RAS / RTS Pre Examination Held on 28-8-2016 General Knowledge/General Science Question Paper with Answer Key

RAS/RTS (Pre.) Examination, 2016

Held on 28-8-2016

General Knowledge & General Science

1. Consider the following important sources of tax revenue for the Central Government in India –

I. Union Excise Duty

II. Corporation Tax

III. Income Tax

IV. Service Tax

Which one of the following is the correct descending order in terms of Gross Tax Revenue ?

(A)  IV, I, II, III

(B)  II, III, I, IV

(C)  II, IV, I, III

(D)  I, II, IV, III

Ans: (B)

2. Inflation rate based on consumer price index increases if –

(A)  Repo rate is increased

(B)  Statutory Liquidity ratio is

(C)  Reverse repo rate is decreased

(D)  Bank rate is decreased

Ans: (D)

3. As per the Human Development Report 2015, consider the following statements –

I. India ranks 130 out of 188 countries.

II. HDI is based on the indices for life expectancy, education and PCI.

III. In comparison to other nations in the BRICS, India has the lowest rank.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A)  I, II and III

(B)  II only

(C)  II and III only

(D)  I and II only

Ans: (A)

4. Unemployment and poverty estimat3es in India are based on-

(A)  NSSO family income survey

(B)  Planning Commission’s household consumption expenditure survey

(C)  CSO household consumption expenditure survey

(D)  NSSO household consumption expenditure survey

Ans: (D)

5. In which year the rate of growth of India’s per capita income at constant prices was the highest during the period 1951-52 to 2015-16 ?

(A)  2014-15

(B)  2007-08

(C)  2010-11

(D)  2015-16

Ans: (B)

6. Since 1997-98, which statement is correct regarding Minimum Support Price (MSP) ?

(A)  MSP is independent to C2 cost

(B)  MSP < C2 costs

(C)  MSP > C2 costs

(D)  MSP = C2 costs

Ans: (C)

7. Which of the following statements is correct about the balance of trade of India ?

(A)  India’s trade balance remained positive for the entire period from 1949-50 to 2015-16 except two year 1972-73 and 1976-77, when it was negative

(B)  India’s trade balance remained negative for the entire period from 1949-50 to 2015-16 except two years 1972-73 and 1976-77, when it was positive

(C)  India’s trade balance remained positive for the entire period from 1949-50 to 2015-16

(D)  India’s trade balance remained negative for the entire period from 1949-50 to 2015-16

Ans: (B)

8. Choose the correct answer in the context of PAHAL scheme –

(A)  All these are true

(B)  It directly transfers LPG subsidy into customer’s bank accounts

(C)  It transfers LPG subsidy via DBT

(D)  It is first variety of JAM

Ans: (A)

9. Consider the following statements about Jalipa-Kapurdi thermal power project of Rajasthan ?

I. This power project is lignite based.

II. It has been installed by private developer.

Which of the above statement is/are correct ?

(A)  Only statement II is correct

(B)  Only statement I is correct

(C)  Both I and II are not correct

(D)  Both I and II are correct

Ans: (D)

10. The base year for Rajasthan’s whole sale Price Index is –

(A)  2011-12

(B)  2004-05

(C)  1999-2000

(D)  1986-87

Ans: (C)

11. The growth targets in the 12th Five Year Plan of Rajasthan for Agriculture. Industry and Service sectors are respectively ?

(A)  3.5%, 8.5% and 9.5%

(B)  4.0%, 8.5% and 9.0%

(C)  4.0%, 8.0% and 9.0%

(D)  3.5%, 8.0% and 9.5%

Ans: (D)

12. Which of the following statements are correct about sex ratio (number of females per 1000 males) in Rajasthan according to Census-2011 ?

(i) Sex ratio in Rajasthan in 2011 was less than National average.

(ii) Sex ratio in all Districts of Rajasthan in 2011 was less than 1000.

(iii) Sex ratio in rural areas of all Districts Rajasthan in 2011 was less than 1000, except Pali District.

(iv) Sex ratio in urban areas of all Districts of Rajasthan in 2011 was less than 1000, except Dhaulpur District.

Select the correct answer using codes given below –

(A)  (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

(B)  (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

(C)  (i) and (ii) are correct

(D)  Only (i) is correct

Ans: (B)

13. The main features of Bhamashah Yojana are –

(i) Each family is issued a Bhamashah card in the name of the female head of the family.

(ii) Bhamashah card is linked to the bank account of the lady.

(iii) Multiple cash benefits will be transferred to the bank accounts of the beneficiaries.

(iv) All non-cash benefits will also be transferred to the bank accounts of the beneficiaries.

Select the correct answer using codes given below –

(A)  (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

(B)  (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

(C)  (i) and (ii) are correct

(D)  Only (i) is correct

Ans: (B)

14. Which of the following external agency is providing financial assistance for Rajasthan Renewable Energy Transmission Investment Program ?

(A)  KFW Germany

(B)  Asian Development Bank

(C)  Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA)

(D)  World Bank

Ans: (B)

15. ‘NAYA SAVERA’ is-

(A)  All of these

(B)  a programme to de-addict all the wine users

(C)  a programme to de-addict all the tobacco users

(D)  a programme to de-addict tall the Doda Post users

Ans: (D)

16. Mukhya Mantri Nishulk Dava Yojana in Rajasthan was launched on –

(A)  2nd October, 2010

(B)  2nd October, 2011

(C)  2nd September, 2010

(D)  2nd September, 2011

Ans: (B)

17. One of the following is not the objective of Chief Minister’s Shubh Laxmi Yojana in Rajasthan –

(A)  To help pregnant girls

(B)  To encourage registration of girl child birth

(C)  To prevent child marriage

(D)  To promote the birth of girl child

Ans: (A)

18. The chemical formula of baking soda is –

(A)  NaHCO3

(B)  Na2CO3

(C)  Ca(OH)2

(D)  CaCO3

Ans: (A)

19. Name the scheme being implemented in Rajasthan under which cash incentive is given to SC/ST/SBC/BPL of OBC and GEN candidate selected in the All India Civil Services Examination, the State Civil Services Examination and a candidate getting admission in IITs, IIMs and National Level Medical Colleges –

(A)  Upper Merit Scholarship

(B)  Merit-cum-Means Scheme

(C)  Scholarship Scheme

(D)  Anuprati Yojana

Ans: (D)

20. Nodal Agency for generation of energy from non-conventional energy sources in Rajasthan is –

(A)  None of these

(B)  Centre for New and Renewable Energy Sources

(C)  State Ministry of New Renewable Energy

(D)  Rajasthan Renewable Energy Corporation Ltd.

Ans: (D)

21. How many District Industries Centres are working in Rajasthan ?

(A)  29

(B)  31

(C)  33

(D)  36

Ans: (D)

22. The Defence Research Development Organization (DRDO) has developed a drug name, ‘Lukoskin’. It is being used in the treatment of-

(A)  Leukorrhea

(B)  Lung Cancer

(C)  Leucoderma

(D)  Leukemia

Ans: (C)

23. Match the following pairs-

List-I

(Launch Vehicle)

(a) Satellite Launch Vehicle-3 (SLV-3)

(b) Augmented Satellite Launch Vehicle (ASLV)

(c) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV)

(d) Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV)

List-II

(Satellite)

1. Chandrayaan-1

2. Rohini

3. SROSS-C

4. EDUSAT

Which of the following codes are correctly matched?

(A)  (a) – 2; (b) – 3; (c) – 4; (d) – 1

(B)  (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 2; (d) – 4

(C)  (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 4

(D)  (a) – 2; (b) – 3; (c) – 1; (d) – 4

Ans: (D)

24. Photovoltaic cell is related to-

(A)  Geo Thermal Energy

(B)  Wind Energy

(C)  Nuclear Energy

(D)  Solar Energy

Ans: (D)

25. The latest android mobile operating system-6.0 is named as-

(A)  Jelly Bean

(B)  Lollipop

(C)  Marshmallow

(D)  Kitkat

Ans: (C)

26. Which district has become the first one in India to get connected to the High Speed Rural Broadband Network ?

(A)  Pune District of Maharashtra

(B)  Idukki District of Kerala

(C)  Vidisha District of Madhya Pradesh

(D)  Bengaluru District of Karnataka

Ans: (B)

27. Arrange the following products/ examples of nanotechnology is ascending order of the four generations of nanotechnology [I → IV] and elect the correct answer using the codes given ahead.

I. Aerosol

II. 3D networking

III. Molecular manufacturing

IV. Targeted drugs

(A)  IV, I, III, II

(B)  I, IV,, II, III

(C)  IV, I, II, III

(D)  I, II, III, IV

Ans: (B)

28. Which among the following is a nuclear powered submarine of Indian Navy ?

(A)  INS Sindhuvir

(B)  INS Chakra

(C)  INS Shalki

(D)  INS Shishumar

Ans: (B)

29. Which of the following aircraft is an air-to-air refueller of the Indian Air Force?

(A)  C-130 J Super Hercules

(B)  Ilyushin II-78

(C)  Ilyushin II-76

(D)  C-17 Globemaster III

Ans: (B)

30. Which of the following statements are correct ?

(i) Sugarcane juice is fermented to form vinegar.

(ii) Vinegar h as acetic acid.

(iii) Benzoic acid is the acid present in Vinegar.

(iv) Vinegar is used as a preservative.

(A)  (ii), (iii), (iv)

(B)  (i), (ii), (iii)

(C)  (i), (ii), (iv)

(D)  (i), (iii), (iv)

Ans: (C)

31. The relative contributions of carbon dioxide (CO2), nitrous oxide (N2O), chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and methane (CH4) towards global warming are-

(A)  CO2 > N2O > CH4 > CFCs

(B)  CO2 > CH4 > N2O > CFCs

(C)  CO2 > CH4 > CFCs > N2O

(D)  CO2 > CFCs > CH4 > N2O

Ans: (A)

32. Which of the facts about Dolly (sheep), the first mammal cloned form an adult somatic cell is not correct ?

(A)  Dolly died due to lung disease     

(B)  Dolly was born at Scotland

(C)  Dolly died in the year 2003

(D)  Dolly was born in the year 1998

Ans: (D)

33. Which among the following is the richest source of alpha-linolenic acid (18-carbon omega-3 fatty acid)

(A)  Oats

(B)  Tlaxseed

(C)  Moth bean

(D)  Mung bean

Ans: (B)

34. Consider the following statements and choose the correct ones using the codes given below-

(i) The flavr-savr tamato was the first genetically engineered crop-product to be commercialized.

(ii) Ripe fruits of flavr-savr remain firm for longer duration and can be transported to market after vineripening.

(iii) Ripe fruits of flavr-savr have colour, but not the full array of vine ripened-tomato flavours.

(A)  (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B)  (i) and (iii)

(C)  (ii) and (iii)

(D)  (i) and (ii)

Ans: (A)

35. Calcium carbide is used for artificial ripening of green fruits because it produces-

(A)  Auxin

(B)  Florigen

(C)  Methylene

(D)  Acetylene

Ans: (D)

36. Against which of the following diseases has Government of India decided to given Bivalent ORV is place of Trivalent ?

(A)  Malaria

(B)  Polio

(C)  Diptheria

(D)  Typhoid

Ans: (B)

37. For popularization of Science & Technology in the State, the Government has established Science Centres and Science Parks in Rajasthan. Identify the correct places where Science Parks have been established so far-

(A)  Jaipur, Nawalgarh, Kota

(B)  Jaipur, Nawalgarh, Jhalarapatan (Jhalawar)

(C)  Jaipur, Bikaner, Jhalarapatan (Jhalawar)

(D)  Jaipur, Jodhpur, Kota

Ans: (B)

38. First National Park Established in India is-

(A)  Kanha National Park

(B)  Gir National Park

(C)  Jum Corbett National Park

(D)  Kaziranga National Park

Ans: (C)

39. The bio-fertilizer used as a supplementary food for the cattle, especially for milking bovines is-

(A)  Azolla

(B)  Rhizobium

(C)  Azospirillum

(D)  Azotobacter

Ans: (A)

40. The Central Institute of Arid Horticulture is situated at-

(A)  Udaipur

(B)  Jodhpur

(C)  Sri Ganganagar

(D)  Bikaner

Ans: (D)

41. In this question, a statement is followed by two assumptions-

Statement : Nothing is beyond the reach of a hard working person.

Assumptions :

I. A hard working person can achieve everything.

II. Those who do not work hard cannot achieve anything.

Then which of the answer is correct ?

(A)  Neither I nor II is implied in the statement

(B)  Both I and II are implied in the statement

(C)  Only II is implied in the statement

(D)  Only I is implied in the statement

Ans: (D)

42. The statement below is followed by two arguments, numbered I and II. Decide which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument.

Given answer-

Statement : Should use of mobile phone be banned while driving ?

Arguments :

I. Yes, most of the time it causes accident.

II. No,, this can create a major problem for mobile users in emergency.

(A)  Neither I nor II is strong

(B)  Both I and II are strong

(C)  Only argument II is strong

(D)  Only argument I is strong  

Ans: (D)

43. Statements :

1. All fruits are trees.

2. No flower is tree.

Conclusions :

I. No flower is fruit.

II. Some trees are fruits.

(A)  Both conclusions I and II follow

(B)  Neither conclusion I nor II follows

(C)  Only conclusion II follows

(D)  Only conclusions I follows

Ans: (A)

44. The n ext term in the given sequence

7Y, 26V, 63R, 124M, ……., is-

(A)  215H

(B)  215G

(C)  216H

(D)  216G

Ans: (B)

45. Pick out the odd one –

(A)  Pig

(B)  Goat

(C)  Cow

(D)  Cat

Ans: (D)

46. If ‘GYPSUM’ is coded as ‘MGSPYU’, ‘FATHER’ is coded as ‘RFHTAE’, then ‘BEYOND’ will be coded as –

(A)  DBOYEN

(B)  DBOEYN

(C)  NDEYBO

(D)  DBYOEN

Ans: (A)

47. A, B, C, D, E and F are 6 members of a family. Number of males is equal to number of females. Family has one pair of husband-wife. A and E are sons of F and A is elder. D is mother of two children (one is boy and other is girl). B is son of A. Then the niece of E is-

(A)  A

(B)  F

(C)  D

(D)  C

Ans: (D)

48. Answer the following-

Statement: If he is intelligent, he will pass the NET examination.

Assumptions :

I. To pass, the NET examination he must be intelligent.

II. He will pass the NET examination.

(A)  Both I and II are implicit

(B)  Either I or II is implicit

(C)  Only Assumption II implicit

(D)  Neither I nor II is implicit

Ans: (D)

49. In the given figure, total number of triangles are-

(A)  27

(B)  25

(C)  23

(D)  21

Ans: (C)

50. Next term of the sequence 1039, 2247, 3455, 4663, ….. .

(A)  5881

(B)  5782

(C)  5871

(D)  5772

Ans: (C)

51. Which is the digit at  unit place of the product (541 × 769 × 357) ?

(A)  1

(B)  3

(C)  5

(D)  7

Ans: (C)

52. 200 bulbs are used 4 hours per day and expenditure of 6 days is Rs. 40. Then how many bulbs should be used 3 hours per day so that expenditure of 15 day is Rs. 48 ?

(A)  90

(B)  128

(C)  800

(D)  72

Ans: (B)

53. Two students X and Y appeared at an examination. X secured 9 marks more than marks of Y and marks of X was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by X and Y are respectively-

(A)  43, 34

(B)  42, 33

(C)  41, 32

(D)  39, 30

Ans: (B)

54. In the question a key figure marked (X) is given, followed by four other alternative figures marked (1), (2), (3) and (4). The figure which fits exactly into figure (X) to form a complete square, is-

(A)  (1)

(B)  (3)

(C)  (2)

(D)  (4)

Ans: (A)

55. In a mixture of 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water is 5 : 3. In order make this ratio 1 : 2, the quantity of water to be added to the mixture is-

(A)  52.5 litres

(B)  58.5 litres

(C)  22.5 litres

(D)  17.5 litres

Ans: (A)

56. The missing number in the given table is-

(A)  14

(B)  9

(C)  7

(D)  5

Ans: (D)

57. A father distributes Rs. 16,400 into two fixed deposits for his two sons of age 17 and 18 years respectively, such that at their age of 20 years, both get the same amount. If rate of compound interest is 5% per annum (compounded annually), then how much amount the father deposits

(A)  Rs. 10,000

(B)  Rs. 8,400

(C)  Rs. 8,200

(D)  Rs. 8,000

Ans: (D)

58. The difference of compound interest (annually) and simple interest on an amount of Rs. 15,000 for 2 years on the same rate of interest is Rs. 96. The rate of interest per annum is –

(A)  7%

(B)  12%

(C)  10%

(D)  8%

Ans: (D)

Directions – (Q. 59 and 60) Refer the following table and pie-graphs and answer the following questions-

59. How many more two wheelers (in nearest thousands) were exported to EU in 2013-14 as compared to 2010-11 ?

(A)  176

(B)  134

(C)  131

(D)  129

Ans: (B)

60. What is the percentage change in export of automobiles excluding HCVs in 2013-14 as compared to 2010-11 ?

(A)  3.2% decrease

(B)  3.22% increase

(C)  2.22% decrease

(D)  2.22% increase

Ans: (D)

61. Which Indian State has been declared ass the first ‘Digital State’ of India ?

(A)  Goa

(B)  Maharashtra

(C)  Kerala

(D)  Karnataka

Ans: (C)

62. How much percentage of the total land mass area of India is in Rajasthan ?

(A)  11.4%

(B)  13.3%

(C)  7.9%

(D)  10.4%

Ans: (D)

63. How much of Thar Desert in India falls in Rajasthan ?

(A)  90%

(B)  80%

(C)  60%

(D)  40%

Ans: (A)

64. Which country recently conferred its highest civilian honour ‘Amir Amanullha Khan Award’ to Prime Minister Narendra Modi ?

(A)  Afghanistan

(B)  Iran

(C)  Uzbekistan

(D)  Saudi Arabia

Ans: (A)

65. How many Gold Medals won by India in the 12th South Asian Games held in February 2016 ?

(A)  96

(B)  156

(C)  188

(D)  200

Ans: (C)

66. Who among the following led the movement for withdrawing United Kingdom from the European Union ?

(A)  Jean0CClande Junker

(B)  George Osborne

(C)  Mark Carney

(D)  Boris Johnson

Ans: (D)

67. Who captained the Mumbai Cricket team, which won the Ranji Trophy Tournament 2015-16 ?

(A)  Aditya Tare

(B)  Rohit Sharma

(C)  Shreyas Iyer

(D)  Surya Kumar Yadav

Ans: (A)

68. What is the official’ motto’ of Rio 2016 Paralympic Games ?

(A)  Come walk together

(B)  Equality to play

(C)  Come and play

(D)  A new world

Ans: (D)

69. The sentence incorporated in the ‘Logo’ of Rajasthan tourism is-

(A)  Darshinya Rajasthan

(B)  Rajasthan Ro Dil Dekho

(C)  Jane Kya Dikh Jaye

(D)  Rangilo Rajasthan

Ans: (C)

70. How many sports will be played during Rio Paralympic Games, 2016 ?

(A)  27

(B)  23

(C)  42

(D)  20

Ans: (B)

71. Identify the place, where the first ‘Annupurna Bhandar’ was inaugurated by the Chief Minister of Rajasthan on 31st October, 2015-

(A)  Kotputali

(B)  Phagi

(C)  Bhambori

(D)  Chomu

Ans: (C)

72. Rajasthan is the first state to implement which one of the following Act to redress public grievances ?

(A)  Right to Hearing Act

(B)  Good Governance Act

(C)  Guaranteed Delivery of Public Services Act

(D)  Transparency in Public Procurement Act

Ans: (A)

73. Government of Rajasthan has set-up Jeevan Dhara Bank iin collaboration with Norwegian Government to provide –

(A)  Mother’s Milk to Infants

(B)  Insurance to Old persons

(C)  Water for Desert areas

(D)  Blood for Cancer patients

Ans: (A)

74. Newly elected Chairman of Rajasthan Olympic Association is-

(A)  Ramavtar Jakhar

(B)  Gopal Saini

(C)  Dhanraj Choudhary

(D)  Shivcharan Mali

Ans: (C)

75. How many events took place in Rio Olympic Games, 2016 ?

(A)  296

(B)  306

(C)  326

(D)  396

Ans: (B)

76. Which is the first solar powered aircraft to circumnavigate the earth ?

(A)  Solar Impulse-4

(B)  Solar Impulse-2

(C)  Solar Impulse-3

(D)  Solar Impulse-1

Ans: (B)

77. In 35th National Games, 2015 Rajasthan won-

(A)  18 Medals

(B)  3 Siler Medals

(C)  1 Gold Medal only

(D)  10 Medals

Ans: (A)

78. Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana ?

(i) The scheme provides free LPG connection to the women belonging to the Below Poverty Line (BPL) households.

(ii) Rs. 8,000 crore has been earmarked under the scheme.

(iii) The scheme provides a financial support of Rs. 2,800 for each LPG connection to the BPL households.

(iv) The scheme will benefit 5 cror BPL families across the nation.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

(A)  Only (i), (ii) and (iv)

(B)  Only (i), (iii), (iv)

(C)  Only (ii) and (iii)

(D)  Only (i) and (ii)

Ans: (A)

79. Who is the first Dronacharya awardee of Rajasthan State ?

(A)  Paramjeet Singh

(B)  Gopal Saini

(C)  Ripudaman Singh

(D)  Karan Singh

Ans: (D)

80. Prestigious Asian cup 2015 Table Tennis Championships was hosted at-

(A)  Netaji Subhash Indoor Stadium, Kolkata

(B)  Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, New Delhi

(C)  National Sports Club of India, Mumbai

(D)  Sawai Mansingh Indoor Stadium, Jaipur

Ans: (D)

81. Which one of the following Sun Temples is located in Patan, Gujarat ?

(A)  Dakshinark

(B)  Martand

(C)  Modhera

(D)  Konark

Ans: (C)

82. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

(A)  Chand Bibi – Awadh

(B)  Baz Bahadur – Malwa

(C)  Bahadur Shah – Gujarat

(D)  Raziya Sultan – Delhi

Ans: (A)

83. In which of the following texts the list of the sixteen great states (Sodasa Mahajanapadas) of ancient India occur ?

Select the correct answer from the code given  below-

(i) Arthashastra

(ii) Anguttara Nikaya

(iii) Digha Nikaya

(iv) Bhagavati Sutra

(A)  (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(B)  (i), (ii) and (iii)

(C)  (ii) and (iv)

(D)  (i) and (ii)

Ans: (A)

84. The legend of Satyakam Jabal, which challenges the stigma of being an unmarried mother, is mentioned in-

(A)  Prashnopnishad

(B)  Kathopnishad

(C)  Jabal Upanishad

(D)  Chhandogya Upanishad

Ans: (D)

85. Which of the following Sanskrit works has taken up their theme from the Mahabharata ?

Select the correct answer from the code given  below –

(i) Naishdhiyacharita

(ii) Kiratarjuniyam

(iii) Sisupalavadha

(iv) Dasakumaracharita

(A)  (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(B)  (i), (ii) and (iii)

(C)  (ii) and (iii)

(D)  (i) and (iii)

Ans: (B)

86. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

(A)  Illbert Bill – Ripon

(B)  Vernacular Press Act – Curzon

(C)  Suppression of Thuggee – William Bentinck

(D)  Ring Fence Policy – Warren Hastings

Ans: (B)

87. Consider the following statements-

Assertion (A) : Socio – religious movements of the 19th century resulted in the modernization of India.

Reason (R) : Rationalism, scientific temper and other such ideas which are the basis of modernization were at the core of the socio-religious movements.

(A)  Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B)  Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)  (R) is true, but (A) is false

(D)  (A) is true, but (R) is false

Ans: (A)

88. Who among the following laid the foundation of the Chola Empire in the IXth century A.D. ?

(A)  Rajraja Chola

(B)  Parantak

(C)  Krishna I

(D)  Vijayalaya

Ans: (D)

89. The Persian translation of Mahabharata, which was done in 16th century is called –

(A)  Razmanama

(B)  Badshahnama

(C)  Alamgirnama

(D)  Hamzanama

Ans: (A)

90. Who among the following does not belong to the Chishti order ?

(A)  Sheikh Abdul Jilani

(B)  Sheikh Nizamuddin Aulia

(C)  Khwaja Qutubuddin Bakhtiar Kaki

(D)  Sheikh Moinuddin

Ans: (A)

91. Who amongst the following scholars was not in the Court of Kumbha ?

(A)  Natha

(B)  Muni Jin Vijay Shuri

(C)  Muni Sunder Suri

(D)  Tilla Bhatt

Ans: (B)

92. With which of the following areas of Rajasthan the Alibakshi Khayal is associated ?

(A)  Chittor

(B)  Alwar

(C)  Chidawa

(D)  Karauli

Ans: (B)

93. Shankariya dance of Rajasthan is related to –

(A)  Terahtali

(B)  Sahariya

(C)  Bhil

(D)  Kalbeliya

Ans: (D)

94. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

         Name                                Text(Music)

(A)  Ustad Chand Khan   –        Ragachandrika

(B)  Kumbha                    –        Ragakalpadrum

(C)  Pandit Bhavbhatt      –        Sangeetraj

(D)  Pndrik Vitala            –        Raagmala

Ans: (D)

95. The ancient city which is mentioned in the Mahabharata and Mahabhashya both –

(A)  Karkot

(B)  Raidh

(C)  Madhyamika (Nagari)

(D)  Viratnagar (Bairath)

Ans: (C)

96. The inscription which proves the influence of Bhagwat cult in ancient Rajasthan is –

(A)  Ghosundi Inscription

(B)  Buchkala Inscription         

(C)  Besnagar Iinscription of Heliodorous

(D)  Ghatiyala Inscription

Ans: (A)

97. From the following temples of Rajasthan identify the temples which were built in the Gurjar-Pratihar period –

(i) Adivarah temple of Ahad

(ii) Harshat Mata temple of Abhaneri

(iii) Neelkanth temple of Rajorgarh

(iv) Harihar temple of Osian

(A)  (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(B)  (ii) and (iv)

(C)  (i), (ii) and (iv)

(D)  (i) and (iv)

Ans: (A)

98. Which one of the following newspapers of p re-independence Rajasthan was not the promoter of Arya Samaj ideology ?

(A)  Rajputana Gazette

(B)  Paropkarak

(C)  Janhitkarak    

(D)  Desh Hiteshi

Ans: (A)

99. In which of the following area of Rajasthan, ‘Gulabi Gangaur’ is celebrated on Chaitra Shukla Panchmi ?

(A)  Jodhpur

(B)  Bundi

(C)  Udaipur

(D)  Nathdwara

Ans: (D)

100. Match the following –

List-I

(Institution)

(a) Rajasthan Seva Sangh

(b) Desh Hiteshi Sabha

(c) All India State People’s Conference

(d) Chamber of Princes

List-II

(Establishment)

1. 1921       2. 1927

3. 1877      4. 1919

(A)  (a) – 4; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 1

(B)  (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 4; (d) – 3

(C)  (a) – 2; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 3

(D)  (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1

Ans: (D)

101. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ?

        Peasant Movement                     Leader

(A)  Bikaner                     –        Narottam lal Joshi

(B)  Bijoliya                     –        Vijay Singh Pathik

(C)  Bundi                        –        Naynu Ram Sharma

(D)  Begun                        –        Ram Narayan Chaudhary

Ans: (A)

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102. What is the meaning of ‘Patta Rekh’ in the history of Raja sthan ?

(A)  Begar

(B)  Export-import tax

(C)  Military tax

(D)  Expected revenue

Ans: (D)

103. Where was the Headquarter of Shekhawati Brigade located ?

(A)  Fatehpur

(B)  Khetri

(C)  Jhunjhunu

(D)  Sikar

Ans: (C)

104. In acid rain, the rain water and snow is contaminated by which of the following pollutants ?

(i) Sulphur-di-oxide

(ii) Nitrogen oxide

(iii) Carbon-di-oxide

(iv) Methane

(A)  Only (i) and (ii)

(B)  Only (ii) and (iii)

(C)  (i), (iii) and (iv)

(D)  (i), (ii) and (iv)

Ans: (A)

105. Who among the following was the first to emphasise the need to establish separate educational institution for the rulers of the princely states of Rajasthan ?

(A)  Lord Mayo

(B)  Captain Walter

(C)  Lord Lansdowne

(D)  Colonel Loch

Ans: (B)

106. ‘Hansawali’, an early work of Rajasthani literature was written by-

(A)  Isardas

(B)  Sridhar Vyas

(C)  Asayit

(D)  Hemchandra

Ans: (C)

107. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using codes given below-

List-I

(Mountain Peak)

(a) Kosciuszko

(b) Mckinley

(c) Elbrus

(d) Kilimanjaro

List-II

(Continent)

1. Europe

2. Africa

3. Australia

4. North America

(A)  (a) – 2; (b) – 4; (c) – 3; (d) – 1

(B)  (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 2; (d) – 4

(C)  (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 2

(D)  (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1

Ans: (C)

108. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a region ?

(i) Global Warming

(ii) Fragmentation of habitat

(iii) Invasion of alien species

(iv) Promotion of Vegetarianism

Select the correct answer using code given below-

(A)  (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(B)  (i) and (iv)

(C)  (ii) and (iii) only

(D)  (i), (ii) and (iii)

Ans: (D)

109. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using codes given below-

List-I

(Industrial Regions)

(a) Lancashire Region

(b) Ruhr Region

(c) Keihin Region

(d) Southern Appalachian Region

List-II

(Country)

1. United States of America

2. Germany

3. United Kingdom

4. Japan

(A)  (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 2; (d) – 1

(B)  (a) – 3; (b) – 2; (c) – 4; (d) – 1

(C)  (a) – 3; (b) – 2; (c) – 1; (d) – 4

(D)  (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 4

Ans: (B)

110. Which of the following is not a correct match ?

         Passes                      Location in State

(A)  Mana and Niti           Uttarakhand

(B)  Bom Di La                Arunachal Pradesh

(C)  Jelep La                     Sikkim

(D)  Shipki La                  Jammu & Kashmir

Ans: (D)

111. Which of the following groups represent the correct sequence of mountain peaks of Rajasthan in descending order of their height ?

(A)  Jarga, Delwara, Taragarh, Sajjangarh

(B)  Jarga, Ser, Sajjangarh, Taragarh

(C)  Ser, Jarga, Sajjangarh, Taragarh

(D)  Delwara, Sajjangarh, Jarga, Taragarh

Ans: (C)

112. Assertion (A) : Green Revolution has resulted in the growth of foodgrain production in India.

Reason (R) : Regional disparities have aggravated due to the green revolution in India.

(A)  (A) is false and (R) is true

(B)  (A) is true and (R) is false

(C)  Both (A) and (R) are true,

(D)  Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation (A)

Ans: (C)

113. Which is the correct sequence of following manganese producing States of India in terms of high to low production status in the year 2013-14 ?

(A)  Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan

(B)  Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh

(C)  Rajasthan, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh

(D)  Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan

Ans: (D)

114. Arrange the following cities located on North-South corridor in a sequence from North to South.

Select the correct answer using code given below-

(i) Nagpur

(ii) Agra

(iii) Krishnagiri

(iv) Gwalior

(A)  (i), (ii), (iv) and (iii)

(B)  (iv), (ii), (iii) and (i)

(C)  (ii), (iv), (i) and (iii)

(D)  (ii), (iii), (i) and (iv)

Ans: (C)

115. The pair of districts benefitting from Choudhary Kumbha Ram Canal is-

(A)  Barmer-Jaisalmer

(B)  Bikaner-Jodhpur

(C)  Bhilwara-Tonk

(D)  Hanumangarh-Jhunjhunu

Ans: (D)

116. Identify the wrong pair-

       Mineral                     Mine

(A)  Uranium          –        Kuradiya

(B)  Garnet             –        Rajmahal

(C)  Pink Marble     –        Babarmal

(D)  Gypsum          –        Palana

Ans: (D)

117. Arrange the districts with maximum total population in Rajasthan in descending order as per Census 2011-

(A)  Jaipur, Bikaner, Jodhpur, Udaipur

(B)  Jaipur,  Udaipur, Jodhpur, Bikaner

(C)  Jaipur, Jodhpur, Alwar, Nagaur

(D)  Jaipur, Kota, Jodhpur, Bikaner

Ans: (C)

118. Which of the following lakes of Rajasthan has been included in the list of Ramsar wetland sites ?

(A)  Sambhar Lake

(B)  Rajsamand Lake

(C)  Anasagar Lake

(D)  Jaisamand Lake

Ans: (A)

119. When did the Rajasthan Govt. approved first forest policy ?

(A)  February 2010

(B)  March 2011

(C)  August 2010

(D)  September 2011

Ans: (A)

120. In which year the Government of Rajasthan made Rajasthan Biological Diversity Rules and established the Rajasthan State Biodiversity Board ?

(A)  2014

(B)  2012

(C)  2010

(D)  2008

Ans: (C)

121. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below-

List-I

(Wildlife Conservation Reserve)

(a) Jorbeed Gadhewal

(b) Gudha Vishnoi

(c) Gogelav

(d) Beed

List-II

(District)

1. Jhunjhunu    2. Nagaur

3. Jodhpur       4. Bikaner

(A)  (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 4

(B)  (a) – 1; (b) – 3; (c) – 4; (d) – 2

(C)  (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1

(D)  (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 1; (d) – 2

Ans: (C)

122. Consider the following statements –

(i) Aravalli restricts the eastward expansion of desert.

(ii) All the rivers of Rajasthan have their origin from Arvalli.

(iii) Distributional pattern of rainfall in Rajasthan is not affected by Aravalli.

(iv) Aravalli region is rich in metallic minerals.

Select the correct answer using code given below-

(A)  Only (i) and (iv) are correct

(B)  Only (iii) and (iv) are correct

(C)  (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

(D)  (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Ans: (A)

123. Which of the following two districts of Rajasthan are having lowest percentage of schedule tribes to total population in 2011 ?

(A)  Bharatpur and Dholpur

(B)  Bikaner and Nagaur

(C)  Ganganagar and Hanumangarh

(D)  Churu and Sikar

Ans: (B)

124. Arrange the following districts of Rajasthan in correct order from East to West-

(i) Bundi

(ii) Ajmer

(iii) Udaipur

(iv) Nagaur

(A)  (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

(B)  (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

(C)  (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)

(D)  (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Ans: (B)

125. The mines of Janakpura and Sarwar are known from the production of-

(A)  Barytes

(B)  Pyrite

(C)  Garnet

(D)  Emerlad

Ans: (C)

126. The tenure of Central Information Commissioner is-

(A)  6 years or 62 years of age

(B)  5 years or 65 years of age

(C)  6 years or 65 years of age

(D)  5 years or 62 years of age

Ans: (B)

127. Which one of the following legislative house can be abolished ?

(A)  Vidhan Sabha

(B)  Vidhan Parishad

(C)  Rajya Sabha

(D)  Lok Sabha

Ans: (B)

128. Identify the incorrect statement about Government of India Act 1919-

(A)  This Act Separated the Central and Provincial subjects

(B)  Montagu was the Secretary of State for India and Lord Chelmsford was the Viceroy of India

(C)  This Act is also known as Morley Minto Reforms Act

(D)  The Government of India Act 1919 came into force in 1921

Ans: (C)

129. One of the following statements is incorrect. Point out-

(A)  Goa was separated from Daman and Diu

(B)  Himachal Pradesh was previously in the list of Union Territories

(C)  State of Mysore was renamed as Tamil Nadu

(D)  The State of Bombay was split up into Gujarat and Maharashtra

Ans: (C)

130. When were the Fundamental Duties incorporated in the Constitution ?

(A)  In 1979

(B)  In 1978

(C)  In 1976

(D)  In 1975

Ans: (C)

131. One amongst the following was not a salient feature of the Government of India Act, 1935-

(A)  Residuary subjects were allocated to Provincial Legislatures

(B)  It abolished Diarchy at the Provincial level and introduced it at the Centre

(C)  The Act provided for an All India Federation

(D)  It marked the beginning of the Provincial Autonomy

Ans: (A)

132. In which of the following group of the States. PESA (Panchayats (Extension to Schedule Areas) Act], 1996 is not enforceable ?

(A)  Andhra Pradesh – Jharkhand – Odisha

(B)  Himachal Pradesh – Gujarat – Chhattisgarh

(C)  Rajasthan – Telangana – Maharashtra

(D)  Assam – Meghalaya – Tamil Nadu

Ans: (D)

133. Among the following which group of States/Union Territories have only one seat in the Lok Sabha ?

(A)  Manipur, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Puducherry

(B)  Chandigarh, Sikkim, Mizoram

(C)  Goa, Meghalaya, Nagaland

(D)  Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Lakshadweep  


Ans: (B)

134. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below –

List-I

(a) Abolition of titles

(b) Freedom to manage religious affairs

(c) Protection of language of minorities

(d) Right to education

List-II

1. Article 29        2. Article 21A

3. Article 28       4. Article 26

(A)  (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1

(B)  (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 2

(C)  (a) – 3; (b) – 2; (c) – 1; (d) – 4

(D)  (a) – 2; (b) – 3; (c) – 4; (d) – 1

Ans: (B)

135. Before the appointment of Shri Kalyan Singh as the Governor of Rajasthan who among the following was the Acting Governor of the State ?

(A)  Margaret Alva

(B)  Ram Naik

(C)  Ram Naresh Yadav

(D)  O.P. Kohli      

Ans: (B)

136. Among the following, whose tenure has been the longest as the Chairman of Rajasthan Public Service Commission ?

(A)  C.R. Choudhary

(B)  D.S. Tewari

(C)  Yatindra Singh

(D)  Mohammad Yaqub

Ans: (B)

137. How many elected and Exofficio members are there in District Planning Committee ?

(A)  20 and 10

(B)  20 and 2

(C)  20 and 3

(D)  20 and 5

Ans: (C)

138. The powers of District Collector as a District Magistrate are-

(i) To maintain law and order

(ii) Control over police

(iii) To check passports of foreigners

(iv) To control land revenue

Select the correct answer from the codes given below –

(A)  (i), (ii), (iv)

(B)  (ii), (iii), (iv)

(C)  (i), (iii), (iv)

(D)  (i), (ii), (iii)

Ans: (D)

139. The procedure of Impeachment of the President of India is-

(A)  Executive Procedure

(B)  Legislative Procedure

(C)  Quasi-Judicial Procedure

(D)  Judicial Procedure

Ans: (C)

140. How many times President’s rule has been imposed in the State of Rajasthan till 30th June, 2016 ?

(A)  4 times

(B)  6 times

(C)  3 times

(D)  5 times

Ans: (A)

141. Delimitation Commission of 1952 had determined the strength of Rajasthan Legislative Assembly as-

(A)  Three MLAs for each district

(B)  188

(C)  160

(D)  200

Ans: (C)

142. Choose the correct alternative-

The Chairman of a Joint Public Service Commission for two or more States is appointed by-

(A)  The President of India on the recommendation of the Governors concerned

(B)  A Committee of Governors of all the States concerned

(C)  The President of India

(D)  The Governor of the largest State

Ans: (C)

143. In the history of Rajasthan Legislative Assembly till 30th June, 2016 how many times the confidence motion has been moved and discussed ?

(A)  Four times

(B)  Thrice

(C)  Twice

(D)  Once

Ans: (A)

144. Choose the correct answer-

Governor of Rajasthan in Chancellor of-

(A)  All State Universities, the Central Universities in the State and all Private Universities in the State

(B)  All State Universities as well as Private Universities in the State

(C)  All State Universities and Central Universities in the State

(D)  All State Universities

Ans: (D)

145. When was Rajasthan Information Commission constituted ?

(A)  April 18, 2005

(B)  April 18, 2007

(C)  April 18, 2006

(D)  April 18, 2008

Ans: (C)

146. Choose the correct answer –

The appointment of Lok Ayukta at the state level was first recommended by-

(A)  Santhanam Committee

(B)  Second Administrative Reforms Commission

(C)  Administrative Reforms Commission of India (1966-70)

(D)  Rajasthan State Administrative Reforms Committee

Ans: (C)

147. How many times elections have been held for Panchayati Raj Institutions in Rajasthan till 2015?

(A)  10 times

(B)  9 times

(C)  8 times

(D)  5 times

Ans: (A)

148. Consider the following statements regarding Bhamasha Yojana-

(i) With the consent of the family, any woman of the family, who has attained the age of 21 years, may be declared as the head of the family.

(ii) First verification of Bhamashah enrollment is done by the Sarpanch of the concerned Gram Panchayat.

(A)  Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect

(B)  Both (i) and (ii) are correct

(C)  Only (ii) is correct

(D)  Only (i) is correct

Ans: (D)

149. Which one of the following statements is true about Anuprati Yojana ?

(A)  It is a scheme to give financial assistance to school going children of Schedule Caste and Scheduled Tribe

(B)  It is a scheme to give financial help to orphan children or Scheduled Caste

(C)  It is a scheme to give coaching for Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe students.

(D)  It is a scheme to give financial help to Scheduled Caste girl for marriage

Ans: (C)

150. Select the correct answer-

State Election Commission of Rajasthan –

(A)  a unit of Election Commission of India

(B)  a constitutional authority

(C)  an executive authority

(D)  a statutory authority

Ans: (B)

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