c)  you will forget

(d)  you should forget

83. He is addicted to smoke.

(b)  used to smoke

84. I will be with you in one quarter of an hour

(a)  a quarter of one hour

(b)  a quarter of an hour

(c)  a quarter of hour

(d)  no improvement

85. I am thinking to do an M.A. in English

(a)  wondering to do

(b)  thinking doing

(c)  thinking of doing

(d)  no improvement

Directions (Q. Nos. 86-90) Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

86. There is no love lost between any two neighbouring countries in the world.

(a)  stop loving

(b)  not on good terms

(c)  forming a group

(d)  have good understanding

87. When it was the peak season of his business, he played ducks and drakes with money.

(a)  distributed among the poor

(b)  spent money carelessly

(c)  played childish game

(d)  closed his season

88. The story of his survival in Tsunami beggars description.

(a)  is beyond description

(b)  is interesting

(c)  is described by a beggar

(d)  not described by anyone

89. I don’t know why she has become stand-offish recently.

(a)  angry

(b)  hilarious

(c)  indifferent

(d)  unmanageable

90. The president of this club should be someone who is open and above board.

(a)  far better

(b)  highly qualified

(c)  honest

(d)  rich and hard working

Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) Read the following passage carefully and Answer the Questions given below:

Many people are aware of the famous “witch trials” that occurred at the end of the seventeenth century in Salem, Massachusetts. But fewer people know that men, women, and children had been persecuted in New England for practicing witchcraft decades before the Salem trials ever took place. The events in Salem happened between February 1692 and May 1693 and resulted in twenty deaths, but colonies in Connecticut, New Hampshire, and Vermont accused women of practicing witchcraft as early a the 1640s. Colonies in Connecticut executed eleven women on these charges between 1647 and 1663.

Colonists brought with them to North America the widespread European belief in dark magic and the supernatural. Suspicious behavior, sudden illnesses or deaths in families, and rivalries among neighbours often led to accusations of witchcraft. Witchcraft was a capital crime in colonial North America until 1750, and though the judicial procedure varied from colony to colony, often the only evidence needed to start a trial was the testimony of a single witness. The accused woman was ordered to appear before a judge to confess her wrongdoing. If she did not confess, she was brought before a jury, where she endured questioning, torture, and tests that would supposedly reveal her affiliation with the devil. If the woman was found guilty, she was sentenced to death.

The trials ceased in the mid-1690s after thirty-five people had been killed. The governor of Massachusetts put an end to the process after receiving pleas from legal scholars-though it should be noted that the governor’s own wife had been accused of witchcraft right before he called off the trials. Colonists began demanding public apologies from the judges and jury members in 1695, and petitions were filed seeking to reverse the alleged witches convictions as early as 1700. The Massachusetts, New Hampshire, and Vermont governments have formally acknowledged the harm done to the women, but the Connecticut government has yet to clear their names. To this day, descendants of the eleven women put to death in Connecticut hundreds of years ago are fighting to clear their ancestor’s names.

91. According to the passage, in which year did the Salem witch trials end?

(a)  1647

(b)  1663

(c)  1692

(d)  1693

92. Which of the following would be the most appropriate subtitle for this passage?

(a)  Seeking Justice for Connecticut’s Convicted Witches

(b)  The Lost Souls of Salem

(c)  The Witch Trials of Colonial New England

(d)  Religion and Witchcraft in Early New England

93. Which of the following words best describes the public apology given to victims of the colonial witch trials?

(a)  partial

(b)  delayed

(c)  inclusive

(d)  appropriate

94. Based on the information in the final paragraph, it can be inferred that the author believes

(a)  the trials should have continued well into the 1700s

(b)  the Massachusetts governor should have formed an improved legal system

(c)  the descendants of the Connecticut witches are fighting a useless battle

(d)  the governor’s decision to end the trials may have been unduly influenced

95. In paragraph 2, we learn that “Colonists brought with them to North America the widespread European belief in dark magic and the supernatural.” Based on its use in paragraph 2, which of the following examples accurately describes a scenario involving the supernatural?

(a)  Ben can read books faster than anyone else in class.

(b)  Jamie told me she talks to her guardian angel every night.

(c)  The mansion on the hill has been abandoned for over a century.

(d)  Calvin expected the house to be full of people, but it was dark and silent

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below.

In the height of the Enlightenment, men influenced by the new political theories of the era launched two of the largest revolutions in history. These two conflicts, on two separate continents, were both initially successful in forming new forms of government. And yet, the two conflicts, though merely a decade apart, had-radically different conclusions. How do two wars inspired by more or less the same ideals end up so completely different? Why was the American Revolution largely a success and the French Revolution largely a failure?

Historians have pointed to myriad reasons-far too various to be listed here. However, the most frequently cited are worth mentioning. For one, the American Revolution was far removed from the Old World; that is, since it was on a different continent, other European nations did not attempt to interfere with it. However, in the French Revolution, there were immediate cries for war from neighbouring nations. Early on, for instance, the ousted king attempted to flee to neighbouring Austria and the army waiting there. The newly formed French Republic also warred with Belgium, and a conflict with Britain loomed. Thus, the French had the burden not only of winning a revolution but also defending it from outside. The Americans simply had to win a revolution.

Secondly, the American Revolution seemed to have a better chance for success from the get-go, due to the fact that Americans already saw themselves as something other than British subjects. Thus, there was already a uniquely American character, so, there was not as loud a cry to preserve the British way of life. In France, several thousands of people still supported the king, largely because the king was seen as an essential part of French life. And when the king was first ousted and then killed, some believed that character itself was corrupted. Remember, the Americans did not oust a king or kill him-they merely separated from him.

Finally, there is a general agreement that the French were not as unified as the Americans, who, for the most part, put aside their political differences until after they had already formed a new nation. The French, despite their Tennis Court, Oath, could not do so. Infighting led to inner turmoil, civil war, and eventually the Reign of Terror, in which political dissidents were executed in large numbers. Additionally, the French people themselves were not unified. The nation had so much stratification that it was impossible to unite all of them-the workers, the peasants, the middleclass, the nobles, the clergy-into one cause. And the attempts to do so under a new religion, the Divine Cult of Reason, certainly did not help. The Americans, remember, never attempted to change the society at large; rather, they merely attempted to change the government.

96. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that the author most likely believes that

(a)  historians have not come to a conclusion about what separates the French and American Revolutions

(b)  the French Revolution could have been just as successful as the American Revolution was

(c)  two events based on the same philosophy are generally not that common

(d)  two events that are similar in one way ought to be similar in other ways

97. What function do the questions that end paragraph I play in the passage?

(a)  They introduce the topic the author of the passage will explore, even though he or she will not answer the questions.

(b)  They introduce the author’s opinions on the main topic and summarise his or her main argument.

(c)  They present rhetorical questions that are used only for the purposes of engaging the reader, even though the questions will not be answered.

(d)  They refocus the passage into its original topic after a detour into historical context.

98. As used in paragraph 2, the word myriad most nearly means

(a)  an unknowable secret

(b)  an uncountable number

(c)  an unrealistic ideal

(d)  an unusually rare occurrence

99. According to the passage, the Reign of Terror happened because of

(a)  social stratification in America

(b)  infighting in the American Revolution

(c)  the decision to kill the king in the French Revolution

(d)  infighting in the French Revolution

100. According to the author, which of the following best summarises the most frequently cited explanations historians give for why the French and American Revolution did not turn out the same way?

(a)  Locations relative to Europe, social equality in America, and the lack of a unique French identity

(b)  Social unity among the Americans, social stratification among the French, and the character of the French and Americans in general

(c)  Locations relative to Europe, American and French characters, and political cohesion or lack thereof

(d)  Locations relative to Europe, the decision to oust or not oust a king, and a lack of unity amongst all the revolutionaries

Directions (Q. Nos. 101-105) Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:

By the mid-nineteenth century, mass production of paper patterns, the emergence of the home sewing machine, and the convenience of mail order catalogs brought fashionable clothing into the American home. By the early twentieth century, home economists working in extension and outreach programs taught women how to use paper patterns to improve the fit and efficiency of new garments as well as how to update existing ones.

Teachers of home economics traditionally made home sewing a critical part of their curriculum, emphasizing self-sufficiency and resourcefulness for your women. However, with the increasing availability of mass-produced clothing in catalogs and department stores, more and more women preferred buying garments to making them. As a result, home economist shifted their attention to consumer education. Through field study, analysis, and research, they became experts on the purchase and preservation of ready-to-wear clothing for the family, offering budgeting instruction targeted at adolescent girls. Modern home sewing made it possible for American women to transcend their economic differences and geographic locations with clothing that was increasingly standardized. The democratisation of fashion continued through the twentieth century as the ready-to-wear market expanded and home sewing became more of a pastime than a necessity.

101. According to the passage, the advent of mail order catalogs altered the role of home economists because

(a)  mass-produced clothing rendered their jobs obsolete

(b)  women ceased sewing so home economists had to teach other subjects

(c)  their focus shifted to instruction on budgeting and buying and preserving clothing

102. The passage focuses on the

(a)  historical shifts in home sewing from the mid-nineteenth century through the twentieth century

(b)  changing role of home economists as a result of changes in the world

(c)  modernization of home sewing

(d)  effects of home economists on home sewing

103. As used in paragraph 2 which is the best definition for democratization?

(a)  Transitioning to a more democratic political regime

(b)  Altering or modifying in a beneficial way

(c)  Becoming more affordable to the lower class

(d)  Becoming widely available to a populace

104. Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that home sewing allowed American women to do all of the following except

(a)  continue to wear clothing that had gone out of style in stores

(b)  copy fashions they had seen elsewhere

(c)  create less expensive versions of current styles

(d)  become experts on budgeting and consumerism

105. According to the passage, which of the following led to a decline in home sewing?

(I) mail order catalogs

(II) the availability of apparel in retail outlets

(III) curriculum changes in home economics

(a)  Only I

(b)  Only II

(c)  Both I and II

(d)  Both II and III

Directions (Q. Nos. 106-110) Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:

Ancient Greek doctors relied heavily on the theory of humorism, a belief that the body was essentially balanced by four substances known as humours and that any ailme was simply the result of an imbalance of these humours. The four substances-black bile, yellow bile, phlegm, and blood-were all found in the body, and each was associated with a different element-air, fire, earth, and water, respectively; too much of one would cause disease. An excess of black bile in your body, for instance, meant you were melancholic; too much blood made you amorous and sanguine. While it is easy today to sneer at such beliefs, theories like this one; though ludicrous, matter historically. The beauty of the ancient wisdom is not that it was actually wise but that the logic behind it opened the door for future scientific inquiry. Thus, while my cough might not be caused by a lack of blood, I can thank Hippoerates and his cohorts for encouraging later doctors to find the actual source of my cough.

106. According to the passage, which of the following correctly matches a humour to its element?

(a)  Phlegm : fire

(b)  Black bile : water

(c)  Yellow bile : fire

(d)  Blood : earth

107. As used near the end of the passage, the phrase ‘sneer at’ most nearly means

(a)  deplore

(b)  deride

(c)  debunk

(d)  decline

108. It can be inferred from the passage that Hippocrates was

(a)  an ancient philosopher

(b)  a disease researcher

(c)  a modern humanist

(d)  a Greek physician

109. Which of the following would be the most appropriate subtitle for this passage?

(a)  Ancient Humor, Modern Applications

(b)  Greek Philosophy and the Origin of Science

(c)  The Humorists and the Scientists

(d)  The Humors and Why They Matter

110. It can be inferred from the penultimate (second-to-last) sentence of the passage that the author believes the hunours

(a)  deserve to be studied today for historical reasons

(b)  are laughably inaccurate as explanations for ailments

(c)  can offer alternative treatment for diseases

(d)  should continue to be taught in medical schools

Directions (Q. Nos. 111-115) Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:

Imagine a mythical beast rising before you on two legs that end in cloven hooves. Sharp, curled horns and pointed ears sit atop its head, while a long tongue lolls out of a mouth that seems perpetually frozen in a sinister smile. It carries rusty chains and a pack upon its back, and it waits until nightfall to enter homes and terrorize youngsters, For centuries, horrifying tales of this creature induced nightmares in children during a certain holiday. But while this monster seems like it would be right at home in a Halloween horror story, children across Europe know the creature as Krampus, a demonic creature that punishes misbehaving youth during Christmas.

The legend of Krampus has its roots in Germanic folklore and was popularized in central European countries such as Austria, Hungary, and Slovenia during the seventeenth century. The beast was said to be the uncharitable counterpart to the magnanimous St. Nicholas. While St. Nicholas filled children’s wooden shoes and stockings with treats, Krampus sought out the children who didn’t deserve gifts and delivered spankings and whippings. Children who had been especially bad during the year were in danger of being kidnapped and taken back to the creature’s lair for further punishment until they showed true remorse for their misbehaviour. By the mid-twentieth century, however, people were actively trying to bring an end to perpetuating the story of Krampus. Prominent newspapers across Europe published editorials discouraging parents to share the legend with their children, and the Austrian government distributed “Krampus Is an Evil Man,” a cautionary pamphlet written by psychologists. Thankfully, fewer children grow up fearing Krampus is modern times. But fans of history, folk tales, and offbeat holiday traditions still take time every December to reflect on one of the most frightening characters ever associated with a holiday.

111. Using the passage as a guide, it can be understood that

(I) efforts taken in the mid-twentieth century to discourage sharing the tale of Krampus were effective

(II) the legend of Krampus was popularized when the Austrian government distributed pamphlets

(III) children in Central European countries were afraid of getting eaten by Krampus every Christmas

(a)  I only

(b)  II only

(c)  Both I and II

(d)  Both II and III

112. Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that the word ‘magnanimous’ belongs to which of the following word groups?

(a)  dastardly, vile, detestable

(b)  generous, compassionate, benevolent

(c)  refined, polish, genteel

(d)  astute, perceptive, intelligent

113. Which of the following statements would the author most likely agree with?

(a)  It is for the best that fewer children grow up knowing the legend of Krampus.

(b)  The image of Krampus was not very frightening and shouldn’t have bothered children.

(c)  Children should not expect gifts during the holidays unless they behave all year.

(d)  The legend of Krampus is too juvenile to be discussed in prominent newspapers.

114. In the final sentence of the passage, we learn that, “fans of history, folk tales, and offbeat holiday traditions still take time every December to reflect on one of the most frightening characters ever associated with a holiday.” Based on its use in this sentence, which of the following accurately describes something that is offbeat?

(a)  The new restaurant downtown offer simple, traditional American cuisine.

(b)  The toddler had a tantrum after his mother refused to buy him a new toy.

(c)  I ate turkey, stuffing, and pumpkin pie on Thanksgiving last year.

(d)  My cousin’s handmade clothing combines contrasting colors and patterns.

115. Which of the following would be the most appropriate subtitle for this passage?

(a)  Holiday Monsters from Halloween to Christmas

(b)  The Yuletide Legends of Central Europe

(c)  Austria’s Holiday Traditions and Rituals

(d)  On the Dark Side of Christmas

Directions (Q. Nos. 116-120) Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:

By far, the most popular exhibit at the National Zoo in Washington, DC is the zoo’s pair of giant pandas, Mei Xiang and Tian Tian. These are the second set of pandas government made to the Nixons during then-President Nixon’s historic trip to China in 1972. Nixon was the first sitting President to visit China since the nation became Communist. The popularity of the exhibit today is easy to understand: The zoo’s giant pandas are two of only 300 captive pandas in the world, two of only 1,900 total pandas in either China or captivity! Yet, while literally thousands of people ‘bear’ witness to the giant pandas each day, few can ‘bear’ to face a simple reality: the socalled ‘panda bears’ may not be bears to all.

The debate began in 1869, when the first European witness of a giant panda likened the strange animal to a bear. However, Alphonse Milne-Edwards, a French scientist, challenged that classification after reviewing the remains of a giant panda and concluding that it was physiologically closer to the red panda, a member of the raccoon family. To this day, scientists are not certain about how to classify the giant panda.

But the giant panda is plainly a bear on sight, so how can it be classified with raccoons? Well, part of it is because taxonomy is hardly a perfect science, and classification occurs on many levels; appearance, genetics, behaviour, evolution, etc. In appearance, the red and giant pandas are as similar as they are dissimilar. Likewise, DNA research has revealed similar links between giant pandas and both bears and raccoons. Behaviourally, the only animal that is clearly similar to the giant panda is the red panda. So, even though the giant panda moves like a bear, it eats bamboo in the same manner as the red panda. Eating bamboo could, however, be a trait that developed independently in both species, meaning that tracing evolution many likewise be an inconclusive path. Perhaps, in the end it is best to merely classify both red and giant pandas as, simply, ‘pandas’. Certainly, the classification does not make the animals any less majestic.

116. Which sentence, if removed from the first paragraph, would strengthen the passage?

(a)  “By far, the most popular exhibit at the National Zoo in Washington, DC is the zoo’s pair of giant pandas. Mei Xiang and Tian Tian.”

(b)  “These are the second set of pandas the zoo has owned; the first two were a gift the Chinese government made to the Nixons during then-President Nixon’s a historic trip to China  in 1972.”

(c)  “Nixon was the first sitting president to visit China since the nation became Communist.”

(d)  “The popularity of the exhibit today is easy to understand: The zoo’s giant pandas are two of only 300 captive pandas in the world, and two of only 1,900 total pandas in either China or captivity!”

117. The author traces the popularity of the giant panda exhibit at the National Zoo to the

(a)  debate over classifying giant pandas

(b)  fact that the pandas were gifts to the United States

(c)  small number of giant pandas in the wild

(d)  scarcity of giant pandas in zoos

118. Each of the following can be inferred from the passage except that

(a)  giant pandas primarily live in China

(b)  the first giant panda was seen by a non-European

(c)  giant pandas are clearly members of the raccoon family

(d)  scientists are still not certain how to classify giant pandas

119. Which of the following statements made in the passage least summarizes the author’s main point?

(a)  “to this day, scientists are not certain about how to classify the giant panda”

(b)  “taxonomy is hardly a perfect science”

(c)  “the so-called’ panda bears’ may not be bears at all”

(d)  “it is best to merely classify both the red and giant pandas as, simply, pandas”

120. The author’s purpose in writing this passage is most likely to

(a)  suggest that a species has been misclassified