SBI Clerical Cadre Recruitment Main Examination Held on June 25, 2016 Question Paper With Answer Key

SBI Clerical Cadre Recruitment Main Examination Held on June 25, 2016

Part I Reasoning Ability and Computer Aptitude

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-3) In the following questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Read them carefully and mark the appropriate answer.

Given answer

a. if either conclusion I or II follows

b. if neither conclusion I nor II follows

c. if only conclusion II follows

d. if both conclusions follow.

e. if only conclusion I follows

1. Statements Y < J = P ≥ R > I

Conclusions I. J > I          II. Y < R

Answer: (e)

2. Statements V ≥ K > M = N; M > 5; T < K

Conclusions I. T < N       II. V = 5

Answer: (b)

3. Statements G ≥ H = I < J; J > K; G < L

Conclusions I. K < H       II. L > I

Answer: (c)

4. Which of the following expressions is wrong, if the expression ‘G = B < C = D ≥ E’ is definitely true?

(a)  G < C

(b)  Other than those given as options

(c)  C ≥ E

(d)  G < D

(e)  B = D

Answer: (e)

5. Anil walks 4 m towards the East, takes a right turn and walks 3 m. He then takes a left turn and walks 5 m before taking a final left turn and walking 3 m. Towards which direction and how far should Anil walk to reach the point from where he initially started walking?

(a)  9 m towards West

(b)  8 m towards East

(c)  7 m towards West

(d)  9 m towards West

(e)  9 m towards East

Answer: (d)

6. Read the following information carefully and answer the given question.

One of the main reasons behind the lack of applicants for teachers’ training/degree programmes is that teachers have not experienced any improvement in working conditions and their salaries have not kept pace with salaries in other professions.

Which of the following cab be inferred from the given paragraph?

(a)  No direct relationship can be established between the work conditions of a particular profession and preference for it amongst the qualified candidates.

(b)  Number of applicants for teachers’ training progreammes will improve, if the salaries in other professions are reduced.

(c)  Training programmes for other professions are not as good as teachers training programmes.

(d)  Very high entrance exam is also one of the reasons behind plunging number of applicants for teachers training programmes.

(e)  In the years to come, the schools would face a crunch in terms of availability of qualified teachers, if the salaries and working conditions of teachers’ do not improve.

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 7-9) Study the following information and answer the given questions.

Six people A, B, C, D, E and F are of different heights. Only two people are taller than C. B is taller than both A and E but not the tallest. F is taller than A and E but not as tall as C. Only one person is shorter than A. The one, who is second tallest is 165 cm and the one, who is the third shortest is 155 cm.

7. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?

(a)  B’s height is definitely 165 cm.

(b)  F is taller than both D and A.

(c)  C is the tallest among them.

(d)  A’s height is possibly 157 cm.

(e)  All the given statements are true.

Answer: (a)

8. Who amongst the following is shortest among them?

(a)  A

(b)  F

(c)  D

(d)  E

(e)  B

Answer: (d)

9. Who amongst the following is possibly 170 cm?

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  C

(d)  F

(e)  D

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 10-14) Each question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide, whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and mark the appropriate answer.

Give answer

a. if the data even in both statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

b. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

c. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

d. if the in both statements together are necessary to answer the question.

e. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I are not sufficient to answer the question.

10. How many sisters does Madhu have?


I. Madhu’s parents have four children.

II. Madhu has three brothers.

Answer: (d)

11. Is R the granddaughter of C?


I. The only sister of A is the mother of R’s brother, B.

II. C, the mother of A has only one grandson, B.

Answer: (d)

12. Four friends A, B, C and D are seated in circle facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Is anyone seated exactly between C and D, when counted from the left of C?


I. B is seated to the immediate right of C.

II. B is seated to the immediate left of A. D is not an immediate neighbour of B.

Answer: (e)

13. Among five friends M, N, O, P and Q (each earning a different amount), who earns the least?


I. M earns more than O, P and N.

II. P earns more than only O.

Answer: (a)

14. Among A, B, C, D and E, seated in a straight line, but not necessarily in the same order, facing North, who sits exactly in the middle of the line?


I. A sits third to left of D. B sits to the immediate right of C.

II. B sits second to right of A. E is not an immediate neighbour of D.

Answer: (d)

15. How many meaningful English words, starting with P, can be formed with the letters ETPS using each letter only once in each word?

(a)  More than three

(b)  One

(c)  Two

(d)  None

(e)  Three

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-21) In each question below, two/three statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide, which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer

a. if either conclusion I or II follows

b. if neither conclusion I nor II follows

c. if only conclusion II follows

d. if both conclusions follow

e. if only conclusion I follows

16. Statements All trains are buses.

All buses are jeeps.

All jeeps are aeroplanes.

Conclusions I. Some buses are not aeroplanes.

II. All jeeps are trains.

Answer: (b)

17. Statements Some parties are celebrations.

All celebrations are occasions.

No occasion is a festival.

Conclusions I. No celebration is a festival.

II. Some occasions are parties.

Answer: (d)

18. Statements Some pens are erasers.

All erasers are staplers.


I. At least some staplers are pens.

II. There is a possibility that some erasers are neither staplers nor pens.

Answer: (d)

19. Statements No red is black.

Some black are yellow.

Conclusions I. No yellow is red.

II. All red being yellow is a possibility.

Answer: (c)

20. Statements All shores are beaches.

Some beaches are coasts.

All banks are coasts.

Conclusions I. Some banks are beaches.

II. No bank is a shore.

Answer: (b)

21. Statements All benches are parks.

No park is a tree.

All trees are swings.


I.All benches being swings is a possibility.

II. No tree is a bench.

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 22-26) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

In a certain code,

‘for profit order now’ is written as ‘ho ja ye ga’

‘right now for him’ is written as ‘ga ve ja se’

‘place order for profit’ is written as ‘ga bi ho ye’

‘only in right order’ is written as ‘ve du ye zo’

(All codes are two-letters codes only)

22. What is the code for ‘him’ in the given code language?

(a)  Cannot be determined

(b)  ga

(c)  ve

(d)  aj

(e)  se

Answer: (e)

23. Which of the following may represents ‘only for now’ in the given code language?

(a)  zo ga ja

(b)  zo ga ye

(c)  ja  bl zo

(d)  du bl ja

(e)  du zo ga

Answer: (a)

24. What is the code for ‘profit’ in the given code language?

(a)  ye

(b)  ho

(c)  ga

(d)  ja

(e)  bl

Answer: (b)

25. ‘fo ve du’ could be a code for which of the following in the given code language?

(a)  only in profit

(b)  order only him

(c)  place in right

(d)  in right spirits

(e)  order only now

Answer: (d)

26. What does ‘bl’ stand for in the given code language?

(a)  profit

(b)  for

(c)  place

(d)  order

(e)  now

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 27-28) In each question below, a statement is given followed  by two courses of action numbered I and II.. A course of action is a practicable and feasible step or administrative decision to be taken for follow-up, improvement, or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, and decide, which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

a. Only II follows b. Both I and II follow

b. Only follows d. Neither I nor II follows

e. Either I or II follows

27. Statement There is no motivation among today’s generation to join the armed forces owing to frequent transfers to risky areas. Perhaps they are not aware of the good side of it.

Courses of Action

I. Short term internship should be introduced at high school level to give students a peek into the adventurous life of the forces and provide a more realistic job purview.

II. The salary level of the defence forces should be increased with immediate effect.

Answer: (c)

28. Statement People see tax as a burden and thus devise ways to underpay or avoid it altogether.

Course of Action

I. Government should educate and inform citizens about the ways in which taxes help in development of the nation.

II. Tax rates should be increased so that the under-recovery in collection is compensated.

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 29-34) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z, out of whom one is a Pilot, Professor, Businessman, Doctor, Lawyer, Banker, Cricketer or an Architect (but not necessarily in the same order), are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. S, who is a banker sits third to the right of Z. The professor and the architect are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither the professor nor the architect is an immediate neighbour of either Z or S. The one, who is a professor sits second to the right of T, who is a lawyer. V, who is a cricketer, is not an immediate neighbour or the banker. Cricketer and the pilot are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither Z nor W is a pilot. Only R sits between the professor and the doctor. P sits third to the right of the pilot.

29. Who amongst the following sits exactly between T and Q?

(a)  Doctor

(b)  Banker

(c)  Professor

(d)  Cricketer

(e)  Architect

Answer: (b)

30. Who sits third to the right of the professor?

(a)  Q

(b)  The Lawyer

(c)  The Banker

(d)  S

(e)  The Cricketer

Answer: (e)

31. Which of the following is true regarding R?

(a)  He is an immediate neighbour of the professor.

(b)  He is a doctor.

(c)  None is true.

(d)  He is an immediate neighbour of the pilot.

(e)  R sits exactly between Q and T when counted from the right of Q.

Answer: (a)

32. What is the position of the businessman with respect to the pilot?

(a)  Third to the left

(b)  Second to the left

(c)  Immediately to the right

(d)  Fourth to the right

(e)  Second to the right

Answer: (a)

33. What is the profession of Z?

(a)  Doctor

(b)  Other than those given as options

(c)  Businessman

(d)  Professor

(e)  Architect

Answer: (a)

34. How many people sit between the ‘banker’ and ‘W’ when counted in anti-clockwise direction from banker?

(a)  Three

(b)  Four

(c)  One

(d)  None

(e)  Two

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 35-39) Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Seven friends T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting in a straight line facing North but not necessarily in the same order. W sits fifth to the right of T. W does not sit at any of the extreme ends. Two people sit between Z and X. Y sits third to the left of U. Y sits exactly in the middle. Z is not an immediate neighbour of Y.

35. What is Z’s position with respect to W?

(a)  Fourth to the left

(b)  Second to the left

(c)  Fourth to the right

(d)  Third to the right

(e)  Third to the left

Answer: (a)

36. Who is second to the right of T?

(a)  Other than those given as options

(b)  Y

(c)  X

(d)  V

(e)  U

Answer: (d)

37. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the given arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(a)  WX

(b)  ZT

(c)  YV

(d)  UW

(e)  XV

Answer: (e)

38. Who sit at the extreme ends of the line?

(a)  VX

(b)  XT

(c)  TU

(d)  YZ

(e)  XZ

Answer: (c)

39. If all the seven friends are made to sit alphabetically from right to left, positions of how many will remain unchanged?

(a)  Three

(b)  Two

(c)  Four

(d)  One

(e)  None

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 40-44) Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G work in three departments of an organization viz, Finance, Marketing and HR. Not less than two and not more than three work in each department. Each of them likes a different colour-red, blue, green, white, yellow, pink and black, but not necessarily in the same order. E does not work in the HR department and likes Yellow. The one, who likes pink, works in the Marketing department. C works in the Finance department only with G. B likes red and works in the same department as D and F. No one working in the HR department likes blue or green. C does not like green and D does not like black.

40. Which of the following represents the friends working in Marketing department?

(a)  A, E

(b)  B, F

(c)  F, D

(d)  A, C

(e)  E, D

Answer: (a)

41. Which colour does G like?

(a)  White

(b)  Blue

(c)  Pink

(d)  Cannot be determined

(e)  Green

Answer: (e)

42. Which colour does A like?

(a)  Cannot be determined

(b)  Black

(c)  Green

(d)  White

(e)  Pink

Answer: (e)

43. Who likes the colour black?

(a)  D

(b)  A

(c)  G

(d)  F

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (d)

44. Which of the following combinations of person-department-colour is correct?

(a)  F-HR-White

(b)  A-HR-Pink

(c)  D-Marketing-Black

(d)  None is correct

(e)  E-Marketing-Red

Answer: (d)

45. The position of first and the fourth letters of the word PRICED are interchanged, similarly, the positions of second and fifth letters and third and sixth letters. In the new arrangement thus formed, how many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the alphabets, which are at the extreme ends?

(a)  Three

(b)  Five

(c)  More than five

(d)  Two

(e)  Four

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 46-50) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words of numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)

Input gate 20 86 just not 71 for 67 38 bake sun 55

Step I bake gate 20 just not 71 for 67 38 sun 55 86

Step II for bake 20 just  no 67 38 sun 55 86 71

Step III gate for bake 20 just not 38 sun 55 86 71 67

Step IV just gate for bake 20 not 38 sun 86 71 67 55

Step V not just gate for bake 20 sun 86 71 67 55 38

Step VI sun not just gate for bake 86 71 67 55 38 20

Step VII is the last step of the above input.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Input 31 rise gem 15 92 47  aim big 25 does 56 not 85 63 with moon

46. How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

(a)  Eight

(b)  Six

(c)  Seven

(d)  Five

(e)  Nine

Answer: (a)

47. Which word/number would be at seventh position from the left of step IV?

(a)  rise

(b)  aim

(c)  big

(d)  15

(e)  does

Answer: (d)

48. Which step number is the following output?

Rise not moon gem does big aim 15 with 92 85 63 56 47 31 25

(a)  Step V

(b)  Step VII

(c)  Step IV

(d)  Step VIII

(e)  Step III

Answer: (b)

49. Which of the following represents the position of ‘92’ in step VI?

(a)  Ninth from the left

(b)  Fifth from the right

(c)  Sixth from the right

(d)  Ninth from the right

(e)  Seventh from the left

Answer: (c)

50. Which word/number would be at fifth position from the right in the last step?

(a)  gem

(b)  63

(c)  56

(d)  85

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (c)

Part II Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) Study the table and answer the given questions.

The following table gives percentage of marks obtained by seven students in six different subjects in an examination. The maximum marks in each subject is written in parenthesis.

51. What are the average marks obtained by all the seven students in Physics?

(a)  77.26

(b)  89.14

(c)  91.37

(d)  96.11

(e)  103.21

Answer: (b)

52. What was the aggregate of marks obtained by B in all the six subjects?

(a)  409

(b)  419

(c)  429

(d)  439

(e)  466

Answer: (e)

53. What is the overall percentage secured by D?

(a)  52.5%

(b)  55%

(c)  60%

(d)  73.42%

(e)  64.5%

Answer: (d)

54. The number of students, who obtained 60% and above marks in all the subjects is

(a)  none

(b)  four

(c)  one

(d)  three

(e)  two

Answer: (e)

55. In which of the following subjects, the overall percentage of the students is best?

(a)  History

(b)  Maths

(c)  Physics

(d)  Chemistry

(e)  Geography

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) Five different companies A, B, C, D and E make two items I and II. The total number of items produced by these five companies is Rs 80000. The cost of production of each item is Rs 5000. The distribution of the total production by these companies is given in the following pie-chart and the table shows the ratio of production of Item I to that Item II and the percentage profit earned by these companies on each of these items.

56. What is the profit earned by Company C on Item II?

(a)  Rs 57.6 lakh

(b)  Rs 55.4 lakh

(c)  Rs 56.8 lakh

(d)  Rs 54 lakh

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

57. What is the total cost of production of Item I by companies A and B together?

(a)  Rs 5 crore

(b)  Rs 6 crore

(c)  Rs 8 crore

(d)  Rs 9 crore

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

58. What is the total of the profit earned by  Company E on production of Item I and the profit of Company D on production of Item II?

(a)  Rs 1.56 crore

(b)  Rs 2.2 crore

(c)  Rs 1.3 crore

(d)  Rs 2.6 crore

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

59. What is the ratio of the cost production of Item II by Company A to the cost of production of Item I by Company E?

(a)  17 : 12

(b)  4 : 5

(c)  7 : 4

(d)  15 : 8

(e)  1 : 2

Answer: (d)

60. The cost of production of Item II for Company E is what percent of the cost of production of Item I for Company A?

(a)  80%

(b)  20%

(c)  60%

(d)  75%

(e)  40%

Answer: (b)

61. Train A crosses a pole in 25 seconds and another Train B crosses a pole in 1 minute and 15 second. Length of Train A is half length of Train B. What is the respective ratio between speed of Train A and Train B?

(a)  3 : 2

(b)  3 : 4

(c)  5 : 3

(d)  2 : 5

(e)  4 : 3

Answer: (a)

62. Amit and Roshan, two shopkeepers, buy article for Rs 1000 and Rs 2000 respectively. Roshan marks his article up by 2x% and offers a discount of x%, while Amit marks his article up by x%. If both make the same profit, what is the value of x?

(a)  40%

(b)  37.5%

(c)  12.5%

(d)  25%

(e)  50%

Answer: (d)

63. A man was assigned to find the average age of a class of 13 students. By mistake, the included the 35 years old teacher as well and hence the average went up by 2 years. Find the actual average age of the class.

(a)  8 yr

(b)  7 yr

(c)  15 yr

(d)  11 yr

(e)  9 yr

Answer: (b)

64. The length and breadth of a rectangular plot are in the ratio of 9 : 7. If the cost of fencing the plot @ 27.75 per meter is Rs 3552, what is the area of the plot?

(a)  1236 sq m

(b)  1008 sq m

(c)  1152 sq m

(d)  1288 sq m

(e)  1056 sq m

Answer: (b)

65. How many kg of salt of 42 paise per kg must man mix with 25 kg of salt at 24 paise per kg,, so that he may, on selling the mixture at 40 paise per k g gain 25% on the outlay?

(a)  15 kg

(b)  18 kg

(c)  20 kg

(d)  24 kg

(e)  26 kg

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) What value will come in place of question marks in the given equations?

66. 003 × 37.998 – 309.010 = ?

(a)  685

(b)  695

(c)  680

(d)  679

(e)  675

Answer: (d)

67. 009 – 519.999 – 94.989 = ?

(a)  7270

(b)  7300

(c)  7500

(d)  7220

(e)  7340

Answer: (a)


(a)  290

(b)  390

(c)  490

(d)  590

(e)  590

Answer: (a)

69. 302 – 117 = 24.52 + ?

(a)  127.70

(b)  127.65

(c)  182.75

(d)  172.05

(e)  165.28

Answer: (c)


(a)  105

(b)  95

(c)  115

(d)  125

(e)  135

Answer: (c)

71. A bag contains 20 tickets numbered from 1 to 20. Two tickets are drawn n at random. What is the probability that both numbers are prime?

(a)  8/20

(b)  14/95

(c)  7/20

(d)  21/190

(e)  21/95

Answer: (a)

72. A tank is filled in 5 hours by three pipes A, B and C. The pipe C is twice as fast as B and B is twice as fast as A. How much time will pipe A alone take to fill the tank?

(a)  20 h

(b)  25 h

(c)  35 h

(d)  40 h

(e)  30 h

Answer: (c)

73. A certain amount of money is to be divided among P, Q and R in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 7 respectively. If the amount received by R is Rs 4000 more than the amount received by Q, what will be the total amount received by P and Q together?

(a)  Rs 8000

(b)  Rs 12000

(c)  Rs 1000

(d)  Rs 16000

(e)  Rs 20000

Answer: (d)

74. A number when divided by 627 leaves a remainder 43. By dividing the same number by 19, the remainder will be

(a)  24

(b)  43

(c)  13

(d)  5

(e)  7

Answer: (a)

75. In an examination, 34% of the students failed in mathematics and 42% failed in English. If 20% of the students failed in both the subjects, then what is the percentage of students who passed in both the subjects?

(a)  40%

(b)  42%

(c)  44%

(d)  46%

(e)  48%

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 76-80) What value will come in place of question marks in the given numbers series?

76. 15  365  587  717  785  815  ?

(a)  825

(b)  835

(c)  828

(d)  832

(e)  838

Answer: (a)

77. 1297  2117  3137  4357  5777  ?

(a)  7897

(b)  7367

(c)  7397

(d)  7837

(e)  7547

Answer: (c)

78. 8  288    968   2048   3528  5408   ?

(a)  7288

(b)  7388

(c)  7488

(d)  7688

(e)  7588

Answer: (d)

79. 18  43  204   1145   8190   ?

(a)  73915

(b)  73925

(c)  73935

(d)  73945

(e)  73955

Answer: (c)

80. 12  93   730  5097    30570   ?

(a)  152835

(b)  152837

(c)  152839

(d)  152841

(e)  152833

Answer: (c)

81. A and B enter into a partnership by making investments in the ratio 1 : 2, 5% of the total profit goes to charity. If B’s share is Rs 760, then what is the total profit earned?

(a)  Rs 1200

(b)  Rs 1800

(c)  Rs 2400

(d)  Rs 1560

(e)  Rs 2000

Answer: (a)

82. The simple interest on a certain sum for 8 months at 4% per annum is Rs 129 less than the simple interest on the same sum for 15 months at 5% per annum. What is the sum?

(a)  Rs 2580

(b)  Rs 2400

(c)  Rs 2529

(d)  Rs 3600

(e)  Rs 2900

Answer: (d)

83. If the ratio of radius of two cylinders A and B are in the ratio 3 : 5 and their heights in the ratio 10 : 9 respectively, then what is the ratio of volumes of their cylinders?

(a)  5 : 2

(b)  5 : 3

(c)  2 : 3

(d)  2 : 5

(e)  4 : 7

Answer: (d)

84. A boat can travel with a speed of 16 km/h in still water. If the rate of stream is 5 km/h, then what is the time taken by the boat to cover distance of 84 km downstream?

(a)  4 h

(b)  5 h

(c)  6 h

(d)  7 h

(e)  8 h

Answer: (a)

85. A can build up structure in 8 days and B can break it in 3 days. A has worked for 4 days and then B joined to work with A for another 2 days. In how many days will A alone build up the remaining part of the structure?

(a)  10

(b)  9

(c)  12

(d)  8

(e)  7

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 86-90) What value will co me in place of question marks in the following equations?

86. 8 * 13.5 * 16.2 * ? = 2340.09

(a)  0.15

(b)  0.25

(c)  0.5

(d)  0.75

(e)  1

Answer: (b)

87. 812 ÷ 162 of 323 × √256 = 2?

(a)  17

(b)  18

(c)  19

(d)  20

(e)  15

Answer: (a)


(a)  373

(b)  375

(c)  378

(d)  381

(e)  370

Answer: (c)

89. 486 ÷ ? * 7392 ÷ 66 = 1008

(a)  54

(b)  55

(c)  52

(d)  53

(e)  51

Answer: (a)

90. 81% of ? = 427.2 * 8.4% of 135

(a)  21784

(b)  24378

(c)  2716

(d)  28120

(e)  25315

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) In each of the following questions, there are two equations. You have to solve both equations.

Given answer

a. if x > y    b. if x ≥ y    c. if x < y     d. if x ≤ y

e. if x = y or relation cannot be established

91. I. 2x2 – 13x – 24 = 0 II. 3y2 + 17y + 24 = 0

Answer: (a)

92. I. 3x2 + 23x + 30 = 0 II. 6y2 + 13y + 5 = 0

Answer: (d)

93. I. 5x2 – 44x + 63 = 0 II. 15y2 – 37y + 18 = 0

Answer: (b)

94. I. x2 = 1296 

Answer: (e)

95. I. 12x2 – 8x – 7 = 0 II. 10y2 + 23y + 12 = 0

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) Each question below consists of two statements numbered I and II given below it. You are to decide, whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and given answer

a. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question

b. it the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

c. If the data in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

d. if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question

e. if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

96. How many workers are required for completing the construction work in 10 days?

I. 20% of the work can be completed by 8 workers in 8 days.

II. 20 workers can complete the work in 16 days.

Answer: (c)

97. What is the monthly salary of Praveen?

I. Praveen gets 15% more than Sumit while Sumit gets 10% less than Lokesh.

II. Lokesh’s monthly salary is Rs 2500

Answer: (e)

98. How many people are there in the plane?

I. 25% passengers are women and 35% are children.

II. There are 24 men in the plane.

Answer: (e)

99. What is the distance between city P and city Q?

I. Two persons started simultaneously from P to Q, with their speeds in the ratio 4 : 5.

II. B reaches P one hour earlier than A to Q. The difference between speeds of A and B is 20 km/h.

Answer: (d)

100. What is the Vani’s present age?

I. Vani is three years older than Ami.

II. The ratio between Ami and Sammy’s age is 3 : 4.

Answer: (d)

Part III General English

Directions (Q. Nos. 101-105) Read the following sentence to find out, whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error,  if any, will be in one part of the sentence. That part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No error’ (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

101. The tourist industry of the State/feels that the facility of visa-on-arrival/should be made available/to keeping the industry vibrant.

(a)  The tourist industry of the State

(b)  feels that the facility of visa-on-arrival

(c)  should be made available

(d)  to keeping the industry vibrant

(e)  No error

Answer: (d)

102. Even a newly-recruited teacher/in a government high school gets/ more than what/ a former principal gets as pension.

(a)  Even a newly-recruited teacher

(b)  in a government high school gets

(c)  more than what

(d)  a former  principal gets as pension

(e)  No error

Answer: (e)

103. Six people fainted/ on board in an international flight/ promptly the emergency crew to check/ the plane for hazardous materials.

(a)  Six people fainted

(b)  on board in an international flight

(c)  promptly the emergency crew to check

(d)  the plane for hazardous materials

(e)  No error

Answer: (c)

104. To be short-listed for the competition/the children have to fill up/ a contest firm that their/ respective schools will provide.

(a)  To be short-listed for the competition

(b)  the children have to fill up

(c)  a contest firm that their

(d)  respective schools will provide

(e)  No error

Answer: (c)

105. The students of the school/ would be send to the zoo/ on a study tour/ to gain first-hand experience.

(a)  The students of the school

(b)  would be send to the zoo

(c)  on a study tour

(d)  to gain first-hand experience

(e)  No error

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 106-112) Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The residents of Kotobuki live not far from the glitzy shops and upscale restaurants of Yokohama. Japan’s second biggest city, adjoining Tokyo, the capital. Yet Kotobuki is an altogether different word, a squalid district, it is a pit stop for local Japanese on their way to destitution. Men living here in cheap hostels have lost jobs and families. Some survive on casual day work, but many have no work at all, A 250-bed, bed shelter dominates the centre of Kotobuki, part of a public network of around 40 built in the past decade. Though these have helped to take 18000 people off Japan’s streets, it has been harder to check the creeping poverty that put many of them there in the first place.

Last year, the Japanese government recorded relative poverty rates at 16%- defined as the share of the population living on less than half the national median income.

That is the highest on record. Poverty levels have been growing at a rate of 1.3% a y ear since the mid-1980s. On the same definition, a study by the OECD in 2011 ranked Japan sixth from the bottom among its 34 mostly rich members. Book shops advertise a slew of bestsellers on how to survive on an income of under ¥ 2 m ($ 16700), a poverty line below which millions of Japanese now live.

The country has long prided itself on ensuring that one of its citizens falls between the social cracks. Japan’s orderly, slum-free neighbourhoods seem to confirm that, street crime’, even in Kotobuki, is minuscule. Unemployment is below 4% and jobs are being generated as the Prime Minister attempts to  boost the economy through monetary easing. Yet the poor quality of new jobs in compounding the problem of the working poor.

Since late 2012, the number of irregular workers-often earning less than half the pay of the full-time counterparts with permanent employment contracts – has jumped over 1.5 m. Casual and part-time employees number n early 20 m, almost 40% of the Japanese workforce.

The effects of this shift to irregular work have not always been visible. One reason is parents’ benevolence. Millions of young workers remain living at home, rent-free. But o ne the older generation that drove Japan’s post-war boom goes, underlying  poverty will become more evident. The present situation may look grim, but there is hope as long, as the present government continues to do something about it.

106. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

(a)  Youngsters in Japan, leave their parents’ house the minute they get an employment offer.

(b)  According to the OECD ranking of 2011, Japan stands among some of the poor nations.

(c)  The beauty of the country’s neighbourhoods is stained with slums.

(d)  Yokohama is the second biggest poor city  in the country.

(e)  None of the given statements is true.

Answer: (b)

107. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word ‘Confirm’ as used in the passage?

(a)  Strengthen

(b)  Remove

(c)  Hate

(d)  Contradict

(e)  Adopt

Answer: (a)

108. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word ‘Grim as used in the passage?

(a)  Interesting

(b)  Trim

(c)  Cheerful

(d)  Foul

(e)  Unfavourable

Answer: (e)

109. Which of the following can be said about Kotobuki in the context to the passage?

A. Crime rate is very high.

B. It’s a place that provides shelter to people having minimum or no source of income.

C. More than 50% of the poor in the country have found their homes in this place.

(a)  Only A

(b)  Both A and C

(c)  Only B

(d)  Both B and C

(e)  Only C

Answer: (c)

110. Which of the following correctly explains the meaning of the phrase, ‘none of its citizens falls between the social cracks’ as used in the passage?

(a)  Preventing the citizens from becoming poor.

(b)  Providing a luxurious lifestyle with plush amenities.

(c)  Providing an opportunity for everyone to vote in favour of the current Prime Minister.

(d)  Taking everyone out of Kotobuki to other neighbourhoods

(e)  Reducing corruption.

Answer: (a)

111. As mentioned in the passage, despite generating jobs, the problem of unemployment persists because

A. these are either irregular in nature or of poor quality.

B. people are not willing to take up poor quality jobs.

C. prevailing corruption prevents people from taking up these jobs.

(a)  Only A

(b)  Both A and C

(c)  Only B

(d)  Both B and C

(e)  Only C

Answer: (c)

112. Which of the following can be a suitable title of the passage?

(a)  Exploring the Role of the Government in Supporting Japan’s Economy

(b)  Japan and Poverty-A Synonym for Each Other

(c)  Poverty in Japan- The True Picture

(d)  The Beginning of the Rise of the Dragon

(e)  Exploring Benefits of Working Part-Time

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 113-120) Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Some time ago, there lived a king. The King should have been contented with his life, given all the riches and luxuries he had. However, this was not the case, the King always found himself wondering why he just never seemed contented with his life.

Sure, he had the attention of everyone wherever he went, attended fancy dinners and parties, but somehow, he still felt something was lacking and he couldn’t put his finger on it. One day, the King had woken up earlier than usual to stroll around his palace. He entered his huge  living room and came to a stop when he heard someone happily singing away. Following his singing, he saw that one of the servants was singing and had a very contented look on his face.

This fascinated the King and he summoned this man to his chambers. The man entered the King’s chambers as ordered. The King asked why he was so happy. To this the man replied, “Your Majesty, I am nothing but a servant, but I make enough of a living to keep my wife and children happy. We don’t need too much, a roof over our heads and warm food to fill our tummy. My wife and children are inspiration; they are content with whatever little I bring home. I am happy because my family is happy. “Hearing this, he King dismissed the servant and summoned his Personal Assistant to his chambers.

The King related his personal anguish about this feelings and then related the story of the servant to his Personal Assistant, hoping that somehow, he will be able to come up with some reasoning that here was a King, who could have anything he wished for at a snap of his fingers and yet was not contented, whereas his servant, having so little, was extremely contented. Personal Assistant listened attentively and come to a conclusion. He said, “Your Majesty, I believe that the servant has not been made part of The 99 Club.”

“The 99 Club? And what exactly is that?” The King inquired.

To which is Assistant replied, “Your Majesty, to truly known what The 99 Club is , you will have to do the following: Place 99 gold coins in a bag and leave it at the servant’s doorstep. You will then understand what. The 99 Club is.” That very same evening, the King arranged for 99 gold coins to be placed in a bag at the servant’s doorstep.

Although, he was slightly hesitant and the thought he should have put 100 gold coins into the bag, yet since h is assistant had advised him to put 99, that is what he did.

The servant was just stepping out of his house, when he saw a bag his doorstep, Wondering about its contents, he took it into his house and opened the bag. When he opened the bag, he let out a great big shout of joy, “Gold coins. So many of them.” He could hardly believe it. He called his wife to show her the coins.

He then took the bag to a table and emptied it out and began to count the coins. Doing so, he realized that there were 99 coins and he thought it was an odd number, so he counted again and again only to come to the same conclusion-99 gold coins.

He began to wonder, what could have happened to that last one coin? For no one would leave 99 coins. He began to search is entire house, looked around his backyard for houses, not wanting to lose out that one coin. Finally, exhausted, he decided that he would work harder than ever to make up for that one gold coin to make his entire collection an even 100 gold coins.

He got up the next morning in an extremely horrible mood, shouting at the children and his wife for his delay, not realizing that he had spent most of the night conjuring ways of working hard, so that he had enough money to buy himself that gold coin. He went to work as usual – but not in his usual best mood, singing happily – as he grumpily did his dally errands.

Seeing the man’s attitude change so drastically, the King was puzzled. He promptly summoned his Assistant to his chambers. The King related his thoughts about the servant and once again, his Assistant listened. The King could not believe that the servant who until yesterday had been singing away and was happy and contented with his life had taken a sudden change of a attitude, even though he should have been happier after receiving the gold coins.

To this the Assistant replied, “Ah! But your Majesty, the servant has now officially joined The 99 Club.” He explained: “The 99 Club is just a name given to those people, who have everything but yet are never contented, therefore they are always working hard and striving for t hat extra one to round it out to 100.

We have so much to be thankful for and we can live with very little in our lives, but the minute we are given something bigger and better, we want even more! We are not the happy contented person we used to  be. We want more and m ore and by wanting more and more we don’t realize the price we pay for it. We lose our sleep, our happiness; we hurt the people around us just as price to pay for our growing needs and desires. That is what joining. The 99 Club is all about. “Hearing this, the King decided that from that day onwards, he was going to start appreciating all the little things in life.

Striving for more is always good, but let’s not strive so hard and for so much that we lose all those near and dear to our hearts. We shouldn’t compromise our happiness for moments of luxuries?

113. Why did the King summon the servant?

(a)  Because the servant was singing a sad song.

(b)  Because he was fascinated by the happiness of the servant

(c)  Because the servant had shown disrespect to him.

(d)  Because the servant was also assigned the job of a spy.

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (b)

114. What was/were the reason for the servant’s happiness?

A. He was not a part of The 99 Club.

B. He was too poor to look after his family.

C. His family was happy.

(a)  A and B

(b)  B and C

(c)  A and C

(d)  All of these

(e)  Only B

Answer: (c)

115. What was not the effect of placing the bag containing 99 gold coins at the servant’s doorstep?

(a)  The servant became overjoyed to find the bag containing gold coins.

(b)  He counted the gold coins again and again to confirm whether they were just ninety nine or a hundred.

(c)  He began to search the last one coin in and around his house.

(d)  Finally, he could find the last one coin in his backyard.

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (d)

116. What happened to the servant, when he became part of the 99 Club?

(a)  He got up the next morning in a horrible mood.

(b)  He rebuked the members of his family.

(c)  He went to work in a depressed mood.

(d)  He did his work grumpily.

(e)  All of the above

Answer: (e)

117. In the context of the passage, what do you mean by The 99 Club?

(a)  The 99 Club is a group of rich people.

(b)  It is the club of dissatisfied people.

(c)  It is a club of minister of the royal court.

(d)  It is the club of people.

(e)  Other than those given as options.

Answer: (b)

118. Choose the word, which is most similar in meaning to the word ‘Fascinated’ given in bold as used in the passage.

(a)  Bored

(b)  Attracted

(c)  Repulsed

(d)  Exhausted

(e)  Irritated

Answer: (b)

119. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word ‘Stroll’ given in bold as used in the passage.

(a)  Excursion

(b)  Lazy walk

(c)  Survey

(d)  Breath

(e)  Run

Answer: (b)

120. Choose the word, which is most similar in meaning to the word ‘Drastically’ given in bold as used in the passage?

(a)  Vehemently

(b)  Effectively

(c)  Firmly

(d)  Compulsively

(e)  Emphatically

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 121-125) Rearrange the following six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.

A. The full extent and impact of the forest fires in Uttarakhand can be assessed only after they have abated with better weather conditions, but the furious blaze that has swept the hill State drives home, the truth that governments are yet to find scientific ways to tackle the phenomenon.

B. Some of the studies reported by organizations affiliated to the Union Environment Ministry point to the effective intervention of community-led ‘Van Panchayats’ forest councils in preventing fires.

C. Progress can be made also by providing environmental education to local residents and officials.

D. Significantly, the use of biomass alternatives including cooking gas, has had a beneficial impact on fire risk and his must be expanded.

E. The Uttarakhand government should learn from the severity of the experience, and involved its large rural communities in preparing for the future.

F. It is possible that the changing patterns of climate may be exacerbating the problem; more research is required to conclude whether the EI Nino that set in last year, marked by a lack of pre-monsoon showers, also played a part in intensifying the fires.

121. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a)  E

(b)  B

(c)  F

(d)  A

(e)  C

Answer: (b)

122. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a)  E

(b)  B

(c)  F

(d)  A

(e)  C

Answer: (a)

123. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a)  D

(b)  E

(c)  A

(d)  B

(e)  F

Answer: (c)

124. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?

(a)  E

(b)  D

(c)  B

(d)  A

(e)  C

Answer: (b)

125. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a)  E

(b)  C

(c)  D

(d)  A

(e)  B

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 126-130) In each questions below, two sentences I and II are given. Each sentence I and II has a blank in it. Against the question, five options are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both places in the context of each sentence. Mark that option as your answer.

126. I. I didn’t mean to ………. my heart out to you, but I guess I had to talk to someone.

II. She went to kitchen to ……….. herself a big glass of orange juice.

(a)  make

(b)  prepare

(c)  share

(d)  cry

(e)  pour

Answer: (e)

127. I. As Sheela’s motives were found to the harmless, no disciplinary ………. will be taken against her.

II. I imitated his ……….. even wearing his spectacles, thinking they might help solve the mystery.

(a)  trick

(b)  sentence

(c)  motion

(d)  deed

(e)  action

Answer: (e)

128. I. The plush residential complex will fulfill your wish of living in a ……… location.

II. Both the ……… Minister and our Ambassador in Vienna knew him and valued his contribution.

(a)  home

(b)  posh

(c)  finance

(d)  prime

(e)  aloof

Answer: (d)

129. I. If you are trying to make a ………. impression on your audience, you cannot do so by being ambiguous.

II. The crane is a large and ………. bird.

(a)  intense

(b)  strong

(c)  small

(d)  broken

(e)  agile

Answer: (b)

130. I. Police searched her father’s bag against his…………

II. My father excluded my siblings from his ……….

(a)  will

(b)  property

(c)  wish

(d)  list

(e)  consent

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 131-140) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered in bold. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which best fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

“Even after609 years of Independence, it is disgraceful that we are yet to put our infrastructure in (131). There are two types of infrastructure in the country. One is the basic infrastructure, such as water supply, drainage, education etc. The other is for comfort, such as excellent roads, high speed trains etc. We have not (132) on either. What is the problem? Is it lack of money or funds? It may not (133) be so. We simply do not know how to go about things. What we have done is that we have (134) a number of layers of decision making authorities and too (135) agencies and regulations. We must get a number of (136) to get anything done. We need leadership not only in  politics but also in administration. We need definition of our objectives, such as what we need, why we need, and when we need it. (137)  important point is clarity of ideology. Lastly and most importantly identification of a right person for the job is (138). What we need is systematic change. Leadership and commitment make all the (139) in getting things done. There has to be an appreciation that (140) in infrastructure delivers a force multiplier for the economy.”


(a)  organize

(b)  place

(c)  vicinity

(d)  commitment

(e)  duty

Answer: (b)


(a)  accomplished

(b)  attained

(c)  established

(d)  qualified

(e)  delivered

Answer: (a)


(a)  quietly

(b)  inevitably

(c)  because

(d)  necessarily

(e)  voluntarily

Answer: (d)


(a)  created

(b)  resulted

(c)  caused

(d)  invented

(e)  influenced

Answer: (a)


(a)  great

(b)  abundant

(c)  many

(d)  much

(e)  manifold

Answer: (c)


(a)  hardships

(b)  attempt

(c)  bribe

(d)  clearances

(e)  skill

Answer: (e)


(a)  another

(b)  different

(c)  others

(d)  moreover

(e)  distinctly

Answer: (a)


(a)  expected

(b)  dependent

(c)  awaited

(d)  inherent

(e)  essential

Answer: (e)


(a)  basics

(b)  similarity

(c)  difference

(d)  rigidity

(e)  modesty

Answer: (c)


(a)  building

(b)  investment

(c)  developing

(d)  generating

(e)  modifying

Answer: (b)

Part IV General Awareness

141. According to the current provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the BRI can issue banknotes in the denomination not more than

(a)  Rs 5000

(b)  Rs 1000

(c)  Rs 100000

(d)  Rs 10000

(e)  Rs 50000

Answer: (d)

142. The Valmiki National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which of the following States in India?

(a)  Gujarat

(b)  Madhya Pradesh

(c)  Karnataka

(d)  Assam

(e)  Bihar

Answer: (e)

143. The low-cost train with Wi-Fi, entertainment screens and vending machines for passengers, recently announced by Indian Railways is

(a)  Humsafar Express

(b)  Antyodaya Express

(c)  Tejas Express

(d)  Deen Dayalu Express

(e)  UDAY Express

Answer: (c)

144. In Shishu category of Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana, the maximum loan which can be availed, is

(a)  Rs 500000

(b)  Rs 100000

(c)  Rs 1000000

(d)  Rs 50000

(e)  Rs 10000

Answer: (d)

145. Which of the following States’ capital declare its own mascot?

(a)  Assam

(b)  Karnataka

(c)  Arunachal Pradesh

(d)  Andhra Pradesh

(e)  Himachal Pradesh

Answer: (a)

146. ‘NACH’ has been implemented by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) for banks, financial institutions, corporate and government. The full form of NACH is

(a)  National Automation Cleansing House

(b)  National Automated Clearing House

(c)  National Automatic Cleaning Hose

(d)  National Automate Cleansing House

(e)  National Automatic Cash House

Answer: (b)

147. ‘Wings of Fire’ is an autobiography of which of the following?

(a)  Mahatma Gandhi

(b)  Dr. BR Ambedkar

(c)  Yuvraj Singh

(d)  Pranab Mukherjee

(e)  APJ Abdul Kalam

Answer: (e)

148. The CRR and SLR are reserved in which form with the bank?

(a)  Cash and liquidity

(b)  Liquidity and cash

(c)  Both are reserved as cash

(d)  Both are reserved as liquidity

(e)  Both are reserved in other forms

Answer: (a)

149. The 11-digit alphanumeric code used to make all electronic money transactions across India is known as

(a)  MICR code

(b)  IFSC code

(c)  PIN code

(d)  ESC code

(e)  Demat account number

Answer: (b)

150. India recently (January, 2016) exports first batch of ‘Made in India’ metro coaches to Australia manufactured in

(a)  Allahabad (Uttar Pradesh)

(b)  Ludhiana (Punjab)

(c)  Nagpur (Maharashtra)

(d)  Baroda (Gujarat)

(e)  Jaipur (Rajasthan)

Answer: (d)

151. What is the current reverse repo rate in India?

(a)  21%

(b)  6.50%

(c)  6%

(d)  7%

(e)  15%

Answer: (c)

152. The Ahmedabad City is located on the banks of

(a)  Narmada river

(b)  Sabarmati river

(c)  Yamuna river

(d)  Godavari river

(e)  Tapti river

Answer: (b)

153. The currency of the Republic of Israel is

(a)  Peso

(b)  New Shekel

(c)  Jordanian Dinar

(d)  Egyptian Pound

(e)  Lira

Answer: (b)

154. Recently, an Indian sportsman Neeraj Chopra clinches silver medal in Warsaw (Poland). With which sport he is associated with?

(a)  Boxing

(b)  Javelin throw

(c)  Athletics

(d)  Judo

(e)  Chess

Answer: (b)

155. The RIDF was set-up by the government in 1995-96 for financing ongoing rural infrastructure projects. The term ‘I’ in RIDF stands for

(a)  Industry

(b)  India

(c)  Infrastructure

(d)  Instruction

(e)  International

Answer: (c)

156. The India’s first Defence Industrial Park is located in

(a)  Vishakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh)

(b)  Mangalore (Karnataka)

(c)  Ottappalam (Kerala)

(d)  Surat (Gujarat)

(e)  Nagpur (Maharashtra)

Answer: (c)

157. The Gobi is large desert region in Asia. The desert is located in

(a)  India

(b)  Russia

(c)  China

(d)  Nepal

(e)  Iran

Answer: (c)

158. Recently (May 25, 2016) the Kerala was given a new Chief Minister named

(a)  Oommen Chandy

(b)  VS Achuthanandan

(c)  Pinarayi Vijayan

(d)  K. Chandrashekhar Rao

(e)  N. Chandrababu Naidu

Answer: (c)

159. Anant Geete, represents which of the following constituents in Lok Sabha?

(a)  Raigad (Maharashtra)

(b)  Maval (Maharashtra)

(c)  Ratlam (Madhya Pradesh)

(d)  Tikamgarh (Madhya Pradesh)

(e)  Dharwad (Karnataka)

Answer: (a)

160. HPCA Stadium is a cricket stadium located in the city of

(a)  Vishakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh)

(b)  New Delhi

(c)  Jaipur (Rajasthan)

(d)  Surat (Gujarat)

(e)  Dharmashala (Himachal Pradesh)

Answer: (e)

161. The ECGC Limited provides export credit insurance support to Indian exporters and is controlled by the Ministry of Commerce. The term ‘G’; in abbreviation ECGC stands for

(a)  Global

(b)  Guide

(c)  Ground

(d)  Guarantee

(e)  Guest

Answer: (d)

162. Bank of India is headquartered in

(a)  New Delhi

(b)  Chennai

(c)  Bengaluru

(d)  Mumbai

(e)  Kokata

Answer: (d)

163. The Atomic Power Plant with largest capacity (540 MWe) is located in

(a)  Kaiga Generating System (Karnataka)

(b)  Rajasthan Atomic Power Station (Rajasthan)

(c)  Tarapore Atomic Power Station (Maharashtra)

(d)  Madras Atomic Power Station (Tamil Nadu)

(e)  Kakrapar Atomic Power Station (Gujarat)

Answer: (c)

164. Recently (June, 2016), India pulling all stops to raise funds for Chabahar Port. The port is located in

(a)  Iraq

(b)  Bangladesh

(c)  Sri Lanka

(d)  Iran

(e)  Pakistan

Answer: (d)

165. Piyush Goyal, who recently (June, 2016) launched Surya Mitra Mobile App, is a

(a)  Minister of State for Petroleum and Natural Gas

(b)  Minister of State for Civil Aviation

(c)  Minister of State for Railways

(d)  Minister of State for Culture and Tourism

(e)  Minister of State for Power, Coal and New Renewable Energy

Answer: (e)

166. July 28 is observed as the

(a)  World Hepatitis Day

(b)  International Yoga Day

(c)  World UFO Day

(d)  World Population Day

(e)  World Environment Day

Answer: (a)

167. Which country recently (June, 2016) returned to India over 200 stolen cultural artifacts, some dating back 2000 years?

(a)  United Kingdom

(b)  United States of America

(c)  Russia

(d)  UAE

(e)  South Africa

Answer: (b)

168. Wular Lake, one of the largest fresh water lake in Asia, is in the Indian State of

(a)  Sikkim

(b)  Himachal Pradesh

(c)  Uttarakhand

(d)  Jammu and Kashmir

(e)  Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (d)

169. Credit Information Bureau (India) Limited is India’s first …………… founded in August, 2000.

(a)  debit information company

(b)  credit insurance company

(c)  debit insurance company

(d)  credit information company

(e)  credit stabilizing corporation

Answer: (d)

170. In the context of banking, the term ‘L’ in MCLR stands for

(a)  Lending

(b)  Loss

(c)  Liquidity

(d)  Lender

(e)  Limited

Answer: (a)

171. Nairobi is the capital city of

(a)  Sudan

(b)  Kenya

(c)  South Africa

(d)  Egypt

(e)  Algeria

Answer: (b)

172. The International Development Association (IDA) is an international financial institution, which offers concessional loans and grants to the world’s poorest developing countries. IT is headquartered in

(a)  Washington DC (USA)

(b)  Vienna (Austria)

(c)  New York (USA)

(d)  New Delhi (India)

(e)  Berlin (Germany)

Answer: (a)

173. The Federal Reserve System, also known as the Federal Reserve or simply as the Fed, is the central banking system of

(a)  the UK

(b)  Russia

(c)  Denmark

(d)  the USA

(e)  France

Answer: (d)

174. KSE is a Stock Exchange Index of which of the following countries?

(a)  Pakistan

(b)  India

(c)  China

(d)  Russia

(e)  The USA

Answer: (a)

175. Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport, formerly known as Borjhar Airport, is situated at

(a)  Amravati (Andhra Pradesh)

(b)  Hyderabad (Telangana)

(c)  Itanagar (Arunachal Pradesh)

(d)  Guwahati (Assam)

(e)  Kolkata (West Bengal)

Answer: (d)

176. Which of the following is not a motivational model?

(a)  Economic model

(b)  Learning model

(c)  Psycho-analytic model

(d)  Organizational model

(e)  All of these

Answer: (e)

177. The regulatory authority for Regional Rural Bank (RRB) is of

(a)  sponsor bank

(b)  State government

(c)  Central government

(d)  RBI and NABARD

(e)  SEBI

Answer: (d)

178. The private sector bank, which recently allowed children above 10 years to open savings bank accounts after the SBI is

(a)  IDBI Bank

(b)  HDFC Bank

(c)  ICICI Bank

(d)  Axis Bank

(e)  Kotak Mahindra Bank

Answer: (c)

179. A cheque, which is payable to any person, who presents it for payment at the bank counter, is called

(a)  Cross cheque

(b)  Bearer cheque

(c)  Open cheque

(d)  Close cheque

(e)  Lender cheque

Answer: (b)

180. Which one of the following is not method of selling prices?

(a)  Cost plus pricing method

(b)  Marginal cost pricing method

(c)  Break-even-pricing method

(d)  First-in-first-out cost method

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (d)

181. Bancassurance is a relationship between bank and

(a)  education

(b)  insurance company

(c)  employee

(d)  customer


Answer: (b)

182. Marketing Strategy means

(a)  to introduce in sales promotion scheme

(b)  population

(c)  preservance

(d)  demands

(e)  networth

Answer: (a)

183. Marketing should be resorted

(a)  only among rich person

(b)  depends on income

(c)  only in crowded areas

(d)  depends on the product

(e)  only among the poor

Answer: (d)

184. The incumbent Governor of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is

(a)  Arundhati Bhattacharya

(b)  Raghuram Rajan

(c)  UK Sinha

(d)  D. Subbarao

(e)  YV Reddy

Answer: (b)

185. To survive in the growing competition banks need to implement

(a)  free schemes

(b)  service orientation

(c)  marketing orientation

(d)  core banking

(e)  low interest rates

Answer: (c)

186. The process of gathering information about customers or market is known as

(a)  Customer inspection

(b)  Checking market area

(c)  Need of a bank

(d)  Market research

(e)  Checking customers demand

Answer: (d)

187. When costs are accumulated for an organizational unit or department, it is called

(a)  a cost centre

(b)  a cost benefit

(c)  a cost breaking

(d)  a cost of production

(e)  unit

Answer: (a)

188. Developing and spreading persuasive communications about an offer or product is known as

(a)  Promotion

(b)  Information

(c)  Channel usage

(d)  Distribution

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (a)

189. PMFBY, a scheme launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in January, 2016, is related to

(a)  health insurance

(b)  bank insurance

(c)  crop insurance

(d)  accident insurance

(e)  business insurance

Answer: (c)

190. Which State government’s business is not transacted by the RBI?

(a)  Himachal Pradesh

(b)  Bihar

(c)  Manipur

(d)  Assam

(e)  Sikkim

Answer: (e)

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