# SBI PO Main Online Examination Held on June 4, 2017 Question Paper With Answer Key

SBI PO Main Online Examination Held on June 4, 2017

Part 1 Reasoning and Computer Aptitude

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-3) Study the given information carefully and answer the questions given below :

An input-output is given in different steps. Some mathematical operations are done in each step. No mathematical operation is repeated in next step.

As per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

1. Find the addition of two numbers obtained in step III?

(a)   1.5

(b)   3

(c)   7

(d)   3.5

(e)   Other than those given as options

2. Find the difference between sum to numbers which obtained in 1st step and sum of numbers obtained in all other steps?

(a)   232

(b)   185

(c)   188

(d)   183.5

(e)   Other than those given as options

3.Find the multiplication of the numbers obtained in Step II?

(a)   426

(b)   462

(c)   188

(d)   98

(e)   Other than those given as options

Directions (Q. Nos. 4-8) Study the following information carefully and answers the questions given below :

There are 10 shelves numbered 1, 2 …….10. They are arranged in two rows one above the other. The shelves 1, 2 ……5 are in row 1 and rest in row 2 which is above row 1. The shelves are arranged in increasing order of number given to them. Like the shelf number 1 is placed on extreme left of row 1, then shelf number 2 and so on. Similarly the shelf number 6 is placed on extreme left of row 2, and so on. Each shelf contains a certain number of glass slabs and photo frames. There is at least one glass slab in each shelf. The length of each glass slab is 15 cm and that of each photo frame is 6 cm.

The shelf 3 has length 33 cm. There is one shelf between shelf 3 and yellow shelf in increasing number of order. The yellow shelf contains 1 glass slab and 6 photo frames more than that in shelf 3. The silver is just above the yellow shelf. The silver shelf contains same number of glass slabs as yellow shelf and 1 photo frame. There are 2 shelves between silver and green shelf. The length of green shelf is 6 cm greater than the silver shelf. The blue shelf is immediate next in number to green shelf. The blue shelf contains 1 glass slab more than that in silver shelf and 1 photo frame less than that in green shelf. There is one shelf between blue and orange shelves. The white shelf is just below the orange shelf. There is one shelf between white and red shelf. Black shelf is in row 2. The pink shelf is just below the black shelf. The black shelf has total number of photo frames and glass slabs as in yellow and blue shelf. The orange shelf has 1 glass slab more than black shelf. The length of orange shelf is 24 cm more than the length of pink shelf. The length of violet shelf is 6 cm more than the length of yellow shelf. The white shelf has greater than or equal to four glass slabs. The length of pink shelf is 3 cm more than the shelf immediate next in number. The length of row 1 is 267 cm and that of row 2 is 249 cm.

4. How many more photo frames can the row 2 adjust?

(a)   1

(b)   2

(c)   3

(d)   4

(e)   Other than those given as options

5. The colour of shelf 2 is?

(a)   Violet

(b)   White

(c)   Red

(d)   Pink

(e)   Cannot be determined

6. How many total glass slabs do the silver, red and black shelves contain?

(a)   7

(b)   9

(c)   10

(d)   12

(e)   Other than those given as options

7. What is the total length of the pink, orange and blue shelves?

(a)   146 cm

(b)   168 cm

(c)   141 cm

(d)   133 cm

(e)   126 cm

8. If all photo frames of silver and white shelves are removed and added in black shelf then what will be the length of the black shelf?

(a)   67 cm

(b)   66 cm

(c)   105 cm

(d)   69 cm

(e)   62 cm

9. Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.

A few travelers were severely beaten up by people of country X found the movement of the travelers suspicious. The district authority has sent a police team to enquire about the same.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statement?

(An inference is something which is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given facts.)

(a)   None of those given as options

(b)   Country X is the most preferred tourist destination.

(c)   People of country X are generally suspicious in nature.

(d)   The government of country X generally provides protection to travelers across the country.

(e)   The people of country X dislike presence of strangers in their vicinity.

Directions (Q. Nos. 10-12) Study the following information and answer the questions.

A certain number of people are sitting in a straight, horizontal line, facing North. The 17 year old sits fourth from the left end of the line. Only two people sit between the 17 year old and the 40 year old. There are eight people between the 40 year old and the 19 year old. The 5 year old sits fourth to the left of the 19 year old. The 9 year old sits second to the left of the 5 year old. No one sits to the right of the 19 year old.

10. How many people are sitting in the line?

(a)   9

(b)   16

(c)   Cannot be determined

(d)   10

(e)   11

11. Which of the following correctly represents the position of the 9 years old in the line?

(a)   8th from the right end

(b)   2nd from the right end

(c)   7th from the left end

(d)   3rd to the right of the 40 year old

(e)   8th from the left end

12. If Zara sits exactly between the 5 year old and the 9 year old, how many people sit between Zara and the 40 year old?

(a)   Four

(b)   Five

(c)   Six

(d)   Three

(e)   Two

13. Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.

It has been reported in recent years that a very large number of seats in the architecture colleges in the country remain vacant at the end of the admission session.

Which of the following may be the probable cause of the above effect?

(a)   None of those given as options

(b)   There has always been a very poor success rate among the architecture students.

(c)   The government has recently decided to provide post qualification professional training to all architecture graduates at its own cost.

(d)   There has been a considerable decrease in job opening of architecture graduates in the recent years.

(e)   Students have always prepared to complete graduation in three years time instead of four years for architecture.

14. Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.

Statement The traffic policeman has been recommended for a suitable reward by his superior in recognition of his sincere duty and busting of several gangs of bikers actively involved in chain snatching.

Which of the following can be an assumption implicit in the above statement?

(a)   Rewards recognizing the sincerity and accomplishments of traffic policeman are given.

(b)   The traffic police desires to be monetarily compensated for his efforts.

(c)   The superior is certain that the recommendation would be denied.

(d)   The supporter wants to set an example for his other juniors by recommending the reward.

(e)   The number of criminals apprehended by this particular traffic policeman was highest ever.

Directions (Q. Nos. 15-16) In each question below is given a statement followed by two inferences numbered I and II. An inference is not directly given but can be inferred based on the facts presented. You have to consider the statement and the following inferences and decide which of those is/are implicit in the statement.

15. Statement A leading mobile manufacturer has reintroduced a new model of the existing mobile with modified and peppy looks, but with the same processor leading to increase in sales.

(I) Mobile’s processor is not important as its looks.

(II) Looks of the mobile are one of the important factor to the buyers.

(a)   Both I and II are implicit

(b)   Either I or II is implicit

(c)   Only I is implicit

(d)   Only II is implicit

(e)   Neither I nor II is implicit

(I) All those who join computer courses get highly paid jobs.

(II) Only a computer course can get someone a high paying job.

(a)   Both I and II are implicit

(b)   Only II is implicit

(c)   Only I is implicit

(d)   Either I or II is implicit

(e)   Neither I nor II is implicit

Directions (Q. Nos. 17-20) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

Seven people A, B, C, D, P, Q and R were born in different years- 1988, 1991, 1993, 1996, 1999, 2001 and 2006 and also in different cities- Firozabad, Pune, Indore, Anand, Bhopal, Vellore and Delhi, but not necessarily in the same order.

A was born in an even numbered  year. Only three people were born between A and the one born in Vellore. Only one person was born between B and the one born in Vellore. Only four people were born between B and C. No one was born between C and the one born in Indore. C was born after the one born in Indore. As many people were born between D and the one born in Vellore as between D and the one born in Indore. Only two people were born between D and the one was born between P and Q. Q was born neither in Vellore in Firozabad. The one born in Anand was born in one of the years after R but not in 2006. Only one person was born between the one born in Delhi and the one born in Pune. D was not born in Pune.

17. How many people were born between P and the one born in Pune?

(a)   Three

(b)   More than three

(c)   None

(d)   One

(e)   Two

18. In which city was A born?

(a)   Indore

(b)   Bhopal

(c)   Anand

(d)   Other than those given as options

(e)   Pune

19. In which year was P born?

(a)   1991

(b)   1999

(c)   1988

(d)   2001

(e)   1993

20. As per the given arrangement, R is related to Bhopal in the same way as Q is related to Delhi. Following the same pattern, to which city is D related?

(a)   Indore

(b)   Vellore

(c)   Anand

(d)   None of those given as options

(e)   Pune

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-22) Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

There are two square fields of different size such that the larger one is surrounding smaller field. Four gates are there for each field in the middle of the sides. Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing at different gates but not necessary in the same sequence. The persons who are on the sides of larger  park facing centre and the persons who are at side of smaller park facing outside such that inner sides person and outer sides persons are facing each other. There is one person standing between B and D. C faces B. A is to the immediate right of C. G is not the immediate neighbour of D. G faces neither D nor F. One person is standing between H and F. E is facing the centre.

21. Which of the following persons are facing each other?

(a)   BD

(b)   EB

(c)   FH

(d)   DE

(e)   AH

22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on a certain arrangement. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?

(a)   EF

(b)   CH

(c)   DA

(d)   FC

(e)   BH

Directions (Q. Nos. 23-26) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

Mohan is standing at Point G. He walks 12 m towards East, takes a left turn and walks for 9m to reach point S. He takes a right turn and walks for 5m to reach at a point which is to the South-West of Point J.

Varun, who is standing at Point J, starts walking towards North. He walks for 4m, takes a left turn and stops at Point D after walking for 14m. He turns left and stops at Point R after walking for 8m. Point Z is 9 m North of Point Q and 6m to the West of Point R.

23. If J is 4m North of Y, then what is the distance between Point Y and Mohan’s final position?

(a)   5 m

(b)   16 m

(c)   10 m

(d)   3 m

(e)   Cannot be determined

24. Rohit walks 4 m to the North of point Z, takes a right turn and stops at Point G after walking for 6m. Which of the following Point/s will be nearest to Point G?

(a)   Both D and R

(b)   Only S

(c)   Only D

(d)   Both S and J

(e)   Only Q

25. In which direction is Point D with respect to Point Q?

(a)   North-East

(b)   West

(c)   South-East

(d)   North

(e)   Cannot be determined

26. If Point L is 9 m South of Point R, what will be the distance between Point Q and Point L?

(a)   12 m

(b)   4 m

(c)   8 m

(d)   6 m

(e)   10 m

Directions (Q. Nos. 27-31) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each. In such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 D, E, F, G and H are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing North. In row-2 K, L, M, N and O are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing South. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. People of each row consist one person of the given ages- 19, 22, 29, 35 and 56 (all ages are in years)j. L sits second to the right of K. Neither O nor K sit at any of the extreme ends of the row. The person sitting to the immediate right of the one who faces K is 29 years old. D sits third to the left of the 29 year old. One of the immediate neighbours of the one who faces D is 35 years old. O sits second to the left of the 35 year old. The one who sits to the immediate left of O faces the 19 year old. In row-1, only two people sit between the 19 year old and the 29 year old. E sits third to the right of F. E faces the 56 year old. G and K face each other. One of the immediate neighbours of the one who faces M is 56 years old. The 29 year old person of row 1 faces the 56 years old. N’s age is an even number.

27. Who sits second to the left of E?

(a)   G

(b)   The 56 year old

(c)   H

(d)   The one who faces K

(e)   The 19 year old

28. Which of the following pairs represent the people who are of same age?

(a)   M, D

(b)   L, E

(c)   O, H

(d)   K, F

(e)   N, G

29. One of the people whose age is 19 years of row-2 faces which of the following person?

(a)   G

(b)   K

(c)   E

(d)   N

(e)   L

30. What is the age of M (in years)?

(a)   35

(b)   19

(c)   56

(d)   22

(e)   29

31. Which of the following statement is TRUE with respect to the given information ?

(A) H is 29 years old.       (B) N faces the 22 year old.

(C) F sits to the immediate right of D.

(a)   Only B

(b)   A and B

(c)   All of these

(d)   Only A

(e)   A and C

Directions (Q. Nos. 32-35) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

Six people A, B, C, D E and F like six different colours namely, Blue, Green, Silver, Yellow, Orange and Pink, but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them also studies in one of the three Standards-I, IV and IX. Only two people study in each of the given standards. F studies in an odd numbered standard with the one who likes Silver.

The one who likes Blue is in a higher standard than D. D does not like Silver. F does not like Pink.

Only two people are in a  higher standard than A. A does not like Pink.

The one who likes Yellow and the one who likes blue study in the same standard. D does not like Yellow. C likes green. E does not study in the standard IX.

32. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?

(a)   B-Green

(b)   E-Orange

(c)   A-Blue

(d)   A-Silver

(e)   D-Yellow

33. Which of the following statements is not true with respect to the given arrangement?

(a)   The one who likes Green studies in Standard I.

(b)   B is in a higher standard than C.

(c)   E likes Pink.

(d)   C and A study in the same standard.

(e)   None of the given information is true.

34. Who amongst the following likes Orange?

(a)   B

(b)   D

(c)   Other than those given as options

(d)   E

(e)   A

35. In which standard does C study?

(a)   The one in which E studies

(b)   IX

(c)   The one in which A studies

(d)   The one in which the one who likes Blue studies

(e)   I

36. Study the given information cerefjlly to answer the given question.

There has been a spatte of bus accidents in Country C in the recent months killing large numbers of passengers and injuring many. This has raised serious doubts about the road transport department of the country capability of providing safety to travelers.

Which of the following statements substantiates the views expressed in the above statement?

(a)   Local residents are always the first to provide a helping hand to the passengers in the event of such disasters.

(b)   None of those given as options

(c)   People have no option other than travelling by bus over long distances.

(d)   Most of the bus routes of Country C have been found to be stressed due to wear and tear in the recent times.

(e)   The road transportation of the country has recently come to be known as the safest mode by a national survey.

Directions (Q. Nos. 37-41) Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below.

There are 6 cars P, Q, R, S, T and U which are parked in a straight line. But adjacent cars cannot be alphabetically placed, like car cannot be parked adjacent to car Q. Car Q cannot be parked adjacent to car P and R and so on. Distance between each car is successive multiple of 4. Distance  between cars P and Q is 60 m. Car P is to the left of car Q. There is no car between car P and car Q. Distance between cars Q and T is 84 m. Distance between cars R and U is a multiple of 3. Car U is parked somewhere right of car R.

From a point, car V moves 16 m East, takes a right turn, moves 12 m and stops at Point Z. Pont Z is 15 m North of car P.

If car U goes 7 m in South direction, takes a left turn and moves 16 m, then it turns right and moves 5 m, next takes a left turn again and moves 22 m, then it reaches to point X.

37. How many cars are parked between cars P and S?

(a)   One

(b)   None

(c)   Three

(d)   Two

(e)   Four

38. What is the distance between car Q and Point X?

(a)   13 m

(b)   2√5 m

(c)   6√2 m

(d)   14 m

(e)   6√5 m

39. Car R will have to move how much distance and in which directions to reach to car V?

(a)   15 m North, 38 m East

(b)   24 m East, 17 m North

(c)   44 m East, 15 m North

(d)   17 m North, 38 m East

(e)   17 m North, 44 m East

40. Car S will have to move much distance and in which directions to reach to point X?

(a)   10 m West, 30 m South

(b)   12 m South, 30 m West

(c)   12 m South, 30 m East

(d)   32 m West, 10 m West

(e)   36 M West, 10 m South

41. If car V moves 28 m East from Point Z, takes a right turn and stops at point Y after moving 17 m, then car Q is in which direction with respect to point Y?

(a)   North-West

(b)   South-East

(c)   Cannot be determined

(d)   North-East

(e)   South-West

Directions (Q. Nos. 42-45) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

Five boxes viz. E, F, G, H and I are placed above one another. Each box is of a different colour viz. Pink, Blue, Grey, White and Black. The grey box is kept immediately above H. Only two boxes are kept between the pink and the blue boxes. The pink box is kept at one of the positions above the blue box as well as H. More than one box is kept between the blue box and e. E is not pink in colour. As many boxes are kept between E and they grey box as between G and the white box. H is not white in colour. F is kept at one of the positions below the pink box but not immediately below it.

42. How many boxes are kept between I and the black box?

(a)   Cannot be determined

(b)   Three

(c)   None

(d)   One

(e)   Two

43. Which of the following is/are true with respect to the given arrangement?

(1) There are only two boxes between E and the blue box.

(2) F is placed at the bottom-most position.

(3) There is only one box between E and the grey box.

(a)   1 and 2

(b)   2 and 3

(c)   Only 1

(d)   Only 2

(e)   Only 3

44. Which of the following boxes is black in colour?

(a)   H

(b)   I

(c)   E

(d)   G

(e)   Cannot be determined

45. Which of the following represents the colour of i?

(a)   Grey

(b)   White

(c)   Black

(d)   Blue

(e)   Pink

Part 2 Data Analysis and Interpretation

46. PQR is a triangle and Qs is altitude.

Quantity I. Value of Side PS

II. Value of side SR

(a)   Quantity I > Quantity II

(b)   Quantity I < Quantity II

(c)   Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

(d)   Quantity I = Quantity II

(e)   Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation

47. Quantity I. Value of

II. Value of 228

(a)   Quantity I > Quantity II

(b)   Quantity I < Quantity II

(c)   Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

(d)   Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

(e)   Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation

48. Quantity I. Product of odd integers from -5 to 13 inclusive.

II. Product of even integers from -12 to 6 inclusive.

(a)   Quantity I > Quantity II

(b)   Quantity I < Quantity II

(c)   Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

(d)   Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

(e)   Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation

49. RSTU is a parallelogram and SU is a diagonal of the parallelogram.

Quantity I. Value of < x

II. Value of < y

(a)   Quantity I > Quantity II

(b)   Quantity I < Quantity II

(c)   Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

(d)   Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

(e)   Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation

50. Five men and five women are to be arranged in a row while seating in a party.

Quantity I. Number of ways of arranging 5 men and 5 women such that no two men or women are adjacent to each other.

II. Number of ways of arranging 5 men and 5 women such that all men sit together.

(a)   Quantity I > Quantity II

(b)   Quantity I < Quantity II

(c)   Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

(d)   Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

(e)   Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation

Directions (Q. Nos. 51-60) Study the following pie-chart and table carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Some values are missing. Answer the questions on the basis of given table and information in question. Speed of stream is same for both upstream and downstream distance on respective days

51. Time taken to cover the upstream distance on Friday is same as time taken to cover the downstream distance on Thursday. Total speed of still water on Thursday and Friday is 10 km/h. Find the ratio of speed of still water on Thursday and Friday.

(a)   6 : 13

(b)   4 : 11

(c)   7 : 13

(d)   4 : 15

(e)   7 : 12

52. On Monday, the boat takes a total of 4 hours 30 minutes to cover both upstream and downstream distance. Ratio of speed of boat in still water in going upstream to downstream is 4 : 5. Find the speed of boat in still water while going downstream.

(a)   13 km/h

(b)   15 km/h

(c)   9 km/h

(d)   10 km/h

(e)   12 km/h

53. On Tuesday, ratio of speed of boat in still water in going upstream to downstream is 3 : 8. Also difference in speed of boat in still water in going upstream and downstream is 5 km/h. If the total time taken by boat to cove upstream and downstream distance is 14 hours on Tuesday, find the speed of stream.

(a)   2 km/h

(b)   1 km/h

(c)   3 km/h

(d)   1.5 km/h

(e)   2.5 km/h

54. On Wednesday, ratio of speed of boat in still water in going upstream to downstream is 4 : 5. The difference between time to cover upstream distance and downstream distance is 5 hours, find the total time taken to cover upstream distance and downstream distance.

(a)   5 h

(b)   4 h

(c)   7 h

(d)   8 h

(e)   6 h

55. Time taken to cover the upstream distance on Thursday is 12 hours more than time taken to cover the downstream distance on Friday. Total speed of still water on Thursday and Friday is 11 km/h. What will be the ratio of speed of still water on Thursday and Friday?

(a)   6 : 7

(b)   4 : 5

(c)   7 : 1

(d)   5 : 6

(e)   7 : 8

56. MLKJ is a trapezium. ABCD and PQRS are two rhombus. Diagonals of ABCD are 6 cm and 8 cm. One of the angle of PQRS is 120° and diagonal bisecting that angle measures 15 cm. Side of ABCD = ML, Side of PQRS = JK. Find ON (median of trapezoid).

(a)   10 cm

(b)   12 cm

(c)   8 cm

(d)   15 cm

(e)   9 cm

Directions (Q. Nos. 57-61) Study the information carefully to answer the question that follows.

A school consisting of 1560 students has boys and girls in the ratio of 7 : 5 respectively. All the students are enrolled for different country tours viz. Russia, Switzerland and Japan. One-fifth of the boys are enrolled for only Switzerland tour, 20% of the girls are enrolled for only Japan tour, 10% of the boys are enrolled for only Russia tour, 24% of the girls are enrolled for both Russia and Switzerland tour together. The number of girls enrolled for only Russia tour is 200% of the boys enrolled in the same. One-thirteenth of the boys are enrolled for all the three tour together. The respective ratio of boys enrolled for Switzerland and Japan tour together to the girls enrolled for the same is 2 : 1 respectively, 10% of the girls are enrolled for only Switzerland tour where as 8% of the girls are enrolled for both Switzerland and Japan tour together. The remaining girls are enrolled for all the three tour together. The number of boys enrolled for Russia and Switzerland tour together is 50% of the number of girls enrolled for the same. The remaining boys are enrolled for only Japan tour.

57. What is the respective ratio of the number of girls enrolled for only Japan tour and number of boys enrolled for Switzerland tour together to the number of boys enrolled for the Japan tour and number of girls enrolled for Switzerland tour together?

(a)   77 : 52

(b)   75 : 52

(c)   52 : 75

(d)   52 : 77

(e)   None of these

58. Number of girls enrolled for only Switzerland, Russia and Japan tour together is, what percent of the boys together enrolled for the same? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)

(a)   37.57%

(b)   57.29%

(c)   61.93%

(d)   55.22%

(e)   54.26%

59. What is the total number of students enrolled for all the three tour and number of girls enrolled for Switzerland and Russia tour together and number of boys enrolled for Switzerland and Japan tour together?

(a)   395

(b)   2415

(c)   385

(d)   390

(e)   393

60. What is the sum of the total number of boys who enrolled for Switzerland and the total number of girls who enrolled for same tour together?

(a)   872

(b)   752

(c)   802

(d)   772

(e)   None of these

61. Total number of girls enrolled for Russia is approximately what percent of the total number of students for the school?

(a)   37%

(b)   19%

(c)   32%

(d)   14%

(e)   26%

Directions (Q. Nos. 62-64) Study the given information and answer the following question.

There are three bags A, Band C. In each bag there are three types of coloured balls Yellow, green and Black. In bag A, number. of yellow coloured balls are y and number of green coloured balls are g. Number of green coloured balls are 4 more than the number of yellow coloured balls. When one ball is picked at random then the probability of getting black colour ball is 5/13. The value of y is 18 2/11% less than g.

In bag B, number of yellow coloured balls is 22 2/9% more than that of bag A. If two balls are picked at random from bag B then the probability of getting both green colour ball is 4/37. Total number of balls in bag B is 75.

In bag C, the ratio of number of green coloured balls and number of black coloured balls is 7 : 5. Total number of green and black coloured balls is 36. If one of the  balls is picked at random then the probability of getting one yellow ball is 7/13.

62. If x number of yellow balls from bag b are taken and p laced into bag a and 20% of black balls from bag A are taken and placed into in bag B. If we pick one ball from bag B then the probability that the ball is of black colour is 11/26. then find the value of x?

(a)   5

(b)   3

(c)   2

(d)   6

(e)   None of these

63. If one ball picked at random from each of the bag A and bag B then find the probability that both of the balls are of the same colour?

(a)   (21 × 47) / (65 × 75)

(b)   (22 × 43)/ (65 ×75)

(c)   (11 × 17) /(65 × 75)

(d)   (22 × 47) / (65 × 75)

(e)   Cannot be determined

64. Difference between the number of green balls in bag A and bag C is how much percent more/less than the sum of the number of black balls in bag A and bag C together?

(a)   100%

(b)   95%

(c)   97.5%

(d)   102.5%

(e)   Other than those given as options

Directions (Q. Nos. 65-69) Study the following table and answer the following questions.

The following table is related to profit and loss and some values are missing. All the discounts are on the Marked Price (MP) and the Profits are on Cost Price (CP).

65. If the ratio of the Cost price of the article M and article Q is 3 : 4, then what will be the discount on article Q?

(a)   12%

(b)   15%

(c)   8%

(d)   10%

(e)   20%

66. If the discount (in %) and profit (in %) of the article P is same, then what will be the marked price of article P?

(a)   Rs 2800

(b)   Rs 2200

(c)   Rs 3500

(d)   Rs 3000

(e)   Rs 4000

67. If the marked price of article M is Rs 130 more than the cost price of article N and the difference between marked price and selling price of article N is 684, then what will be the discount on article N?

(a)   18%

(b)   25%

(c)   30%

(d)   20%

(e)   19%

68. Cost price of article P is how much percent less than the marked price of article M?

(a)   26%

(b)   25.04%

(c)   29.68%

(d)   31%

(e)   28.02%

69. The ratio of discount (in %) and profit (in %) is 4 : 3 of the article O. Find cost price of article O.

(a)   Rs 1200

(b)   Rs 2800

(c)   Rs 3500

(d)   Rs 2000

(e)   Rs 2500

Directions (Q. Nos. 70-74) Study the following graph and answer the following questions.

A, B, C, D and E are five persons employed to complete a job X.

Note 1. All person worked on the job X for whole number days.

Note 2 Two jobs Y and Z are similar to job X and require same effort as required by job X.

70. A and C worked on job Y working alternatively for 10 days. B and D then worked together for x days. If 1/36 of the job was still remained, then find the value of x?

(a)   2 days

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)   1 day

71. E worked on job Z for 5 days and the remaining job was completed by A, B and D who worked on alternate days starting with A followed by B and D in that order. What will be the number. of days B has worked for?

(a)   2

(b)   4

(c)   9

(d)   3

(e)   None of these

72. If A, C and E worked on job Z for 2 days each and the remaining job was done by B and D. If the ratio of number of. days for which B and D worked is in ratio 20 : 21, then what is the number of days for which B worked?

(a)   50 days

(b)

(c)

(d)   4 days

(e)   None of these

73. If the ratio of number of days for which B and D worked on job X is 4 : 3, then find the difference between number of days for which B and D worked?

(a)   2 days

(b)   3 days

(c)   1 day

(d)   4 days

(e)   None of these

74. If C worked on job Y with 5/4 times his given efficiency and was assisted by B every 3rd day, then find the time taken by C to complete the job?

(a)   13 days

(b)

(c)

(d)   12 days

(e)   None of these

75. What is principal amount?

Statement

(I) The simple interest obtained on the principal after 2 years at 8% rate of interest is Rs 450 less than compound interest obtained on the principal after 2 years at 8% per annum.

(II) The sum becomes double in 10 years at 6% per annum rate of simple interest.

(III) The compound interest obtained on the principal amount is Rs 4540 after 2 years at the rate of 8% compounded annually.

(a)   Only I

(b)   All I, II and III together

(c)   II and III together

(d)   Only I or III

(e)   I or II or III

76. What is the speed of boat in still water ?

Statements

(I) The boat can cover 12 km downstream distance in 2 hours.

(II) Speed of the stream is three-fourth the speed of boat in still water.

(III) The boat can cover 12 km upstream distance in 4 hours.

(a)   I and III together

(b)   Only II

(c)   I and II together

(d)   I and either II or III

(e)   Any of the two statements

77. A person borrowed some money at compound interest for 2 years. What will be the amount required to return after 2 years?

Statements

(I) If the amount was borrowed at simple interest, then after 5 years Rs 600 was required to pay as simple interest.

(II) The rate of interest is 6% per annum.

(III) The sun of money borrowed is 10 times the amount required to be paid as simple interest after 2 years.

(a)   II and I or III

(b)   II and III together

(c)   I and III together

(d)   All statements are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)   All of these

78. Shopkeeper gained how much by selling his products in November, 2016?

Statements

(I) He earned 40% more profit in December, 2016 as compared to October, 2016.

(II) In December, 2016 he earned 10% more profit than in November 2016.

(III) The total profit earned in November, 2016 and October, 2016 was Rs 55000.

(a)   I and III

(b)   II and III

(c)   I and II

(d)   All of these

(e)   All statements are not sufficient to answer the question.

79. In how many days 6 men and 5 women can done the work working together?

Statements

(I) The ratio of efficiency of man to woman is 2 : 1.

(II) 9 women can complete three-five of the work in 15 days.

(III) 6 men and a child together can complete 1/4th work in 12 days while 6 women and the child together can complete two-third of the work in 16 days.

(a)   I and either II or III

(b)   Any of the two statements

(c)   I and II

(d)   All of these

(e)   None of these

80. A vessel contains 2.5 L of water and 10 L of milk 20% of the contents of the vessel are removed. To the remaining contents,, x L of water is added to reverse the ratio of water and milk. Then y L of milk is added again to reverse the ratio of water and milk. What is the value of y?

(a)   100 L

(b)   110 L

(c)   120 L

(d)   130 L

(e)   None of these

Part 3 General Awareness

81. Kavinder Singh and Satish Kumar is related to which game?

(a)   Boxing

(b)   Cricket

(c)   Hockey

(d)   Football

82. As per report of Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) India’s military expenditure in 2016 grew by

(a)   9.5%

(b)   8.5%

(c)   8.7%

(d)   9.3%

(e)   9.1%

83. What is the meaning of ‘C’ in PCA?

(a)   Prompt Collateral Action

(b)   Prompt Corrective Action

(c)   Prompt Credit Action

(d)   Prompt Cumulative Action

(e)   Prompt Competitive Action

84. India Licesing Expo (ILE), India’s first and most influential brand licensing show will take place of August 20-21 in

(a)   New Delhi

(b)   Mumbai

(c)   Kolkata

(d)   Chennai

(e)   Bengaluru

85. Who is highest wicket-taker in women’s ODIs?

(a)   Mithali Raj

(b)   Neetu David

(c)   Jhulan Goswami

(d)   Anum Chopra

(e)   Anju Jain

86. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) has constituted a Technical Committee in accordance with Regulation 14 of the IBBI (Information Utilities) Regulations 2017. The Technical Committee (Committee) will be headed by?

(a)   Mukulita Das

(b)   Navrang Saini

(c)   Dr. MS Sahoo

(d)   Dr. RB Barman

(e)   Shipra Shetty

87. India’s growth for 2018-19 as projected by IMF?

(a)   7.1%

(b)   7.7%

(c)   7.5%

(d)   7.4%

(e)   7.2%

88. National Financial Switch (NFS) is run by

(a)   NPCI

(b)   Reserve Bank of India

(c)   National Information Centre

(d)   Institute of Development and Research in Banking

(e)   None of the above

89. Who was elected as head of FIFA’s governance committee at the world football governing body’s 67th Congress in Baharian’s capital city of Manama?

(a)   Justice Dipak Misra

(b)   Justice Jasti Chelameswar

(c)   Justice Mukul Mudgal

(e)   Justice Utpal Sahu

90. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)in India grew 18% during 2016 to touch ……… data released by the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP).

(a)   \$ 53 billion

(b)   \$46 billion

(c)   \$57 billion

(d)   \$45 billion

(e)   \$54 billion

91. Fiscal deficit for 2017-18 pegged at …… of GDP as per Union Budget 2017-18.

(a)   4.6%

(b)   4.2%

(c)   3.2%

(d)   3.8%

(e)   4.4%

92. The government has decided to make tax evasion of over ……. under the proposed Goods and Services Tax (GST) the regime as non-bailable offence.

(a)   Rs 2 crore

(b)   Rs 3 crore

(c)   Rs 5 crore

(d)   Rs 10 crore

(e)   Rs  1 crore

93. What is the meaning of ‘S’ in MSF?

(a)   Marginal Standing Facility

(b)   Marginal Stock Facility

(c)   Marginal Share Facility

(d)   Marginal Special Facility

(e)   Marginal Saving Facility

94. What is the full form of APBS?

95. The target of digital transactions through UPI, USSD, Aadhaar, IMPS for 2017-18?

(a)   Rs 2500 crore

(b)   Rs 5000 crore

(c)   Rs 7500 crore

(d)   Rs 10000 crore

(e)   Rs 6000 crore

96. Cheque written by drawer and dated at some point in past is called?

(a)   Ante-dated cheque

(b)   Post Dated Cheque

(c)   Stale Cheque

(d)   All of these

(e)   None of these

97. As per RBI norms on small banks, initial promoter stake for first 5 years should not be less than?

(a)   30%

(b)   15%

(c)   20%

(d)   35%

(e)   40%

98. Consider the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) :

(A) It seeks to promote cashless economy in the country

(B) It has been developed by National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)

(C) It facilitates the user to have a single virtual address for multiple bank accounts

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a)   Only A

(b)   A and B

(c)   All of these

(d)   A and C

(e)   None of these

99. The base year for calculating key economic growth from 2004-05 changed to?

(a)   2010-11

(b)   2011-12

(c)   2014-15

(d)   2015-16

(e)   2013-14

100. Which one of the following is the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks in the event of any shortfall of funds?

(a)   Benchmark Prime Lending Rate

(b)   Annual Percentage Rate

(c)   Bank Rate

(d)   Repo Rate

(e)   Interest Rate

101. Finland has become the first country in Europe to pay its unemployed citizens a basic monthly income, amounting to

(a)   \$ 587

(b)   \$ 636

(c)   \$ 437

(d)   \$ 735

(e)   \$ 235

102. Total number of ATMs of SBI after the merger?

(a)   69000 ATMs

(b)   59000 ATMs

(c)   79000 ATMs

(d)   89000 ATMs

(e)   99000 ATMs

103. The Government of India (GOI) has approved Rs 681 crores as seed capital for building a venture for electronic devices with total corpus?

(a)   Rs 6535 crore

(b)   7137 crore

(c)   Rs 6831 crore

(d)   Rs 8323 crore

(e)   Rs 7931 crore

104. How much amount has allocated by the government to MGNREGA in this year’s (2017-18) Budget?

(a)   Rs 56000 crore

(b)   Rs 48000 crore

(c)   Rs 60000 crore

(d)   Rs 62000 crore

(e)   Rs 68000 crore

105. Risk of collapse of entire financial system on entire market is called

(a)   Systemic risk

(b)   Basis risk

(c)   Yield curve risk

(d)   Embedded option risk

(e)   Mismatch risk

106. Payments bank not permitted to

(a)   offer loans

(b)   offer interest on deposits

(c)   cash back offer

(d)   offer saving account

(e)   offer current account

107. The NBFCs are allowed to accept/renew public deposits for a minimum period of 12 months and the maximum period of …….. months.

(a)   18 months

(b)   24 months

(c)   36 months

(d)   48 months

(e)   60 months

108. The government of India has changed CII base year from 1981 to

(a)   1991

(b)   2001

(c)   2011

(d)   2010

(e)   2015

109. Metric which defines operating liquidity available to business is known as?

(a)   Gross Capital

(b)   Temporary Capital

(c)   Market Capital

(d)   Net Capital

(e)   Working Capital

110. An estimated \$ ………… in black money entered India during 2005-2014, US-based think tank Global Financial Integrity(GFI).

(a)   770 billion

(b)   1215 billion

(c)   565 billion

(d)   931 billion

(e)   836 billion

111. Name the person, who will head a task force to assess the extent of employment creation at different points of time, based on ‘credible data’.

(a)   Ashok Rahane

(b)   Subhash Dogra

(c)   Vipin Ahlawat

(d)   Mohd. Nasim Zaidi

(e)   Arvind Panagriya

112. Institute for Development & Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) is located in

(a)   Mumbai

(b)   Bengaluru

(c)   Chennai

(d)   Kolkata

113. Class of derivative whose value is at least partly derived from one or more underlying stock exchange securities? (Trade, Commodity, Credit, Interest Rate, Equity)

(a)   Equal Derivative

(b)   Stock Derivative

(c)   Equity Derivative

(d)   Supply Derivative

(e)   Equal Value Derivative

114. The framework of Joint Lenders’ Forum (JLF) by RBI is to strengthen the system for revitalizing the

(a)   fixed assets in the economy

(b)   stressed assets in the economy

(c)   linked assets in the economy

(d)   basic assets in the economy

(e)   None of the above

115. Amendment to Section …….. of Negotiable Instruments Acts to include the electronic image of a truncated cheque and cheque in electronic form.

(a)   5

(b)   6

(c)   7

(d)   8

(e)   3

116. The target for agricultural credit in 2017-18 has been fixed at a record level of

(a)   Rs 10 lakh crore

(b)   Rs 2 lakh crore

(c)   Rs 5 lakh crore

(d)   Rs 15 lakh crore

(e)   Rs 20 lakh crore

117. 2017 Index of Economic Freedom is topped by which country?

(a)   Singapore

(b)   Germany

(c)   India

(d)   China

(e)   Hong Kong

118. As per RBI, ARCs must have the minimum net corpus of …….. crore by 2019.

(a)   Rs 100 crore

(b)   Rs 200 crore

(c)   Rs 300 crore

(d)   Rs 500 crore

(e)   Rs 1000 crore

119. The UN Day of Vesak Celebration is internationally a cultural and humanistic festival. 14th UN Vesak Day celebrated in which country?

(a)   Bhutan

(b)   Sri Lanka

(c)   India

(d)   Nepal

(e)   Mali

120. Using SBI Mingle, the bank’s customers can do a host of banking services on their …………accounts at their own convenience.

Part 4 English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 121-125) In each question given below a sentence is given and is divided into three parts I, II and III. For each part a correction statement is also given. You have to determine which part requires correction and mark it as your answer.

121. Today’s Britain find itself in a different era./ The vote for Brexit has committed it to leaving its biggest trading partner/ and snuggling closer to others, while including a less-welcoming America.

(I) Today Britain finds itself in a different era.

(II) The vote for Brexit has been committed it to leaving its biggest trading partner.

(III) and snuggling closer to others, including a less-welcoming America.

(a)   Only I

(b)   Both I and III

(c)   Both II and III

(d)   Both I and II

(e)   Only II

122. One reason Donald Trump is inviting acres of commentary / is that he keeps the world guessing what he means/ and where his foreign policy is heading.

(I) One reason Donald Trump invites acres of commentary

(II) is that he kept the world guessing what he means

(III) and that his foreign policy is heading.

(a)   Both I and II

(b)   Both II and III

(c)   Only II

(d)   Only I

(e)   All of these

123. In some rich countries ex-smokers now outnumber those who still puffed on./ But in many poor countries smoking/ is on the rise, ,particularly as per men.

(I) In some rich countries ex-smokers now outnumber those who still puff on.

(II) Likewise in many poor countries smoking

(III) is on the rise, particularly among men.

(a)   I and II

(b)   II and III

(c)   I and III

(d)   Only I

(e)   All of these

124. As the individual and group performance picture/ became clear to Paula, she began to pine for the/ simplicity of her life as an individual contributor.

(I) Hence the individual and group performance picture

(II) became clear to Paula, she assumed to pine for the

(III) Simpleness of her new life as an individual contributor.

(a)   Only I

(b)   Only II

(c)   I and II

(d)   II and III

(e)   None of these

125. When you have approached your colleagues and boss with the business case/ for making changes, be sure not to come across as indignant/ or self-righteous – after all, they may be part of the problem.

(I) When you approach your colleagues and boss with the business case

(II) for making changes, be sure as not come across as indignant

(III) or self-righteous- after all, it can be part of the problem.

(a)   Only II

(b)   Only I

(c)   I and II

(d)   II and III

(e)   None of these

126. (I) Today, health systems operate on a ……….. of how involved patients are in the delivery of their ……….. .

(II) The board members of the telecom company have disregarded the …….. issue because they ……… more about profit.

(a)   factor; service

(b)   spectrum ; care

(c)   guideline; factor

(d)   comprehension ; care

(e)   variety ; thought

127. (I) As other industries have become more ……. in detecting and blocking cyberattacks, criminals have had to find new ………. of data.

(II) Only ……… votes are able to differentiate between information ………. .

(a)   predominant ; outcome

(b)   developed ; change

(c)   sophisticated ; sources

(e)   reliable ; technology

128. (I) A new have of analytics and technology could help ……. cut costly and unnecessary hospitalizations while improving …….. for patients.

(II) The unified, streamlined approach ………… reduces the amount of work required to implement Learning ……….. through the intelligent reuse of assessment workflows in the grading process.

(a)   efficiently ; knowledge

(b)   effectively ; presence

(c)   dynamically ; cost

(d)   redundantly ; submission

(e)   dramatically ; outcomes

129. (I) Each year business leaders ………… to an overall revenue growth target, but the reality is that growth within a business is often very …….. .

(II) If you really want to grow a serious beard, you have to …….. to it or else you may end up getting an ……….. beard.

(a)   dedicate ; unseen

(b)   commit ; uneven

(c)   cooperate ; unevenly

(d)   predict ; unfriendly

(e)   decide ; reliable

130. (I) Research shows that even if reports about ……. turn out to be false, employee can suffer negative …….. .

(II) …….. always has ………….., but God forgives our sins.

(a)   performance, impact

(b)   misdeed, fallback

(c)   success, lessons

(d)   wrongdoing. consequences

(e)   report, impact

Directions (Q. Nos. 131-135) Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

Paragraph 1At a global financial services firm we worked with, a long time customer accidentally submitted the same application file to two offices. Though the employees who reviewed the file were supposed to follow the same guidelines-and thus arrive at similar outcomes-the separate offices returned very different quotes. Taken aback, the customer gave the business to a competitor. From the point of view of the firm, employees in the same role should have been interchangeable, but in this case they were not. Unfortunately, this is a common problem.

Paragraph 2 Professionals in many organizations are assigned arbitrarily to cases; appraisers in credit-rating agencies, physicians in emergency rooms, underwriters of loans and insurance, and others. Organizations expect consistency from the professionals: Identical cases should be treated similarly, if not identically. The problem is that humans are unreliable decision makers: their judgments are strongly influenced by irrelevant factors, such as their current mood, the time since their last meal, and the weather. We call the chance variability of judgments noise. It is an invisible tax on the bottom line of many companies.

Paragraph 3 Some jobs are noise-free. Clerks at a bank or a post office per complex tasks, but they must follow strict rules that limit subjective judgment and guarantee, by design, that identical cases will be treated identically. In contrast, medical professionals, loan officers, project managers, judges, and executives all make judgments calls, which are guided by informal experience and general principles rather than by rigid rules. And it they don’t reach precisely the same answer that every other person in their ole would, that’s acceptable; this is what we mean when we say that a decision is “a matter of judgment.” A firm hose employees exercise judgment does not expect decisions to be entirely free of noise. But often noise is far above the level that executive would consider tolerable- and they are completely unaware of it.

Paragraph 4 The prevalence of noise has been demonstrated in several studies. Academic researchers have repeatedly confirmed that professionals often contradict their own prior judgments when given the same data on different occasions. For instance, when software developers were asked on two separate days to estimate the completion time for a given task, the hours they projected differed by 71%, on average. When pathologists made two assessments of the severity of biopsy results, the correlation between their ratings was only 61 (out of a perfect 1.0), indicating that they made inconsistent diagnoses quite frequently. Judgments made by different people are even more likely to diverge. Research has confirmed that in many tasks, experts’ decisions are highly variable; valuing stocks, appraising real estate, sentencing criminals, evaluating job performance, auditing financial statements, and more. The unavoidable conclusion is that professionals often make decisions that deviate significantly from those of their peers, from their own prior decisions, and from rules that they themselves claim to follow.

Paragraph 5 Noise is often insidious: It causes even successful companies to lose substantial amounts of money without realizing it. How substantial? To get an estimate, we asked executives in one of the organizations we studied the following: “Suppose the optimal assessment of a case is \$ 100000. What would be the cost to the organization if the professional in charge of the case assessed a value of \$ 115000? What would be the cost of assessing it at \$85000?” The cost estimates were high. Aggregated over the assessments made every year, the cost of noise was measured in billions- an unacceptable number even for a large global firm. The value of reducing noise even by a few percentage points would be in the tens of millions. Remarkably, the organization had completely ignored the question of consistency until then.

131. What is the opposite of the phrase “Unfortunately, this is a common problem” as mentioned in the Paragraph 1?

(a)   Employees often constitute variable decision-making capability even if they are assigned the same task to perform.

(b)   Even though employees are expected to come out with fair, positive and noise-free results, organizations find it almost an opposite and contradictory outcome to it.

(c)   A major problem is that the outcomes of decisions taken by different employees in the organization often aren’t known until far in the future, if at all.

(d)   Employees have to follow the strict norms and rules of the organization which often allow them to take rationale and conventional decisions in the best interest of the organization which hardly go unnoticed.

(e)   None of the above

132. What does the author mean by the term ‘noise’ as used in Paragraph 2?

(I) In an organization where work efficiency decides the potential of its employees, employees find it difficult to cope with their decisions and most of the time they land up in variable outcome to their motive which is termed as Noise.

(II) Noise is a problem which is effectively invisible in the business world; it can  be observed that audiences get quite surprised when the reliability of professional judgment is mentioned as an issue.

(III) Noise is a problem associated with the decision-making process of the employees involved in the corporate world which is invisible plausible alternatives to every judgment they make.

(a)   Only I is correct.

(b)   Only III is correct.

(c)   II and III are correct.

(d)   I and III are correct.

(e)   All are correct.

133. Why according to the author decision is considered as “a matter of judgment” as mentioned in Paragraph 3?

(I) In most of the cases, decisions are guided by informal experience and general principles rather than by rigid rules.

(II) In certain cases, medical professionals, judges and executives have to take decisions which are beyond the strict rules that control the instinctive judgment which might not be noise-free, yet acceptable to the system.

(III) Long experience on a job always increases people’s confidence in their judgments, but in the absence of rapid feedback, confidence is no guarantee of either accuracy or consensus.

(a)   Only I is correct.

(b)   Only III is correct.

(c)   I and III are correct.

(d)   I and II are correct.

(e)   All are correct.

134. Which of the following statements can follow paragraph 14 to form a connection with paragraph 5?

(a)   The surprising result of much research is that in many contexts reasoned rules are about as accurate as statistical models built with outcome data.

(b)   Uncomfortable as people may be with the idea, studies have shown that while humans can provide useful input to formulas, algorithms do better in the role of final decision maker.

(c)   Executives who are concerned with accuracy should also confront the prevalence of inconsistency in professional judgments.

(d)   Controlling noise is hard, but we expected that an organization that conducts an audit and evaluates the cost of noise in dollars will conclude that reducing random variability is worth the effort.

(e)   The major puzzle for us was the fact that neither organization had ever considered reliability to be an issue.

135. What is/are the author’s viewpoint (s) in accordance with Paragraph 5?

(I) The author is skeptical about the credibility of the research works on the measurement of cost of noise.

(II) The author is critical about the consequences of the problem of noise as it leads organizations to lose substantial amounts of money that often go unrealized.

(III) The author feels that the problems of noise is severe enough to require action.

(a)   Only I

(b)   I and III

(c)   II and III

(d)   All of these

(e)   Only II

Directions (Q. Nos. 136-140) In the following question part of the sentence is given in bold, it is then followed by three sentences which try to explain the meaning of the phrase given in bold. Choose the best set of alternatives from the five options given below each question which explains the meaning of the phrase correctly without altering the meaning of the sentence given as questions.

136. The problem of secularism in independent India lies in the fact that the Constitution was essentially a Western construct with the sidelining of the Gandhian Influence in the Constituent Assembly.

(I) Secularism in India is highly motivated by the Western pattern of Constitution with hardly any presence of Gandhian Influence.

(II) The Constitution was basically influenced by the culture followed in Western societies and it hardly considered the Gandhian Influence in the Constituent Assembly which depicts the problem of secularism in independent India.

(III) The developmental projects of western countries  had such an impact on Indian Constitution that it ignored the Gandhian Influence and today we are facing the problem of secularism in the country.

(a)   Only I is correct.

(b)   Only II is correct.

(c)   I and II are correct.

(d)   II and III are correct

(e)   All are correct.

137. The dichotomy is the striking feature. An estimated 25% of our population is economically advanced with access to the latest technology, while the rest wallows in inhuman conditions.

(I) An estimated  25% of our population has access to the latest technology forming economically advanced populace while the rest still lives a savage life; it make the difference more evident.

(II) What is more striking is that one-fourth of our population is economically and technologically advanced while the rest is deprived of any such facilities.

(III) It is a distinct feature that around 25% of our population is economically advanced with proficiency in technology and communication while the rest is still reeling under poverty.

(a)   Only I is correct.

(b)   Only III is correct.

(c)   II and III are correct.

(d)   I and II are correct.

(e)   All are correct.

138. Without casting aspersions on anyone, it must be noted that prolonged teething troubles of the Coast Guard resulted from the Navy considering the service a ‘poor relative’.

(I) There is a consistent extension of technical problems that the Coast Guard is facing as the Navy considers the service its poor correspondents.

(II) With no intention of criticism, it is to be noted that the sustained short-term problems of the Coast Guard resulted because Navy considered the service a poor correspondent.

(III) Without tossing any aspersions, the perpetual existence of long-term worries is a matter of concern for the Coast Guard as its is resulted from the navy considering the service its poor fellow.

(a)   Only I is correct.

(b)   Only II is correct.

(c)   I and III are correct.

(d)   II and III are correct.

(e)   All are correct.

139. The teacher tried his best explain the importance of the chapter to the students but soon realized that he was casting pearls before swine.

(I) The teacher soon realized that whatever he was explaining to the students about the chapter was grasped by them the way he expected.

(II) Despite the hard work done by the teacher to explain the importance of the chapter, the students were busy making mockery of him.

(III) After trying his best to make the students understand the importance of the chapter, the teacher soon realized that they are not recognizing its worth.

(a)   Only I is correct.

(b)   Only II is correct.

(c)   Only III is correct.

(d)   II and III are correct.

(e)   None is correct.

140. The Supreme Court has struck a blow for the rights of the disabled, with a direction to the Central State governments to provide full access to public facilities, such as buildings and transport, within stipulated deadlines.

(I) The Supreme Court has ordered all the States to provide full access to public facilities like building and transport to the disabled and they must not ignore the true spirit and purpose of the law made for these people.

(II) The Supreme Court has ordered the Central government to provide the basic amenities to the disabled within the stipulated time period.

(III) The Supreme Court has warned the Central and State governments for the rights of the disabled which they are deprived of and has ordered them to provide full access to public facilities, such as buildings and transport, within stipulated deadlines.

(a)   Only I is correct

(b)   Only II is correct.

(c)   Only III is correct.

(d)   All are correct.

(e)   None is correct.

Directions (Q. Nos. 141-145) In each of the given questions an inference is given in bold which is then followed by three paragraphs. You have to find the paragraphs(s) from where it is inferred. Choose the option with the best possible outcome as your choice.

141. The major concern is security.

(I) The major dilemma for may security professionals is whether the Brexit will make the UK more or less safe when it comes to cyber security. One poll found that most security professionals believed there would not be any major cyber security implications; however, another poll offered different conclusions, with most respondents believing that a Brexit would weaken cyber security because of additional bureaucratic hurdles to information sharing with EU.

(II) Most debate over Bexit has been about economics, trade and migration. But when David Cameron called the EU referendum in February the cited a new factor, asserting that membership made Britain safer. This week the Prime Minister went further, hinting that Brexit might increase the risk related to security- and adding that, every time Britain turned its back on Europe, it had come to regret it.

(III) Prime Minister Shinzo Abe touted the implementation of the legislation as an event of “historic importance that makes peace and security of our country even more secure” and “upgrades our deterrence ad enables the nation to proactively contribute more than ever to peace and stability of regional and international communities.”

(a)   Only I

(b)   II and III

(c)   Only III

(d)   I and III

(e)   All are correct

142. The government is trying hard to lure FD in India.

(I) In yet another significant move to attract Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), the government has opened the door wider in several major sectors of the Indian economy, through what is calls “path-breaking” amendments in the extant FDI policy.

(II) In less than a year, the government of India has announced yet another set of ‘radical changes’ in Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policies. The earlier announcement in November, 2015 introduced changes in 15 major sectors, and the latest announcement covers nine sectors which seek to further simplify the regulations governing FDI in the country and make India an attractive destination for foreign investors.

(III) For India, the servicing burden of FDI in terms of repatriations, dividend payments and payments for use of intellectual property is now showing up prominently. About half of the inflows into India during the past six years were balanced by outflows.

(a)   Only I is correct.

(b)   Only II is correct.

(c)   Only III is correct.

(d)   I and II are correct.

(e)   All are correct.

143. Country’s economic standard can be best adjudged by per capital income.

(I) Exports and imports, a swelling favourable balance of trade, investments and bank-balances, are not an index or a balance sheet of national prosperity. Till the beginning of the Second World War, English exports were noticeably greater than what they are today. And yet England has greater national prosperity today than it ever had. Because the income of average Englishmen, working as field and factory labourers, clerks, policemen, petty shopkeepers and shop assistants, domestics workers and other low-paid workers, has gone up.

(II) It is possible that while per capita real income is increasing per capita consumption of goods and services might be falling. This happens when the government might itself be using up the increased income for massive military build up necessitating heavy production of arms and ammunitions.

(III) A rise in national income may occur as a result of increased spending on items such as defence. National income often rises in time of war, or the threat of war, because money is spent on weapons. This will push up GNP, but the people may be acutely short of goods to buy.

(a)   II and III

(b)   I and II

(c)   Only I

(d)   Only II

(e)   All are correct

144. The calorie count of foods that are high in carbohydrates is significant.

(I) Moderate use of non-nutritive sweeteners like aspartame for low calorie count could have  positive effect on insulin and blood sugar by aiding weight control. It is also important to keep in mind that many foods containing aspartame still provide calories and  carbohydrate from other ingredients, even though they may be labelled ‘sugarfree’.

(II) Ironically, people who use aspartame as a sweetener to reduce their calorie intake could wind up defeating their purpose, since studies show that high levels of aspartame may trigger a craving for carbohydrates by depleting the brain of a chemical that registers carbohydrates satiety.

(III) Forty-five to 65% of your total calories should come from carbs, recommends the Institute of Medicine. If you consume carbs on a regular basis, glycogen stores stay full and become a normal part of your total body weight. The rise in the popularity of Aspartame is due to its comparatively low calorie count.

(a)   Only II

(b)   I and II

(c)   II and III

(d)   All are correct

(e)   Only I

145. Pollution is adversely affecting the health of children.

(I) A study conducted on Delhi children and released recently in the Journal of Indian Paediatrics provides powerful evidence that shows children growing up in polluted environments like the Capital have reduced lung growth compared to children in developed countries like the United States.

(II) Bad food habits is taking a toll on our children, warn doctors. A group of doctors have published a multi-centric study to drive home the ill effects of moving away from healthy eating habits and opting for easy-to-use and widely accessible processed food.

(III) Children living in big cities such as Delhi, are likely to grow susceptible to allergic ailments, more than adults, due to urban pollution, especially air, health experts said. Infants and children living in metro cities are inhaling polluted air and therefore their resistance to allergic ailments is lowered at very young age, making them more susceptible to contract various allergies when they grow up, compared to adults.

(a)   Only I is correct.

(b)   Only II is correct.

(c)   Only III is correct.

(d)   Both I and III are correct.

(e)   All are correct.

Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150) Read the following passage divided into number of  paragraphs carefully and answer the questions.

Paragraph 1 Deutsche is more leveraged than its peers; it is unusual in lacking a crown jewel around which it can base a business model; and it has a stack of derivatives whose prices are hard to observe in the market. More positively, it is light on the non-performing loans that clog the balance-sheets of banks in places like Italy. But in other ways its problems have a very familiar ring. Deutsche is struggling to make a decent return. It has taken too long to face up to its problems. And the market it operates in is over banked. Years after American banks were forced to clean themselves up, too m any European lenders are still flailing as a result.

Paragraph 2 Europeans prefer to blame others for the turmoil. Deutsche has lashed out at “forces in the market” for its most recent bout of trouble. But its shares had already fallen by 42% this year before news broke last month of a proposed Department of Justice (DoJ) fine of \$ 14 billion for mortgage-related misdeeds. German politicians insinuate that the mooted fine represents revenge for Europe’s recent tax case against Apple, an American champion. Yet the DoJ has slapped large fines on American banks, too. Deutsche’s vulnerability to shocks is the problem, not the shocks themselves.

Paragraph 3 Fingers also point at global regulators. The boos of Credit Suisse, Tidjane Thiam, says his sector is ‘not really investible’. It is true that the rules have got much stricter in the past few years, particularly for institutions, like Deutsche, that have big investment-banking arms. It is also true that ultra-loose monetary policy, and in particular the negative interest rates that now prevail in much of Europe, eat away at banks’ profitability. But some banks cope better than others in this painful environment. The IMF has compared returns on equity before and after the financial crisis. Those at large European  banks fell by 11.4% points, whereas those at American lenders dipped by only three points. Rather than blaming speculators, Americans and regulators, Europe’s bakers and policymakers need to put their own house in order.

Paragraph 4 Within institutions, that means cutting costs and raising capital. According to S \$ P Global Market Intelligence, the average cost-to-income ratio at an American bank in 2015 was 59%; Italy’s figure stood at 67% and Germany’s at 72%. Scandinavian banks already operate with much lower costs than their peers elsewhere in Europe. The axe is now swinging: Commerzbank, another struggling German lender, and ING, a Dutch bank, have announced thousands of job cuts in the past few days.

Paragraph 5 But more can be done. Pay is one obvious lever. Deutsche’s bankers trousered roughly the same amount in annual compensation between 2011 and 2015, even as the bank’s share price dived. And before shareholders complain too loudly about that, recall that in 2007-15 the divided payments by 90 euro-zone banks amounted to € 223 billion (\$250 billion). Their retained earnings would have been 64% higher at the end of that period if they had not paid out dividends.

146. Which of the following sentences justifies the statement, “Deutsche is more leveraged than its peers” as mentioned in paragraph 1?

(I) Deutsche is scuffling to generate adequate profits to stay afloat in the market.

(II) Though the market in which Deutsche operates is overbanked; it has a mound of derivatives whose prices are hard to observe in the market.

(III) Though Deutsche has taken a longer time to face up its problems, it is still airy on the non-performing loans that obstruct the balance-sheets of banks in places like Italy.

(a)   Only I is correct.

(b)   Only II is correct.

(c)   I and II are correct.

(d)   II and III are correct.

(e)   All are correct.

147. What does the author mean by the statement, “Deutsche’s vulnerability to shocks is the problem, not the shocks themselves” as mentioned in Paragraph 2?

(a)   Deutsche is m ore prone to consistent failures which may have indirect effects on the market in coming years.

(b)   Deutsche is losing its share values inadvertently due to certain forces in the market which is surprising to German politicians.

(c)   Despite performing better in certain specific fields than other banks, Deutsche is finding itself in the midst of turbulence which is itself a revelation.

(d)   The arguable fine of \$14 billion for mortgage-related misdeeds by Department of Justice has completely shocked the entire European bureaucrats.

(e)   None of the above

148. Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from Paragraph 3?

(a)   Despite having bigger-investment banking arms, the consistent downfall of European banks is a matter of serious concern.

(b)   The prevalling negative interest rates in many parts of Europe indicate that there is ultra-loose monetary policy in Europe.

(c)   The IMF figures on return on equity show that American banks are performing for better than European banks in the existing critical market.

(d)   Without pruning, returns on equity of European banks are projected to fall towards zero as a result of ultra-low rates and regulation as compared to American counterpart.

(e)   European policymakers need to come out with strict and robust policies to safeguard its downgrading existence in the world market than pointing figures on speculators and regulators.

149. Which of the following sentences can be connected with Paragraph 4 to make a connection with Paragraph 5?

(a)   Some European markets have been clearing away excess capacity.

(b)   Like Deutsche, Credit Suisse is freer to make plans after a recent settlement with American authorities over mis-selling mortgage-backed securities before the financial crisis.

(c)   It expects to wind up a unit in which it has dumped unwanted assets by the end of 2018, a year ahead of schedule.

(d)   European banks could have done a lot more sooner.

(e)   The recapitalization of Europe’s banks has  been as gradual as that of America’s was swift, and in dribs and drabs of tens of billions a year rather than in one big splurge.

150. What could be the possible solutions for the rehabilitation of European banks in the existing system?

(I) Proper fiscal stimulus by European governments would cut the chances that central banks have to keep interest rates so low.

(II) Using public money to recapitalize the weakest banks in countries like Italy, and requiring them to slim down in return, is the fastest way to return them to health.

(III) Significant job cuts of their employees to compensate the losses occurred in last few years could bring everything back to normalcy.

(a)   Only I

(b)   Only II

(c)   I and III

(d)   I and II

(e)   All of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 151-152) In each question, the word at the top is used in four different ways, numbered (a) to (d). Choose the option in which the usage of the word in incorrect or inappropriate. If all the options are grammatically correct and usage of the given word is appropriate, then select option (e).

151. Turn

(a)   Your mother wants you to turn the TV down and come for dinner.

(b)   Just turn left at the end of the street and you will reach my house.

(c)   Can you turn the music up? This is my favourite song.

(d)   Our cat turned up after we put posters up all over the neighbourhood.

(e)   None of the above

152. Jack

(a)   We jacked the car up and changed the tyre.

(b)   Don’t listen to him –he always jacks people in.

(c)   I jacked my job in because my boss refused to give me a raise.

(d)   Once the tourists arrive, the restaurants jack up their prices.

(e)   None of the above

Directions (Q. Nos. 153-155) There are sets of four statements in question given below which when connected using the correct sentence structure forms a complete single sentence without altering the meaning of the sentences given in the question. There are four options given below the question, choose the sentence that forms the correct formation of single sentence which is both grammatically correct and contextually meaningful. If none follows, choose (e) as your answer.

153. Time will be required to implement badly needed judicial reforms; there are a few procedural steps that India can implement meanwhile; it should have the potential of transforming India’s justice system, work as force multipliers in clearing the backlog and improve India’s record in contract enforcement; it should give a boost to GDP and ensure that the rule of law prevails.

(a)   There are a few procedural steps that India can implement in the short-term to implement badly need judicial reforms by having the potential of transforming India’s justice system, work as force multipliers in cleaning the backlog and improve India’s record in contract enforcement and should give a boost to GDP to ensure that the rule of law prevails.

(b)   During the time required to implement badly needed judicial reforms, there are a few procedural steps that India can implement in the short-term which have the potential of transforming India’s justice system, work as force multipliers in clearing the backlog, improve India’s record in contract enforcement, give a boost to GDP and ensure that the rule of law prevails.

(c)   To implement badly need judicial reforms,, the time has come to take a few procedural steps that can be implemented by India in the short-term that should have the potential of transforming India’s justice system, working as force multipliers in clearing the backlog and improving India’s record in contract enforcement that can give a boost to GDP which ensure that the rule of law prevails.

(d)   With the motive of giving a boost to GDP and ensuring that the rule of law prevails, the time has come to implement badly needed judicial reforms by implementing a few procedural steps in the short run that should have the potential of transforming India’s justice system by working as force multipliers in cleaning the backlog and improve India’s record in contract enforcement.

(e)   None of the above is correct.

154. There is a statedly contemporary twist of a 360° review by peers, seniors and colleagues; it is an equally hush-hush affair; it does not really pass muster as an objective assessment tool for professional capabilities, it is in spite of our unique work environment.

(a)   The statedly contemporary twist of a 360° review by peers, seniors and colleagues, is an equally hush-hush affair and does not really pass muster as an objective assessment tool for professional capabilities, given our unique work environment.

(b)   Despite our unique work environment, there is a statedly contemporary twisting of a 360° review by peers, seniors, and colleagues which is an equally hush-hush affair but it has not really passed muster as an objective assessment tool for professional capabilities.

(c)   Twisting review to 360° by peers, seniors and colleagues and making it an equally hush-hush affair, it does not really pass muster as an objective assessment tool for professional capabilities in our unique work environment.

(d)   Although we have unique work environment,. there is a statedly contemporary twist of a 360° review by peers, seniors and colleagues, and an equally hush-hush affairs which do not pass muster as an objective assessment tool for professional capabilities.

(e)   None of the above is correct.

155. The major thrust of Marx’s political philosophy was aimed at human liberation; it is important to consider the significant shift to comprehend it; the shift occurred in the late 17th century; In that period traditional analysis of the political order based on scarcity was replaced by a philosophy of abundance.

(a)   Comprehending the major thrust of Marx’s political philosophy that was aimed at human liberation. It is important to consider the significant shift of late 17th century when the scarcity based on traditional analysis was replaced by a philosophy of abundance.

(b)   Marx’s major thrust was on political philosophy aiming human liberation while it is important consider the significant shift that occurred in the later 17th century, it was then that traditional analysis of the political order  based on scarcity was replaced by a philosophy of abundance.

(c)   It is important to consider the significant shift in the late 17th century when traditional analysis of the political order based on scarcity replaced philosophy of abundance to comprehend the major thrust of Marx’s political philosophy of human liberation.

(d)   To comprehend the major thrust of Marx’s political philosophy that aimed at human liberation, it is important to consider the significant shift that occurred in the late 17th century when traditional analysis of the political order based on scarcity was replaced by a philosophy of abundance.

(e)   None of the above is correct.

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