NEET (UG)-2020 Examination Held on 13-09-2020 Code F1 Question Paper With Answer Key

NEET (UG) 2020 Code F1 Paper Held on 13-09-2020

1. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from

(1)   PS-I to NADP+

(2)   PS-I to ATP synthase

(3)   PS-II to Cytb6f complex

(4)   Cytb6f complex to PS-I

Answer: (3)

2. The sequence t he controls copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed

(1)   Palindromic sequence

(2)   Recognition site

(3)   Selectable marker

(4)   Ori site

Answer: (4)

3. The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is

(1)   5′ – CTTAAG – 3′

3′ – GAATTC – 5′

(2)   5′- GGATCC – 3′

3′ – CCTAGG – 5′

(3)   5′ – GAATTC – 3′

3′ – CTTAAG – 5′

(4)   5′ – GGAACC – 3′

3′ – CCTTGG – 5′

Answer: (3)

4. Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.

(1)   Active immunity is quick and gives full response.

(2)   Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an example for passive immunity.

(3)   When exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies are produced in the host’s body. It is called “Active immunity”.

(4)   When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is called “Passive immunity”.

Answer: (1)

5. Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by

(1)   Boveri

(2)   Morgan

(3)   Mendel

(4)   Sutton

Answer: (2)

6. Match the following concerning essential elements and their functions is plants

(a) Iron     (i) Photolysis of water

(b) Zinc    (ii) Pollen germination

(c) Boron (iii) Required for chlorophyll biosynthesis

(d) Manganese     (iv) IAA biosynthesis

Select the correct option

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iii)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i)

Answer: (1)

7. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments cane be visualized with the help of

(1)   Acetocarmine in UV radiation

(2)   Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation

(3)   Acetocarmine in bright blue light

(4)   Ethidium bromide in UV radiation

Answer: (4)

8. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.

(1)   DNA polymerase

(2)   RNA polymerase

(3)   DNA ligase

(4)   DNA helicase

Answer: (2)

9. In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?

(1)   ICSI and ZIFT

(2)   GIFT and ICSI

(3)   ZIFT and IUT

(4)   GIFT and ZIFT

Answer: (3)

10. Identify the basic amino acid from the following.

(1)   Lysine

(2)   Valine

(3)   Tyrosine

(4)   Glutamic Acid

Answer: (1)

11. Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen

(1)   Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin

(2)   Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglogbin

(3)   Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O2

(4)   Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with O2 binding with haemoglobin

Answer: (1)

12. Floridean starch has structure similar to

(1)   Mannitol and algin

(2)   Laminarin and cellulose

(3)   Starch and cellulose

(4)   Amylopectin and glycogen

Answer: (4)

13. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of sheep formed formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams?

(1)   Cross breeding

(2)   Inbreeding

(3)   Out crossing

(4)   Mutational breeding

Answer: (1)

14. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I                                    Column-II

(a) Pituitary gland            (i) Grave’s disease

(b) Thyroid gland                        (ii) Diabetes mellitus

(c) Adrenal gland                        (iii) Diabetes insipidus

(d) Pancreas                     (iv) Addison’s disease

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(ii)

(2)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii)

(3)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)

(4)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(i); (d)-(iv)

Answer: (1)

15. Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.

(1)   AIDS, Malaria, Filaria

(2)   Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis

(3)   Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes

(4)   Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes

Answer: (3)

16. Chose the correct pair from the following

(1)   Nucleases – Separate the two strands of DNA

(2)   Exonucleases – Make cuts at specific positions within DNA

(3)   Ligases – Join the two DNA molecules

(4)   Polymerases – Break the DNA into fragments

Answer: (3)

17. Ray florets have

(1)   Hypogynous ovary

(2)   Half inferior ovary

(3)   Inferior ovary

(4)   Superior ovary

Answer: (3)

18. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.

(a) Bacillus thuringiensis             (i) Cloning vector

(b) Thermus aquaticus                 (ii) Construction of first rDNA molecule

(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens    (iii) DNA polymerase

(d) Salmonella typhimurium        (iv) Cry proteins

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(iii); (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)

Answer: (4)

19. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are

(1)   Ammonia and oxygen

(2)   Ammonia and hydrogen

(3)   Ammonia alone

(4)   Nitrate alone

Answer: (2)

20. Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop.

(1)   Ethylene

(2)   Abscisic acid

(3)   Cytokinin

(4)   Gibberellin

Answer: (4)

21. The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at

(1)   Nucellus

(2)   Chalaza

(3)   Hilum

(4)   Micropyle

Answer: (3)

22. The process of growth is maximum during

(1)   Senescence

(2)   Dormancy

(3)   Log phase

(4)   Lag phase

Answer: (3)

23. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by

(1)   Aschelminthes

(2)   Annelinda

(3)   Ctenophora

(4)   Platyhelminthes

Answer: (4)

24. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment?

(1)   Effluents of primary treatment

(2)   Activated sludge

(3)   Primary sludge

(4)   Floating debris

Answer: (2)

25. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I

(a) Floating Ribs

(b) Acromion
(c) Scapula

(d) Glenoid cavity

Column-II

(i) Located between second and seventh ribs

(ii) Head of the Humerus

(iii) Clavicle

(iv) Do not connect with the sternum

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(iii)

(4)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iv)

Answer: (2)

26. Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes.

(1)   They are useful in genetic engineering.

(2)   Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligase.

(3)   Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.

(4)   They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites.

Answer: (2)

27. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I                                                                        Column-II

(a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest                                    (i) Asterias

(b) Adult with radial symmetry and larva symmetry   (ii) Scorpion

(c) Book lungs                                                                     (iii) Ctenoplana

(d) Bioluminescence                                                         (iv) Locusta

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(i); (d)-(iv)

(2)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iii); (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iv)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iii)

Answer: (4)

28. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because

(1)   the head holds a small proportion of  a nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral part of its body.

(2)   the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the dorsal part of its body.

(3)   the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the cockroach are situated in ventral part of abdomen.

(4)   the cockroach does not have nervous system.

Answer: (1)

29. Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits highest species diversity?

(1)   Himalayas

(2)   Amazon forests

(3)   Western Ghats of India

(4)   Madagascar

Answer: (2)

30. Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?

(1)   Golgi bodies

(2)   Polysomes

(3)   Endoplasmic reticulum

(4)   Peroxisomes

Answer: (1)

31. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?

(1)   Anabaena and Volvox

(2)   Chlorella and Spirulina

(3)   Laminaria and  Sargassum

(4)   Gelidium and Gracilaria

Answer: (2)

32. Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in the animals?

(1)   Lectin

(2)   Insulin

(3)   Haemoglobin

(4)   Collagen

Answer: (4)

33. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during

(1)   Diplotene

(2)   Leptotene

(3)   Pachytene

(4)   Zygotene

Answer: (1)

34. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits?

(1)   14

(2)   8

(3)   4

(4)   2

Answer: (1)

35. Cuboidal epithelium with burst border of microvilli is found in

(1)   Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron

(2)   Eustachian tube

(3)   Lining of intestine

(4)   Ducts of salivary gland

Answer: (1)

36. Match the following with respect to meiosis

(a) Zygotene                    (i) Terminalization

(b) Pachytene                   (ii) Chiasmata

(c) Diplotene                    (iii) Crossing over

(d) Diakinesis                  (iv) Synapsis

Select the correct option from the following

(1)   (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii)

(2)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(iii); (d)-(i)

(3)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i)

Answer: (4)

37. Which of the following statement about inclusion bodies is incorrect?

(1)   They lie free in the cytoplasm

(2)   These represent reserve material in cytoplasm

(3)   They are not bound by any membrane

(4)   These are involved in ingestion of food particles

Answer: (4)

38. Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis?

(1)   Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction

(2)   Decrease in secretion of rennin by JG cells

(3)   More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH

(4)   Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone

Answer: (4)

39. The transverse section of a plant shows following anatomical features:

(a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath

(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue

(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed

(d) Phloem parenchyma absent

Identify the category of plant and its part:

(1)   Dicotyledonous stem

(2)   Dicotyledonous root

(3)   Monocotyledonous stem

(4)   Monocotyledonous root

Answer: (3)

40. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1)   Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds

(2)   Adenine does not pair with thymine

(3)   Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds

(4)   Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond

Answer: (3)

41. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I                                            Column-II                                                                                                                                                      

(a) Bt cotton                                         (i) Gene  therapy

(b) Adenosine deaminase deficiency (ii) Cellular defence

(c) RNAi                                                  (iii) Detection of HIV infection

(d) PCR                                                   (iv) Bacillus thuringiensis

(1)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iii); (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iii)

(4)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(i); (d)-(iv)

Answer: (3)

42. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of

(1)   Industrial melanism

(2)   Natural selection

(3)   Adaptive radiation

(4)   Convergent evolution

Answer: (4)

43. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in photorespiration leads to the formation of

(1)   1 molecule of 6-C compound

(2)   1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule of 2-C compound

(3)   2 molecules of 3-C compound

(4)   1 molecules of 3-C compound

Answer: (4)

44. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is

(1)   Female gametocytes

(2)   Male gametocytes

(3)   Trophozoites

(4)   Sporozoites

Answer: (4)

45. Identify the incorrect statement.

(1)   Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in colour

(2)   Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc., heart wood is dark in colour

(3)   Heart wood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support

(4)   Sapwood is involved in conduction of water and minerals from root of leaf

Answer: (1)

46. Which of the following is correct about viroids?

(1)   They have DNA with protein coat

(2)   They have free DNA without protein coat

(3)   They have RNA with protein coat

(4)   They have free RNA without protein coat

Answer: (4)

47. Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option.

Column-I                                    Column-II

(a) Typhoid                                  (i) Wuchereria

(b) Penumonia                             (ii) Plasmodium

(c) Filariasis                                 (iii) Salmonella

(d) Malaria                                   (iv) Haemophilus

(1)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iii); (d)-(iv)

(2)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iii)

(3)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iv)

(4)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)

Answer: (4)

48. Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.

(1)   When IA and IB are present together, they express same type of sugar.

(2)   Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar.

(3)   The gene (I) has three alleles.

(4)   A person will have only two of the three alleles.

Answer: (1)

49. According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about

(1)   50 million

(2)   7 million

(3)   1.5 million

(4)   20 million

Answer: (2)

50. Which of the following is not an attribute of a population?

(1)   Mortality

(2)   Species interaction

(3)   Sex ratio

(4)   Natality

Answer: (2)

51. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by:

(1)   Wind and water

(2)   Insects and water

(3)   Insects or wind

(4)   Water currents only

Answer: (3)

52. The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents

(1)   Depolarisation of ventricles

(2)   Repolarisation of ventricles

(3)   Repolarisation of auricles

(4)   Depolarisation of auricles

Answer: (1)

53. Select the correct match

(1)   Sickle cell anaemia-Autosomal recessive trait, chromosome-11

(2)   Thalassemia – X linked

(3)   Haemophilia – Y linked

(4)   Phenylketonuria – Autosomal dominant trait

Answer: (1)

54. The number of substrate level phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid cycle is

(1)   Two

(2)   Three

(3)   Zero

(4)   One

Answer: (4)

55. Match the following

(a) Inhibitor of catalytic activity (i) Ricin

(b) Possess peptide bonds           (ii) Malonate

(c) Cell wall material                   (iii) Chitin

(d) Secondary metabolite                        (iv) Collagen

Choose the correct option from the following

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)

(2)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii); (c)-(i); (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(iii); (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(ii)

Answer: (3)

56. Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action?

(a)   Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.

(b)   Herbicide resistant weeds.

(c)   Drug resistant eukaryotes.

(d)   Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs.

(1)   (b), (c) and (d)

(2)   only (d)

(3)   only (a)

(4)   (a) and (c)

Answer: (1)

57. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at the end of

(1)   S phase

(2)   G2 phase

(3)   M phase

(4)   G1 phase

Answer: (3)

58. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are produced by plants for their

(1)   Defence action

(2)   Effect on reproduction

(3)   Nutritive value

(4)   Growth response

Answer: (1)

59. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed.

(1)   After zygote formation

(2)   At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum

(3)   Prior to ovulation

(4)   At the time of copulation

Answer: (2)

60. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1)   The functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds.

(2)   Genetically engineered insulin is produced in E. Coli.

(3)   In man insulin is synthesized as a proinsulin

(4)   The proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-peptide.

Answer: (1)

61. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to

(1)   High reflection of light from snow

(2)   Damage of retina caused by infra-red rays

(3)   Freezing of fluids in the eye by low temperature

(4)   Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of UV-B radiation

Answer: (4)

62. Strobili or cones are found in

(1)   Marchantia

(2)   Equisetum

(3)   Salvinia

(4)   Pteris

Answer: (2)

63. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask

(1)   CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C

(2)   CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C

(3)   CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800°C

(4)   CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 800°C

Answer: (3)

64. In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct?

(1)   Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity are one and same

(2)   There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity

(3)   Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity

(4)   Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity

Answer: (4)

65. Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in grassland ecosystem.

(a) Fourth trophic level    (i) Crow

(b) Second trophic level  (ii) Vulture

(c) First trophic level       (iii) Rabbit

(d) Third trophic level     (iv) Grass

Select the correct option

(1)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iii); (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(i); (d)-(iv)

Answer: (3)

66. Select the correct statement.

(1)   Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.

(2)   Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia

(3)   Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.

(4)   Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.

Answer: (3)

67. Select the correct events that occur during inspiration.

(a) Contraction of diaphragm

(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles

(c) Pulmonary volume decreases

(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases

(1)   (a), (b) and (d)

(2)   only (d)

(3)   (a) and (b)

(4)   (c) and (d)

Answer: (3)

68. The roots that originate from the base of the stem are

(1)   Prop roots

(2)   Lateral roots

(3)   Fibrous roots

(4)   Primary roots

Answer: (3)

69. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from

(1)   Chondrocytes

(2)   Compound epithelial cells

(3)   Squamous epithelial cells

(4)   Columnar epithelial cells

Answer: (4)

70. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control of

(1)   Release of Green House gases

(2)   Disposal of e-wastes

(3)   Transport of Genetically modified organisms from one country to another

(4)   Emission of ozone depleting substances

Answer: (4)

71. Which of the following statements are true for the phylum-Chordata?

(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life.

(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only.

(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow.

(d) Chordata is divided into 3 sybphyla: Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalochordata.

(1)   (a) and (b)

(2)   (b) and (c)

(3)   (d) and (c)

(4)   (c) and (a)

Answer: (2)

72. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their structure

(1)   Cellulose, lecithin

(2)   Inulin, insulin

(3)   Chitin, cholesterol

(4)   Glycerol, trypsin

Answer: (2)

73. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I

(a) Placenta

(b) Zona pellucid

(c) Bulbo-urethral glands

(d) Leydig cells

Column-II

(i) Androgens

(ii) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)

(iii) Layer of the ovum

(iv) Lubrication of the Penis

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i)

(3)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)

(4)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iv); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iii)

Answer: (2)

74. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 × 109 bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately.

(1)   2.2 meters

(2)   2.7 meters

(3)   2.0 meters

(4)   2.5 meters

Answer: (1)

75. The ovary is half inferior in:

(1)   Sunflower

(2)   Plum

(3)   Brinjal

(4)   Mustard

Answer: (2)

76. Identify the correct statement with regard to G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.

(1)   Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA.

(2)   Nuclear Division takes place.

(3)   DNA synthesis or replication takes place.

(4)   Reorganisation of all cell components takes place.

Answer: (1)

77. Which of the following hormone levels will cause released of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian follicle?

(1)   Low concentration of LH

(2)   Low concentration of FSH

(3)   High concentration of Estrogen

(4)   High concentration of Progesterone

Answer: (3)

78. Identify the correct statement with reference to human digestive system.

(1)   Ileum is highly coiled part

(2)   Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum

(3)   Ileum opens into small intestine

(4)   Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal

Answer: (1)

79. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I

(a) Eosinophils

(b) Basophils

(c) Neutrophils

(d) Lymphocytes

Column-II

(i) Immune response

(ii) Phagocytosis

(iii) Release histaminases, destructive enzymes

(iv) Release granules containing histamine

(1)   (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii)

(2)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iii); (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iii)

Answer: (3)

80. The plant parts which consist of two generations – one within the other

(a) Pollen grains inside the anther

(b) Geminated pollen grain with two male gametes

(c) Seed inside the fruit

(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule

(1)   (c) and (d)

(2)   (a) and (d)

(3)   (a) only

(4)   (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (2)

81. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to

(1)   Plant nematodes

(2)   Insect predators

(3)   Insect pests

(4)   Fungal diseases

Answer: (3)

82. The first phase of translation is

(1)   Aminoacylation of tRNA

(2)   Recognition of an anti-codon

(3)   Binding of mRNA to ribosome

(4)   Recognition of DNA molecule

Answer: (1)

83. Embyological support for evolution was disapproved by

(1)   Charles Darwin

(2)   Oparin

(3)   Karl Ernst von Baer

(4)   Alfred Wallace

Answer: (3)

84. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I                                    Column-II

(a) 6-15 pairs of gill slits              (i) Trygon

(b) Heterocercal caudal fin          (ii) Cyclostomes

(c) Air Bladder                            (iii) Chondrichthyes

(d) Poison sting                           (iv) Osteichthyes

(1)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iii); (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iv); (c)-(iii); (d)-(ii)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)

Answer: (3)

85. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I                                    Column-II

(a) Clostridium butylicum            (i) Cyclosporin-A

(b) Trichoderma polysporun        (ii) Butyric acid

(c) Monascus purpureus              (iii) Citric acid

(d) Aspergillus niger                    (iv) Blood cholesterol lowering agent

(1)   (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii)

(2)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i)

(3)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii)

Answer: (4)

86. Which of the following is not a inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy?

(1)   Phenolic acid

(2)   Para-ascorbic acid

(3)   Gibberellic acid

(4)   Abscisic acid

Answer: (3)

87. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I

(a) Organ of Corti

(b) Cochlea

(c) Eustachian tube

(d) Stapes

Column-II

(i) Connects middle ear and pharynx

(ii) Coiled part of the labyrinth

(iii) Attached to the oval window

(iv) Located on the basilar membrane

(1)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(ii); (c)-(i); (d)-(iii)

(2)   (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii); (c)-(i); (d)-(iv)

(4)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(ii)

Answer: (1)

88. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of

(1)   caseinogens into casein

(2)   pepsinogen into pepsin

(3)   protein into polypeptides

(4)   trypsinogen into trypsin

Answer: (4)

89. Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?

(1)   Ketonuria and Glycosuria

(2)   Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia

(3)   Uremia and Ketonuria

(4)   Uremia and Renal Calculi

Answer: (1)

90. The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and in nearly morning is

(1)   Imbibition

(2)   Plasmolysis

(3)   Transpiration

(4)   Root pressure

Answer: (4)

91. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of 16 × 109 C m. The electric potential due to the dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the centre of the dipole, situated on a line making an angle of 60° with the dipole axis is:

(1)   400 V

(2)   zero

(3)   50 V

(4)   200 V

Answer: (4)

92. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage source. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase difference between current and voltage is π/3. If instead C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again π/3 between current and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is:

(1)   1.0

(2)   −1.0

(3)   zero

(4)   0.5

Answer: (1)

93. Lit of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on a photosensitive material. What will be the photoelectric current if the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled?

(1)   one-fourth

(2)   zero

(3)   doubled

(4)   four times

Answer: (2)

94. Dimensions of stress are:

(1)   [ML0T2]

(2)   [ML1T2]

(3)   [MLT2]

(4)   [ML2T2]

Answer: (2)

95. An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is 1.227 × 102 nm, the potential difference is:

(1)   103V

(2)   104V

(3)   10 V

(4)   102V

Answer: (2)

96. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with air as medium is 6 μ With the introduction of a dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 30 μF. The permittivity of the medium is:

(∈0 = 8.85 × 10−12 C2 N−1 m−2)

(1)   0.44 × 10−10 C2 N−1 m−2

(2)   5.00 C2 N−1 m−2

(3)   0.44 × 10−13 C2 N−1 m−2

(4)   1.77 × 10−12 C2 N−1 m−2

Answer: (1)

97. The solids which have the negative temperature coefficient of resistance are:

(1)   semiconductors only

(2)   insulators and semiconductors

(3)   metals

(4)   insulators only

Answer: (2)

98. For transistor action, which of the following statements is correct?

(1)   Both emitter junction as well as the collector junction are forward biased.

(2)   The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.

(3)   Base, emitter and collector regions should have same doping concentrations.

(4)   Base, emitter and collector regions should have same size.

Answer: (2)

99. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there are 50 divisions in its circular scale.

The pitch of the screw gauge is:

(1)   0.5 mm

(2)   1.0 mm

(3)   0.01 mm

(4)   0.25 mm

Answer: (1)

100. The phase difference between displacement and acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic motion is:

(1)   π/2 rad

(2)   zero

(3)   π rad

(4)   3π/2 rad

Answer: (3)

101. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at the centre of the solenoid is:

0 = 4π × 107 T m A1)

(1)   6.28 × 105 T

(2)   3.14 × 105 T

(3)   6.28 × 104 T

(4)   3.14 × 104 T

Answer: (3)

102. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits the ground after some time with a velocity of 80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g = 10 m/s2)

(1)   320 m

(2)   300 m

(3)   360 m

(4)   340 m

Answer: (2)

103. The colour code of a resistance is given below

The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively, are

(1)   4.7 kΩ, 5%

(2)   470 Ω, 5%

(3)   470 kΩ, 5%

(4)   47 kΩ, 10%

Answer: (2)

104. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be

(1)   45° < ib < 90°

(2)   ib = 90°

(3)   0° < ib < 30°

(4)   30° < ib < 45°

Answer: (1)

105. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface. If the refractive index of the material of the prism is μ, then the angle of incidence is nearly equal to:

(1)   μA

(2)   μA/2

(3)   A/2μ

(4)   2A/μ

Answer: (1)

106. Two cylinder A and B of equal capacity are connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains an ideal gas at standard temperature an pressure. B is completely evacuated. The entire system is thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly opened. The process is:

(1)   isochoric

(2)   isobaric

(3)   isothermal

(4)   adiabatic

Answer: (4)

107. For which one of the following, Bohr model is not valid?

(1)   Deuteron atom

(2)   Singly ionized neon atom (Ne+)

(3)   Hydrogen atom

(4)   Singly ionized helium atom (He+)

Answer: (2)

108. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the ends of a massless string. The string passes over a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration due to gravity (g) is:

(1)   g/5

(2)   g/10

(3)   g

(4)   g/2

Answer: (1)

109. In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m3, the electric potential is found to be 5 V throughout. The magnitude of electric field in this region is:

(1)   1 N/C

(2)   5 N/C

(3)   zero

(4)   0.5 N/C

Answer: (3)

110. When a uranium isotope  is bombarded with a neutron, it generates  three neutrons and :

(1) 

(2) 

(3) 

(4) 

Answer: (3)

111. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is :

(1)   1.5 × 1013 J

(2)   0.5 × 1013 J

(3)   4.5 × 1016 J

(4)   4.5 × 1013 J

Answer: (4)

112. The mean free path of a gas, with molecular diameter d and number density n can be expressed as:

(1) 

(2) 

(3) 

(4) 

Answer: (4)

113. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging from a fixed support. The length of the wire changes to L1 when mass M is suspended from its free end. The expression for Young’s modulus is:

(1) 

(2) 

(3) 

(4) 

Answer: (2)

114. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge of 3.2 × 107 C distributed uniformly. What is the magnitude of electric field at a point 15 cm from the centre of the sphere?

(1)   1.28 × 106 N/C

(2)   1.28 × 107 N/C

(3)   1.28 × 104 N/C

(4)   1.28 × 105 N/C

Answer: (4)

115. The energy required to break one bond in DNA is 1020 This value in eV is nearly:

(1)   0.06

(2)   0.006

(3)   6

(4)   0.6

Answer: (1)

116. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth. What is the gravitational force on it, at a height equal to half the radius of the earth?

(1)   30 N

(2)   24 N

(3)   48 N

(4)   32 N

Answer: (4)

117. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is:

(1) 

(2) 

(3) 

(4) 

Answer: (3)

118. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation between coherent sources is halved and the distance of the screen from the coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe width becomes:

(1)   four times

(2)   one-fourth

(3)   double

(4)   half

Answer: (1)

119. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass of water that will rise in this tube is:

(1)   10.0 g

(2)   20.0 g

(3)   2.5 g

(4)   5.0 g

Answer: (1)

120. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of 249 kPa and temperature 27°

Its density is : (R = 8.3 J mol1 K1)

(1)   0.1 kg/m3

(2)   0.02 kg/m3

(3)   0.5 kg/m3

(4)   0.2 kg/m3

Answer: (4)

121. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a magnetizing field of 1200 A m1. The permeability of the material of the rod is:

0 = 4π × 107 T m A1)

(1)   2.4π × 105 T m A1

(2)   2.4π × 107 T m A1

(3)   2.4π × 104 T m A1

(4)   8.0 × 105 T m A1

Answer: (3)

122. Find the torque about the origin when a force of  acts on a particle whose position vector is .

(1) 

(2) 

(3) 

(4) 

Answer: (1)

123. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas is : (k­B is Boltzmann constant and T, absolute temperature)

(1) 

(2) 

(3) 

(4) 

Answer: (4)

124. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming from a star. The limit of resolution of telescope whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is:

(1)   7.32 × 107 rad

(2)   6.00 × 107 rad

(3)   3.66 × 107 rad

(4)   1.83 × 107 rad

Answer: (3)

125. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having surface area 20 cm2. The energy received by the surface during time span of 1 minute is:

(1)   24 × 103 J

(2)   48 × 103 J

(3)   10 × 103 J

(4)   12 × 103 J

Answer: (1)

126. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of an electronmagnetic wave is :

(c = speed of electronmagnetic waves)

(1)   1 : c

(2)   1 : c2

(3)   c : 1

(4)   1 : 1

Answer: (4)

127. Which of the following graph represents the variation of resistivity (ρ) with temperature (T) for copper?

Answer: (1)

128. The quantities of heat required to raise the temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii r1 and r2 (r1 = 1.5 r2) through 1 K are in the ratio :

(1)   3/2

(2)   5/3

(3)   27/8

(4)   9/4

Answer: (3)

129. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a metre bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 Ω of the resistance wire is:

(1)   1.5 × 101 m

(2)   1.5 × 102 m

(3)   1.0 × 102 m

(4)   1.0 × 101 m

Answer: (4)

130. The increase in the width of the depletion region in a p-n junction diode is due to:

(1)   both forward bias and reverse bias

(2)   increase in forward current

(3)   forward bias only

(4)   reverse bias only

Answer: (4)

131. A 40 μF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz ac supply. The rms value of the current in the circuit is, nearly:

(1)   2.5 A

(2)   25.1 A

(3)   1.7 A

(4)   2.05 A

Answer: (1)

132. Taking into account of the significant, figures, what is the value of 9.99 m – 0.0099 m ?

(1)   9.980 m

(2)   9.9 m

(3)   9.9801 m

(4)   9.98 m

Answer: (4)

133. A charged particle having drift velocity of 7.5 × 104 m s1 in an electric field of 3 × 1010 Vm1, has a mobility in m2V1s1 of:

(1)   2.5 × 106

(2)   2.25 × 1015

(3)   2.25 × 1015

(4)   2.5 × 106

Answer: (4)

134. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same material are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original frequency of B will be:

(1)   536 Hz

(2)   537 Hz

(3)   523 Hz

(4)   524 Hz

Answer: (4)

135. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible mass.

The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg particle is nearly at a distance of :

(1)   67 cm

(2)   80 cm

(3)   33 cm

(4)   50 cm

Answer: (1)

136. Reaction between benezaldehyde and acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is known as

(1)   Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction

(2)   Cross Aldol condensation

(3)   Aldol condensation

(4)   Cannizzaro’s reaction

Answer: (2)

137. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining which property of colloidal solution?

(1)   Stability of the colloidal particles

(2)   Size of the colloidal particles

(3)   Viscosity

(4)   Solubility

Answer: (1)

138. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a secondary butyl carbocation because of which of the following?

(1)   − R effect of – CH3 groups

(2)   Hyperconjugation

(3)   −I effect of – CH3 groups

(4)   +R effect of – CH3 groups

Answer: (2)

139. The correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition is

(1)   q < 0, ∆T = 0 and w = 0

(2)   q > 0, ∆T > 0 and w > 0

(3)   q = 0, ∆T = 0 and w = 0

(4)   q = 0, ∆T < 0 and w > 0

Answer: (3)

140. Match the following :

Oxide                               Nature

(a) CO                              (i) Basic

(b) BaO                            (ii) Neutral

(c) Al2O3                          (iii) Acidic

(d) Cl2O7                          (iv) Amphoteric

Which of the following is correct option?

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(2)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(3)   (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(4)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Answer: (4)

141. Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will give:

(1)   Tert. butyl alcohol

(2)   Isobutyl alcohol

(3)   Isopropyl alcohol

(4)   Sec. butyl alcohol

Answer: (1)

142. The following metal ion activates many enzymes, participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP and with Na, is responsible for the transmission of nerve signals.

(1)   Calcium

(2)   Potassium

(3)   Iron

(4)   Copper

Answer: (2)

143. Which of the following is a basic amino acid?

(1)   Tyrosine

(2)   Lysine

(3)   Serine

(4)   Alanine

Answer: (2)

144. Identify compound X in the following sequence of reactions

Answer: (1)

145. Which of the following is the correct order of increasing field strength of ligands to form coordination compounds?

(1) 

(2) 

(3) 

(4) 

Answer: (3)

146. Which of the following is a cationic detergent?

(1)   Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide

(2)   Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate

(3)   Sodium lauryl sulphate

(4)   Sodium stearate

Answer: (1)

147. Which one of the following has maximum number of atoms?

(1)   1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]

(2)   1g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]

(3)   1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]

(4)   1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]

Answer: (2)

148. Identify the incorrect match.

Name                   IUPAC Official Name

(a) Unnilunium    (i) Mendelevium

(b) Unnitrium       (ii) Lawrencium

(c) Unnilhexium   (iii) Seaborgium

(d) Unununnium  (iv) Darmstadtium

(1)   (c), (iii)

(2)   (d), (iv)

(3)   (a), (i)

(4)   (b), (ii)

Answer: (2)

149. Which of the following amine will give the carbylamines test?

Answer: (3)

150. Paper chromatography is an example of

(1)   Thin layer chromatography

(2)   Column chromatography

(3)   Adsorption chromatography

(4)   Partition chromatography

Answer: (4)

151. A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder contains 7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total pressure of the mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the partial pressure of N2 is:

[Use atomic masses (in g mol1) : N = 14, Ar = 40]

(1)   15 bar

(2)   18 bar

(3)   9 bar

(4)   12 bar

Answer: (1)

152. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in respectively, are

(1)   71, 71 and 104

(2)   175, 104 and 71

(3)   71, 104 and 71

(4)   104, 71 and 71

Answer: (3)

153. The rate constant for a first order reaction is 4.606 × 103 s1. The time required to reduce 2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is:

(1)   500 s

(2)   1000 s

(3)   100 s

(4)   200 s

Answer: (1)

154. Identify a molecule which does not exist.

(1)   C2

(2)   O2

(3)   He2

(4)   Li2

Answer: (3)

155. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following reaction.

Sucrose + H2O ⇌ Glucose + Fructose

If the equilibrium constant (KC) is 2 × 1013 at 300 K, the value of ∆rG at the same temperature will be:

(1)   8.314 J mol1K1 × 300 K × ln(3 × 1013)

(2)   −8.314 J mol1K1 × 300 K × ln(4 × 1013)

(3)   −8.314 J mol1K1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013)

(4)   8.314 J mol1K1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013)

Answer: (3)

156. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), the correct option is:

(1)   ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS > 0

(2)   ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS < 0

(3)   ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS > 0

(4)   ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS < 0

Answer: (2)

157. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH. Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 is 2 × 1015

(1)   1 × 1013 M

(2)   1 × 108 M

(3)   2 × 1013 M

(4)   2 × 108 M

Answer: (3)

158. On electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid using Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at anode will be

(1)   H2S gas

(2)   SO2 gas

(3)   Hydrogen gas

(4)   Oxygen gas

Answer: (4)

159. Which of the following is not correct about carbon monoxide?

(1)   The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin bound to CO) is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin.

(2)   It is produced due to incomplete combustion.

(3)   It forms carboxyhaemoglobin

(4)   It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.

Answer: (1)

160. The number of Faradays(F) required to produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass of Ca = 40 g mol1) is

(1)   3

(2)   4

(3)   1

(4)   2

Answer: (3)

161. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form pent-2-ene is

(a) β-Elimination reaction

(b) Follows Zaitsev rule

(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction

(d) Dehydraion reaction

(1)   (b), (c), (d)

(2)   (a), (b), (d)

(3)   (a), (b), (c)

(4)   (a), (c), (d)

Answer: (3)

162. What is the change in oxidation number of carbon in the following reaction?

CH4(g) + 4Cl­2(g) → CCl4(l) + 4HCl(g)

(1)   −4 to +4

(2)   0 to −4

(3)   +4  to +4

(4)   0 to +4

Answer: (1)

163. Which of the following alkane cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction?

(1)   n-Heptane

(2)   n-Butane

(3)   n-Hexane

(4)   2, 3-Dimethylbutane

Answer: (1)

164. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives

(1)   α-D-Glucose + β-D-Fructose

(2)   α-D-Fructose + β-D-Fructose

(3)   β-D-Glucose + α-D-Fructose

(4)   α-D-Glucose + β-D-Glucose

Answer: (1)

165. Identify the incorrect statement.

(1)   Interstitial compounds are those that are formed when small atoms like H, C or N are trapped inside the crystal lattices of metals.

(2)   The oxidation states of chromium in  are not be same.

(3)   Cr2+ (d4) is a stronger reducing agent that Fe2+ (d6) in water.

(4)   The transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity due to their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states and to form complexes.

Answer: (2)

166. HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2, MgCl2 and NaCl. Which of the following compound (s) crystallize(s) ?

(1)   Only MgCl2

(2)   NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl=2

(3)   Both MgCl2 and CaCl2

(4)   Only NaCl

Answer: (4)

167. Identify the correct statements from the following:

(a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream and frozen food.

(b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings.

(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert alcohols into gasoline.

(d) CO is colourless and odourless gas.

(1)   (b) and (c) only

(2)   (c) and (d) only

(3)   (a), (b) and (c) only

(4)   (a) and (c) only

Answer: (2)

168. An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a reaction leads to change in

(1)   threshold energy

(2)   collision frequency

(3)   activation energy

(4)   heat of reaction

Answer: (4)

169. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+ ion is

(1)   5.92 BM

(2)   2.84 BM

(3)   3.87 BM

(4)   4.90 BM

Answer: (4)

  1. Match the following and identify the correct option.

(a) CO(g) + H2(g)                                            (i) Mg(HCO3)2 + Ca(HCO3)2

(b) Temporary hardness of water              (ii) An electron deficient hydride

(c) B2H6                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                           (iii) Synthesis gas

(d) H2O2                          (iv) Non-planar structure

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(i); (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(4)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

Answer: (3)

171. The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law is

(1)   Acetone + Chloroform

(2)   Chloroethane + Bromoethane

(3)   Ethanol + Acetone

(4)   Benzene + Toluene

Answer: (3)

172. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives

Answer: (3)

173. Urea reacts with water to form A which will decompose to form B. B when passed through Cu2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed. What is the formula of C from the following?

(1)   Cu(OH)2

(2)   CuCO3∙Cu(OH)2

(3)   CuSO4

(4)   [Cu(NH3)4]2+

Answer: (4)

174. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol1. The freezing point depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is (rounded off upto two decimal places):

(1)   0.40 K

(2)   0.60 K

(3)   0.20 K

(4)   0.80 K

Answer: (1)

175. Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has – O – O – linkage?

(1)   H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid

(2)   H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid

(3)   H2SO3, sulphurous acid

(4)   H2SO4, sulphuric acid

Answer: (1)

176. Identify the correct statement from the following :

(1)   Vapour phase refining is carried out for Nickel by Van Arkel method.

(2)   Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of shapes.

(3)   Wrought iron is impure iron with 4% carbon.

(4)   Blister copper has blistered appearance due to evolution of CO2.

Answer: (2)

177. Which of the following is a natural polymer?

(1)   polybutadiene

(2)   poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)

(3)   cis-1, 4-polyisoprene

(4)   poly (Butadiene-styrene)

Answer: (3)

178.  An element has a body centered cubic (bcc) structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic radius is

(1)

(2) 

(3) 

(4) 

Answer: (3)

179.  An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanol as one of the product. Its structure is

Answer: (1)

180. Which of the following set of molecules will have zero dipole moment?

(1)   Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, water, 1, 3-dichlorobenzene

(2)   Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, carbon dioxide, 1, 4-dichlorobenzene

(3)   Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water, 1, 4-dichlorobenzene

(4)   Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon dioxide, 1, 3-dichlorobenzene

Answer: (2)

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