National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) Under Graduate 2018 Question Paper With Answer Key

NIFT (Under Graduate) Solved Paper-2018

1. The average weight of a group of 20 boys was calculated to be 89.4 kg and it was later discovered that one weight was misread as 78 kg instead of 87 kg. The correct average weight is

(a) 88.95 kg

(b) 89.25 kg

(c)  89.55 kg

(d) 89.85 kg

Answer: (d)

2. A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in the ratio 7 : 5. When 9L of mixture are drained off and the can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7 : 9. How many litres of liquid A was contained by the can initially?

(a) 10

(b) 20

(c)  21

(d) 25

Answer: (c)

3. The sum of first 50 odd natural number is

(a) 1000

(b) 1250

(c)  5200

(d) 2500

Answer: (d)

4. The number (6x2 + 6x) for natural number x is always divisible by

(a) 6 and 12

(b) Only 12

(c)  Only 6

(d) Only 3

Answer: (a)

5. By selling a bicycle for Rs 2850, a shopkeeper gains 14%. If the profit is reduced to 8%, then the selling price will be

(a) Rs 2600

(b) Rs 2700

(c)  Rs 2800

(d) Rs 3000

Answer: (b)

6. The least number, which is to be added to the greatest number of 4 digits so that the sum may be divisible by 345, is

(a) 50

(b) 6

(c)  60

(d) 5

Answer: (b)

7. If a number is much greater than 31 as it is less than 75, then the number is

(a) 44

(b) 74

(c)  53

(d) 106

Answer: (c)

8. Find the area of ∆ ABC whose vertices are A(10, −6), B(2, 5) and C(−1, 3).

(a) 12 sq units

(b) 37/2 sq units

(c)  455 sq units

(d) 49/2 sq units

Answer: (d)

9. Thrice the square of a natural number decreased by four times the number is equal to 50 more than the number. The number is

(a) 4

(b) 5

(c)  10

(d) 6

Answer: (b)

10. If the distance between the points (x, 0) and (−7, 0) is 10 units, then the possible values of x are

(a) 3 and 17

(b) −3 and 17

(c)  3 and −17

(d) −3 and −17

Answer: (c)

11. The sum of two number is 8 and their production is 15. The sum of their reciprocals is

(a) 8/15

(b) 15/8

(c)  23

(d) 7

Answer: (a)

12. Equal sums of money are lent to X and Y at 7.5% per annum for period of 4 yr and 5 yr, respectively. If the difference in interest paid by them was Rs 150, the sum lent to each was

(a) Rs 500

(b) Rs 1000

(c)  Rs 2000

(d) Rs 3000

Answer: (c)

13. A man ate 100 grape in 5 days. Each day, he ate 6 more grapes than those he ate on the earlier day. How many grapes did he eat on the first day?

(a) 8

(b) 12

(c)  54

(d) 76

Answer: (a)

14. A number whose one-fifth part increased by 4 is equal to its one-fourth part diminished by 10, is

(a) 260

(b) 280

(c)  240

(d) 270

Answer: (b)

15. The sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437. Then, the absolute difference between the numbers is

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c)  5

(d) 7

Answer: (b)

16. The average salary of all the workers in a workshop is Rs 8000. The average salary of 7 technicians to Rs 12000 and the average salary of the rest is Rs 6000. The total number of workers in the workshop is

(a) 20

(b) 21

(c)  22

(d) 23

Answer: (b)

17. I paid 3/5 of a bill. If Rs 400 of the bill amount is still due, what was the total amount of the bill?

(a) Rs 1200

(b) Rs 1500

(c)  Rs 1800

(d) Rs 1000

Answer: (d)

18. A start a business with Rs 4000. B joins him after 3 months with Rs 8000. C puts a sum of Rs 20000 in the business for 2 months only. At the end of year, the business gives a profit of Rs 16800. How should the profit be divided amongst them?

(a) A = Rs 5040, B = 7560, C = Rs 4200

(b) A = Rs 7560, B = 5040, C = Rs 4200

(c)  A = Rs 4200, B = Rs 7560, C = Rs 5040

(d) A = Rs 4200, B = Rs 5040, C = Rs 7560

Answer: (a)

19. 2/3 is a rational number whereas √2/√3 is

(a) also a rational number

(b) an irrational number

(c)  not a number

(d) a natural periodic number

Answer: (b)

20. A rational number is expressed as ……, where p and q are integers and q ≠

(a) pq

(b) p + q

(c)  p – q

(d) p/q

Answer: (d)

21. For what value of p, the following pair of linear equations in two variables will have infinitely many solutions?

px + 3y – (p – 3) = 0

       12x + py – p= 0

(a) 6

(b) −6

(c)  0

(d) 2

Answer: (a)

22. A and B can do a job together in 12 days. A is 2 times as efficient as B. In how many days can B along complete the work ?

(a) 18

(b) 9

(c)  36

(d) 12

Answer: (c)

23. The cost of carpeting of a room is Rs 120. If the width had been 4 m less, the cost of the carpet would have been Rs 20 less. The width of the room is

(a) 24 m

(b) 20 m

(c)  25 m

(d) 18.5 m

Answer: (a)

24. Two pipes (A and B) can fill a cistern in 3 h and 4 h, respectively and a waste pipe C can empty it in 2h. If all the three pies are kept open, then the cistern will be filled in

(a) 5 h

(b) 8 h

(c)  10 h

(d) 12 h

Answer: ()

25. A path of uniform width runs round the inside of a rectangular field 38 m long and 32 m wide. If the path occupies 600 m2, then the width of the path is

(a) 30 m

(b) 5 m

(c)  18.75 m

(d) 10 m

Answer: (b)

26. A certain number when divided by 175 leaves a remainder 132. When the same number is divided by 25 the reaminder is

(a) 6

(b) 7

(c)  8

(d) 9

Answer: (b)

27. A and B invest Rs 3000 and Rs 4000, respectively in a business. A receives Rs 10 per month out of the profit as a remuneration for running the business and the rest of the profit is divided in proportion to the investments. If in a year A totally receives Rs 390, what does B receive?

(a) Rs 630

(b) Rs 360

(c)  Rs 480

(d) Rs 3800

Answer: (b)

28. A man losses 20% of his money. After spending 25% of the remainder, he has Rs 480 left. What is the amount of money he originally had?

(a) Rs 600

(b) Rs 720

(c)  Rs 800

(d) Rs 840

Answer: (c)

29. The area of the square park is Rs 25 sq km. The time taken to complete a round the field once, at a speed of 3 km/h

(a) 4 h 60 min

(b) 4 h 50 min

(c)  6 h 40 min

(d) 5 h 40 min

Answer: (c)

30. A bag contains Rs 1, 50 paise and 25 paise coins in the ratio of 8 : 9 : 11. If the total money in the bag is Rs 366, then find the number of 25 paise coins.

(a) 264

(b) 364

(c)  241

(d) 245

Answer: (a)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 31-33) In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/proverb has been given, followed by four alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb.

31. In black and white

(a) in short

(b) useless

(c)  in writing

(d) in full swing

Answer: (c)

32. Wet behind the cars

(a) stupid and slow-witted

(b) young and inexperienced

(c)  drenched in the rain

(d) unpunctual and lethargic

Answer: (b)

33. To rock the boat

(a) to conspire against

(b) to agitate against

(c)  to upset the balance

(d) to create difficulties

Answer: (d)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 34-35) In each of the following questions below, only one among the given alternatives is correctly spelt. Find out the word with correct spelling.


(a) Explanation

(b) Explination

(c)  Explaination

(d) Explainsion

Answer: (a)


(a) Posesive

(b) Possessive

(c)  Possesive

(d) Posessive

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 36-37) In each of the following questions, choose the wrongly spelt word.


(a) Aptitude

(b) Audible  

(c)  Anonimus

(d) Resignation

Answer: (c)


(a) Beautiful

(b) Carpenter

(c)  Brevity

(d) Futerstic

Answer: (d)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 38-39) From amongst the options given below each word, choose the appropriate singular form.

38. Phenomenon

(a) Phenomenos

(b) Phenomenas

(c)  Phenomena

(d) Phenomenons

Answer: (c)

39. Machineries

(a) Machinery

(b) Machinerye

(c)  Machine

(d) Machineri

Answer: (a)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 40-41) From amongst the options given below each word, choose the appropriate plural form.

40. Goose

(a) Gooses

(b) Geese

(c)  Gease

(d) Geeses

Answer: (b)

41. Formula

(a) Formula

(b) Formulas

(c)  Formulae

(d) Formulaes

Answer: (c)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 42-45) In each of these question, choose the alternative which can replace the underlined word without changing the meaning of sentence.

42. Don’t light matches near inflammable

(a) non-flammable

(b) combustible

(c)  fire

(d) lightening

Answer: (b)

43. The sighting of the flying saucer was inexplicable.

(a) mysterious

(b) amusing

(c)  amazement

(d) enjoyable

Answer: (a)

44. Not even experts could figure out the magician’s clever

(a) original

(b) unimaginative

(c)  ingenious

(d) no replacement

Answer: (c)

45. Many have tried to copy the painter’s unique

(a) simple

(b) no replacement

(c)  ordinary

(d) inimitable

Answer: (d)

46. Johnny is a keen player but unfortunately he has ……….. skills.

(a) few

(b) none

(c)  some

(d) little

Answer: (a)

47. I didn’t have ……… trouble getting the passports. I only had a problem with my photo because it was an old one.

(a) any

(b) much

(c)  no

(d) several

Answer: (b)

48. When we get ready for dinner, I have to take my books …….. t he table.

(a) off

(b) from

(c)  out

(d) of

Answer: (a)

49. The lecture will be held right …………. the tutorial.

(a) at

(b) before

(c)  over

(d) beyond

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 50-53) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning of the underlined word.

50. He has been living in prosperity right since his childhood.

(a) sickness

(b) poverty

(c)  humility

(d) grandeur

Answer: (b)

51. He is of a very affable

(a) humble

(b) irritating

(c)  unfriendly

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

52. The rich fellow saved his money because he has not earned it himself.

(a) hoard

(b) developed

(c)  collected

(d) dissipated

Answer: (d)

53. I asked to repeat the performance by the spectators.

(a) participants

(b) bystander

(c)  observers

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 54-55) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative that can be substituted for the given sentence.

54. A constructor of crossword puzzles; also an enthusiast of word games, especially cross word puzzles

(a) Lexicographer

(b) Dittograph

(c)  Cruciverbalist

(d) Ambigram

Answer: (c)

55. One filled with excessive and mistaken enthusiasm in cause.

(a) Pedant

(b) Fanatic

(c)  Patriot

(d) Martyr

Answer: (b)


The superiority of the West is due to its intellectual integrity, the sincerity of its pursuit of truth. From the times of Socrates, the seeker of truth, down till today, Western mind, with rare exceptions, has been remarkably free from self complacency. Intellectual laziness and blind faith in ancients wisdom. It has never lost the sense of wonder, the eager curiosity to know and find out for oneself by observation and experiment, the truth of the near and far. Science has made life easier for millions of men and women. Our educators tried to impart how to use the scientific mind. The possession of the scientific spirit devices. We may be able to use the telephone and the wireless, the railway and the aeroplane, and yet be lacking in the scientific mind which is something organic and structural and not merely outward and decorative. The scientific spirit must be applied not only to be ordinary arrangement of life and leisure, to be distribution of materials goods, to the improvement of industry and agriculture, but also to the thing which touch the mind and the morals of the community.

Our scientific conscience must b e shocked not only by the contrasts of fabulous wealth and gruelling poverty but also by those of intense holiness and diseased superstition. In our relations with the another, we have failed to apply scientific and social wisdom. The failure is written large on our society. Social abuses like untouchability are tolerated simply because the spirit in us in supposed by the force of custom. They are practised by otherwise kind persons who have ceased to feel and whose understanding is petrified by tradition. There are millions in our country today who use scientific devices and yet revere superstition as mystical revelation and adhere to absurd social customs in the name of tradition. We owe our reverence to the seekers of truth, who conquer our minds by the spirit of truth and not be conformists, who enslave our minds in the name of tradition. Tradition cannot ever supersede truth, conscience cannot be silenced by scripture. We must clear mind of the cobwebs which are found there.

56. To what does the West owe its superiority over the East?

(a) Belief in material values

(b) Dignity of the individual

(c)  Intellectual discipline and disinterested search for truth

(d) Belief in moral and spiritual values

Answer: (c)

57. What do you mean by self complacency?

(a) Vanity

(b) Self-reliance

(c)  False sense of superiority self assurance

(d) Tendency of giving importance to self

Answer: (c)

58. Why is our scientific conscience shocked not only by the contrasts of fabulous wealth and gruelling poverty but also by those of intense holiness and diseased superstition?

(a) Because reason does not justify the intellectuality.

(b) Because these things are immoral.

(c)  Because these things are out of accord with our spiritual values of life.

(d) Because superstition kills open enquiry and encourages the tendency of accepting things as they are.

Answer: (a)

59. What do you mean by the expression ‘ the failure is written large on our society’?

(a) The society is suffering the consequences of the lack of the scientific spirit on our part.

(b) Not individuals but society has failed in coming out of grooves of dead habits.

(c)  The failures are recorded in the history books.

(d) The account of failures of society is written in large letters.

Answer: (a)

60. ‘Whose understanding is petrified by tradition’? What do you mean by this expression?

(a) The weight of customs and traditions is so great that their reason does not work to get at the reality.

(b) In course of time their understanding has left them and they have become totally insensitive to reason.

(c)  They are too much given to the worship of old ways and customs.

(d) Their common sense has been converted into stone.

Answer: (a)


Science, is so far as it consists of knowledge, must be regarded as having value, but in so far as it consists a technique, the question whether it is to be praised or blamed depends upon the use that is made of technique. In itself, it is neutral, neither good nor bad. Any ultimate view that we may have about what gives vale of this or that must come from some other source than science.

But good and evil almost, everything that distinguishes our age from its predecessors is due to science. In daily life we have electricity, the radio and the cinema. Because of the increased productivity of labour, we are able to devote a far greater proportion of our energies to war and preparation for wars that was formerly possible and we are able to keep the young in school very much longer than we formerly could. Owing to science we are able to disseminate information through the press and the radio practically to everybody. We can make it more enormously difficult that it used to the people whom the government dislikes to escape.

It would not be surprising if in the present day; a powerful anti-scientific movement were to arise as a result of the dangers to human life that are resulting from atom moms and may result from bacteriological warfare. But whatever people may feel about these horrors, they dare not turn against the men of science so long as war is at all probable because of one side equipped with scientists and the other not, the scientific side would almost certainly win.

61. What determines whether science is good or bad?

(a) Its analytical study

(b) Its Philosophical-conception

(c)  The manners of its origin

(d) The application in life

Answer: (d)

62. Which conceptions of science has the author mentioned in the passage?

(a) Its being good or bad.

(b) Its being a purely empirical enquiry.

(c)  Its being both a philosophical and empirical study.

(d) Science as knowledge and science as technique

Answer: (d)

63. If anti-science movement were to arise in the preset day what factor or factors according to the author would he held responsible for it?

(a) The misapplication of science

(b) Man’s destructive propensities

(c)  Man’s pugnacious instinct and h is desire for domination.

(d) Dangers to human life resulting from atom bombs and the, likely result from the bacteriological warfare.

Answer: (d)

64. How long are people not likely to turn against scientist?

(a) Until science is not fully developed.

(b) So long as war is at all probable.

(c)  Until the lot of mankind is ameliorated.

(d) So long as we are dominated by fighting instinct.

Answer: (b)

65. How is it most difficult in the present day for men disliked by the government to escape its clutches?

(a) A network of information media operating throughout the world will enable the government to catch hold of such persons.

(b) A highly efficient system of secret service will trace out the whereabouts of such persons.

(c)  People in the present day have become so slothful that they would not like to involve danger to their security.

(d) Such persons will find it difficult to obtain asylum anywhere in the world of today dominated of selfishness.

Answer: (b)


Edmund Burke called ‘the Press- the Fourth Estate of the realm, ‘I think he did not use his title for the Press thoughtlessly as social ruling group or class. The three Estates or Realms is England are the Lord Spiritual i.e. the Bishops in the House of Lords, the Temporal i.e. other Lords and Commons i.e., the common people. The Press has been rightly called the Fourth Estate as it also constitutes a ruling group or class like the Lords and Common. It cannot be denied in a free country, that the Press exercises a good deal of influence in shaping public opinion and pointing out the weakness or defects of society or of government and, in general bringing to light all those good or bad things in society which would have otherwise remained unnoticed. The power is not limited or put under any check. The Press instead of being controlled by any one, controls life and thought of a nation. Hence, the Press constitutes an state by itself. Obviously the power which the press in any country wields depends upon the number of newspaper readers. The opinions and comments of newspaper can influence the life of a nation only when they are read by people reading, in turn, requires that the general mass of people should be educated. Thus, the spread, of education determines the extent of the newspapers. Where readers are few, newspapers must necessarily be few. Their influence in the case, can extend, only to a small minority of population. In a country like India the percentage of literacy is very low and standard of journalism is not very high. So, the Press has to play the role of a teacher here.

66. What title was given by Edmund Burke to the Press?

(a) Instrument of public opinion

(b) Distributor of news

(c)  The Fourth Estate

(d) Lords Temporal

Answer: (c)

67. How much power does a free Press possess?

(a) Only that much which is allowed by government of the country.

(b) Unlimited power without any check.

(c)  Unlimited power subject to maintenance of law and order and public morality.

(d) No power at all

Answer: (c)

68. What is the secret power of the Press?

(a) The money which the newspaper owners can wield

(b) The number of newspaper readers

(c)  The extent to which it support official policy

(d) The patronage of the government enjoyed by it

Answer: (b)

69. What determines the number of newspaper readers?

(a) The low price of newspaper

(b) The patronage extended to it by the moneyed people

(c)  Education of the general masses of people

(d) The availability of newsprint to the newspaper owners

Answer: (c)

70. How does the press exercise power?

(a) It enlists the support of the people.

(b) It keeps watch over the acts of the Government.

(c)  It controls life and thought of a nation.

(d) It is a great materialistic concern.

Answer: (c)


The emotional appeal of imperialism never completely stilled the British conscience, However, liberal thinks throughout the nineteenth century argued that democracy was incompatible with the maintenance of authoritarian rule over foreign people. To think empirically was to think in terms of restrictive and protective measures, in defiance of the revealed truths of classical economics. Thus, when the British government took over responsibility for India from the East India Company in 1858, many politicians were conscious of saddling Britain with a heavy burden. In the first seventy years of the nineteenth century, enlightened British liberals looked forward to the day when India would stand on its own feet. Even in the days of colonialism, British radicals continued to protest. The self proclaimed imperialists, however honourable their motives, would place fait accompli before the country and commit blunder of incalculable consequence. The danger they felt was all the greater because British foreign policy still remained a stronghold of the aristocracy, while that related and persuasive lobby, the British officer class also had a vested interest in imperial expansion.

It took the humiliation of the Boer to teach the British government what it would cost to hold an empire by force. However, this fact did not escape Gandhi, the supreme tactician of the Indian liberation movement. He saw that some perceptive British thinkers had much earlier recognised that Britain could not continue long to rule India except with the co-operations of may sections of its population. Once that co-operation was withdrawn, the foundation of British authority in India would crumble. Furthermore, the Indian nationalist leaders were able to exploit the aversion of the British liberal conscience to method used by the local colonial rulers in combating Indian non-cooperation.

71. ‘The emotional appeal of imperialism never completely stilled the British conscience’ What does it mean?

(a) The glorification resulting from imperialism never completely blinded the British people to the unjustness of their policy.

(b) The glorification resulting from the establishment of sway overseas did not make the British people complacent.

(c)  The British people became so dull and emotionally so cold that the glorification of their country attained through imperialism never stirred them of feel pround of this phenomenon.

(d) All of the above

Answer: (a)

72. What does the term authoritarian rule mean?

(a) Rule of authority of law

(b) Dictatorial rule unaccompanied by the rule of law

(c)  Arbitrary exercise of power by officials

(d) Rule having stability

Answer: (b)

73. What according to the author did the maintenance of imperialism result in?

(a) Economic exploitation of the subject people

(b) Mental enslavement of the subject people

(c)  The extinction of the sense of initiative in the people ruled by the imperialists

(d) Erection of trade barriers in the foreign trade and other restrictive measures

Answer: (d)

74. What do you think were the revealed truths of classical economics?

(a) Laissez fair and free trade

(b) Allowing only subsistence wages to the workers.

(c)  Clamping of artificial restriction on foreign trade.

(d) Wholesale nationalisation of the means of production.

Answer: (a)

75. What was the opinion of the British liberal thinkers regarding Britain’s continuing to rule India?

(a) That it could hold on only by force of arms.

(b) That it could maintain its rule only by following a policy of persuasion.

(c)  That British rule would collapse when the Indian masses rose in revolt against her.

(d) Thus, Britain could continue to rule India only with co-operation of many sections of its population.

Answer: (d)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 76-79) Each of these questions has an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R).

(a) If both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’

(b) If both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’

(c) If ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false

(d) If ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true

76. Assertion (A) In India, the Judiciary is independent of the Executive.

Reason (R) Judiciary favours the Government and helps in the implementation of its plans.

Answer: (c)

77. Assertion (A) Clothes are not washed properly in hard water.

Reason (R) Hard water contains many minerals.

Answer: (b)

78. Assertion (A) Carbon monoxide when inhaled caused death.

Reason (R) Carbon monoxide combines with haemoglobin.

Answer: (a)

79. Assertion (A) Himalayas once laid under the sea.

Reason (R) Fossils of marine creatures are traced on the Himalayas.

Answer: (a)

80. How many 5’s are there in the following number sequence which are immediately followed by 4 but not immediately proceded by 6?

8 9 5 4 2 5 4 8 5 5 7 8 6 4 4 5 6 6 5 4 7 5 4 4 6 3 8

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c)  4

(d) 3

Answer: (d)

81. In a certain code language ‘Sun is bright’ is written as ‘pa ma la’, ‘sky is blue’ is written as ‘da ma re’ and ‘Sun is hot’ is written as ‘pa ma go’. Find the code for Sun.

(a) pa

(b) ma

(c)  Either ‘pa’ or ‘ma’

(d) re

Answer: (a)

82. In a students queue, Kamal is 12th from left and Deepak is 18th from right. When Kamal and Deepak interchange their position, then Kamal is 25th from left. Find the total number of students in the queue.

(a) 40

(b) 41

(c)  42

(d) 43

Answer: (c)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 83-84) Answer the questions based on the following information.

 A class is to be taught five subjects – Hindi, Physics, Chemistry, Biology 2nd Mathematics by five different teachers – A, B, C, D and E in five periods (1 to 5). A teacher can teach in only one of the periods. The following details are available about the teaching.

  • A teachers Mathematics which is not taught in the first period.
  • Physics is taught by D in an even numbered period.
  • Chemistry is taught in an odd period, and it precedes Mathematics period.
  • E teaches in the first period.
  • C teaches Chemistry but not in the first or the last period.
  • Hindi is taught in the last period.

83. Which of the following statements is necessarily true?

(a) Third period is of Hindi taught by B

(b) Second period of Physics taught by C

(c)  Fourth period is Mathematics taught by A

(d) Fifth period is Biology taught by D

Answer: (c)

84. Which subject is taught by B?

(a) Physics

(b) Chemistry

(c)  Biology

(d) Hindi

Answer: (d)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 85-88) Complete the series by replacing the question mark.

85. 8, 16, 28, 44, ?

(a) 60

(b) 64

(c)  62

(d) 66

Answer: (b)

86. 230, 246, 271, 307, ?

(a) 412

(b) 356

(c)  518

(d) 612

Answer: (b)

87. 1, 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, 127, ?

(a) 250

(b) 275

(c)  350

(d) 255

Answer: (d)

88. AZY, EXW, IVU, ?

(a) MTS

(b) MQR

(c)  NRQ

(d) LST

Answer: (a)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 89-92) Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument?

Give Answer

(a) if only Argument I is strong

(b) if only Argument II is strong

(c) if either I or II is strong

(d) if both I and II are strong

89. Statement Should school education be made free in India?

Arguments I. Yes this is the only way to improve the level of literacy.

(II) No, it will add to the already heavy burden on the exchequer.

Answer: (b)

90. Statement Should there be complete ban on manufacture of fire crackers in India?

Arguments I. No, this will render thousands of workers jobless.

(II) Yes, the fire cracker manufacturers use child labour to a large extent.

Answer: (d)

91. Statement Should young entrepreneurs be encouraged?

Arguments. I. Yes, they will help in the industrial development of the country.

(II) Yes, they will reduce the burden on the employment market.

Answer: (d)

92. Statement Should luxury hotels be banned in India?

Arguments I. Yes, these are places from where international criminals operate.

(II) No, affluent foreign tourists will have no place to stay.

Answer: (b)

93. Sheela is Ravi’s sister-in-law. Ram is Ravi’s brother. Ram’s wife is Sheela. Deepa is Ravis sister. Deepa’s mother is Shanthi. How is Sheela related to Shanthi?

(a) Mother-in-law

(b) Daughter-in-law

(c)  Grand daughter

(d) Daughter

Answer: (b)

94. A is the mother of D and sister of B. B has a daughter C, who is married of F. G is the husband of A. How is G related to D?

(a) Uncle

(b) Husband

(c)  Son

(d) Father

Answer: (d)

95. If the code of STEADY, is 931785, what will be the code of SEDATE?

(a) 814195

(b) 954185

(c)  614781

(d) 918731

Answer: (d)

96. A child is looking for his father. He went 90m in the East before turning to his right. He went 20m before turning to his right again to look for his father at his uncle’s place 30m from this point. His father was not there. From here he went 100m to his North before meeting his father in a street. How far did the son meet his father from the starting point?

(a) 80 m

(b) 100 m

(c)  260 m

(d) 140 m

Answer: (b)

97. Raju facing North and moves 20 km, then he turned to his right and moves 20 km and then he moves 10 km in North-East, then he turned to his right and moves 20 km and then he turned to his right and moves 20 km and again he turned to his left and moves 20 km. Now, in which direction Raju is facing?

(a) South-East

(b) North-East

(c)  South-West

(d) North-West

Answer: (a)

98. Which of the following diagrams best depicts the relation among liquids, Milk and River water?

Answer: (a)

99. Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes. Professionals, Charted Accountant, Female

Answer: (c)

100. Which diagram represents the relationship among female, mother and doctors?

Answer: (c)

101. Which of the following companies has started a rural marketing network called e-Choupals?

(a) ITC

(b) Dabur

(c)  Hindustan

(d) Protector and Gamble

Answer: (a)

102. Which one of the following clothing brands was the sponsor of the Femina Miss India Beauty Pageant 2017?

(a) Lifestyle

(b) Fbb

(c)  Pantaloons

(d) Gucci

Answer: (b)

103. Who is the current CEO of an Indian fashion e-commerce company Myntra?

(a) Mukesh Bansal

(b) Ashutosh Lawania

(c)  Vineet Saxena

(d) Anath Narayanan

Answer: (d)

104. The tagline ‘Be You’ is associated with which of the following fashion e-commerce portal?

(a) Myntra

(b) Fernia’s pupshop

(c)  Jabong

(d) Limeroad

Answer: (c)

105. Which among the following brands is not an Indian brand?

(a) Allen Solly

(b) Da Milano

(c)  Monte Carlo

(d) Steve Madden

Answer: (d)

106. Who has won the best actor award (male) at the 2018 Dadasaheb Phalke Excellence Awards?

(a) Salman Khan

(b) Akshay Kumar

(c)  Shah Rukh Khan

(d) Shahid Kapoor

Answer: (d)

107. Which city will host the 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBS) 2019?

(a) Bengaluru

(b) New Delhi

(c)  Gandhinagar

(d) Varanasi

Answer: (d)

108. Where is the headquarters of Asian Development Bank (ADB) located?

(a) Philippines

(b) Geneva

(c)  New York

(d) Beijing

Answer: (a)

109. Who has won the 2018 Italian Open Tennis tournament?

(a) Alexander Zverev

(b) Rafael Nadal

(c)  Juan Martin del Potro

(d) Grigor Dimitrov

Answer: (b)

110. Which country has launched the world’s first floating nuclear power station?

(a) United States

(b) Russia

(c)  China

(d) France

Answer: (b)

111. Which country’s hockey team has won the 5th Women’s Asian Champions Trophy 2018?

(a) South Korea

(b) India

(c)  China

(d) Myanmar

Answer: (a)

112. ‘CaratLane’, the biggest online jewellery company in India, is associated with which brand?

(a) Kalyan

(b) Malabar Gold

(c)  Tanishq

(d) Tribhovandas Bhimji Zaveri (TBZ)

Answer: (c)

113. Who sworn in as Nepal’s 41st Prime Minister in February 2018?

(a) KP Sharma Oil

(b) Bidya Devi Bhandari

(c)  Nasirul Mulk

(d) Pushpa Kamal Dahal

Answer: (a)

114. Pankaj Advani is well-known Indian player of

(a) Cricket

(b) Chess

(c)  Billiards

(d) Hockey

Answer: (c)

115. Which of following countries got observer status in SAARC?

(a) Korea and China

(b) Russian and China

(c)  Japan and China

(d) India and Pakistan

Answer: (c)

116. NITI Ayog was set up in the year

(a) 2014

(b) 2015

(c)  2016

(d) 2017

Answer: (b)

117. Who won the Most Valuable Player in the 2018 Indian Premier League (IPL-11)?

(a) Rishabh Pant

(b) Shane Watson

(c)  Sunil Narine

(d) Kiwi Trent Boult

Answer: (c)

118. Which among the following sarees got the GI (Geographical Indication) tag?

(a) Banarasi saree

(b) Kovai Kora saree

(c)  Chanderi saree

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

119. The ‘Valley of flowers’ is located in which state?

(a) Uttarakhand

(b) Punjab

(c)  Tamil Nadu

(d) Jammu and Kashmir

Answer: (a)

120. Which city is known as ‘Venice of East’?

(a) Ajmer

(b) Udaipur

(c)  Jodhpur

(d) Jaipur

Answer: (b)

121. Which is the only country in the world to produce all five varities of silk?

(a) China

(b) Brazil

(c)  India

(d) Indonesia

Answer: (c)

122. Which Indian actress has launched her own fashion private label brand called ‘All About You’ on fashion app Myntra?

(a) Kareena Kapoor

(b) Deepika Padukone

(c)  Katrina Kaif

(d) Bipasha Basu

Answer: (b)

123. Teesta river dispute is common to Indian and

(a) Pakistan

(b) China

(c)  Bangladesh

(d) Nepal

Answer: (c)

124. The Mohiniyattam dance form was developed in

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Karnataka

(c)  Kerala

(d) Tamil Nadu

Answer: (c)

125. ‘Mohey’ from the house of ‘Manyavar’ has signed which film star as their new brand ambassador?

(a) Virat Kohli

(b) Anushka Sharma

(c)  Madhuri Dixit

(d) Deepika Padukone

Answer: (b)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 126-136) Read the following case and answer the questions given at the end each case on the basis of information provided.


Tata Group brand Mia, part of its jewellery division Tanisq, is eyeing Rs 1,000 crore turnover in the next 5-6 years as it expands it retail footprint across the country. Tanishq, which launched the brand for working women in 2011, sells the Mia jewellery range from its existing stores, standalone Mia stores and select shop-in-shops at multi brand outlets such as Shoppers Stop. The company plans to open 25 new standalone Mia stores by the end of the current financial year as it looks to grow turnover from the brand. While Tanishq will continue to sell Mia brand jewellery, growth of business for Mia will come from standalone stores. “Growth of Mia brand has been consistent for the last few years……upwards of 20-25 per cent CAGR. Right now, Mia brand is strongly under Tanisq’s shadow but we want to parallelly open a fresh retail line. We want to make Mia a Rs 1,000 crore brand in 5-6 years,” Titan Company Senior Vice-President (Retail and Marketing) – Jewellery Division, Sandeep Kulhalli told.

126. Tata Group brand Mia’s target group is

(a) Lower income class

(b) Higher income class

(c)  Working women

(d) Homemakers

Answer: (c)

127. While Tanishq will continue to sell Mia brand jewellery, growth of business for Mia will come from

(a) Existing stores

(b) Standalone stores

(c)  Multi brand outlets

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

128. Tanisq wants to set up ‘Mia’ as a separate brand because

(a) it wants to target more working class women

(b) it wants to popularise it

(c)  it want to increase its turn over

(d) All of the above

Answer: (c)


The Luxury market in India gathers tremendous attention in recent years, as a vast majority of the international brands has arrived, or are relied upon to enter. Luxury retailers have understood that India is one of the world’s most energetic, diverse, and testing markets for brands who want to set sights in India. India is still at an early phase of its advancement as a luxury retail market. Due to its market fluctuation, it is difficult to analyse it. While India is pictured as an upcoming business sector due to its colossal potential, it is the size of the market which makes it extremely exciting for brands to venture into for the long haul. It was not too long ago we witnessed the badge brand syndrome boom, where the focus was all about logos which people wanted to flaunt since the premium positioning of brands had a strong foothold on consumers. The influence of Indian culture globally has grown tremendously by brands, designers and celebrities. Bollywood and sports celebrities are also playing a significant role in the overall domestic brand strategy which is trickling outwards on a global platform. They have changed the power of branding.

129. Luxury retailers are now flooding in India because they have understood that India is one of the world’s

(a) most energetic market

(b) most diverse market

(c)  most testing market

(d) All of the above

Answer: (d)

130. Indian luxury retail market is in

(a) mature phase

(b) early phase

(c)  developed phase

(d) None of these

Answer: ()

131. It is difficult to analyse Indian luxury retail market due to

(a) its fluctuating nature

(b) its strong nature

(c)  its high growth potential

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a)

132. Badge brand syndrome boom is condition in which

(a) people became brand conscious

(b) people got attracted to new market

(c)  market become full of logos

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a)

133. The power of branding has been changed by

(a) designers

(b) bollywood celebrities

(c)  sports celebrities

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)


SWACH cooperative conducted the brand audit survey at three locations Bavdhan, Kothrud and Garware bridge from 16th May to 20th May, 2018. According to the survey, 87% of the waste was attributable to local/Indian brand owners such as Haldiram, Parrle, ITC, Amul and Britannia international, while 13% of the waste was attributable to international brand owners (or Indian subsidiaries) such as Unilever, Nestle, Mondelez (Cadbury) and Coca  Cola.

International brands whie having a smaller share, are being used throughout the world so would have a higher share in the total global waste. Supriya Bhadawad, a SWACH waste picker involved in the brand audit, said, “We sort and send all the hard plastics, shampoo bottles, carry bags, PET bottles and milk packets for recycling every day. But items like food product packaging, chips and biscuit covers, we cannot sell because they have no value. Companies using these materials should either change the packaging and make it recyclable or buy this sort of material from us at affordable rates. That way we can collect and sell it. It will increase our income and reduce the waste going into the landfill.” They also found 86% of the branded packaging was from food product packaging, followed by 8% personal care products and 6% household products.

134. In a survey conducted by SWACH cooperative, it was founded that 87% of the waste during garbage collection was attributable to

(a) Indian brands

(b) international brands

(c)  village industries

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

135. Items like food product packaging, chips and biscuit covers cannot be sold because

(a) they are biodegradable

(b) the y have no value

(c)  they are no biodegradable

(d) they are reusable

Answer: (b)

136. What is the share of among branded packaging food product packaging?

(a) 8%

(b) 86%

(c)  8%

(d) 10%

Answer: (b)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 137-150) In each of these questions a passage is followed by several inferences. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.

(a) if the inference is ‘definitely true’ i.e., it directly follows from the facts given in the passage;

(b) if the inference is ‘probably true’ i.e, though not definitely true in the light of facts given;

(c) if you think the inference is ‘probably false’ though out definitely false in the light of facts given;

(d) if you think the inference is ‘definitely false’ i.e., it contradicts the given facts.


Ace designer Manish Malhotra, who has crossed the 4 million mark on his Instagram account, says the reach of digital space in fashion industry is phenomenal as people now have become more vocal about their opinions and craftsmanship, and this helps a brand to grow. He believes that the reach of the digital space in our industry is phenomenal and the impact it has on you brand is incomparable. People from across the globe can now access your brand and get a window inside y our world that was initially not a possibility. Currently, the label is reaching out to over 8 million people across platforms, said the designer, whose label registered a 300 per cent growth last year for him,, the digital world has allowed him to stay connected to the world at the click of a button enhancing accessibility and thus,, transcending the constraints of bricks-n-mortar, all at once.

137. The customers are better connected to a brand through social media than otherwise.

Answer: (b)

138. As people now have become more vocal about their opinions and craftsmanship, this helps brand to grow.

Answer: (a)

139. The digital word has enabled the fashion designers to stay connected to the world It promotes their brand and popularity as it enhances their accessibility.

Answer: (a)


A report from the World Health Organisation on the occasion of World No Tobacco Day (May 31) suggests that India’s efforts to cut the prevalence of cigarette smoking are paying off. By 2025, the report projected, India will come in line to meet its 2025 target under a WHO global plan to tackle non-communicable diseases. Gutkha and other chewable tobacco items are equally, if not more, harmful compared to cigarettes. Surveys show that these products are sometimes mixed with carcinogenic compounds called nitrosamines. This is why, India banned their sale under the 2011 Food Safety and Standards Regulations. Why do they continue to be consumed, then? Experts blame their availability on loopholes in the law. The food safety rules target pre-mixed tobacco products, such as gutkha, which contains lime, sugar and other spices. This leaves  unflavoured items,, such as khaini or surthi, out of regulatory purview. Meanwhile, mislabelling of smokeless tobacco is common. Even when a product contains tobacco, it is passed off as being tobacco-free. Worse, one of the tactics of the tobacco industry is to use flavours such as cardamom and saffron to attract youngsters, triggering life-log addiction.

140. A report from the World Health Organization declared India free from cigarette smoking.

Answer: (d)

141. Surveys show that the product like gutkha and other chewable tobacco are sometimes mixed with carcinogenic compounds called nitrosamines.

Answer: (a)

142. Why these tobacco products continue to be consumed, then? Experts blame their availability solely on the loopholes in the law and there is no fault on the part of the public in general.

Answer: (b)

143. By 2025, the report projected, India will come in line to meet its 2025 target under a WHO global plan to tackle communicable diseases.

Answer: (d)

144. People consumes these chewable and non chewable tobacco products because of the use of flavours such as cardamom and saffron, which triggers life – long addiction.

Answer: (b)

145. Cigarette smoking has more harmful impacts than gutkha and other chewable tobacco.

Answer: (c)


Three hundred people live on the small Mauritian archipelago of Agalega. They watch as their home is turned slowly into an Indian naval base. There is little that they can do. The government of Mauritius knows that there is far more to be gained from India than from the people of Agalega. Mauritius is one of the main routes for Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) into India. It earns Mauritius a considerable fortune in fees – money that is enough for Mauritius to renege on its pledge to its own citizens. In 2015, Prime Minister Narendra Modi and his Mauritian counterpart Anerood Jugnauth watched as Navtej Srna (Ministry of External Affairs) and Sateeaved Seebaluck (Cabinet Secretary, Mauritius) signed an agreement that allows India to ‘develop infrastructure’ on the islands. The phrase is a euphemism for the building of military bases, which India is doing is not only on Agalega but also on Assumption Island (Seychelles).

146. Mauritian archipelago of Agalega has come under the control of Indian Navy after the development of Indian naval base there.

Answer: (d)

147. The government of Mauritius knows that there is far more to be gained from India than from the people of Agalega. Therefore, they allowed the construction of Indian naval base there.

Answer: (a)

148. Mauritius earns a considerable fortune in fees from India as it is one of the main routes for Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) into India.

Answer: (a)

149. The deal between India and Mauritius will remain all time favourable to the people of Mauritius.

Answer: (d)

150. India wants to increase its influence in Indian Ocean by developing naval base in Mauritius.

Answer: (b)

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