**Rajasthan Subordinate and Ministerial Service Selection Board Patwar (Pre.) Recruitment Examination-2015 Held on February 13, 2016**

1. One amongst the following is not Fundamental Right.

(a) Right of constitutional remedies

(b) Cultural and educational rights

(c) Right to uphold sovereignty of India

(d) Right to freedom of religion

2. The period of first Legislative Assembly of Rajasthan is

(a) 1952-57

(b) 1951-56

(c) 1954-59

(d) 1953-58

3. A child is standing in front of a magic mirror. She finds the image of her head bigger, the middle portion of her body of the same size and that of the legs smaller. The following is the order of combinations for the magic mirror from the top :

(a) Plane, Convex and Concave

(b) Convex, Concave and Plane

(c) Convex, Plane and Concave

(d) Concave, Plane and Convex

4. The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in front of the eye. The nature and power of the lens required is

(a) a convex lens of power + 1.25 D

(b) a concave lens of power −1.25 D

(c) a convex lens of power −1.25 D

(d) a concave lens of power + 1.25D

5. The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid carrying current

(a) is zero

(b) decrease as we move towards its end

(c) increases as we move towards its end

(d) is the same at all points

6. The Ti plasmid used in genetic engineering is obtained from

(a) *Bacillus thuringiensis*

(b) *Escherichia coli*

(c) *Agrobacterium rhizogenes*

(d) *Agrobacterium tumefaciens*

7. Hormone production is a function related to

(a) hypothalamus

(b) pons

(c) hippocampus

(d) medulla

8.The powers of the President are

1. Executive and Legislative Powers

2. Judicial and Financial Powers

3. Emergency and Martial Powers

4. President’s Rule and Defence Powers

*Select the correct answer using the code given below :*

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 4.

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 3

9. One amongst the following is incorrect, find out.

(a) Rajasthan High Court was established in 1950.

(b) Territorial Jurisdiction of High Court is Jaipur and Jodhpur.

(c) The seat of High Court is at Jodhpur.

(d) One bench of High Court is at Jaipur.

10. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Up to May, 2015, the Indian Constitution has been amended 100 times.

(b) The Territory of India, after Seventh Amendment 1956 upto April, 2015 consists of 29 States and 7 Union Territories.

(c) The Capital of Gujarat is Gandhinagar.

(d) The Capital of Gangtok is Sikkim.

11. The Constitution 73rd Amendment Act 1992 envisages a Three-tier system of Panchayats in the country, provides for which of the followings?

1. Constitution of District Planning Committee

2. Constitution of a State Election Commission

3. Appointment of a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats.

*Select the correct answer using the code given below :*

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

12. Panchayat Raj is a system of

(a) local government

(b) local administration

(c) local self government

(d) rural local self government

13. One amongst the following is incorrect, find out:

(a) Sarpacnh is responsible for convening the meetings of Gram Sabha.

(b) Gram Sevak is responsible for the maintenance of records of Panchayat.

(c) Sarpanch exercises administrative supervision and control over Panchayat staff.

(d) Sarpanch furnishes reports and record to State government.

14. Who is the Highest Law Officer in India?

(a) Attorney General

(b) Advocate General

(c) Solicitor General

(d) Secretary General Law Department

15. Which of the following statements are true about the Governor of a State?

1. The Executive power of the State is vested in him.

2. He must have attained 35 years of age.

3. He holds his office at the pleasure of the President.

4. The grounds for his removal are laid down in the Constitution.

*Choose the correct answer on the basis of code given below :*

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

16. EMF induced in a coil rotating in a uniform magnetic field will be maximum when the

(a) flux linked with the coil is maximum

(b) rate of change of flux linked is minimum

(c) rate of change of flux linked is maximum

(d) None of the above

17. Which of the following types of RNA participate in RNA processing.

(a) m-RNA

(b) t-RNA

(c) Smaller nuclear RNA (snRNA)

(d) Heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)

18. The source of energy of an ecosystem is

(a) ATP

(b) Sunlight

(c) DNA

(d) RNA

19. Chief constituent of natural gas is

(a) methane

(b) ethane

(c) butane

(d) propane

20. An EMF of 16 volts is induced in a coil of inductance 4H. The rate of change of current must be

(a) 64 A/S

(b) 32 A/S

(c) 16 A/S

(d) 4 A/S

21. PCR is used to detect

(a) HIV

(b) cancer

(c) TB

(d) cholera

22. Which of the following is the largest blood vessel in the body?

(a) Aorta

(b) Capillaries

(c) Pulmonary Vein

(d) Heart

23. The life span of RBC is

(a) 100 days

(b) 110 days

(c) 120 days

(d) 130 days

24. Which of the following viruses causes common cold?

(a) Rhino virus

(b) T4 virus

(c) MZ virus

(d) Simian virus 40

25. From which one of the following plants, the insecticide pyrethrum is prepared?

(a) Cymbopogon

(b) Chrysanthemum

(c) Tephrosia

(d) Velivera

26. When n resistances each of value r are connected in parallel, then resultant resistance is x, when these n resistances are connected in series, total resistance is

(a) nx

(b) mx

(c) x/n

(d) n^{2}x

27. Antibodies are

(a) γ-globulins

(b) albumins

(c) vitamins

(d) sugar

28. The following reaction is

4NH_{3}(g) + 5O_{2}(g) → 4NO (g) + 6H_{2}O(g) an example of

1. displacement reaction

2. combination reaction

3. redox reaction

4. neutralization reaction

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

29. 18 carat gold contains

(a) 50% gold

(b) 18% gold

(c) 60% gold

(d) 75% gold

30. In DC generator, the electricity produced in armature is

(a) DC

(b) AC

(c) armature is not present in DC generator

(d) None of the above

31. ‘Sangeetraj’ which was composed by Maharana Kumbha is divided into how many parts?

(a) Seven

(b) Four

(c) Nine

(d) Five

32. In Rajasthan when is the ‘Gurla Festival’ Celebrated?

(a) The Ashtmi (8th day) of the Shukla Paksh of Shravan

(b) The Ashtmi (8th day) of the Krishna Paksh of Shravan

(c) The Ashtmi (8th day) of the Krishna Paksh of Chaitra

(d) The Ashtmi (8th day) of the Shukla Paksh of Bhadon

33. Rama, Natha, Chajju and Sefu are associated with which of the following styles of painting?

(a) Alwar style

(b) Jodhpur style

(c) Mewar style

(d) Jaipur style

34. In which State was ‘Birbal Day’ celebrated on July 17, 1946?

(a) Bikaner

(b) Bharatpur

(c) Jaipur

(d) Udaipur

35. Who is called the ‘Gandhi of Chirawa’?

(a) Sardar Harlal Singh

(b) Seth Ghan Shyam Das Birla

(c) Master Pyarelal Gupta

(d) Radha Krishna Bohra

36. “In History, the execution of Tantya tope will be treated as a crime of the British government and the generations to come will ask who had sanctioned this execution and who had conformed it?”

*Who made this statement?*

(a) Captain Showers

(b) AGG Lawrence

(c) Jawaharlal Nehru

(d) Madan Mohan Malviya

37. In which year was the Marwar Public Society Ordinance issued?

(a) 1938

(b) 1928

(c) 1941

(d) 1934

38. Which scholar, on the basis of a copper plate title ‘Broach Gurjar’ has asserted that the Rajput were the descendents of the Yuchi tribe and they were related to the Kushan tribe?

(a) Geroge Thomas

(b) Dr. Bhandarkar

(c) Cunningham

(d) Dr. Kanoongo

39. Which amongst the following statements is/are true about Chirwa inscription?

1. It is inscribed in Sanskrit language dating to AD 1273.

2. It’s author was Ratnaprabhsuri.

3. It was sculptured by Dehlan.

4. It mentions that the Rajputs originated from the Agnikund.

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

40. Which inscription mentions that the Chauhan were ‘Vatsya-gotra’ Brahmins?

(a) Chirwa Inscription

(b) Inscription of Shring Rishi

(c) Bijoliya Inscription

(d) Inscription of Aprajit

41. Which amongst the following statements is/are true about Hindu festival?

1. Akshya Tartiya – Viashakh month Shukla Paksh Tartiya

2. Nirjla Ekadashi – jyeshtha month shukla paksh Ekadashi

3. Akshya Tartiya – Cchaitra month Shukla Paksh Tartiya

4. Nirjla Ekadashi – Aashadh month Shukla Paksh Ekadashi

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 and 4

(c) Only 3

(d) 1 and 4

42. How many ‘Maukhri Yup’ inscriptions have been discovered in Barwa village in Kota?

(a) Five

(b) Three

(c) Four

(d) Seven

43. Which rebel army Commander of Alauddin Khilji was given shelter in Ranthambhor Fort by Hammir?

(a) Amir Khan

(b) Meer Alabande Khan

(c) Meer Juber Khan

(d) Meer Muhammad Shah

44. Match the following Sect : Main Centre or Headquarters

(a) A – 1; B – 2; C – 3; D – 4

(b) A – 2; B – 1; C – 3; D – 4

(c) A – 2; B – 3; C – 1; D – 4

(d) A – 1; B – 4; C – 3; D – 2

45. What was ‘Damani’ in Marwar?

(a) A type of local saree (Odhani)

(b) Decorated shoes

(c) One revenue tax

(d) An instrument of irrigation

46. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2

(b) A – 3; B – 2; C – 4; D – 1

(c) A – 4; B – 1; C – 3; D – 2

(d) A – 4; B – 2; C – 3; D – 1

47. Examine the following statements regarding use of cross staff in chaintape surveying and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

1. For taking accurate offsets on chain line use of optical square is better than ordinary cross staff.

2. In optical square, both the rectangular mirrors are inclined at 45° to each other.

3. For maintaining proper alignment between two chain lines adjustable cross staff is used.

4. Mechanism of optical square is based on the principle of successive reflection of la light-ray from two concave mirrors.

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

48. For measuring distances in miles and furlongs and area in acres, which of the following chains is/are used?

(a) Metric and Gunter’s chain

(b) Engineer’s and Gunter’s chain

(c) Steel band chain

(d) Gunter’s chain

49. Which of the following physical divisions of Rajasthan is/are correctly matched with their physiographic characteristics? Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

50. Which group of the following represents the correct sequence of mountain peaks of Rajasthan in descending order of their height?

(a) Tatgarh – Kho – Bilali – Roja Bhakar

(b) Kho – Tatgarh – Roja Bhakar – Bilali

(c) Bilali – Kho – Tatgarh – Roja Bhakar

(d) Roja – Bhakar – Bilali – Tatgarh – Kho

51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) A – 1; B – 4; C – 3; D – 2

(b) A – 2; B – 4; C – 3; D – 1

(c) A – 1; B – 2; C – 3; D – 4

(d) A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4

52. Which one of the following climatic regions proposed by Koppen is not correctly matched in Rajasthan?

(a) Aw – Southern Rajasthan

(b) Cwg – Northern Rajasthan

(c) Bwhw – Arid desert

(d) BShw – Semi-arid desert

53. Which of the following statements regarding soils of Rajasthan is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

1. In the Thar desert, sandy soils have been formed from granitic and sandstone rocks.

2. In the Southern part, red loamy soils have been formed from granite, gneiss and quartzite rocks.

3. In the South-Eastern part, black soils have been formed from the erosion of basaltic lava.

4. In the Southern part, mixed red soils have been formed the erosion of phosphatic rocks.

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

54. Examine the following statements regarding forests of Rajasthan and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

1. Dry teak forests are concentrated in southern part of Rajasthan.

2. Teak forests are found in areas having average annual rainfall of 75 to 110 cm.

3. Sub-tropical evergreen forests are found on Mount Abu.

4. Forests of western Rajasthan belong to mixed deciduous forests.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 3

55. **Assertion (A) **Aravalli mountain range restricts expansion of desertification in neighbouring areas.

**Reason (R) **Aravalli mountain range extends uninterrupted from South-West to North-East throughout the State.

(a) A and R are both correct, R fully explains A.

(b) A and R both correct, but R explains A partially

(c) A is correct, but R is wrong

(d) A is wrong, but R is correct.

56. In terms of area which one of the following is the largest agroclimatic zone in Rajasthan?

(a) Humid southern plain

(b) Arid western plain

(c) Flood prone eastern plain

(d) Irrigated North-western plain

57. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) A – 3; B – 2; C – 1; D – 4

(b) A – 1; B – 2; C – 3; D – 4

(c) A – 1; B – 2; C – 4; D – 3

(d) A – 4; B – 2; C – 3; D – 1

58. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) A – 4; B – 3; C – 2; D – 1

(b) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2

(c) A – 3; B – 4; C – 2; D – 1

(d) A – 1; B – 4; C – 3; D – 2

59. Central Ground Water Authority and restricted exploitation of ground water in which of the following administrative blocks of Rajasthan ?

(a) Behror, Osian, Mahuwa

(b) Surajgarh, Desuri, Deoli

(c) Bhinmal, Todabhim, Toda Raisingh

(d) Behror, Bhinmal, Surajgarh, Dhond and Shrimadhopur

60. National Highway of Rajasthan which is confined to one district only

(a) 11 A

(b) 76 A

(c) 76 B

(d) 3 A

61. What will be the next number in the following series ?

1, 2, 4, 7, 11, 16, …..

(a) 18

(b) 36

(c) 22

(d) 25

62. What will be the next number in the following series ?

3, 3, 6, 18, 72, ….

(a) 360

(b) 364

(c) 288

(d) 320

63. Out of a heap of pebbles 66 lots of equal number of pebbles can be formed. Each lot can have maximum seven numbers of pebbles. Find which statement is incorrect.

(a) 11 lots of equal number of pebbles can be formed.

(b) 3 lots of equal number of pebbles can be formed.

(c) 33 lots of equal number of pebbles can be formed.

(d) 26 lots of equal number of pebbles can be formed.

64. What will be next picture?

65. The sum of square of two numbers X and Y is 85 and multiplication is 42. If X > Y then value of X – Y will be

(a) 2

(b) 4

(c) 3

(d) 1

66. Arm of a clock indicating minutes is at 12 and arm indicating hours makes 120° angle with minutes arm in clockwise direction. Then clock will show the time.

(a) 4 : 00 O’ clock

(b) 5 : 00 clock

(c) 3 h 50 min

(d) 4 h 30 min

67. Average weight of 34 students in a class is 46.5 kg. if the weight of teacher is added to it then average weight increases by 500 gm. Weight of teacher is

(a) 61 kg

(b) 62 kg

(c) 60 kg

(d) 64 kg

68. If we add one to denominator and numerator each, then value of a fraction become 2/3. If we subtract one from each denominator and numerator, the value of it become 1/2. Fraction is

(a) 2/5

(b) 3/5

(c) 2/6

(d) None of these

69. Ratio of age of Vimal and Arun is 3 : 5. If total of their age is 80 years. Then after 10 years the ratio of their age will be

(a) 2 : 3

(b) 1 : 2

(c) 3 : 2

(d) 3 : 5

70. The angle of elevation of top of a tree on the bank of a river from its other bank is 60° and from a point 20 m further away from this is 30°. The width of the river is

(a) 10√3 m

(b) 10 m

(c) 20 m

(d) 20√3 m

71. The value of x in equation 3^{1/9} × 3^{2/9} × 3^{3/9} = (9)^{x} is

(a) 2/3

(b) 1

(c) 1/3

(d) 2

72. Three years ago, the average age of his A and B was 18 years. Adding C he average age comes out to be 22 years. The present age of C is

(a) 24 yr

(b) 27 yr

(c) 28 yr

(d) 30 yr

73. The age of Ram is 6th part of age of his father. After 10 years age of Ram’s father is double the age of Vimal. Vimal’s 8th Birthday was 2 years before, the age of Ram is ………. years.

(a) 24

(b) 30

(c)

(d) None of these

74. In an examination, 80% students in English, 85% students in Maths and 75% students in both subjects passed. If 40 students failed in both subjects. Then total number of students appeared in exam were

(a) 200

(b) 400

(c) 600

(d) 500

75. B completes a work in a fix time. A completes half (1/2) of it in 3/4th time. Both complete it in 18 days. Then B alone will complete it in ………. days.

(a) 30

(b) 35

(c) 40

(d) None of these

76. A completes a work in 12 days. B is 60% more efficient than A. Then B will complete it in ………. days.

(a) 6

(b) 8

(c)

(d)

77. Two taps fill a tank in 45 and 30 hours respectively. If both taps opened at same time then both will fill the tank in how many hours?

(a)

(b)

(c) 15 h

(d) 18 h

78. A person completes his journey in 6 hours by a car at the speed of 45 km/h. To complete it in 5 hours, the speed of car will be ………. km/h.

(a) 55

(b) 54

(c) 53

(d) 52

79. A motorcyclist goes 39 km in 45 minutes. In first 15 minutes he goes at the speed of x km/h. In next 20 minutes he goes at the double speed of it. The rest distance he goes with same speed of first. The value of x is

(a) 31.2 km/h

(b) 36 km/h

(c) 40 km/h

(d) 52 km/h

80. A person goes from his house to office on foot at the speed of 4 km/h and returns by cycle at the speed of 16 km/h. His average speed is ……… km/h.

(a) 10

(b) 6

(c) 6.4

(d) None of these

81. A person crosses a diagonal of a square field in 3 seconds at the speed of 6 km/h. The area of the field is ………… sq m.

(a) 15.36

(b) 13.60

(c) 1.80

(d) 12.50

82. If the length of the shadow of a pole on plane ground is double of the length of the pole. The angle of elevation of Sun is

(a) 30°

(b) 45°

(c) 60°

(d) Not any

83. The 4 years simple interest on some amount is one-fifth of the principle amount. Yearly rate of interest is

(a) 4%

(b) 5%

(c) 6%

(d) None of these

84. Some amount becomes Rs 3840 in two years b y a compound interest rate and it becomes Rs 4096 in three years. Then rate of interest is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 8%

85. A person travels 4.40 km distance by taking 10 rounds of his circular field. The area of his field is

(a) 1.34 hectare

(b) 1.54 hectare

(c) 1.44 hectare

(d) 1.64 hectare

86. A circular shaped wire of 42 cm radius is cut and it is shaped in a square. One arm of the square is

(a) 66 cm

(b) 64 cm

(c) 72 cm

(d) 68 cm

87. The dimensions given in the field book are in meters. Total area of this field is

(a) 1675 sq m

(b) 1880 sq m

(c) 1585 sq m

(d) 1625 sq m

88. The population of different age group is given in percentage in the table given below.

*In which age group there is maximum population ?*

(a) 16-25

(b) 36-45

(c) 56-65

(d) Not any of above

89. Reply on the basis of table given in question no. 88. How much population is of persons upto age of 25 on every 10000?

(a) 4775

(b) 4825

(c) 4275

(d) 1775

90. Answer the following question from given pie-chart the number of persons engaged in service and transport is equal to the number of persons engaged in

(a) Agriculture and Transport

(b) Trading and Industry

(c) Agriculture and Trading

(d) Industry and Agriculture

91. A tap can fill a tank in 16 hours. Due to a hole in its base, it is filled in 24 hours. If tank is full then in how many hours it will be empty through the hole.

(a) 40 h

(b) 36 h

(c) 45 h

(d) 48 h

92. Two years compound interest at rate of 10%per annum for an amount is Rs 420. What will be the simple interest for 3 years for the same amount at the same rate.

(a) Rs 500

(b) Rs 550

(c) Rs 600

(d) Rs 525

93. If difference of cube and square of a number is 100 and difference of square and number is 20 km distance same time along the flow of the river. Then velocity of the river is

(a) 3

(b) 5

(c) 4

(d) None of these

94. If a sailer sails 12 km distance within 5 hours against the flow of a river. If he sails 22 km distance in same time along the flow of t he river. Then velocity of the river is

(a) 1 km/h

(b) 2 km/h

(c) 1.5 km/h

(d) 2.5 km/h

95. Circles of radius r touches each other as shown in the figure. The area of shaded portion will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

96. A work is done in 16 days by 8 labours. They worked together for 2 days and after that 8 additional labours joined them. The rest work will be finished by them in

(a) 8 days

(b) 10 days

(c) 9 days

(d) 7 days

97. A work is finished by A alone in 16 hours, B alone in 20 hours and C alone in 24 hours. They worked together and finished it and got Rs 777 as a wages. The share of B in the wages will be

(a) Rs 213

(b) Rs 252

(c) Rs 280

(d) Rs 315

98. The area of a shaded portion formed by a circle of radius one meter within a square touching its four sides will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

99. The value of is

(a) 2.0

(b) 2.4

(c) 2.6

(d) 2.2

100. Find out the smallest number, if it is divided by 15, 18, 27 and 35 we get 9 as remainder.

(a) 1910

(b) 2190

(c) 1890

(d) 1899

101. If a side of square is increased by 50% then its area will be increased by

(a) 100%

(b) 125%

(c) 150%

(d) 225%

102. Hari has some cows and some cocks. Their total number of heads is 48 and legs is 140. How many cows he has?

(a) 20

(b) 22

(c) 26

(d) 24

103. The value of is

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 3

104. The distance of an aeroplane from aerodrome is 1170 m. It make angle θ° from runway and value of What will be the horizontal distance of the aeroplane from aerodrome?

(a) 450 m

(b) 550 m

(c) 650 m

(d) 750 m

105. If three numbers are in ratio of 5 : 7 : 9, and their LCM is 1260. Then highest value number is

(a) 63

(b) 54

(c) 45

(d) 36

106. Industrial development increases employment opportunities. Which of the following inference can be drawn from above said statement?

(a) Recession Increases unemployment

(b) Purchasing power decreases of unemployed person

(c) Unemployment increase recession

(d) There is negligible problem in the industrially developed nations.

107. All dogs are asses and all asses are bullocks, which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Some dogs are asses.

(b) Some asses are bullocks.

(c) All asses and dogs are bullocks.

(d) All of the above

108. There is less percentage of passed students in the government schools. Above statement indicates that

(a) there are no school buildings in government schools

(b) government schools do not have good libraries

(c) quality education is not given in government schools

(d) government schools have less playgrounds

109. Which one is odd word in the following?

1. Cauliflower 2. Mushroom

3. Carrot 4. Potato

5. Brinjal

(a) Cauliflower

(b) Carrot

(c) Mushroom

(d) Potato

110. Which one is odd word?

1. Earth 2. Moon

2. Mars 4. Mercury

(a) Moon

(b) Mercury

(c) Mars

(d) Earth

111. If then value of will be

(a) √3

(b) √6

(c) 2√6

(d) 6

112. The sum of square of two numbers is 68 and square of the difference of them is 36. Then multiplication value of the two is

(a) 16

(b) 32

(c) 58

(d) 30

113. There is a group five persons, namely of A, B, C, D and E.

1. A is shorter than B, but taller than E.

2. C is the tallest.

3. D is shorter than B, but taller than A. Reply the following questions on the basis of above information.

*Who is the shortest among these?*

(a) A

(b) B

(c) D

(d) E

114. The information given in question no. 113 tell what who is at second position in height.

(a) A

(b) B

(c) D

(d) E

115. As per information given in the question no. 113 tell that, if all five persons stand according to height, then who will be in mid of them?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

116. After going through the following information give the answer to the questions given below :

P + Q means P is son of Q.

P – Q means P is wife of Q.

P × Q means P is brother of Q.

P ÷ Q means P is sister of Q.

A + B – C shall mean

(a) C is father of A

(b) C is son of A

(c) C is uncle of A

(d) C is brother of A

117. As per informations given in question 116 tell that A × B ÷ C shall mean that

(a) A and B are brother of each other

(b) A is father of C

(c) B is sister of A

(d) A and C are brother and sister to each other

118. It was compulsory to get 36% marks in a paper to Manoj to pass He got only 24% marks and failed by 9 marks. Total marks of paper was

(a) 66

(b) 75

(c) 50

(d) 60

119. Present population of a town is 176400. It increased by 5% annually. The population of town before 2 years was

(a) 150000

(b) 160000

(c) 175000

(d) 180000

120. There is 10% loss if a watch is sold for Rs 1440. At what price it is to be sold to get 15% profit?

(a) Rs 1840

(b) Rs 1850

(c) Rs 1800

(d) Rs 1860

121. Which applications is used to prepare a presentation/slide show?

(a) Photoshop

(b) Power Point

(c) Outlook Express

(d) Internet Explorer

122. How many bits are equal to 1 byte?

(a) 32

(b) 1024

(c) one million

(d) 8

123. A pixel is

(a) a computer program that draws picture

(b) a picture stored in secondary memory

(c) the smallest resolvable part of a picture

(d) None of the above

124. Digital signature is

(a) scanned signature on computer

(b) software to recognize signature

(c) public key encryption

(d) code number of the sender

125. Bluetooth is an example of

(a) Personal Area Network

(b) Local Area Network

(c) Virtual Private Network

(d) None of the mentioned

126. Network congestion occurs

(a) when a system terminates

(b) when connection between two nodes terminates

(c) in case of traffic overloading

(d) None of the mentioned

127. Expand Wi-Fi.

(a) Wireless-Flow

(b) Wireless-Fidelity

(c) Wide-Fidelity

(d) All of these

128. Secret-key encryption is also known as

(a) private encryption

(b) secret encryption

(c) symmetric encryption

(d) asymmetric encryption

129. Tool that is used to transfer data/files among computers on the internet :

(a) TCP

(b) FTP

(c) Archie

(d) Gopher

130. Information Technology Act in India was amended in

(a) 2000

(b) 2005

(c) 2008

(d) 2010

131. Electronic kiosk is one form of

(a) none-store retailing

(b) supermarket

(c) discount retailer

(d) limited line retailer

132. A keyboard is this kind of device.

(a) Input

(b) Output

(c) Word Processing

(d) None of these

133. The first cell is EXCEL worksheet is labeled as

(a) AA

(b) A1

(c) Aa

(d) A0

134. Ctrl+R can be used for

(a) re-open the last closed document

(b) re-print the last printed page

(c) re-apply the last paragraph formatting

(d) right align the selected paragraph

135. In MS Word, Ctrl + S is for

(a) scenarios

(b) size

(c) save

(d) spelling check

136. To add a header or footer to your handout, you can use

(a) the title master

(b) the slide master

(c) the handout master

(d) All of the above

137. Which option on the custom animation task pane allows you to apply a preset or custom motion path?

(a) Add effect

(b) Emphasis

(c) Animate now

(d) All of these

138. Slide show options available to the presenter include all of the following except

(a) transitions command

(b) speaker notes command

(c) meeting reminder command

(d) navigation commands

139. If the displayed system time and data is wrong, you can reset by using

(a) write

(b) calender

(c) write file

(d) control panel

140. First generation computer systems used

(a) transistors

(b) vacuum tubes

(c) magnetic cores

(d) silicon chips

141. The term gigabyte refers to

(a) 1024 bytes

(b) 1024 kilobytes

(c) 1024 megabytes

(d) None of these

142. Which of the following provides a printed copy of your presentation?

(a) Outlines

(b) Speaker notes

(c) Audience handouts

(d) All of the above

143. Which short cut key inserts a new slide in current presentation?

(a) Ctrl + N

(b) Ctrl + M

(c) Ctrl + S

(d) None of these

144. ALU is

(a) Arithmetic Logic Unit

(b) Array Logic Unit

(c) Application Logic Unit

(d) None of the above

145. The cell reference for cell range of G2 to M12 is

(a) G2.M12

(b) G2;M12

(c) G2 : M12

(d) G2-M12

146. If a computer provides database service to other, then it will be known as

(a) Web server

(b) Application server

(c) Database server

(d) FTP server

147. The data and time displays on

(a) taskbar

(b) status bar

(c) system tray

(d) launch pad

148. Which of the following is not a font style?

(a) Bold

(b) Italics

(c) Regular

(d) Superscript

149. Which technology is used in Compact Discs?

(a) Mechanical

(b) Electrical

(c) Electron Magnetic

(d) Laser

150. URL stands for

(a) Universal Research List

(b) Universal Resource List

(c) Uniform Resource Locator

(d) Uniform Research Locator

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