# NEET (UG)-2021 Examination Held on 12-09-2021 Code M2 Question Paper With Answer Key

NEET (UG) 2021 Code M2 Paper Held on 12-09-2021

PHYSICS

Section-A

1. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of capacitance C and a resistor of resistance ‘R’ are connected in series to an ac source of potential difference ‘V’ volts as shown in figure.

Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V, 10 V and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of current flowing through LCR series circuit is 10√2 A. The impedance of the circuit is

(1)

(2)

(3)   4 Ω

(4)   5 Ω

2. Find the value of the angle of emergence from the prism. Refractive index of the glass is √3.

(1)   60°

(2)   30°

(3)   45°

(4)   90°

3. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In which direction will it move?

(1)   Towards the left as its potential energy will increase.

(2)   Towards the right as its potential energy will decrease.

(3)   Towards the left as it potential energy will decrease.

(4)   Towards the right as its potential energy will increase.

4. A capacitor of capacitance ‘C’, is connected across an ac source of voltage V, given by

V = V0sinωt

The displacement current between the plates of the capacitor, would then be given by

(1)   Id = V0ωCcosωt

(2)

(3)

(4)   Id = V0ωCsinωt

5. A thick current carrying cable of radius ‘R’ carries current ‘I’ uniformly distributed across its cross-section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to the cable with the distance ‘r’ from the axis of the cable is represented by

6. A convex lens ‘A’ of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens ‘B’ of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same axis with a distance ‘a’ between them. If a parallel beam of light falling on ‘A’ leaves ‘B’ as a parallel beam, then the distance ‘a’ in cm will be

(1)   25

(2)   15

(3)   50

(4)   30

7. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength ‘λ’ is incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible work function. If ‘m’ mass is of photoelectron emitted from the surface has de-Broglie wavelength λd, then

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8. Column-I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic conductor.

Column-II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities. Match Column-I and Column-II with appropriate relations.

(1)   (A) – (R), (B) – (S), (C) – (P), (D) – (Q)

(2)   (A) – (R), (B) – (S), (C) – (Q), (D) – (P)

(3)   (A) – (R), (B) – (P), (C) – (S), (D) – (Q)

(4)   (A) – (R), (B) – (Q), (C) – (S), (D) – (P)

9. A radioactive nucleus  undergoes spontaneous decay in the sequence

where Z is the atomic number of element X. The possible decay particles in the sequence are

(1)   α, β, β+

(2)   α, β+, β

(3)   β+, α, β

(4)   β, α, β+

10. The effective resistance of a parallel connection that consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of cross-section and same material is 0.25 Ω. What will be the effective resistance if they are connected in series?

(1)   0.25 Ω

(2)   0.5 Ω

(3)   1 Ω

(4)   4 Ω

11. A particle is released from height S from the surface of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is three times its potential energy. The height from the surface of earth and the speed of the particle at that instant are respectively

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The fraction of original activity that will remain after 150 hours would be

(1)   1/2

(2)   1/2√2

(3)   2/3

(4)   2/3√2

13. A cup of coffee cools from 90°C to 80°C in t minutes, when the room temperature is 20° The time taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80°C to 60°C at a room temperature same at 20°C is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14. The number of photons per second on an average emitted by the source of monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of 3.3 × 103 watt will be (h = 6.6 × 1034 J s)

(1)   1018

(2)   1017

(3)   1016

(4)   1015

15. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with frequency ‘n’, the frequency of its potential energy is

(1)   n

(2)   2n

(3)   3n

(4)   4n

16. An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current of 5A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed of 105 m/s parallel to the conductor. The perpendicular distance between the electron and the conductor is 20 cm at an instant. Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced by the electron at that instant.

(1)   4 × 1020 N

(2)   8π × 1020 N

(3)   4π × 1020 N

(4)   8 × 1020 N

17. If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the dimensions of energy.

(1)   [F][A][T]

(2)   [F][A][T2]

(3)   [F][A][T1]

(4)   [F][A1][T]

18. Match column-I and column-II and choose the correct match from the given choices.

(1)   (A) – (R), (B) – (P), (C) – (S), (D) – (Q)

(2)   (A) – (Q), (B) – (R), (C) – (S), (D) – (P)

(3)   (A) – (Q), (B) – (P), (C) – (S), (D) – (R)

(4)   (A) – (R), (B) – (Q), (C) – (P), (D) – (S)

19. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane, starting from rest at time t = 0. Let Sn be the distance travelled by the block in the interval t = n – 1 to t = n. Then, the ratio  is

(1)

(2)

(3)

20. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two fragments each of mass number 120, the binding energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total gain in the Binding energy in the process is

(1)   0.9 MeV

(2)   9.4 MeV

(3)   804 MeV

(4)   216 MeV

21. A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to measure the diameter of a wire

Main scale reading : 0 mm

Circular scale reading : 52 divisions

Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the wire from the above data is

(1)   0.52 cm

(2)   0.026 cm

(3)   0.26 cm

(4)   0.052 cm

22. The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in the figure is

(1)   3C

(2)   2C

(3)   C/2

(4)   3C/2

23. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope since

(1)   A large aperture contributes to the quality and visibility of the images.

(2)   A large area of the objective ensures better light gathering power.

(3)   A large aperture provides a better resolution.

(4)   All of the above

24. Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface charge densities of the spheres (σ12) is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is suspended by it is

(1)   0.0628 s

(2)   6.28 s

(3)   3.14 s

(4)   0.628 s

26. For a place electromagnetic wave propagating in x-direction, which one of the following combination gives the correct possible directions for electric field (E) and magnetic field (B) respectively?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27. The escape velocity from the Earth’s surface is v. The escape velocity from the surface of another planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and same mass density is

(1)   v

(2)   2v

(3)   3v

(4)   4v

28. In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what length of the wire, the balance point occurs?

(1)   60 cm

(2)   21.6 cm

(3)   64 cm

(4)   62 cm

29. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is d/2, then the viscous force acting on the ball will be

(1)   Mg/2

(2)   Mg

(3)

(4)   2Mg

30. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric filed  in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is ‘σ’ and the area of each plate is ‘A’, the energy stored in the capacitor is

0 = permittivity of free space)

(1)

(3)

(4)

31. The electron concentration in an n-type semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in a p-type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is applied across each of them. Compare the currents in them.

(1)   Current in n-type = current in p-type

(2)   Current in p-type > current in n-type

(3)   Current in n-type > current in p-type

(4)   No current will flow in p-type, current will only flow in n-type

32. Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and identify the correct answer.

(A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when used as a voltage regulator.

(B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between 0.1 V to 0.3 V.

(1)   (A) and (B) both are correct.

(2)   (A) and (B) both the incorrect

(3)   (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.

(4)   (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.

33. Polar molecules are the molecules

(1)   Having zero dipole moment

(2)   Acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of electric filed due to displacement of charges

(3)   Acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic field is absent

(4)   Having a permanent electric dipole moment

34. If E and G respectively denote energy and gravitational constant, then E/G has the dimensions of

(1)   [M2] [L−1 [T0]

(2)   [M] [L−1] [T−1]

(3)   [M] [L0] [T0]

(4)   [M2] [L−2] [T−1]

35. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How much power is generated by the turbine?

(g = 10 m/s2)

(1)   10.2 kW

(2)   8.1 kW

(3)   12.3 kW

(4)   7.0 kW

Section-B

36. A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s2. At t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration of the ball at t = 6 s?

(Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1)   20 m/s, 5 m/s2

(2)   20 m/s, 0

(3)   20√2 m/s, 0

(4)   20√2 m/s, 10 m/s2

37. For the given circuit, the input digital signals are applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would be the output at the terminal y?

38. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height. The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is (g = 10 m/s2) nearly

(1)   0 kg m/s

(2)   4.2  kg m/s

(3)   2.1 kg m/s

(4)   1.4 kg m/s

39. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and another unknown mass ‘m’ is suspended from the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the value of ‘m’ such that the rod is in equilibrium. (g = 10 m/s2)

(1)   1/2 kg

(2)   1/3 kg

(3)   1/6 kg

(4)   1/12 kg

40. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final image would be formed at a distance of

(1)   20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image

(2)   30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image

(3)   30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image

(4)   20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image

41. A step down transformer connected to an ac main supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what is the current in the primary circuit?

(1)   0.2 A

(2)   0.4 A

(3)   2 A

(4)   4 A

42. Three resistors having resistances r1. r2 and r3 are connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio i3/i1 of current in terms of resistances used in the circuit is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43. In the product

What will be the complete expression for

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44. A particle of mass ‘m’ is projected with a velocity v = kVe (K > 1) from the surface of the earth.

(Ve = escape velocity)

The maximum height above the surface reached by the particle is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45. Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 220 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.

(1)   660 V

(2)   1320 V

(3)   1520 V

(4)   1980 V

46. A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80 μF capacitor and 40 Ω resistor is connected to 230 V variable frequency ac source. The angular frequencies of the source at which power transferred to the circuit is half the power at the resonant angular frequency are likely to be

47. A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and resistance ‘R’ is wound up as a current carrying coil in the shape of,

(i) an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’.

(ii) a square of side ‘a’.

The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each case respectively are

(1)   √3 la2 and 3 la2

(2)   3 la2 and la2

(3)   3 la2 and 4 la2

(4)   4 la2 and 3 la2

48. From a circular ring of mass ‘M’ and radius ‘R’ an arc corresponding to a 90° sector is removed. The moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring about an axis passing through the centre of the right and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is ‘K’ times ‘MR2’. Then the value of ‘K’ is

(1)   3/4

(2)   7/8

(3)   1/4

(4)   1/8

49. Two conducting circular loops of the radii R1 and R2 are paced in the same plane with their centres coinciding. If R1 > > R2, the mutual inductance M between them will be directly proportional to

(1)   R1/R2

(2)   R2/R1

(3)

(4)

50. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed takes a time T to complete one revolution. If this particle were projected with the same speed at an angle ‘θ’ to the horizontal, the maximum height attained by it equals 4R. The angle of projection, θ, is then given by:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. Given below are two statements:

Statement I :

Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of narcotic analgesics.

Statement II:

Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2)   Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(3)   Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

(4)   Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

52. The correct structure of 2, 6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene is

53. BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound. Hybridization and number of electrons around the central atom, respectively are :

(1)   sp3 and 4

(2)   sp3 and 6

(3)   sp2 and 6

(4)   sp2 and 8

54. Noble gases are named because of their inertness towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement about them.

(1)   Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water

(2)   Noble gases have very high melting and boiling points

(3)   Noble gases have weak dispersion forces

(4)   Noble gases have large positive values of electron gain enthalpy

55. The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91.0 S cm2 mol1 The molar conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution is. Choose the right option for your answer.

(1)   201.28 S cm2 mol1

(2)   390.71 S cm2 mol1

(3)   698.28 S cm2 mol1

(4)   540.48 S cm2 mol1

56. The right option for the statement “Tyndall effect is exhibited by”, is:

(1)   NaCl solution

(2)   Glucose solution

(3)   Starch solution

(4)   Urea solution

57. The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of:

(1)   Vitamin B12

(2)   Vitamin B6

(3)   Vitamin B1

(4)   Vitamin B2

58. Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is:

(1)   120°

(2)   180°

(3)   60°

(4)   0v

59. The incorrect statement among the following is:

(1)   Actinoid contraction is greater for element to element than lanthanoid contraction

(2)   Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are colorless in the solid state

(3)   Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and electricity

(4)   Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided.

60. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This product formation is based on?

(1)   Saytzeff’s Rule

(2)   Hund’s Rule

(3)   Hofmann Rule

(4)   Huckel’s Rule

61. Which one among the following is the correct option for right relationship between CP and CV for one mole of ideal gas?

(1)   CP + CV = R

(2)   CP – CV = R

(3)   CP = RCV

(4)   CV = RCP

62. Which one of the following polymers is prepared by addition polymerization?

(1)   Teflon

(2)   Nylon-66

(3)   Novolac

(4)   Dacron

63. What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound formed in the following chemical reaction?

(1)   2-methylpropan-20-ol

(2)   pentan-2-ol

(3)   pentan-3-ol

(4)   2-methylbutan-2-ol

64. Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(2)   (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(3)   (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(4)   (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

65. Which one of the following methods can be used to obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room temperature?

(1)   Electrolysis

(2)   Chromatography

(3)   Distillation

(4)   Zone refining

66. The major product of the following chemical reaction is :

67. Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits which of the following particles?

(1)   Beta (β)

(2)   Alpha (α)

(3)   Gamma (γ)

(4)   Neutron (n)

68. The correct sequence of bond enthalpy ‘C−X’ bond is :

(1)   CH3 – F < CH3 – Cl < CH3 – Br < CH3 – I

(2)   CH3–F > CH3 – Cl > CH3 – Br > CH3 – I

(3)   CH3 – F < CH3 – Cl > CH3 – Br > CH3 – I

(4)   CH3 – Cl > CH3 – F > CH3 – Br > CH3 – I

69. Right option for the number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are:

(1)   8, 4

(2)   6, 12

(3)   2, 1

(4)   12, 6

70. Which of the following reactions is the metal displacement reaction ? Choose right option.

71. Choose the correct option for graphical representation of Boyle’s law, which shows a graph of pressure vs. volume of a gas at different temperatures:

72. The pKb of dimethylamine and pKa of acetic acid are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate solution is :

(1)   8.50

(2)   5.50

(3)   7.75

(4)   6.25

73. Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents is:

(1)   Calcium chloride

(2)   Strontium chloride

(3)   Magnesium chloride

(4)   Beryllium chloride

74. The maximum temperature that can be achieved in blast furnace is:

(1)   Upto 1200 K

(2)   Upto 2200 K

(3)   Upto 1900 K

(4)   Upto 5000 K

75. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is:

(1)   Hexadentate ligand with four “O” and two “N” donor atoms

(2)   Unidentate lignd

(3)   Bidentate ligand with two “N” donor atoms

(4)   Tridentate ligand with three “N” donor atoms

76. The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P­1), 10 g of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and 10 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml of water (P3). The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic pressure of these solutions is:

(1)   P2 > P1 > P3

(2)   P1 > P2 > P3

(3)   P2 > P3 > P1

(4)   P3 > P1 > P2

77. Statement II : As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCl, HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength increases.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   Both statement I and statement II are true

(2)   Both statement I and Statement II are false

(3)   Statement I is correct but statement II is false

(4)   Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true

78. The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and vapour phase, are:

(1)   Chain and dimer, respectively

(2)   Linear in both

(3)   Dimer and Linear, respectively

(4)   Chain in both

79. For a reaction A → B, enthalpy of reaction is −2 kJ mol1 and enthalpy of activation is 9.6 kJ mol1. The correct potential energy profile for the reaction is shown in option.

80. Zr(Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of :

(1)   Belonging to same group

(2)   Diagonal relationship

(3)   Lanthanoid contraction

(4)   Having similar chemical properties

81. A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light c = 3.0 × 108 ms1]

(1)   219.3 m

(2)   219.2 m

(3)   2192 m

(4)   21.92 cm

82. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt) carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right option for the empirical formula of this compound is : [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]

(1)   CH

(2)   CH2

(3)   CH3

(4)   CH4

83. The compound which shows metamerism is:

(1)   C5H12

(2)   C3H8O

(3)   C3H6O

(4)   C4H10O

84. Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg’s reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.

85. The correct option for the number of body centred unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells is:

(1)   7

(2)   5

(3)   2

(4)   3

SECTION-B

86. Match List-I with List-II:

(1)   (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(2)   (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(3)   (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(4)   (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

87. Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined in a total volume of one litre at 0°C is:

[Given R = 0.082 L atm mol1K1, T = 273 K]

(1)   2.518

(2)   2.602

(3)   25.18

(4)   26.02

88.

Consider the above reaction and identify the missing reagent/chemical.

(1)   B2H6

(2)   Red Phosphorus

(3)   CaO

(4)   DIBAL-H

89. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal condition, the correct option is:

(1)   ∆U = 0, ∆Stotal = 0

(2)   ∆U ≠ 0, ∆Stotal ≠ 0

(3)   ∆U = 0, ∆Stotal ≠ 0

(4)   ∆U ≠ 0, ∆Stotal = 0

90. In which one of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the properties indicated against it?

(1)   HF < HCl < HBr < HI : Increasing acidic strength

(2)   H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te : Increasing pKa values

(3)   NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 : Increasing acidic character

(4)   CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2 : Increasing oxidizing power

91. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20 S cm2 mol1. What is the dissociation constant of acetic acid? Choose the correct option.

(1)   1.75 × 104 mol L1

(2)   2.50 × 104 mol L1

(3)   1.75 × 105 mol L1

(4)   2.50 × 105 mol L1

92. The slope of Arrhenius plot  of first order reaction is −5 × 103 The value of Ea of the reaction is. Choose the correct option for your answer.

[Given R = 8.314 JK1 mol1]

(1)   41.5 kJ mol1

(2)   83.0 kJ mol1

(3)   166 kJ mol1

(4)   −83 kJ mol1

93. The product formed in the following chemical reaction is:

94. Match List-I with List-II

(1)   (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(2)   (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(4)   (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

95. Which of the following molecules is non-polar in nature?

(1)   POCl3

(2)   CH2O

(3)   SbCl5

(4)   NO2

96. From the following pairs of ions which one is not an iso-electronic pair?

(1)   O2, F

(2)   Na+, Mg2+

(3)   Mn2+, Fe3+

(4)   Fe2+, Mn2+

97. The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of a solution at 45°C with benzene to octane in molar ratio 3 : 2 is:

[At 45°C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas]

(1)   160 mm of Hg

(2)   168 mm of Hg

(3)   336 mm of Hg

(4)   350 mm of Hg

98. Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(2)   (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(3)   (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(4)   (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

99. The reagent ‘R’ in the given sequence of chemical reaction is:

(1)   H2O

(2)   CH3CH2OH

(3)   HI

(4)   CuCN/KCN

100. The intermediate compound ‘X’ in the following chemical reaction is:

BIOLOGY

BOTANY

SECTION-A

101. Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which mechanism the competing species might have evolved for their survival?

(1)   Resource partitioning

(2)   Competitive release

(3)   Mutualism

(4)   Predation

102. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I

(a) Cells with active cell division capacity

(b) Tissue having all cells similar in structure and function

(c) Tissue having different types of cells

(d) Dead cells with highly thickened walls and narrow lumen

List-II

(i) Vascular tissues

(ii) Meristematic tissue

(iii) Sclereids

(iv) Simple tissue

Select the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(2)   (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(3)   (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(4)   (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

103. During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out:

(1)   RNA

(2)   DNA

(3)   Histones

(4)   Polysaccharides

104. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I                                           List-II

(a) Cohesion                    (i) More attraction in liquid phase

(b) Adhesion                    (ii) Mutual attraction among water molecules

(c) Surface tension           (iii) Water loss in liquid phase

(d) Guttation                   (iv) Attraction towards polar surfaces

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(2)   (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(3)   (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(4)   (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

105. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is:

(1)   Xenogamy

(2)   Geitonogamy

(3)   Chasmogamy

(4)   Cleistogamy

106. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centrometer?

(1)   Metaphase I

(2)   Metaphase II

(3)   Anaphase II

(4)   Telophase II

107. Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?

(1)   Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

(2)   Denaturation, Extension, Annealing

(3)   Extension, Denaturation, Annealing

(4)   Annealing, Denaturation, Extension

108. Gemmae are present in

(1)   Mosses

(2)   Pteridophytes

(3)   Some Gymnosperms

(4)   Some Liverworts

109. The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood from a diagram called:

(1)   Bullet square

(2)   Punch square

(3)   Punnet square

(4)   Net square

110. The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is :

(1)   Natural selection

(2)   Genetic recombination

(3)   Mutation

(4)   Genetic drift

111. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two kinds to spores. Such plants are known as:

(1)   Homosorus

(2)   Heterosorus

(3)   Homosporous

(4)   Heterosporous

112. Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called

(1)   Elasticity

(2)   Felxibility

(3)   Plasticity

(4)   Maturity

113. Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants?

(1)   Morphine, codeine

(2)   Amino acids, glucose

(3)   Vinblastin, curcumin

(4)   Rubber, gums

114. Complete the flow chart on central dogma.

(1)   (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein

(2)   (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (c)-Transcription; (d)-Transduction

(3)   (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation; (d)-Protein

(4)   (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication; (d)-Protein

115. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as:

(1)   Metacentric

(2)   Telocentric

(3)   Sub-metacentric

(4)   Acrocentric

116. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as

(1)   Yellow bands

(2)   Bright orange bands

(3)   Dark red bands

(4)   Bright blue bands

117. The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is

(1)   Shoot apex

(2)   Stem

(3)   Axillary bud

(4)   Leaf

118. When gene targeting involving gene amplication is attempted in an individual’s tissue to treat disease, it is known as:

(1)   Biopiracy

(2)   Gene therapy

(3)   Molecular diagnosis

(4)   Safety testing

119. Which of the following plants is monoecious?

(1)   Carica papaya

(2)   Chara

(3)   Marchantia polymorpha

(4)   Cycas circinalis

120. Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?

(1)   Molecular diagnosis

(2)   Gene amplification

(3)   Purification of isolated protein

(4)   Detection of gene mutation

121. Math List-I with List-II.

List-I

(a) Cristate

(b) Thylakoids

(c) Centromere

(d) Cisternae

List-II

(i) Primary constriction in chromosome

(ii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus

(iii) Infoldings in mitochondria

(iv) Flattened membranous sacs in stroma of plastids

(1)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(3)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(4)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

122. Diadelphous stamens are found in

(1)   China rose

(2)   Citrus

(3)   Pea

(4)   China rose and citrus

123. Match List-I with List-II

List-I                               List-II

(a) Protoplast fusion        (i) Totipotency

(b) Plant tissue culture     (ii) Pomato

(c) Meristem culture        (iii) Somaclones

(d) Micropropagation      (iv) Virus free plants

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(3)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

124. Amensalism can be represented as:

(1)   Species A (−); Species B (0)

(2)   Species A (+); Species B (+)

(3)   Species A (−); Species B (−)

(4)   Species A (+); Species B (0)

125. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

(1)   Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles

(2)   Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells

(3)   The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of the cytoplasm

(4)   Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between nucleus and cytoplasm

126. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:

(1)   8-nucleate and 7-celled

(2)   7-ncleate and 8-celled

(3)   7-nucleate and 7-celled

(4)   8-nucleate and 8-celled

127. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material?

(1)   Ectocarpus

(2)   Gracilaria

(3)   Volvox

(4)   Ulothrix

128. The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field

(1)   IAA

(2)   NAA

(3)   2, 4-D

(4)   IBA

129. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given time, is referred as:

(1)   Climax

(2)   Climax community

(3)   Standing state

(4)   Standing crop

130. Mutations in plant cells can be induced by:

(1)   Kinetin

(2)   Infrared rays

(3)   Gamma rays

(4)   Zeatin

131. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1)   Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.

(2)   Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.

(3)   Pyramid of energy is always upright.

(4)   Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is upright.

132. In the equation GPP – R = NPP

R represents:

(2)   Retardation factor

(3)   Environmental factor

(4)   Respiration losses

133. Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?

(1)   Green algae

(2)   Brown algae

(3)   Red algae

(4)   Blue-green algae

134. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in Sorghum is

(1)   Pyruvic aicd

(2)   Oxaloacetic acid

(3)   Succinic acid

(4)   Phosphoglyceric acid

135. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I                                           List-II

(a) Lenticels                                 (i) Phellogen

(b) Cork cambium                        (ii) Suberin deposition

(c) Secondary cortex                   (iii) Exchange of gases

(d) Cork                                       (iv) Phelloderm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(2)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

SECTION-B

136. Which of the following statements of incorrect?

(1)   During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage

(2)   In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of NADH + H+ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules

(3)   ATP is synthesized through complex V

(4)   Oxidation-reduction reactions produce proton gradient in respiration

137. Match Column-I with Column-II

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(i); (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

138. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I                                           List-II

(a) S phase                       (i) Proteins are synthesized

(b) G2 phase                     (ii) Inactive phase

(c) Quiescent stage          (iii) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication

(d) G1 phase                     (iv) DNA replication

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(2)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(3)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(4)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

139. Plasmid pBR322 has Pstl restriction enzyme site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for β-galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain

(1)   It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell

(2)   The transformed cells will have the ability to resist ampicillin as well as produce β-galactoside

(3)   It will lead to lysis of host cell

(4)   It will be able to produce a novel protein with dual ability

140. Identify the correct statement.

(1)   In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 3’ end of hnRNA

(2)   RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the process of transcription in bacteria

(3)   The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied to an mRNA

(4)   Spilt gene arrangement is characteristic of prokaryotes

141. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells, followed by its detection using autoradiography because:

(1)   Mutated gene partially appears on a photographic film

(2)   Mutated gene completely and clearly appears on a photographic film

(3)   Mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film as the probe has no complementarity with it

(4)   Mutated gene does not appear on photographic film as the probe has complementarity with it

142. In the exponential growth equation

Nt = N0ert, e represents

(1)   The base of number logarithms

(2)   The base of exponential logarithms

(3)   The base of natural logarithms

(4)   The base of geometric logarithms

143. Select the correct pair.

(1)   Large colorless empty cells in the epidermis of grass leaves – Subsidiary cells

(2)   In dicot leaves, vascular bundles are surrounded by large thick-walled cells – Conjunctive tissue

(3)   Cells of medullary rays that form part of cambial ring – Interfascicular cambium

(4)   Loose parenchyma cells rupturing the epidermis and forming a lens shaped opening in bark – Spongy parenchyma

144. In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release?

(1)   Poaceae ; Rosaceae

(2)   Poaceae ; Leguminosae

(3)   Poaceae ; Solanaceae

(4)   Rosaceae ; Leguminosae

145. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes?

(1)   Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)

(2)   Transcribes tRNA, 5srRNA and snRNA

(3)   Transcribes precursor of mRNA

(4)   Transcribes only snRNAs

146. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1)   Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized during non-cyclic photophosphorylation

(2)   Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase

(3)   Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II

(4)   Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II

147. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1)   Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy

(2)   Fusion of protoplasms between two motile on non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy

(3)   Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes

(4)   Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheat cells

148. Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                           List-II

(a) Protein                                    (i) C = C double bonds

(b) Unsaturated fatty acid           (ii) Phosphodiester bonds

(c) Nucleic acid                           (iii) Glycosidic bonds

(d) Polysaccharide                       (iv) Peptide bonds

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(2)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

149. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as

(1)   Satellite DNA

(2)   Repetitive DNA

(3)   Single nucleotides

(4)   Polymorphic DNA

150. Match Column-II with Column-II.

Column-I                                    Column-II

(a) Nitrococcus                            (i) Denitrification

(b) Rhizobium                              (ii) Conversion of ammonia to nitrite

(c) Thiobacillus                            (iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate

(d) Nitrobacter                             (iv) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(2)   (a)-(i); (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

151. A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is:

(1)   Degenerate primer sequence

(2)   Okazaki sequences

(3)   Palindromic Nucleotide sequences

(4)   Poly(A) tail sequences

152. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after S phase?

(1)   8

(2)   16

(3)   4

(4)   32

153. Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae?

(1)   Fire fly

(2)   Grasshopper

(3)   Cockroach

(4)   House fly

154. Succus entericus is referred to as:

(1)   Pancreatic juice

(2)   Intestinal juice

(3)   Gastric juice

(4)   Chyme

155. With regard to insulin choose correct options.

(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.

(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide.

(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide

(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1)   (b) and (d) only

(2)   (b) and (c) only

(3)   (a), (c) and (d) only

(4)   (a) and (d) only

156. Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are called as “Universal recipients”. This is due to :

(1)   Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs

(2)   Absence of antigens A and B in plasma

(3)   Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs

(4)   Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma

157. In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny will be diseased?

(1)   50%

(2)   75%

(3)   25%

(4)   100%

158. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?

(1)   Thrombin

(2)   Renin

(3)   Epinephrine

(4)   Thrombokinase

159. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are:

(1)   pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40

(2)   pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45

(3)   pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40

(4)   pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3

160. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscles is called as:

(1)   Arthritis

(2)   Muscular dystrophy

(3)   Myasthenia gravis

(4)   Gout

161. Which is the “Onty enzyme” that has “Capability” to catalyse initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes?

(1)   DNA dependent DNA polymerase

(2)   DNA dependent RNA polymerase

(3)   DNA ligase

(4)   DNase

162. Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein?

(1)   mRNA

(2)   tRNA

(3)   rRNA

(4)   siRNA

163. Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD?

(1)   CuT

(2)   LNG 20

(3)   Cu 7

164. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it?

(1)   T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20

(2)   T : 20 ; G : 20 : C : 30

(3)   T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20

(4)   T :  20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25

165. Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                           List-II

(a) Aspergillus niger                    (i) Acetic Acid

(b) Acetobacter aceti                    (ii) Lactic Acid

(c) Clostridium butylicum            (iii) Citric Acid

(d) Lactobacillus                          (iv) Butyric Acid

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(2)   (a)-(i); (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.

(b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals.

(c) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization.

(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.

(e) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (c), (d) and (e) are correct

(2)   (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(3)   (a), (d) and(e) are correct

(4)   (b), (c) and (e) are correct

167. Receptors for sperm binding mammals are present on :

(2)   Vitelline membrane

(3)   Perivitelline space

(4)   Zona pellucida

168. Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                           List-II

(a) Metamerism                (i) Coelenterata

(b) Canal system              (ii) Ctenophora

(c) Comb plates               (iii) Annelida

(d) Cnidoblasts                (iv) Porifera

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(2)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(3)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

169. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C. formation is produced by:

(1)   Alpha cells of pancreas

(3)   The cells of bone marrow

(4)   Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney

170. Veneral diseases can spread through:

(a) Using sterile needles

(b) Transfusion of blood from infected person

(c) Infected mother to foetus

(d) Kissing

(e) Inheritance

Choose the correct answer from the option given below

(1)   (a), (b) and (c) only

(2)   (b), (c) and (d) only

(3)   (b) and (c) only

(4)   (a) and (c) only

171. Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroach?

(1)   A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of midgut and hind gut

(2)   Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the mouth parts

(3)   In females, 7th 9th sterna together form a genital pouch

(4)   10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a pair of anal cerci

172. Match the following:

List-I                               List-II

(a) Physalia                      (i) Pearl oyster

(b) Limulus                      (ii) Portuguese Man of War

(c) Ancylostoma               (iii) Living fossil

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(2)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

173. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones?

(1)   Neophron

(2)   Hemidactylus

(3)   Macropus

(4)   Ornithorhynchus

174. The centriole undergoes duplication during:

(1)   S-phase

(2)   Prophase

(3)   Metaphase

(4)   G2 phase

175. During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR will be affected first?

(1)   Annealing

(2)   Extension

(3)   Denaturation

(4)   Ligation

176. Which of the following is not an objective of Biofortification in crops?

(1)   Improve protein content

(2)   Improve resistance to diseases

(3)   Improve vitamin content

(4)   Improve micronutrient and mineral content

177. Dobson units are used to measure thickness of:

(1)   CFCs

(2)   Stratosphere

(3)   Ozone

(4)   Troposphere

178. Sphincter of oddi is present at:

(1)   Ileo-caecal junction

(2)   Junction of heapto-pancreatic duct and duodenum

(3)   Gastro-oesophageal junction

(4)   Junction of jejnum and duodenum

179. Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.

(1)   High pO2, low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature

(2)   Low pO2, high pCO2, more H+, higher temperature

(3)   High pO2, high pCO2, less H+, higher temperature

(4)   Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher temperature

180. Identify the incorrect pair

(1)   Alkaloids – Codeine

(2)   Toxin – Abrin

(3)   Lectins – Concanavalin A

(4)   Drugs – Ricin

181. Which of the following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle?

(1)   These muscle have no striations

(2)   They are involuntary muscles

(3)   Communication among the cells is performed by intercalacted discs

(4)   These muscles are present in the wall of blood vessels.

182. For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology is very important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for early detection?

(1)   Western Blotting Technique

(2)   Southern Blotting Technique

(3)   ELISA Technique

(4)   Hybridization Technique

183. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I                               List-II

(a) Vaults                         (i) Entry of sperm through Cervix is blocked

(b) IUDs                          (ii) Removal of Vas deferens

(c) Vasectomy                 (iii) Phagocytosis of sperms within the Uterus

(d) Tubectomy                 (iv) Removal of fallopian tube

Choose the correct answer from the option given below

(1)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(2)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

184. The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are

(1)   Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes

(2)   Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes and Vacuoles

(3)   Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes

(4)   Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochonrdria and Lysosomes

185. Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?

(1)   Leptotene

(2)   Zygotene

(3)   Diakinesis

(4)   Pachytene

SECTION-B

186. Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?

(1)   Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio

(2)   Synthesis of prostaglandins

(3)   Release of Oxytocin

(4)   Release of Prolactin

187. Which of the following is not a step in Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)?

(1)   Cow is administered hormone having LH like activity for super ovulation

(2)   Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time

(3)   Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination

(4)   Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate mothers at 8-32 cell stage

188. Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                                       List-II

(a) Allen’s Rule                                       (i) Kangaroo rat

(b) Physiological adaptation                    (ii) Desert lizard

(c) Behavioural adaptation                      (iii) Marine fish at depth

(d) Biochemical adaptation                     (iv) Polar seal

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(3)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

189. Assertion (A) : A person goes to high altitude and experiences ‘altitude sickness’ with symptoms like breathing difficulty and heart palpitations.

Reason (R) : Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude, the body does not get sufficient oxygen.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1)   Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2)   Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3)   (A) is true but (R) is false

(4)   (A) is false but (R) is true

190. Following are the statements with reference to ‘lipids’.

(a) Lipids having only single bonds re called unsaturated fatty acids

(b) Lecithin is a phospholipid.

(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.

(d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon.

(e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a) and (b) only

(2)   (c) and (d) only

(3)   (b) and (c) only

(4)   (b) and (e) only

191. Match List-I with List-II

List-I                               List-II

(a) Scapula                       (i) Cartilaginous joints

(b) Cranium                     (ii) Flat bone

(c) Sternum                      (iii) Fibrous joints

(d) Vertebral column       (iv) Triangular flat bone

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(2)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(3)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

192. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the leakage of the substances across a tissue and facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.

(1)   Gap junctions and Adhering junctions, respectively.

(2)   Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively

(3)   Adhering junctions and Tight junctions, respectively

(4)   Adhering junctions and Gap junctions, respectively.

193. Statement I: The codon ‘AUG’ codes for methionine and phenylalanine.

Statement II: ‘AAA’ and ‘AAG’ both codons code for the amino acid lysine.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2)   Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(3)   Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

(4)   Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

194. Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?

(1)   Graafian follicle

(2)   Corpus luteum

(3)   Foetus

(4)   Uterus

195. Following are the statements about prostomium of earthworm.

(a) It serves as a covering for mouth.

(b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it can crawl.

(c) It is one of the sensory structures.

(d) It is the first body segment.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(2)   (a), (b) and (d) are correct

(3)   (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct

(4)   (b) and (c) are correct

196. Which one of the following statements about Histones is wrong?

(1)   Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules.

(2)   The pH of histones is slightly acidic

(3)   Histones are rich in amino acids-Lysine and Arginine

(4)   Histones carry positive charge in the side chain

197. During muscular contraction which of the following events occur?

(a) ‘H’ zone disappears

(b) ‘A’ band widens

(c) ‘I’ band reduces in width

(d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Pi.

(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a), (c), (d), (e) only

(2)   (a), (b), (c), (d) only

(3)   (b), (c), (d), (e) only

(4)   (b), (d), (e), (a) only

198. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into

(1)   Dysfunction of Immune system

(2)   Parkinson’s disease

(3)   Digestive disorder

199. Match List-I with List-II

List-I

(b) Convergent evolution

(c) Divergent evolution

(d) Evolution by anthropogenic action

List-II

(i) Selection of resistant varieties due to excessive use of herbicides and pesticides

(ii) Bones of forelimbs in Man and Whale

(iii) Wings of Butterfly and Bird

(iv) Darwin Finches

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(4)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

200. Match List with List-II

List-I                               List-II

(a) Filariasis                     (i) Haemophilus influenza

(b) Amoebiasis                 (ii) Trichophyton

(c) Penumonia                  (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti

(d) Ringworm                  (iv) Entamoeba histolytica

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(2)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(3)   (a)-(i); (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(4)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)