RBI Officers Grade-B Recruitment Online Examination Held on December 7, 2015
Part I General Awareness
1. The ‘Amer Palace’ also known as the ‘Amber Palace’ is located in Amer, a town which is situated close to the Indian city of
(a) Udaipur (Rajasthan)
(b) Jaipur (Rajasthan)
(c) Ajmer (Rajasthan)
(d) Agra (Uttar Pradesh)
(e) Gwalior (Madhya Pradesh)
2. Domestically developed torpedo system dubbed as ‘Valfajr’ has recently been test-fired at
3. Non-banking financial intermedianes that provide services similar to traditional commercial banks outside the regulatory control of the Central banks, known as the
(a) Local area banks
(b) Corporative banks
(c) Shadow banks
(d) Private banks
(e) Non-scheduled banks
4. According to Census-2011, the total number of working children in the age group of 5-14 years in the country was found to be around
(a) 83.53 lakh
(b) 93.53 lakh
(c) 63.53 lakh
(d) 43.53 lakh
(e) 53.53 lakh
5. The ‘Harmandir Sahib’ also known as ‘Darbar Sahib’ is a holy Sikh Gurudwara located in the city of
(a) Nanded (Maharashtra)
(b) Amritsar (Punjab)
(c) Patna (Bihar)
(d) Karnal (Haryana)
(e) New Delhi
6. The ratio of deposits in current and savings account to total deposits of a bank, is known as
(a) Capital Adequacy Ratio
(b) NPA ratio
(c) CASA ratio
(d) CD ratio
(e) CASA ratio
7. The ‘Shishu Scheme’ under the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) offers maximum loan up to
(a) Rs 100000
(b) Rs 50000
(c) Rs 300000
(d) Rs 50000
(e) Rs 75000
8. The term SIFT is used in financial world for those entities which are considered ‘Too big to fail’. The alphabet S in the abbreviation SIFT stands for
9. ‘Malabar 2015’ was a high end war fighting naval exercise which was recently conducted by the navies of India, USA and
10. ‘Abhishek Verma’ has recently won India’s first world cup in
(d) air racing
11. The 2015 Nobel Prize for Economics has been conferred upon
(a) Angus Deaton
(b) Tomas Lindahl
(c) Paul L. Modrich
(d) William Campbell
(e) Arthur B. McDonald
12. The foundations stone of India’s first dedicated mobile manufactured electronics cluster has recently been laid at
(a) Bengaluru (Karnataka)
(b) Guragoan (Haryana)
(c) Chennai (Tamil Nadu)
(d) Tirupati (Andhra Pradesh)
(e) Pampri (Pune, Maharashtra)
13. The winner of the 2015, Denmark Open Badminton women’s singles title is
(a) PV Sindhu (India)
(b) Wang Xiauli (China)
(c) Yu Yang (China)
(d) Li Xuerui (China)
(e) Saina Nehwal (India)
14. According to Reserve Bank of India (RBI) guidelines, payment banks are not permitted to
(a) set-up branches/ATMs
(b) undertake utility bill payment services
(c) issue debit cards
(d) distribute insurance/mutual fund/ pension products
(e) undertake non-banking financial services through subsidies
15. The Aadhaar based ‘digital-life certificate’ for pensioners is known as
(a) Jeevan Anand
(b) Jeevan Akshay
(c) Jeevan Pramaan
(d) Jeevan Tarun
(e) Jeevan Raksha
16. IDF is a debt instrument set, set-up by the Finance Ministry in order to channelize long term funds into infrastructure projects which require long-term stable capital investments. The alphabet F in the abbreviation IDF stands for
17. The largest producer of coffee in the world, is
(d) the USA
18. South Asian Rugby 7’s Championship 2016 shall be held in
(b) Sri Lanka
19. The HRIDAY scheme has been launched by the government of India in January, 2015 with the aim of holistic development of
(a) IT/its outsourcing cities
(b) special economic zones
(c) heritage cities
(d) industrial cities
(e) medical tourism centres
20. The interest rates on the Senior Citizens Savings Scheme (SCSS) for the financial year 2015-16 has been enhanced to
21. According to the Regional Rural Banks (Amendment) Act 2015, the cap on authorized capital of RRBs has now been raised from Rs 5 crore to
(a) Rs 2000 crore
(b) Rs 500 crore
(c) Rs 2500 crore
(d) Rs 1500 crore
(e) Rs 1000 crore
22. The ‘Tansen Sangeet Samaroh is a four-day musical extravaganza organized every year in the mouth of December by the government of Madhya Pradesh in Behal village of
(a) Khandwa district
(b) Ratlam district
(c) Bhopal district
(d) Gwalior district
(e) Indore district
23. Hindustan Antibiotics Limited (HAL) is the first public sector drug manufacturing company set-up by the government of India in
(a) Hyderabad (Telangana)
(b) Ankaleshwar (Gujarat)
(c) Haridwar (Uttarakhand)
(d) Ghaziabad (Uttar Pradesh)
(e) Pimpri (Maharashtra)
24. The term which is used to describe a situation of decrease in the general price of goods and services, is
(d) Other than those given as options
25. External Affairs Minister Sushma Swaraj recently visited Berlin, the capital of
(b) Republic of Ireland
26. The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) is one of the specialized agencies of the United Nations. It is headquartered in
(a) Geneva (Switzerland)
(b) Brussels (Belgium)
(c) Paris (France)
(d) Berlin (Germany)
(e) Vienna (Austria)
27. The capital of the Indian State of Chhattisgarh, is
28. The ‘Alps’ are the highest and most extensive mountain ranges in Europe. The highest mountain peak in the Alps, is
(a) Mount Ortier
(b) Mount Titis
(c) Mont Blanc
(d) Mount Jungflau
(e) Mount Elger
29. ‘Samvidhan Divas’, the Indian Constitution Day, is observed on
(a) November 26
(b) March 26
(c) December 26
(d) January 26
(e) February 26
30. Recently, the government of India has declared that ………… will be celebrated as Good Governance Day, every year.
(a) Other than those given as options
(b) July 16
(c) October 2
(d) December 25
(e) January 1
31. The first ATM was set-up in Mumbai in 1987 by
(a) ICICI Bank
(c) HDFC Bank
(d) HSBC Bank
32. All those persons who are engaged in selling or marketing mutual fund products are required to obtain certification from
(c) Other than those given as options
33. Union Bank of India is one of the major public sector banks in India. It is headquartered in
(c) New Delhi
34. Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently (October, 2015) laid the foundation of the new capital city of the Indian State of
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(e) Arunachal Pradesh
35. Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL) has four mints in India. These four government mints are situated in
(a) Mumbai, Dewas, Hoshangabad and Mysore
(b) Mumbai, Nasik, Mysore and Ghaziabad
(c) Mumbai, New Delhi, Nasik and Gurgaon
(d) Mumbai, Pune, Nasik and Hoshangabad
(e) Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad and Noida
36. A ‘cover note’ is the first legal document that is issued in lieu of
(a) an insurance policy
(b) a corporate share certificate
(c) home loan sanction
(d) a bank fixed deposit
(e) a mutual fund investment
37. In order to sign up for your recently launched Digital Locker (DIGI Locker) by government of India, one needs to have a mobile phone number linked to a
(a) Aadhaar number
(c) bank account number
(d) safe deposit locker
(e) passport number
38. Union Home Minister Rajnath Singh recently inaugurated the ‘Indian Police Foundation (IPF)’ and the ‘Indian Police Institute (IPI)’ in
(d) New Delhi
39. The installation of ‘Talking ATMs’ is aimed at making ATMs friendly for
(c) differently-abled users
(d) senior citizens
40. The online fashion portal ‘www.abof.com’ has recently been launched by
(a) Other than those given as options
(b) Aditya Brila Group
(c) Tata Group
(d) Landmark Group
41. The Harvard Foundation’s 2015 Humanitarian of the Year Award has been conferred upon
(a) Malala Yousufzai
(b) Bill Gates
(c) Angelina Jolie
(d) Mia Farrow
(e) Kailash Satyarthi
42. Which of the following is a skill development scheme to help minority youth?
(a) Nai Manzil
(d) Jiyo Parsi
(e) Other than those given as options
43. India’s first private Greenfield Airport has recently commenced commercial operations at
(a) Tirupati (Andhra Pradesh)
(b) Kochi (Kerala)
(c) Rajkot (Gujarat)
(d) Durgapur (West Bengal)
(e) Amaravati (Andhra Pradesh)
44. The host country of the Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting 2015 (CHOGM 2015) is
45. The author of book ‘The Inheritance of Loss’ which has won a number of awards since its publication in 2006 including the Man Booker Prize, is
(a) Anita Desai
(b) Arundhati Roy
(c) Salman Rushdie
(d) Kiran Desai
(e) Kamal Desai
46. The present day Indian State of Karnataka was originally known as the
(a) Madhya Bharat
(b) State of Mangalore
(c) State of Mysore
(d) United Province
(e) State of Madras
47. Which of the following stock exchanges with a median response time of 6 micro seconds, is now considered as the world’s fastest stock exchange?
(a) New York State Exchange
(b) National Stock Exchange of India
(c) NASDAQ New York
(d) London Stock Exchange Group
(e) Bombay Stock Exchange Limited
48. ‘Brijmohan Lall Munjal’ who recently passed away at the age of 92’, was the founder of
(a) Other than those given as opotions
(b) Her MotoCorp
(c) Eicher Motors
(d) Kinetic Engineering Limited
(e) Essar Limited
49. The interdisciplinary research centre ‘National Chemical Laboratory (NCL)’ is a constituent member of the CSIR. It is situated in
(a) Jamnagar (Gujarat)
(b) Solan (Himachal Pradesh)
(c) Kanpur (Uttar Pradesh)
(d) Bengaluru (Karnataka)
(e) Pune (Maharashtra)
50. Pakistan has recently signed a major agreement to build a 1110 km gas pipeline from Lahore of Karachi with an investment $ 2 billion from
(d) the USA
51. The Financial Stability Report is issued on a half-yearly basis by
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) World Economic Forum
(c) International Monetary Fund
(d) NITI Aayog
(e) World Bank
52. The first individual to have received the ‘Bharat Ratna’ posthumously was
(a) Lal Bahadur Sahstri
(b) Dr. Dhondo Keshav Karve
(c) Morarji Desai
(d) Madan Mohan Malaviya
(e) Mother Teresa
53. The ‘Ravi’ is a transboundary river flowing through North-western India and
(d) Other than those given as options
54. Who amongst the following is the present captain of the Indian women’s national hockey team?
(a) Ritu Rani
(b) Suraj Lata Devi
(c) Helen Mary
(d) Other than those given as options
(e) Mamta Kharab
55. The famous ‘Haji Ali Dargah’ is a mosque and Dargah (tomb) located on an inset off the coast in
(a) Chennai (Tamil Nadu)
(b) Mangalore (Karnataka)
(c) Mumbai (Maharashtra)
(d) Kandla Port (Gujarat)
(e) Marmagao Port (Goa)
56. The Minimum Permissible Investment in the Sovereign Gold Bonds 2015’ is 2 gm and the maximum buying limit is
(a) 50 gm
(b) 250 gm
(c) 550 gm
(d) 150 gm
(e) 500 gm
57. Which of the following former Governors of the Reserve bank of India has also served as the Union Finance Minister?
(a) Dr. C. Rangarajan
(b) LK Jha
(c) B. Venkitaraman
(d) Dr. IG Patel
(e) CD Deshmukh
58. The 7500 tonne guided-missile destroyer ‘INS-Kochi’ packed with weapons and sensors,, was commissioned on September 30, 2015. It was constructed at the
(a) Mazagaon Docks Limited (Mumbai)
(b) Hindustan Shipyard Limited (Vishakhapatnam)
(c) Cochin Shipyard Limited (Kochi)
(d) Goa Shipyard Limited (Goa)
(e) Bharati Shipyard Limited (Mumbai)
59. The ‘Sunderbans’ is a National Park and a World Heritage Site, situated in the Indian State of
(b) West Bengal
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
60. According to a recent survey conducted by the World Economic Forum (WEF), the most admired personality globally is
(a) Barack Obama
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Pope Francis
(d) Nelson Mandela
(e) Narendra Modi
61. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional development bank established in 1966. It is headquartered in
(a) Shanghai (China)
(b) Other than those given as options
(c) Metro Manila (Philippines)
(d) Kathmandu (Nepal)
(e) Jakarta (Indonesia)
62. Which of the following is the minimum lending rate which the banks can charge their customers?
(a) Reverse repo rate
(b) Other than those given as options
(c) Bank rate
(d) Base rate
(e) Repo rate
63. The segment of money market which pertains to day-to-day funds requirements of the bank, is known as
(a) Call Money market
(b) Capital market
(c) Mutual fund market
(d) Equity funds market
(e) Index funds market
64. Telecommunication service provider ‘Reliance Communications (RCOM)’ has recently (November, 2015) announced the takeover of the Indian wireless business of
(a) Virgin Mobile
65. ‘Rajiv Gandhi International Airport’ serves the metropolis of
(a) Jaipur (Rajasthan)
(b) Chennai (Tamil Nadu)
(c) Bengaluru (Karnataka)
(d) Hyderabad (Telangana)
(e) Kolkata (West Bengal)
66. The ‘Bank rate’ is periodically announced by the
(a) Indian Banks Association (IBA)
(b) State Bank of India (SBI)
(c) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(d) Ministry of Finance
(e) Board of the respective banks
67. ‘Nuakhar’ or ‘Nuankhal’ is an important agricultural festival mainly observed by people in the Indian State of
68. What is the deadline to achieve all villages electrification under Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Jyoti Yojana (DDUGJY)?
(a) March 31, 2016
(b) October 2, 2016
(c) March 31, 2017
(d) October 2, 2018
(e) March 31, 2018
69. What is the name of the Indian Culture Week launched in China recently?
(a)India in Beijing
(b) India in Shanghai
(c) India in China
(d) India in Tianjin
(e) Other than those given as options
70. The newly launched PMKSY scheme with an allocation of Rs 50000 crore spread over a period of five years, aims to achieve a holistic development of
(a) rural housing
(b) village infrastructure
(c) health & sanitation
(d) road & rail network
(e) irrigation & potential
71. The term ‘Abenomics’ refers to economic policies advocated by Shinzo Abe, the Prime Minister of
72. The Urban Housing Mission ‘ABBAS’ which aims to provide affordable housing to economically weaker section of society by the government of State was recently launched by the Indian State of
(e) West Bengal
73. The European Union’s prestigious ‘Sakharov Prize for Freedom of Thought’ has recently been won by Raif Badami of
(b) United Arab Emirates
(e) Saudi Arabia
74. The Annual Insurance Premium (per member) under the PMJJBY, is
(a) Rs 366
(b) Rs 380
(c) Rs 330
(d) Rs 375
(e) Rs 365
75. The Indira Sagar Dam’ is a multipurpose project on the ………. river in the Indian State of Madhya Pradehs.
(d) Other than those given as options
76. A fraudster calling a customer posing as a bank executive or an official from the Reserve Bank of India for recollecting private information for identity theft, is termed as
(e) Other than those given as options
77. The theme of the 19th International Children’s Film Festival of India 2015 (ICFFI) held in
(a) Social Harmony
(b) Spirit of Unity
(c) Peace and Harmony
(d) Digital India
(e) Green Economy
78. The facility wherein account holders name a person to whom the money lying their account should be given in the event of their death, is known as
79. Which of the following taxes has been abolished as per budget 2015?
(a) Customs duty
(b) Wealth tax
(c) Surcharge on income tax
(d) Entertainment tax
(e) Service tax
80. The mobile wallet services ‘M-Pesa’ has been introduced by Vodafone in partnership with
(a) Visa Inc
(b) Master Card Inc
(c) ICICI Bank
(d) American Express Co.
Part 2 English Language
Directions (Q. Nos. 81-90) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help locate them white answering some of the questions.
Brazil does not look like an economy on the verge of overheating. The IMF expects it to shrink by 3% this year, and 1% next (The country has not suffered two straight years of contraction since 1930-31). 1.2 million jobs vanished in September, unemployment has reached 7.6% up from 4.9% a year ago. Those still in work are finding it harder to make ends meet real (i.e. adjusted for inflation) wages are down 4.3% year-on-year. Despite the weak economy, inflation is nudging double digits. The Central Bank recently conceded that it will miss its 4.5% inflation target next year. Markets don’t expect it to be met before 2019. If fast-rising prices are simply a passing effect of the Brazilian real (R$) recent fall, which has pushed up the cost of imported goods, then they are not too troubling. But some economists have a more alarming explanation; that Brazil’s budgetary woes are so extreme that they have undermined the Central Bank’s power to fight inflation – a phenomenon known as Fiscal Dominance.
The immediate causes of Brazil’s troubles are external; the weak world economy, and China’s faltering appetite for oil and iron ore in particular, have enfeebled both exports and investment. But much of the country’s pain is self-inflicted. The President could have used the commodity windfall from the first term in 2011-14 to trim the bloated State, which swallows 36% of GDP in taxes despite offering few decent public services in return. Instead handouts, subsidized loans and costly tax breaks for favoured industries were splurged on. These fuelled a consumption boom, and with it inflation, while hiding the economy’s underlying weaknesses; thick red tape, impenetrable taxes, an unskilled workforce and shoddy infrastructure. The government’s profligacy also left the public finances in tatters. The primary balance (before interest payments) went from a surplus of 3.1% of GDP in2011 to forecast deficit of 0.9% this year. In the same period public debt has swollen to 65% of GDP, an increase of 13% points. That is lower than in many rich countries, but Brazil pays much higher interest on its debt. It will spend 8.5% of GDP this year servicing it, more than any other big country. In September it lost its investment-grade credit rating.
Stagflation of the sort Brazil i s experiencing present central bankers with a dilemma. Raising interest rates to quell inflation might push the economy deeper into recession; lowering them to foster growth might send inflation spiraling out of control. Between October last year and July this year, the country’s rate-setters seemed to prioritise price stability, raising the benchmark Selic by 3% points, to 14.25%, where it remains.
The alluring real rates of almost 5% ought to have made the Brazilian real attractive to investors. Instead, the currency has weakened and rising inflation despite higher interest rates, combined with a doubling of debt-servicing costs in the past three years has led to the diagnosis of fiscal dominance.
The cost of servicing Brazil’s debts has become so high, that rates have to be set to keep it manageable rather than to rein in prices. That, in turn, leads to a vicious circle of a falling currency and rising inflation. There is no question, however, that Brazilian monetary policy is at best hobbled. State-owned banks have extended nearly half the country’s credit at low, subsidized rates that bear little relation to the Selic – at a cost of more than 40 billion R$ ($10 billion) a year to the taxpayer. As private banks have cut lending in the past year, public ones have continued to expand their loan books. All this hampers monetary policy and if left unchecked, this spurt of lending may itself threaten price stability.
81. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word ‘Passing’ given in bold as used in the passage.
82. Which of the following best describes the author’s view of Brazil’s banks?
(a) Their practices may add to the country’s economic troubles.
(b) Private banks should be penalized for their unfair and risky lending practices.
(c) State-owned banks are fiscally strong and holding up the banking sector.
(d) They are not being held back by the country’s Central Bank with outdated regulation.
(e) Other than those given as options
83. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word ‘Spurt’ given in bold as used in the passage.
84. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word ‘Fuelled’ given in bold as used in the passage.
85. Which of the following describes the global perception of Brazil’s economy?
(a) The economy is strong and in need of more government investments in industries like oil.
(b) The economy is overheating because of a massive commodities boom.
(c) It is a political volatile country which is experiencing financial stability at present
(d) It is a good destination for investment with low interest rates.
(e) None of the given options describes the global perception of Brazil’s economy.
86. Which of the following is the central idea of the passage?
(a) Brazil’s Central Bank has managed to control inflation despite the lack of government support.
(b) The State of Brazil’s public finances prevents the Central Bank from implementing sound monetary policy.
(c) Brazil’s economy has strong fundamentals and will soon recover from a temporary slowdown.
(d) A series of innovative and robust financial measures is helping Brazil recover its economic health.
(e) Brazil is in its worst recession since 1930 as it is overexposed to economies like China which are in trouble.
87. According to the passage, which of the following is/are a factor(s) that has/have impacted Brazil’s economy?
A. Weakening of Brazil’s currency.
B. Drop in demand for oil.
C. Economic sanctions against it by the IMF.
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) All of these
(d) A and B
(e) None of these
88. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the passage?
(a) Brazil has capitalized on its commodity windfall by raising taxes and strengthening its economy.
(b) Brazil has been unfairly downgraded by investment credit rating agencies.
(c) It is advisable for Brazil’s central bank to immediately lower interest rates to control inflation.
(d) Lowering interest rates is the only way to stabilize the economy and attract foreign investment.
(e) None of the given options is true in the context of the passage.
89. What do the statements regarding Brazil’s GDP, quoted in the passage, convey?
(a) Brazil invests a substantial part of its GDP in infrastructure unnecessarily.
(b) The economy is unbalanced with debt outweighing GDP
(c) Brazil’s economy is stronger than many developed countries at present
(d) Its GDP has been gradually improving despite the government’s policies
(e) Other than those given as options
90. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word ‘Conceded’ given in bold as used in the passage.
(a) Imposed penalty
(b) Defeated by
(c) Deprived of
(d) Admitted to
(e) Contributed to
Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) Read the following sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error in them. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuations, if any).
91. The civic body has working/ towards ensuring zero waste dumping / from fish markets by scientifically processing / leftovers from these areas.
(a) The civic body has working
(b) towards ensuring zero waste dumping
(c) from fish markets by scientifically processing
(d) leftovers from these areas
(e) No error
92. Scientists have created / the blackest material ever made, / which is as dark that it can absorb / almost all light that hits it.
(a) Scientists have created
(b) the blackest material ever made
(c) which is as dark that it can absorb
(d) almost all light that hits it
(e) No error
93. The European Union is keen on / seeking cooperation from / Indian universities in order to welcome / more students to tap the resources available abroad.
(a) The European Union is keen on
(b) seeking cooperation from
(c) Indian universities in order to welcome
(d) more students to tap the resources available abroad
(e) No error
94. The district police arrested / five students for alleged obtaining / admission to colleges / by producing fake documents.
(a) The district police arrested
(b) five students for alleged obtaining
(c) admission to colleges
(d) by producing fake documents
(e) No error
95. With the new technique, / one person appears smiling / on another person’s face, even if the second / person is not smilingly at all.
(a) With the new technique
(b) one person appears smiling
(c) on another person’s face, even if the second
(d) person is not smilingly at all
(e) No error
Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) Rearrange the following seven sentences A, B, C, D, E F and G in a proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the given questions.
(A) Furthermore, many cities in China and India are continually modernizing their retail and distribution infrastructures, many market entry less complex than it would be in rural areas.
(B) These companies feel that the capital base of these two countries isn’t sufficient for a credible entry or that their competitive environment is already too tough for new entrants.
(C) The juice market, for instance, will grow more than three times as fast in Shanghai, alone as in all of Malaysia.
(D) Instead, they should ascertain whether building a presence in only a few selected cities is feasible.
(E) But companies shouldn’t these markets outright.
(F) Once, this feasibility is ensured, for specific product categories with low minimum scale requirements, even a limited entry in China or India can yield returns equivalent to countrywide coverage in other emerging economies, or higher.
(G) Some companies have written off China and India as unrealistic expansion opportunities.
96. Which of the following should be the first sentence after the rearrangement?
97. Which of the following should be the second sentence after the rearrangement?
98. Which of the following should be the third sentence after the rearrangement?
99. Which of the following should be the last (seventh) sentence after the rearrangement?
100. Which of the following should be the fourth sentence after the rearrangement?
Directions (Q. Nos. 101-110) In the following passage, there are blanks,, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
We have worked really (101) on helping those at the very bottom, but is that enough? Imagine how different the world would be if the (102) of much aid spending was not “ending $1.25 a day poverty” but “(103) a fairer and more equitable world.” Inequality is about much more than income and that is why it is such a valuable (104). If we took the wealth of the world’s richest and used it to double or even quadruple the incomes of the world’s poorest three billion people would that be enough? It would make a big difference but those people would still be relatively poor and (105) of better, fuller lives.
Inequality, as a focal point for campaigns, (106) us to accept and explain that building a better world is a slow and perennial (107). Delivering a world where the quality of education, healthcare and national infrastructure available to every person is sufficient to bestow on them meaningful hope and ambition is hopefully the aim of ‘development”. It is not possible without (108) inequalities. Goals and targets will help us to keep moving forwards but achieving them will not (109) success, which is why – (110) its important role as an aspiration we shouldn’t be so belligerent about zero poverty and especially about whether aid is the tool to get us there.
Part 3 Reasoning
Directions (Q. Nos. 111-113) In these questions, a statement is given followed by two sets of conclusions numbered I and II. These statements show relationship between different elements. You have to assume the statement to be true and then decide which of t he given conclusions logically follows from the information given in the statements.
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both conclusions follows
(d) Either conclusion I or II follows
(e) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
11. Statements B ≤ U > S ≥ G; W ≤ S; W ≥ M
Conclusions I. G ≤ B II. M > S
112. Statements K ≥ B = N ≤ U; T ≤ N; P > U
Conclusions I. P > K II. T ≤ K
113. Statements B ≤ U > S ≥ G; W ≤ S; W ≥ M
Conclusions I. M < U II. G ≤ W
114. In which of the following expressions does the expression ‘Q ≥ Z’ definitely true?
(a) E ≥ Z ≥ R ≥ B = C ≥ Q
(b) N ≥ Q ≥ A = C ≤ I ≥ Z
(c) Q ≥ R ≥ M = P ≤ A ≥ Z
(d) Z ≤ S = B ≤ L < O ≤ Q
(e) Z = T ≤ D ≤ Y = X ≤ Q
Directions (Q. Nos. 115-119) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement
(All the numbers are two-digit numbers).
Input bear 24 binders brave 91 17 but 68 bailer 35
Step I 19 bear 24 binders brave 17 but 68 bailer 35 74 be
Step II 47 19 bear 24 binders brave 17 68 bailer 35 be but
Step III 86 47 19 24 binders brave 17 bailer 35 be but bear
Step IV 53 86 47 19 24 binders 17 bailer be but bear brave
Step V 42 53 86 47 19 binders 17 be but bear brave bailer
Step VI 71 42 53 86 47 19 be but bear brave bailer binders
Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input tyre 71 tough 59 tip 82 13 thanks to 68 table 46
115. If in the last step, ‘1’ is added to each of the odd numbers and ‘2’ is subtracted from each of the even numbers, then how many numbers multiple of ‘4’ will be formed/
(c) More than three
116. If in step III, ‘28’ interchanges its position with ‘table’ and ‘59’ also interchanges its position with ‘tip’ then which of element will be to the immediate left of ‘46’?
117. Which of the following combinations represents the third and the ninth element in second last step of the given input from the left end?
(a) 95 and tip
(b) table and 86
(c) 17 and to
(d) 86 and tip
(e) tyre and17
118. Which element comes exactly between ‘59’ and ‘thanks’ in Step II of the given input?
119. Which element is third to the right of the one which is eighth from the right end in Step IV?
Directions (Q. Nos. 120-122) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow.
If ‘P ⋆ Q’ means ‘P is the mother of ‘Q’.
If ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q’.
If ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q’.
If ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is the brother of Q’.
If ‘P > Q’ means ‘P is the son of Q’.
If ‘P < Q’ means ‘P is the daughter of Q’.
120. In the expression ‘A × B + R > S’, how is S related to A?
(e) Cannot be determined
121. In the expression ‘P + Q > A – B;, how is P related to B?
(e) Cannot be determined
122. In the expression ‘W > X < Y ⋆ Z’, how is W related to B?
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 123-127) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight family members S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are females and some are males. All of them are related to each other in the same way or the other. Some of them are facing the centre while some are facing outside (i.e. opposite to the centre.)
Only two people sit between T and W. T faces the centre. X sits second to the right of T. W is the wife of S. No females is an immediate neighbour of W.
U is not an immediate neighbour of T. U is the daughter of W. Both the immediate neighbours of U face the centre.
Only three people sit between S and U’s brother. X is not the brother of U. Neither S nor U’s brother is an immediate neighbour of X.
Z, the wife of T, sits to the immediate left of V. Both Y and S face a direction opposite to that of U (i.e. if U faces the centre then both Y and S face outside and vice-versa). U’s husband sits second to the left of Y. T’s father sits to the immediate right of W.
T sits second to the right of S’s father. Both the immediate neighbours of X are females.
123. How many people sit between T and S’s father when counted from the right of T?
124. Who amongst the following sits exactly between Y and W when counted from the left of Y?
125. Which of the following statements regarding T is definitely true?
(a) X and Z are immediate neighbours of T.
(b) T sits second to the left of X.
(c) T is the son of S.
(d) None of the given options is correct
(e) V is the father of T.
126. Who amongst the following faces outside (i.e. opposite to the centre)?
127. If it is given that Y is married to X, then what is the position of T with respect to Y’s daughter-in-law?
(a) Third to the right
(b) Second to the right
(c) Immediate right
(d) Second to the left
(e) Third to the left
128. Read the given information and answer the question.
Company S has recently rented many apartments in building Y for providing office quarters to its employees. However, although many employees had requested the company to provide accommodation around six months ago, since the announcement of quarters last month, hardly any employee has signed up for the new facility.
Which of the following may not be a reason for the employees’ unwillingness to live in the apartments?
(a) All the employees of company S were informed just two months ago that the company had decided to triple the house rent allowance (HRA) shortly.
(b) The area where the company has rented the apartments does not have a school, college or hospital in its 3 km radius.
(c) The maintenance amount for the apartments, which have been rented by the company is very high and the company has announced that employees would have to pay the amount on their own.
(d) There have been talks about the company changing its current office location and the new office location is very far from the area in, which the apartments have been rented.
(e) Apartments which have been rented by the company are located at an area, which does not have adequate public transport facilities.
Directions (Q. Nos. 129-131) In each of the followings below, three statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) if only conclusion I follows
(b) if only conclusion II follows
(c) if either conclusion I or II follows
(d) if neither conclusion I nor II follows
(e) if both conclusions follow
129. Statements No hour is a day.
All months are days.
Some hours are calendars.
I. No month is an hour.
II. All calendars being days is a possibility.
130. Statements Some comics are books.
All comics are novels.
No novel is an article.
I. Some novels are books.
II. All articles being books is a possibility.
131. Statements No liquid is fluid.
All solids are liquids.
All gases are solids.
I. At least some solids are fluids.
II. All gases are liquids.
Directions (Q. Nos. 132-134) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Amongst five friends P, Q, R, S and T, each scored different marks in an examination out of a total of 100 marks. S scored more then only T. R scored less than P. Only one person scored more than Q. The one who scored second highest marks scored 87 marks.
132. Who scored the third least marks in the examination?
133. Which of the following is true with regard to the given information?
(a) Only one person scored more than P.
(b) No one scored less than T.
(c) R scored more than both Q and S.
(d) Amongst the five friends, S is most likely to have scored 95 marks in the examination.
(e) None is true
134. If S scored 23 marks less than the marks scored by Q, which of the following could possibly be R’s score?
Directions (Q. Nos. 135-140) Study the following information and answer the given questions.
Seven people namely M, N, O, P, Q, R and S like seven different genres of music namely – Classical, Hip-Hop, Pop, Jazz, Opera, Rock and Electronica but not necessarily in the same order. Each person also works in the same office but at a different position on the basis of seniority namely Trainee (TE), Assistant Manager (AM), Manager (MG), Senior Manager (SM), Chief Manager (CM), Executive Director (ED) and Director (DR) but not necessarily in the same order. The positions have been given in increasing order of seniority with junior most position whilst DR being the senior most position.)
Only one person is senior than O. The one who is senior than O likes Hip-Hop. Only two people are junior than R. M is junior than R and likes Electronica. M is not the junior most. Q is junior than the CM but senior than the one who likes Opera. The one who likes Opera is not the senior most. S likes Classical. The one who likes pop is senior than Q but not the ED. S does not like Pop.
135. As per the given arrangement, R is related to Opera and Q is related to classical in a certain way. To which of the following is P related to in the same way?
136. Who amongst the following works as a MG?
(e) Other than those given as options
137. Which of the following pairs represents the people who have less experience than R and more experience than Q?
(a) M, S
(b) O, P
(c) N, P
(d) M, O
(e) Q, O
138. Who amongst the following works as a TE?
139. Which combination represents the position at which N works and the music genres that he likes?
140. Which of the following music genres does O like?
Directions (Q. Nos. 141-145) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the questions, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(d) if the data even in both statements together are not sufficient to answer the question
(e) if the data in both statements together are not sufficient to answer the question
141. How many people are standing between H and U in a straight line of 15 people (All are standing in a straight line facing North)?
I. M stands fifth from the left end of the line. H and K are immediate neighbours of M.
II. B stands third from the right end of the line. Only six people stand between K and B. Only one person stands between H and K. K stands exactly between H and U.
142. How is B related to S?
I. N is married to T. B is the sister of N. T has only one daughter K. K is the grand-daughter of S.
II. N is the daughter of S. N is married to T. T is the only child of Z. B is the sister-in-law of T.
143. Among people A, B, C, D, E and F, each having a different weight, who is the second highest?
I. C is heavier than only two people. A is heavier than F but lighter than B. D is not the highest.
II. F is lighter than only two people. C is lighter than F but heavier than D. A is lighter than only B.
144. How many people are standing in a straight line (All are facing North)?
I. U stands third from the left end of the line. U is an immediate neighbour of P and W. Only one person stands between W and T. Only two people stand to the right of W.
II. S stands at extreme left end of the line. T stands to the extreme right end of the line. Only one person stands between S and U. Only one person stands between T and W.
145. How far is point M from point K?
I. Point D is 5 m to the South of Point P. Point M is 8 m to the West of point D. Point S is 2.5 m to the North of point M. Point O is 10 m to the East of Point S. Point K is 2.5 m to the south of point O.
II. Point K is 10 m to the East of point M. Point U is 8 m to the West of Point M. Point D is to the East of M. Point M is the midpoint of the lines formed by joining points U and D.
Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, live on eight different floors of building (but not necessarily in the same order). The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two, and so on till the topmost floor is numbered eight. Each one of them plays a different game namely. San Andreas, Roadrash, Contra, Castlevania, Resident Evil, Tekken 3, Dragon Quest and Metal Gear (but not necessarily in the same order).
G lives on an even numbered floor above the floor numbered two. Only three people live between G and the one who plays Roadrash. E lives immediately below the one who plays Roadrash.
Only two people live between E and the one who plays Tekken 3. C lives immediately above the one who plays Tekken 3. The one who plays San Andreas lives on an even numbered floor below C.
Only two people live between the one who plays San Andreas and the one who plays Dragon Quest. The one who plays Metal Gear lives immediately below B. B neither lives on the topmost floor nor plays Roadrash.
F lives on odd numbered floor but not the lowermost floor. Only two people live between and the one who plays Resident Evil.
Only one person lives between D and the one who plays Contra. H lives immediately above the one who plays Contra.
146. Which of the following games does D play?
(a) Sand Andreas
(c) Tekken 3
(e) Metal Gear
147. How many people live between G and the one who plays Tekken3?
148. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the given information?
(a) G plays Resident Evil.
(b) C lives immediately below the one who plays Contra.
(c) All the given statements are true.
(d) B lives immediately above E.
(e) Only four people live between D and the one who play Roadrash.
149. Who amongst the following live exactly between A and the one who plays Contra?
(a) D, the one who plays Resident Evil
(b) C, B
(c) E, H
(d) E, the one who plays Tekken 3
(e) F, the one who plays Roadrash
150. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?
(c) F-Tekken 3
(d) B-Dragon Quest
151. Read the following information and answer the given question.
“The man behind the revival of SpeedZet Automobiles, the CEO has decided to quit. I believe that the company will soon go into losses due to this decision”. – Statement by a market analyst.
Which of the following statements appears to be the perception of the market analyst?
(a) No other person can run SpeedZet Automobiles as successfully as the present CEO.
(b) SpeedZet Automobiles may decide to shut down the operations due to the CEO’s exist.
(c) SpeedZet Automobiles will try its best to retain the CEO in order to maintain its market position.
(d) The strategies adopted by the CEO of SpeedZet Automobiles were exclusive in the industry.
(e) SpeedZet Automobiles has the highest market share at present.
Directions (Q. Nos. 152-153) Select the correct conclusion from t he given options.
152. Statements Some flutes are guitars.
No guitar is a piano.
Some pianos are drums.
All drums are violins.
(a) All pianos are violins.
(b) No flute is a piano.
(c) Some drums are definitely not flutes.
(d) All violins being guitars is a possibility.
(e) All violins being flutes is a possibility.
153. Statements All pets are animals.
All animals are reptiles.
No animal is a bird.
Some birds are insects.
(a) No reptile is a pet.
(b) All insects being animals is a possibility
(c) Some pets are insects.
(d) No pet is a bird.
(e) Some birds are reptiles.
154. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions which follows :
Bookings for the dream project of ‘Ashiana Builders’ new building are underway. The building for which construction is due to start next month has flats costing a minimum of Rs 80 lakh. Bank B offers 100% loan scheme in which Rs 15 lakh is provided by the bank at the start of construction, Rs 25 lakh after one year of the start of construction work and Rs 10 lakh every subsequent year till the completion of the project.
Which of t he following statements would prove that the bank’s loan disbursement plan may be flawed in its approach?
(A) Cost of construction undertaken by Ashiana builders varies depending on the area and labour cost even within a city.
(B) Ashiana builders take a minimum of three years to complete a project by which time the entire payment must be made by the buyers.
(C) To purchase a flat from Ashiana builders it is mandary to pay 75% of the entire amount before the second year of start of construction.
(D) Many banks do not offer flexibility in payment scheme if construction of a project does not near competition.
(a) All of these
(b) Only A
(c) B and C
(d) Only C
(e) B and D
155. Which of the following expressions is true if the expression ‘C ≥ R = O ≤ S = T > M’ is
(a) O < M
(b) C > M
(c) R > M
(d) C ≥ S
(e) T ≥ R
Directions (Q. Nos. 156-160) Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
Ten persons from different companies viz, Indigo, Biocon, Nokia, Samsung, Havells, Amul, Tata, Vadilal, Flipkart and Cipla are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there i s an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 G, H, I, J and K are seated and all of them are South. In row-2 U, V, W, X and Y are seated and all of them are facing North, Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. (All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)
K sits third to the left of the person from Biocon. V is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces K. The person from Havells sits to the immediate left of V.
Only two people sit between the person from Nokia and H. The person from Nokia is not an immediate neighbour of K. Only one person sits between the one who faces H and the person from Tata.
X sits second to the right of W. W does not sit at an extreme end of the line. The person from Cipla sits third to the left of t he one who faces W.
U is an immediate neighbour of the person from Samsung. U is not from Tata. Only two people sit between the person from Amul and J. The person from Flipkart is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces the person from Amul.
Only one person sits between the one who faces the person from Flipkart and I. Neither I nor U is from Indigo.
156. K is related to the person from Vadilal in the same way as W is related to person from Tata based on the given arrangement. To whom amongst the following is, X related to, following the same pattern?
(a) The person from Amul
(b) The person from Indigo
(c) The person from Flipkart
(d) The person from Havells
(e) The person from Nokia
157. Y is from which of the following companies?
158. Who amongst the following faces the person from Vadilal?
(a) The person from Flipkart
(d) The person from Nokia
(e) The person from Havells
159. Which of the following is true regarding G?
(a) Only one person sits between G and the person from Cipla.
(b) The person from Samsung faces G.
(c) G is an immediate neighbour of the person from Biocon.
(d) None of the given options is true.
(e) G sits to the immediate left of I.
160. Who amongst the following sit at extreme end of the rows?
(a) The persons from Indigo and G
(b) The person from Cipla and X
(c) K, Y
(d) J and the person from Flipkart
(e) The person from Nokia and U
Directions (Q. Nos. 161-165) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code,
‘jo gi la sn’ codes for ‘highest civilian award received’
‘tn la pb jo’ codes for ‘received for highest bravery’
‘dc abs n tn’ codes for ‘bravery award an honour’
‘fq mz dc yd’ codes for ‘an army worth defence’
(All the given codes are two-letter codes only)
161. Which of the following may represents ‘nights for civilian’ in the given code language?
(a) dc pb tn
(b) gl pb dc
(c) pb kr gi
(d) gif q pb
(e) pb tn mz
162. Code for which of the following cannot be definitely known?
163. What does ‘ab’ stand for?
(d) Either ‘bravery’ or ‘an’
164. Which of the following is needed to arrive at a code for ‘worth’?
(a) ‘defence worth award’ is coded as ‘mz sn fq’
(b) ‘army best ever’ is coded as ‘af yd rt’
(c) ‘defence by army’ is coded as ‘vh yd fq’
(d) ‘army worth millions’ is coded as xw mz yd’
(e) ‘civilian defence rising’ is coded as ‘ul fq gi’
165. If received highest rainfall’ is coded as ‘oa la jo’, then how will ‘rainfall for agriculture’ be possibly coded in the given code language?
(a) ci la oa
(b) oa pb gi
(c) pb zs oa
(d) pb oa sn
(e) zs oa dc
Directions (Q. Nos. 166-170) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Seven flights are bound to fly to different cities viz. Dubai, Sydney, London, Paris, Zurich, Madrid and Rome from Monday to Sunday of the same week. Each flight departs at a different time viz. 4 pm, 5 pm, 6 pm, 7 pm, 8 pm, 9 pm and 10 pm in the night on their respective days. None of the information given is necessarily in the same order.
The flight to Dubai departs on Wednesday but neither at 5 nor at 8 pm.
There is only one day between the flight to Dubai and the flight which departs at 10 pm.
There are only three days between the flights which departs at 5 pm and the flight to Rome.
The flight which departs at 5 pm departs before the Rome bound flight.
The flight which departs on Monday neither departs at 5 pm nor does it fly to Sydney.
The flight which departs on Saturday leaves at a time before the flight which departs on Tuesday (i.e. if the Tuesday flight departs at 7 pm then the flight on Saturday departs at 6, 5 or 4 pm.)
The flight to London departs on the day immediately before the day on which the 8 p m flight departs.
The flight to Paris departs at 7 pm.
There is a difference of 2 hours between the Zurich bound flight and the London bound flight (i.e. if a London bound flight departs at 4 pm then the Zurich bound flight departs at either 2 pm or 6 pm on its respective day).
166. Which flight departs on the day immediately after the day on which the Paris bound flight departs?
(a) The flight which departs at 7 pm.
(b) The flight which departs on Thursday.
(c) None as the Paris bound flight departs on Saturday
(d) The flight which departs at 5 pm
(e) The Zurich bound flight
167. At what time does the Sydney bound flight depart?
(a) 9 pm
(b) 10 pm
(c) 6 pm
(d) 5 pm
(e) 4 pm
168. Which flight departs exactly 1 hour after the Sydney bound flight on its scheduled day?
(a) The flight which departs on Friday
(b) The flight which departs on Tuesday
(c) The flight which departs at 10 pm
(d) The London bound flight
(e) The Rome bound flight
169. The Dubai bound flight reaches Dubai in 4 hours after it start. If the flight stops over at New Delhi at exactly half the total time, at what time would the flight arrive in New Delhi?
(a) 8 pm
(b) 11 pm
(c) 7 pm
(d) 6 pm
(e) 12 midnight
170. Which of the following flights departs at 10 pm?
(a) The flight which departs on Friday
(b) The Zurich bound flight
(c) The flight which departs on Friday
(d) The Paris bound flight
(e) The flight depending on the day immediately before the Sydney bound flight
Part 4 Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q. Nos. 171-175) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Data regarding number of graduates studying various courses in University A and that University B in the year 2001.
(Universities A and B offer courses in six courses only, namely-Commerce, Science, Engineering, Arts, Management and Law.)
• In University A, graduates in Commerce, Science and Engineering together constituted 60% of the total number of graduates (in all the given six courses together). Graduates in Arts, Management and Law were 25% more than that of Engineering graduates. Management graduates were 20% less than that of Science graduates.
•In University B, Commerce graduates were 10% less than the Commerce graduate in University A.
• In University B, Management graduates were 900 and the constituted 12% of the total number of graduates (in all the given six courses together). Also Management graduates were 40% less than that of Science graduates. Total number of graduates in Engineering and Arts together were double the total number of graduates in Management and Law together.
171. What is the difference between the total number of graduates in Management and Law together in University A and that in the same courses together in University B?
172. Three-fourth of the number of Arts graduates in University A were female. If the number of female Arts graduates in University A is less than that in University B by 175, then what is the number of male Arts graduates in University B?
(e) Can’t be determined
173. What is the respective ratio between the total number of graduates in engineering and Commerce together in University A and that in the same courses together in University B?
(a) 9 : 8
(b) 5 : 4
(c) 6: 5
(d) 13 : 12
(e) Can’t be determined
174. Number of Science graduates in University B is what percent less than that in University A?
175. Total number of graduates (in all the given six courses together) in University A, was what percent more than that in University B?
176. In a village, 70% registered voters cast their votes in the election. Only two candidates (A and B) are contesting the election. A won the election by 400 votes. Had A receive 12.5% less votes, the result would have been different. How many registered voters are there in the village?
177. Area of a rectangle is 96 sq m. When the length of the same rectangle increased by 6 m and the breadth decreased by 3 m, then the area of the rectangle decreases by 30 sq m. What is the perimeter of a square whose sides are equal to the length of rectangle?
(a) 48 m
(b) 60 m
(c) 80 m
(d) 64 m
(e) 52 m
178. A vessel contains a mixture of milk and water in the respective of 3 : 1. 32 L of mixture was taken out and replaced with the same quantity of milk so that the resultant ratio between quantities of milk and water in the mixture was 4 : 1 respectively. If 10 L of mixture is again taken out from the vessel, what is the resultant quantity of water in the mixture?
(a) 24 L
(c) 20 L
(d) 36 L
(e) 32 L
Directions (Q. Nos. 179-183) Refer to the table and answer the given questions.
(i) Strike rate = (Total runs scored/Total balls faced) × 100
(ii) All the given batsmen could bat in all the given matches played by them.
(iii) Few values are missing in the table (indicated by−) A candidate is expected to calculate the missing value, if it is required to answer the given question, on the basis of given data and information.
179. If the runs scored by R in last 3 matches of the tournament are not considered, his average runs scored in the tournament will decrease by 9, If the runs scored by R in the 21st and 22nd match are below are 140 and no two scores among these 3 scores are equal, what is the minimum possible runs scored by R in the 24th match?
180. The respectively ratio between total number of balls faced by O and that by Q in the tournament is 5 : 3. Total number of runs scored by Q in the tournament is what percent less than the total number of ru ns scored by O in the tournament?
181. Batsman M faced equal number of balls in first 11 matches he played in the tournament and last 11 matches he played in the tournament. If his strike rate in first 11 matches and last 11 matches of the tournament are 83 and 71 respectively, what is the total number of balls faced by him in the tournament?
182. In the tournament, the total number of balls faced by batsman N is 402 less than the total number of runs scored by him. What is the average number of runs scored batsman N in the tournament?
183. What is the number of matches played by batsman O in the tournament?
184. A, B and C started a business with investments of Rs 1600, Rs 2000 and Rs 1800 respectively. After 6 months from the start of the business, A invested Rs 200 more. After 8 months from the start of the business, B and C invested additional amounts in the respective ratio of 4 : 1. If they received an annual profit of Rs 3560 and A’s share in the profit is Rs 1080, what was the additional amount that C invested?
(a) Rs 250
(b) Rs 300
(c) Rs 400
(d) Rs 800
(e) Rs 100
Directions (Q. Nos. 185-189) In these questions, a number series is given. Only one number is wrong which doesn’t fit in the series. Find out the wrong number.
185. 10 4 3 5 6 15 41
186. 5040 720 120 24 6 3 1
187. 140 157 193 242 310 395 497
188. 150 148 143 133 116 80 53
189. 5 4 6 15 56 285 1644
190. Three years ago, Raj’s age was equal to the sum of the present ages of his one son and one daughter. Three years ago, the respective ratio between the ages of his daughter and his son that time was 12 : 13. If Raj’s wife is 5 years younger to him and her present age is twice the present age of their daughter, then what is the present age of their son?
(a) 27 years
(b) 24 years
(c) 29 years
(d) 26 years
(e) 25 years
191. A student was asked to measure the length and breadth of a rectangle. By mistake he measured the length 20% less and the breadth 10% more. If its original area is 200 cm2, then the area after this measurement is
(a) 176 sq cm
(b) 206 sq cm
(c) 226 sq cm
(d) 316 sq cm
(e) None of these
192. Mohan purchased 120 reams of paper at Rs 100 per ream and the expenditure on transport was Rs 480. He had to pay an octroi duty of 50 paise per ream and the coolie charges were Rs 60. What should he charge per ream to gain 40%?
(a) Rs 138
(b) Rs 147
(c) Rs 155
(d) Rs 165
(e) None of these
193. The population of a particular area ‘A’ of a city is 5000. It increases by 10% in first year, decreases by 20% in the second year because of some reason. In the third y ear, the population increases by 30%. What will be the population of area ‘A’ at the end of third year?
194. Boat A travels upstream from Point X to Point Y in 2 hours more than the time taken by Boat B to travel downstream from Point Y to Point Z. The distance between X and Y is 40 km and that distance between Y and Z is 24 km. The speed of Boat B in still water is 10 km/h and the speed of Boat B downstream. What is the speed of Boat A in still water? (Consider the speed of the current to be the same.)
(a) 20 km/h
(b) 10 km/h
(c) 12 km/h
(d) 14 km/h
(e) 8 km/h
195. An equal sum is invested for 7 years in Scheme A offering simple interest at X% per annum and in scheme B for 2 years offering compound interest at 10% per annum (compounded annually). The interest earned from scheme A is thrice of the interest earned from scheme A is thrice of the interest earned from scheme B. Had the rate of interest been X-4% simple interest per annum in scheme A, the difference in the interest earned from both the schemes would have been Rs 700. What was the sum invested in each of the schemes?
(a) Rs 8000
(b) Rs 5000
(c) Rs 6000
(d) Rs 4500
(e) Rs 10000
Directions (Q. Nos. 196-200) Refer to the pie-charts and answer the given questions.
196. Number of male members in health clubs A and D increased by equal number from 2008 to 2009. If the respective ratio between number of male members in health club A and that in D is 2009 is 17 : 11, what is the number of male numbers in health club D in 2009?
197. What is t he average number of female members in health clubs C, D and E?
198. Only 50% of the members (both male and female) in health club E have lifetime membership. If the number of females in health club E who have lifetime membership is 44, what percent of male members in health club E have lifetime membership?
199. What is the central angle corresponding to number of members (both male and female) in health club B?
200. Number of female members in health club A is what percent less than number of male members in health club B?
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