SNAP Examination 2016 Held on January, 2016 Question Paper With Answer Key

SNAP Examination 2016 Held on January, 2016

Part I General Awareness


1. The full form of CSIRO is

(a)   Comprehensive Scientific and Industrial Research Organization

(b)   Cross-cultural Scientific and Industrial Research Organization

(c)   Commonwealth Scientific and Industrial Research Organization

(d)   Council of Scientific and Industrial Research Organization.

Answer: (c)

2. The full form of UNRISD is

(a)   United Nations Research Institute for Soviet Development

(b)   United Nations Research Institute for Scientific Development

(c)   United Nations Research Institute for Socio-economic Development

(d)   United Nations Research Institute for Social Development

Answer: (d)

3. Bhaona is a presentation of the Ankia Naat of Assam. In Bhaona, the cultural glimpses of ……….. is/are reflected.

(a)   Assam and Orissa

(b)   Bengal

(c)   Mathura and Brindavan

(d)   All of these

Answer: (d)

4. Under which Act does the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) protect monuments, sites and remains of national importance?

(a)   AMASR Act, 1958

(b)   AMASR Act, 1968

(c)   AMASR Act, 1978

(d)   AMASR Act, 1948

Answer: (a)

5. In 2015, the President of India approved conferment of Padma Awards to all of the following but for

(a)   Kharag Singh Valdiya

(b)   Mohammad Yusuf Khan

(c)   Lakshmi Gopala Naidu

(d)   Sachiro Misumi

Answer: (c)

6. In Grammy Awards 2015, the best folk album was won by

(a)   Pharrel Williams-‘Happy’

(b)   Old Crow Medicine Show-Remedy

(c)   Rosanne Cash-The River & The Thread

(d)   None of the above

Answer: (b)

7. Scientists discovered a new species in the human family tree which is small creature with a tiny brain. The new species has been named as

(a)   Homo naledi

(b)   Dwarf sapien

(c)   Dwarf Homo sapien

(d)   None of these

Answer: (a)

8. The Ministry of External Affairs has recently decided to change the nomenclature of Indian Based Domestic Assistance (IBDA) to

(a)   Government Serving Based Domestic Assistance (GSBDA)

(b)   Swadesh Swachta Domestic Assistance (SSDA)

(c)   Service Staff (SS)

(d)   Bharath Based Service Assistance (BBSA)

Answer: (a)

9. The foreign exchange reserve of India consists of

(a)   the foreign currency assets held by RBI and the gold holding of RBI

(b)   the gold holding of RBI and special drawing rights

(c)   the gold holding of RBI, the foreign currency assets held  by RBI and special drawing rights

(d)   only the foreign currency assets held by RBI

Answer: (b)

10. ………… is a charge for converting bullion into coins where free coinage is permitted. This charge is equal to the cost of bullion to coins transformation.

(a)   Bull-Coin

(b)   Brassage

(c)   Bit Coin

(d)   Coin Levy

Answer: (b)

11. Microsoft introduced several new products for education customers, this includes a note-taking app called

(a)   Office Note classroom

(b)   Micro Note class Notebook

(c)   Soft note for classroom

(d)   One Note class Notebook

Answer: (d)

12. The National Merit Scholarship Scheme, which provided financial assistance to meritorious students from Class XI to Post-Graduation level in Government Schools/Colleges/Universities has been discontinued from the year

(a)   2009

(b)   2008

(c)   2007

(d)   None of these

Answer: (c)

13. The symbol used for reusable microwaveable plastic ware is

Answer: (a)

14. Which is the National Emblem of Iran, used from 1979 to 1980?

Answer: (a)

15. Super Blood Moon, which is a rare astronomical phenomenon hasn’t happened since ………….. and won’t happen again until ………….

(a)   1982, 2033

(b)   1980, 2035

(c)   1978, 2032

(d)   1975, 2031

Answer: (a)

16. The galaxy …………, was initially discovered with NASA’s Spitzer Space Telescope in infrared light and is believed to be at least 9 billion years old.



(c)   SAGEO536AGN


Answer: (a)

17. In the y ear 2014, Facebook bought Whatsapp for

(a)   $17 billion

(b)   $ 18 billion

(c)   $ 19 billion

(d)   $ 20 billion

Answer: (c)

18. Shri Narendra Modi was sworn-in as the Prime Minister of India on ………… at the Rasthrapati Bhavan in New Delhi.

(a)   May 25, 2014

(b)   May 19, 2014

(c)   May 26, 2014

(d)   May 27, 2014

Answer: (c)

19. Where is the doldrums belt located?

(a)   Near the Equator

(b)   Near the Poles

(c)   Near the Tropic of Cancer

(d)   Near the Tropic of Capricorn

Answer: (a)

20. The air quality in Singapore deteriorated to a hazardous level in September, 2015, forcing the city-state to shut its schools for the first time in 12 years. This was due to

(a)   haze created mainly due to companies in Malaysia

(b)   haze created mainly due to companies in Indonesia

(c)   haze created mainly due to companies in Philippines

(d)   haze created mainly due to companies in Vietnam

Answer: (b)

21. In 1347 during the reign of Muhammed Tuglak, an Afghan officer named ………….. set-up an independent kingdom called Bahmani Kingdom.

(a)   Mahmud Gawan Bahmani

(b)   Mohammad Yusuf Bahmani

(c)   Hasan Gangu Bahmani

(d)   Khwaja Tuglak Bahmani

Answer: (c)

22. The task of consolidating Mughal Kingdom was left to Akbar who was only ……… years old at the time of his accession of the throne.

(a)   eleven

(b)   twelve

(c)   thirteen

(d)   fourteen

Answer: (c)

23. Smoking in public places was prohibited nationwide from

(a)   August 15, 2008

(b)   October 2, 2008

(c)   August 15, 2009

(d)   October 2 2009

Answer: (b)

24. A constitutional right can be ………… recognized and established by a sovereign State or Union of States.

(a)   a prerogative or a duty or a restraint of power

(b)   a prerogative or a duty, a power or a restraint of power

(c)   a prerogative or a duty, a power but not a restraint of power

(d)   a power but not a prerogative or a duty

Answer: (b)

25. In Nepal, the festival of lights i.e. Diwali is celebrated by some Buddhists as

(a)   Tihar

(b)   Swanti

(c)   Both (a) and (b)

(d)   None of these

Answer: (c)

26. The term ‘Vrajapati’ used in Indian Mythology denoted

(a)   the head of the village

(b)   the head of the family

(c)   the head of a society

(d)   the head of merchants

Answer: (b)

27. One of India’s most distinguished constitutional lawyers who had received brickbats for arguing in favour of Dow Chemicals in the Bhopal gas disaster case is

(a)   Ram Jethmalani

(b)   Fali Nariman

(c)   Mukul Rohatgi

(d)   Pramila Nesargi

Answer: (b)

28. The Noble Peace Prize winner who gave up freedom and a life with her family in Britain, to protest against the military rule at another country, who is also the Chair of the National League for democracy is

(a)   Angela Merkel

(b)   Christine Lagarde

(c)   Brito Polman

(d)   Aung San Suu Kyi

Answer: (d)

29. In September, 2015 it was revealed that ………. is the country which was exporting drone components worth hundreds of millions to countries that include Saudi Arabia and South Korea, to regain lost ground in a global arms race.

(a)   France

(b)   United Kingdom

(c)   Japan

(d)   United States of America

Answer: (b)

30. In the Indian general assembly elections 2014, the BJP-led NDA won ………. seats out of ……………. Lok Sabha seats that were announced.

(a)   335, 546

(b)   334, 545

(c)   336, 543

(d)   332, 544

Answer: (c)

31. The BS EN 16001 solutions from BSI is applicable for

(a)   energy management systems

(b)   environment management systems

(c)   energy process systems

(d)   environment standard systems

Answer: (a)

32. The Waste from Electrical and Electronic Equipment (WEEE) is a directive that controls

(a)   how electric and electronic equipment is handled and recycled

(b)   how electric and electronic equipment is manufactured and handled

(c)   how electric and electronic equipment is recycled

(d)   how electric and electronic equipment is manufactured, handled and recycled

Answer: (c)

33. The Sensex and Nifty are both indices. The base years for the BSE Sensex and Nifty are ……… and ……… respectively.

(a)   1980-81 and 1900

(b)   1990-91 and 2000

(c)   1978-79 and 1995

(d)   2000-01 and 2004

Answer: (c)

34. The artist who painted Irises, Sunflowers, Red Poppies, Pink Roses was

(a)   Vincent van Gogh

(b)   Sandro Botticelli

(c)   Leonardo da Vinci

(d)   Michelangelo

Answer: (a)

35. Which Indian satellite was launched that has a fantastic timing and records 1000th of a second?

(a)   GSAT-16

(b)   IRNSS-1D

(c)   GSAT-6

(d)   Astrosat

Answer: (c)

36. W3C stands for

(a)   Triple Web Consortium

(b)   Triple Web Consolidation Council

(c)   World Wide Web Consortium

(d)   World Wide Web Company

Answer: (d)

37. The country/countries that has/have resorted to quantitative easing in the last decade is/are

(a)   United States of America

(b)   United Kingdom

(c)   Japan

(d)   All of the above

Answer: (d)

38. Who is the Indian badminton player who after spending an year after his shoulder injury earned a final appearance at the Korean Open in 2015?

(a)   Chetan Anand

(b)   Ajay Jayaram

(c)   Parupalli Kashyap

(d)   Sameer Verma

Answer: (b)

39. Tamaasha, the traditional folk theatre form of Maharashtra has evolved from the folk forms of

(a)   Gondhal, Jagran and Kirtan

(b)   only Kirtan

(c)   only Gondhal, Jagran

(d)   only Gondhal

Answer: (c)

40. The last series of wall paintings in India are from …………. near Hindupur belonging to 16th century AD.

(a)   Lepakshi temple

(b)   Shiva temple

(c)   Sri Venkateswara Swami temple

(d)   Ganesh temple

Answer: (a)

Part II Analytical and Logical Reasoning

41. A bungalow has one of its room located on the first floor and there are three identical 100 watt electrical bulbs fixed in the room. Each bulb is connected to a specific switch located at t he basement. There are only three switches in the basement. All the bulbs are switched off at present and you are also at the basement area. The first floor cannot be seen from the basement area. If you are allowed to use your common prudence, what is the minimum number of times that you will have to go from basement to first floor to identify which switch goes to which bulb?

(a)   .3 times

(b)   2 times

(c)   1 time

(d)   6 times

Answer: (b)

42. Shyam is running a start-up. His initial investments are high and he is trying hard t manage and increase his cash flow. The sun dry expenses that his firm incurs is negligible. He found from his accountant that the amount of pre-paid expenses in the balance sheet, which were booked from the previous year to the current year was increased. Shyam also ensured that his cash funded by the venture capitalists did not reduce when compared to the previous year. The interest that he gets from his fixed deposits increases, which in tune with his sundry expenses. The final effect on cash for this year would be

(a)   cash flow marginally increases

(b)   cash flow exponentially increases

(c)   cash flow remains the same

(d)   None of the above

Answer: (c)

43. A producer of a drama theatre is creating his weekend schedule. The producer has six p lays to choose from : “Made in India’, ‘Laugh for a while’, “The Life is y our choice’, ‘MBA – Maha Budhiman Aadmi’, ‘Placements-my goal’, ‘MBA Go Getters’, The producer sets a schedule based upon the following criteria.

(I) ‘Made in India’ must be shown before ‘The Life is your choice’ and ‘Laugh for a while’

(II) ‘Placements for a while’ must be shown before ‘MBA – Maha Budhiman Aadmi’.

(III) ‘Placements – my goal’ must be shown after ‘The Life is your choice’ and ‘MBA Go Getters’

Which of the following weekend schedules are consistent with the producer’s criteria?

(a)   Made in India, Laugh for a while, The Life is your choice, MBA – Maha choice,  Placements – my goal and MBA – Maha Budhiman Aadmi.

(b)   MBA Go Getters, Made in India, Laugh for a while, The Life is your choice, Placements – my goal and MBA – Maha Budhiman Aadmi.

(c)   Made in India. MBA Go Getters, Placements – my goal, Laugh for a while, MBA – Maha Budhiman Aadmi and The Life is your choice.

(d)   Made in India. MBA Go Getters, MBA – Maha Budhiman Aadmi. The Life is your choice, Placements – my goal and Laugh for a while.

Answer: (b)

44. peter gave his eldest son David a bag with 1000 gold coins. David took 230 gold coins from the bag and gave the rest to his younger brother John, Joe and Jonathan, and advised them to distributed the balance left in the bag amongst themselves in proportion to their age which together amounted to 17.5 years. After a lot of deliberation and discussion the gold coins. Their methodology was as follows : As often John took 4 gold coins. Joe took 3.0 As often John took 6 gold coins Jonathan took 7. What was the age of John, Joe and Jonathan?

(a)   6 years, 4.5 years and 7 years respectively

(b)   5 years, 5.5 years and 7 years respectively

(c)   6 years, 5 years and 6.5 years respectively

(d)   5 years, 6.5 years and 6 years respectively

Answer: (a)

45. Mohan has an antique clock which strikes and makes loud gong sound every hour. It strikes the exact number of times indicating the time of the day or night. His clock takes seven seconds to strike Seven O’ clock, how many seconds will his clock take to strike Eleven O’ clock?

(a)   11.22222227 sec

(b)   11 sec

(c)   11.66666667 sec

(d)   None of these

Answer: (b)

46. Find the missing number :

2, 6, 20, 42, 110, ………..

(a)   126

(b)   156

(c)   176

(d)   196

Answer: (b)

47. Fifteen years back, Ms. Kalpana had three sons Ramesh, Suresh and Rajesh. The sum of the age of Ramesh, Suresh and Rajesh was equal to half of t he age of their mother. It was during the next five years when Mahesh was born. Then the age of Ms. Kalpana was equal to the sum of the ages of all her children. Time went on and years passed and Dinesh was born and age of Ramesh equaled the sum of the ages of Rajesh and Mahesh. Now, it so happened that the sum of the ages of Ramesh, Suresh, Rajesh, Mahesh and Dinesh was double the age of their mother and was also equal to the sum of the ages of Suresh and Ramesh. Also Ramesh’s age was equal to sum of the ages of Mahesh and Dinesh. What is the age of Ms. Kalpana?

(a)   39 years

(b)   42 years

(c)   41 years

(d)   None of these

Answer: (a)

48. Find the missing number : −1, 0, 0, _, 8

(a)   1

(b)   2

(c)   3

(d)   4

Answer: (a)

49. Ceiling Fan : Table Fan :

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 50-51) There is a statement followed by two arguments. Choose the correct option which gives the decision on the arguments, which is derived from the statement.

50. Statement The new amendment of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) in India refers to bringing an overall positive impact on he communities, cultures, societies and environments. The fundamentals of CSR rest on the fact that not only public policy but even corporate should be responsible enough to address social issues.


(I) Government should not enforce companies to take up CSR.

(II) Companies moral responsibility is to take up CSR for a long run benefit.

(a)   Argument II is correct but Argument I is wrong.

(b)   Argument I is correct but Argument II is wrong.

(c)   Both the arguments are false.

(d)   Both the arguments are correct.

Answer: (a)

51. Statement LPG subsidy is a stand taken by the government. Linking of Aadhar card to a bank account has been made mandatory for receiving the subsidy.


(I) All people should give up LPG subsidies.

(II) To fill the gap between poor and rich.

(a)   Argument II is the output of Argument I.

(b)   Argument I is a by product of Argument II.

(c)   Argument I and II are complementing to each other.

(d)   No logical link between Argument I and II.

Answer: (c)

52. If CAB is coded as 723 – 5 58 in a coded language then how will DAD be coded?

(a)   4023 – 5 4023

(b)   4090 – 5 4090

(c)   1024 – 5 1024

(d)   1246 – 5 1189

Answer: (b)

53. If MONEY is coded as 144 200 171 0 600 in DOLLAR is coded as

(a)   −9          200    119    119    −24   299

(b)   −8          200    106    106    −20   200

(c)   122        200    102    102    10      154

(d)   120        200    101    101    08      156

Answer: (a)

54. There are 100 MBA aspirants in a classroom and 99% of them arc engineers. How many engineers must leave the classroom in order to reduce the percentage of engineers in the classroom to 98%.

(a)   1

(b)   2

(c)   50

(d)   90

Answer: (b)

55. Vikas was showing a photograph to his friend and pointed to a boy and told the following statement ‘His name is Atul and his maternal grandfather’s brother is my maternal grandfather’s sister’s son.” How is Atul related to Vikas?

(a)   They are brothers.

(b)   Vikas is the uncle of Atul.

(c)   They are distant cousins.

(d)   None of the above

Answer: (b)

56. There was a party organized and the following members attendd the party : Sheela, Amrita, Rohit, Rahul, Ajay, Ranveer and Gauri.

Sheela is mother-in-law of Amrita, who is sister-in-law of Rohit. Rahul is the father of Ajay. Ajay is the brother of Rahul and the father-in-law of Gauri. Gauri was married to Rohit. How is Sheela related to Ranveer?

(a)   Cousin

(b)   Mother

(c)   Sister

(d)   None of these

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 57-60) Using the information given below answer the following questions.

A chef is trying a recipe for a tasty ice cream using four ingredients. He can choose from three liquids for taste which are labelled A, B and C which are stable in nature and the choice for flavor can be from four liquids which are labelled W, X, Y and Z. For the new ice cream recipe to be tasty, there must be two liquids from the tasty, there must be two liquids from the taste giving liquids. Also certain liquids cannot be mixed because of their reaction which makes it unhealthy for human consumption and the same is given below

B cannot be mixed with W

C cannot be mixed with Y

Y cannot be mixed with Z

57. If the chef calculated that Y is the most important flavor and must be used in the recipe, which other ingredients must be part of the recipe?

(a)   A, B and W

(b)   A, B and X

(c)   A, B and Z

(d)   B, C and X

Answer: (c)

58. If the chef rejected B because of its possible side effects but decided to use Z, which is a possible combination of  the four ingredients in the recipe?

(a)   A, C, W and Z

(b)   A, X, Y and Z

(c)   A, W, X and Z

(d)   A, C, Y and Z

Answer: (a)

59. Which of the following combination of liquid is impossible?

(I) Using Y and W together

(II) Using B and C together

(III) Using W, X and Z together

(a)   Only I

(b)   Only II

(c)   III & I

(d)   II & I

Answer: (c)

60. Which of the following must always be true?

(I) If C is used W must be added.

(II) If Y is used B must be added.

(III) If C is not used W cannot be added.

(a)   I and II

(b)   II and III

(c)   I, II and III

(d)   Only II

Answer: (d)

61. Which letter from the options given will replace the ‘?’ in the table given below ?

(a)   MAN

(b)   GIFT

(c)   PAN

(d)   SOFT

Answer: (a)

62. Which word from t he given options will replace the ‘?’ in the table given below?


(b)   JOIN

(c)   LINK

(d)   DRIP

Answer: (b)

63. Which number from the options given will replace the ‘?’ in the table given below

(a)   48

(b)   168

(c)   64

(d)   132

Answer: (a)

64. What is the least number of straight lines needed to draw the following diagram?

(a)   39

(b)   40

(c)   42

(d)   None of these

Answer: (a)


Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) Based on the information given below answer the following questions.

Ten friends Matt, Sam, Pat, Tom, Sid, Alex, Kat, Jim, Jane and John are having dinner on a rectangular table. Eight facing each other along the length  of the table while two facing each other along the smaller side of the table. Pat is sitting diagonally opposite to Kat, Alex is facing Jim, John is to the right of Jane, Tom is sitting  between Sam and Jim, Pat is to the extreme left of Jane who is sitting on the extreme right along the length of the table. Sid is facing Tom and Matt is on the right of Sam.

66. Who do you think is sitting in front of each other along the small sides of the table?

(a)   Matt and John

(b)   Matt and Sam

(c)   Matt and Kat

(d)   John and Sam

Answer: (a)

67. Sid is sitting between which of the following two?

(a)   Sam and Kat

(b)   Pat and Alex

(c)   Alex and Jane

(d)   Kat and Jane

Answer: (b)

68. Who are sitting diagonally, opposite to each other?

(a)   Sid and Tom

(b)   Sam and Jane

(c)   Alex and Jim

(d)   Jane and Kat

Answer: (b)

69. Who is sitting to the immediate right of Jim?

(a)   Sam

(b)   Jane

(c)   Alex

(d)   Tom

Answer: (d)

70. Who is sitting two places left to Jane?

(a)   Pat

(b)   Alex

(c)   Sid

(d)   Sam

Answer: (c)

Part III General English

71. ‘To catch a tartar’ means

(a)   to trap wanted criminal with great difficulty

(b)   to catch a dangerous person

(c)   to catch a person who is more than one’s match

(d)   to meet with disaster

Answer: (c)

72. A leopard can’t change its

(a)   dots

(b)   stripes

(c)   colour

(d)   None of these

Answer: (d)

73. ‘So sober sometimes serious Sam smiles on silly things’ is a/an

(a)   hyperbole

(b)   assonance

(c)   anaphora

(d)   alliteration

Answer: (d)

74. ‘The strength given by my mother is bigger than the cosmic energy in this cosmos’ is

(a)   Rhyme

(b)   Metaphor

(c)   Personification

(d)   Hyperbole

Answer: (d)

75. The buzzing of bees is an example of

(a)   Simile

(b)   Metonymy

(c)   Onomatopoeia

(d)   Paradox

Answer: (c)

76. The word Cacti is of Latin origin. It can also be replaced by

(a)   Cactus

(b)   Cats

(c)   Cactuses

(d)   Cactusus

Answer: (a)

77. The word ‘Trousseaux’ is of French origin. It can also be replaced by

(a)   Troussers

(b)   Trousseaus

(c)   Troussears

(d)   None of these

Answer: (b)

78. The singular of the word ‘Scarves’ is spelt as

(a)   Scarve

(b)   Scarfe

(c)   Scarv

(d)   None of these

Answer: (d)

79. The ‘Drawing Pins’ in British English is referred to as …………. in American English.

(a)   Thumb pins

(b)   Board pins

(c)   Broad pins

(d)   Thumbtacks

Answer: (d)

80. ‘Aubergine’ in Britain is referred to as ………….. in United States of America.

(a)   Migraine

(b)   Eggplant

(c)   Margarine

(d)   Egg

Answer: (b)

81. Baseball in American English is commonly referred to as ……… in British English.

(a)   Run ball

(b)   Strike ball

(c)   Rounders ball

(d)   Rounders

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 82-84) Complete the collocation words.

82. ……… weapon

(a)   Nuclear

(b)   Atomic

(c)   Molecular

(d)   Electronic

Answer: (a)

83. Seminal ……………

(a)   News

(b)   River

(c)   Nuance

(d)   Research

Answer: (d)

84. ………….. Percentage

(a)   Huge

(b)   Big

(c)   More

(d)   Large

Answer: (d)

85. The idiom ‘Against the clock’ means

(a)   Break the Rules

(b)   Rushed and short on time

(c)   Go back to the Past

(d)   Look at the Past

Answer: (d)

86. The idiom ‘Buy a lemon’ means

(a)   a superstitious way to say ‘good luck’

(b)   a lie which is propaganda for people to believe

(c)   an unbelievable story which is told for people to believe

(d)   to purchase a vehicle that constantly gives problems or stops running after you drive it away

Answer: (d)

87. Kedar uses the following sentence to introduce himself. Choose the correct option.

(a)   Myself Kedar, I belong to Mumbai.

(b)   Myself Kedar and I am from Mumbai.

(c)   Myself Kedar from Mumbai.

(d)   None of the above

Answer: (d)

88. Ram uses the following sentence to tell the time of the day to Shyam. Which one is the correct sentence?

(a)   It is 2 pm in the afternoon

(b)   It is 2 pm.

(c)   It is 2 pm in the noon.

(d)   It is 2 o’clock in the afternoon.

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 89-91) In the following questions parts have been underlined. If any rule of correct English is violated then it could be  only in the underlined  part, marked as 1, 2, 3, or 4. Choose the option, which violates usage of correct English.

89. My Parents are Indians but  I am born in Sydney.

              1                                   2        3                    4

(a)   Only 1

(b)   1 and 3

(c)   Only 3

(d)   Only 4

Answer: (c)

90. Standing on the top of the tower the whole city could be seen.

          1                                   2                                            3

(a)   Only 1

(b)   Only 2

(c)   1 and 2

(d)   None of these

Answer: (d)

91. Ganesh is taller than Ramesh but Anoop  is  more taller.

                             1                              2                   3         4

(a)   Only 1

(b)   Only 2

(c)   Only 3

(d)   Only 4

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 92-96) Read the following passage and answer the following questions.

There are several factors that contribute to wisdom. Of these I should put first a sense of proportion; the capacity to take account of all the important factors in a problem and to attach to each its due weight. This has become  more difficult than it used to be owing to the extent and complexity of the specialized knowledge required of various kinds of technicians. Suppose, for example, that you are engaged in research in scientific medicine. The work is difficult and is likely to absorb the whole of your intellectual energy. You have no time to consider the effect which your discoveries or invention may have outside the field of medicine. You succeed (let us say), as modern medicine has succeeded, in enormously lowering the infant death-rate, not only in Europe and America, but also in Asia and Africa.

This  has the entirely, unintended result of making the food supply inadequate and lowering the standard of life in the most populous parts of the world. To take an even more spectacular example, which is in everybody’s mind at the present time your study the composition of the atom from a disinterested desire for knowledge and incidentally place in the hands of powerful lunatics the means of destroying the human race. In such ways the pursuit of knowledge may become harmful unless it is combined with wisdom; and wisdom in the sense of comprehensive vision is not necessarily present in specialists in the pursuit of knowledge.

Comprehensiveness alone, however, is not enough to constitute wisdom. There must be, also, certain awareness of ends of human life. This may be illustrated by the study of history. Many eminent historians have done more  harm than good because they viewed facts through the distorting medium of their own passions. Hegel had a philosophy of history which did not suffer from any lack of comprehensiveness, since it started from earliest time and continued into an indefinite future. But the chief lesson of history which he sought to inculcate was that from the year AD 400 down to his own time, Germany had been the most important nation and the standard bearer of progress in the world. Perhaps one could stretch the comprehensiveness that constitutes wisdom to include not only intellect but also feeling. it is by no means uncommon to find men/women whose knowledge is wide but those feelings are narrow. Such men/women lack what I am calling wisdom.

I think the essence of wisdom is emancipation, as far as possible, from the tyranny of the here and the now. We cannot help the egoism of our senses. Sight, sound and touch are bound up with our own bodies and cannot be made impersonal. Our emotions start similarly from ourselves. An infant feels hunger or discomfort; gradually with the years his horizon widens, and in proportion as his thoughts and feelings become less personal and less concerned with his own physical states, he achieves growing wisdom. This is of course a matter of degree. No one can view the world with complete impartiality; however, it is possible to make a continual approach towards impartiality, on the one hand, by knowing things somewhat remote in time or space, and, on the other hand, by giving to such things their due weight in our feelings. It is this approach towards impartiality that constitutes growth in wisdom.

Perhaps in this sense the wisdom can be taught. I think that this teaching should have a larger intellectual element than has been customary in what has been thought of as m oral instruction. I think that the disastrous result of hatred and narrow mindedness to those who fed them can be pointed out incidentally in the course of giving knowledge. Knowledge and morals ought not to be too much separated. it is true that the kind of specialized knowledge which is required for various kinds of skills has very little to do with wisdom. But it should be supplemented in education by wider surveys calculated to put it in its place in the totality of human activities. Even the best technicians should also be good citizens, i.e. citizens of the word and not of any one nation. With every increase of knowledge and skill, wisdom becomes more necessary for every such increase augments or capacity of realizing our purposes, and therefore augments our capacity for evil, if our purposes are unwise. The world needs wisdom as it has never needed it before; and if knowledge continues to increase, the world will need wisdom in the future even more than it does now.

92. According to the author, what results in growth of wisdom?

(a)   Widening knowledge and narrowing feelings

(b)   Acquiring specialized knowledge which is required for various kinds of skills

(c)   Viewing the world with complete impartiality

(d)   None of the above

Answer: (c)

93. According to the author, the essence of wisdom is

(a)   deliverance from the oppression of here and now

(b)   subduing from the oppression of here and now

(c)   captivity from the oppression of here and now

(d)   All of the above

Answer: (a)

94. What, according to the author, is the relationship between knowledge and wisdom?

(a)   As human wisdom increases there is increase in knowledge created

(b)   As knowledge keeps on increasing there is lesser need of wisdom

(c)   As knowledge keeps on increasing there is a higher need for wisdom

(d)   As growth in wisdom stops, knowledge creation stagnates.

Answer: (c)

95. The example used by the author to explain the ways in which the pursuit of knowledge can be harmful, unless combined with wisdom, is

(a)   the space mission

(b)   medicine that lowers infant mortality across the world

(c)   the progress of Germany

(d)   None of the above

Answer: (b)

96. What factors, according to the author, contribute to wisdom?

(a)   A sense of proportion, giving knowledge, study of history emancipation

(b)   A sense of proportion, dignity,  knowledge, skill

(c)   Comprehensiveness, a sense of proportion, awareness of the end of human life, emancipation from the tyranny of the present

(d)   None of the above

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 97-98) Read each of the components of the given sentences and mark the component with grammatical error.

97. (i) He is capable at

(ii) twisting any fact

(iii) without any suspicion

(iv) at any time

(a)   Only (i)

(b)   Only (ii)

(c)   Only (iii)

(d)   Only (iv)

Answer: (a)

98. (i) My cousin, brother, who lives

(ii) in Goa, is eager to visit us

(iii) in Mumbai and aspires to have

(iv) a glimpse of the city.

(a)   Only (i)

(b)   (ii) and (iii)

(c)   Only (iv)

(d)   None of these

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 99-100) Choose the correct word which best fits for the sentence to be complete and grammatically correct.

99. It was no wonder that after the roads were closed with continuous snowfall, hotels started ……….. off the tourists.

(a)   raking

(b)   taking

(c)   beating

(d)   looting

Answer: (d)

100. When the penalty corner was saved, the players ………. in toward the goal keeper to congratulate him.

(a)   closed

(b)   went

(c)   crashed

(d)   pooled

Answer: (a)

101. The synonym for the word ‘Inclement’ is

(a)   Stormy

(b)   Intimate

(c)   Advocacy

(d)   Immediate

Answer: (a)

102. The antonym for the word ‘Taciturn’ is

(a)   Garrulous

(b)   Energetic

(c)   Ephemeral

(d)   Enigmatic

Answer: (a)

103. Complete with the appropriate collocation word ……. Activism

(a)   Judicial

(b)   Legal

(c)   Prosecutional

(d)   Lawful

Answer: (a)

104. If Propensity : Tendency then

(a)   Prologue : Epilogue

(b)   Master : Slave

(c)   Audacity: Impudence

(d)   Conduct : Immorality

Answer: (c)

105. If Tepid : Hot then

(a)   Jealousy : Envy

(b)   Hatred : Antipathy

(c)   Unity : Harmony

(d)   Joy : Ecstasy

Answer: (c)

106. From the following words, pick the odd word out.

(a)   Lampoon

(b)   Satire

(c)   Ridicule

(d)   Parable

Answer: (d)

107. From the following words, pick the odd word out.

(a)   Euphemism

(b)   Maxim

(c)   Aphorism

(d)   Dictum

Answer: (a)

108. From the following words, pick the odd word out.

(a)   Force

(b)   Intimidation

(c)   Shakedown

(d)   Bleak

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 109-110) The following questions have sentences which are incomplete. Pick up one phrase/clause from the options given, that will complete the sentence logically.

109. The ensure success in a difficult task

(a)   one needs to be persistent

(b)   persistence is needed

(c)   you need a person of persistence

(d)   persistence is what one needs

Answer: (a)

110. The more we looked at the piece of modern art

(a)   we liked it less

(b)   better we liked it

(c)   the less we liked it

(d)   we liked it more and more

Answer: (c)

Part IV Quantitative, Data Interpretation and Data Sufficiency

111. A batsman was having 32 runs per innings as his average after 15th innings. His average increased by 2 runs after 16th innings. Then, what was his score in the 16th innings?

(a)   64

(b)   60

(c)   46

(d)   62

Answer: (a)

112. The least number which is a perfect square and is divisible by each of the numbers 14, 16, 18 is

(a)   6048

(b)   7056

(c)   1008

(d)   2046

Answer: (b)

113. Four people clap after every 20 min, 30 min, 40 min and 50 min respectively. All of them clapped together at 10 : 00 am. Then they will again clap together at

(a)   3 pm

(b)   5 pm

(c)   6 pm

(d)   8 pm

Answer: (d)

114. Three candidates A, B, C participated in an election. A gets 40% of the votes more than B. C gets 20% votes more than B. A also overtakes C by 4000 votes. If 90% voters voted and no invalid or illegal votes were cast, then what will be the number of voters in the voting list?

(a)   72000

(b)   80000

(c)   70000

(d)   78500

Answer: (b)

115. In a competitive exam there were 5 sections. 10% of the total number of students cleared the cut off in all the sections and 5% cleared none of the sections. From the remaining candidates, 30% cleared only section 1, 20% cleared only section 2, 10% cleared only section 3 and remaining 1020 candidates cleared only section 4. How many students appeared in the competitive exam?

(a)   2550

(b)   2800

(c)   3000

(d)   3200

Answer: (c)

116. A man sold 3/5th of his articles at a gain of 20% and the remaining at cost price. Find the gain earned in the transaction.

(a)   8%

(b)   10%

(c)   12%

(d)   14%

Answer: (c)

117. A trader sells 20 articles at Rs 54 per article after giving 10% discount and gains 50% profit. If the discount is not given, the profit gained is

(a)   56.76%

(b)   66.66%

(c)   62.66%

(d)   63.66%

Answer: (b)

118. A bottle contains 50 L of milk. From this bottle, 5 L of milk was taken out and replaced by water. This process was repeated further for three times. How much milk is now contained in the bottle?

(a)   32.8 L

(b)   34.4 L

(c)   36.8 L

(d)   46.5 L

Answer: (a)

119. A ball is dropped from a height of 200 m. After striking the floor it re-bounces to 4/5th of the height from where it fell. The total distance it travels before coming to rest is

(a)   1200 m

(b)   1600 m

(c)   1800 m

(d)   1820 m

Answer: (c)

120. The sum of all two digit numbers that give a remainder 2 when they are divided by 7 is

(a)   552

(b)   654

(c)   658

(d)   684

Answer: (b)

121. A man covers half of his journey by train at 90 km/h, one-third of the remainder by bus at 30 km/h and the rest by cycle at 100 km/h. The average speed during the entire journey is

(a)   22.5 km/h

(b)   28.5 km/h

(c)   30 km/h

(d)   32.5 km/h

Answer: (a)

122. John’s grandfather was five times older to him 5 years ago. He would be two times of his age after 25 years from now. What is the ratio of John’s age to that of his grandfather?

(a)   7 : 11

(b)   5 : 11

(c)   3 : 11

(d)   4 : 11

Answer: (c)

123. A number when successively divided by 5 and 6 gives remainders 3 and 2 respectively. What will be the remainders if the number is successively divided by 3 and 4?

(a)   2, 3

(b)   2, 1

(c)   1, 2

(d)   3, 4

Answer: (c)

124. How many zeros would be there in 1024!?

(a)   240

(b)   248

(c)   256

(d)   252

Answer: (*)

125. If x = 3 + 2√2 what will be the value of 

(a)   35

(b)   32

(c)   36

(d)   34

Answer: (d)

126. The unit digit in the final solution when, 13*27*63*51*98*46 is

(a)   4

(b)   8

(c)   2

(d)   None of these

Answer: (a)

127. A dishonest seller sells his grocery items using a false weight and thus gains 5% for a kilogram, he uses the weight of approximately

(a)   940.251

(b)   943.123

(c)   948.238

(d)   952.381

Answer: (*)

128. A, B and C can do a work in 6, 8 and 12 days respectively. If they do the work together and earn Rs 2700, what is the share of C in that amount?

(a)   Rs 600

(b)   Rs 900

(c)   Rs 1000

(d)   Rs 700

Answer: (a)

129. How many words each of two vowels and there consonants can be formed from the letters of the word UNIVERSAL?

(a)   7000

(b)   7200

(c)   7400

(d)   7800

Answer: (b)

130. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 12 hours. All the pipes started working together and after 3 hours, C is closed. If A and B can fill the remaining part in 10 hours, then the number of hours taken by C alone to fill the tank is

(a)   100 h

(b)   110 h

(c)   120 h

(d)   130 h

Answer: (c)

131. If the numbers between 1 to 65 which will be divisible by 4 are taken and then if the number present in the units places and tens places is swapped, post which they are written in ascending order, then which of the following number will be at 10th place from the last?

(a)   40

(b)   24

(c)   44

(d)   25

Answer: (b)

132. Ajit, Ravi and Hari were trying to hit a target. If Ajit hits the target 5 times in 8 attempts, Ravi hits it 3 times in 5 attempts and Hari hits it 2 times in 4 attempts and Hari hits it 2 times in 4 attempts. What is the probability that the target is hit by at least 2 persons?

(a)   31/80

(b)   49/80

(c)   09/80

(d)   03/16

Answer: (d)

133. If  then

(a)   x = −y

(b)   x = y + 1

(c)   x = y

(d)   y = x + 1

Answer: (c)

134. log525 + log2(log3 8) is

(a)   1

(b)   2

(c)   3

(d)   4

Answer: (d)

135. Peter was standing on the top of a rock cliff facing the sea. He saw a boat coming towards the shore. As he kept seeing time just flew. Ten minutes less than half of an hour, the angle of depression changed from 30 to 60. How much more time in minutes will the boat take to reach the shore?

(a)   5 min

(b)   10 min

(c)   15 min

(d)   20 min

Answer: (a)

136. In a school where there was a compulsion to learn at least one foreign language from the choice given to them, namely German, French and Spanish. Twenty-eight students took French, thirty took German and thirty-two took Spanish. Six students learnt French and German, eight students learnt German and Spanish, ten students learnt French and Spanish. Fifty-four students learnt only one foreign language while twenty students learnt only German. Find the number students in the school.

(a)   60

(b)   62

(c)   70

(d)   None of these

Answer: (c)

137. Sonali can solve 70% of the problems in a competitive exam and Nirali can solve only 60% in the same exam. What is the probability that at least one of them will solve a problem, provided selection of questions is done randomly from the same exam?

(a)   0.82

(b)   0.88

(c)   0.62

(d)   0.72

Answer: (b)

138. Rs XYZ was deposited at simple interest at a specific rate for 3 years. Had it been deposited at 2% higher rate, it would have fetched Rs 360 more. Find Rs XYZ.

(a)   Rs 5500

(b)   Rs 5000

(c)   Rs 6000

(d)   Rs 4500

Answer: (c)

139. A m an invests certain amount at 6% per annum simple interest and another amount at 7% per annum simple interest. His income from the interest after 2 years was Rs 348. The ratio of first amount to second is 4 : 5. Find the total amount invested.

(a)   Rs 2600

(b)   Rs 2900

(c)   Rs 2700

(d)   None of these

Answer: (d)

140. A person has a bag which contains 9 bulbs out of which 2 are fused and cannot be used to lighten the room. Two bulbs are selected at random. What is the probability that all t he two bulbs chosen can be used to lighten the room?

(a)   5/12

(b)   7/12

(c)   9/12

(d)   10/12

Answer: (b)

141. The value of (p – a) * (p – b)* (p – c) ……….* (p – z) is

(a)   a complex  polynomial which starts with p24

(b)   zero

(c)   a complex polynomial which starts with p26

(d)   a complex polynomial which has several variables including p26 and p24

Answer: (d)

142. There are nine humans in a ship, each human has nine cages and each cage has nine huge lions and each lion has nine cubs. How many legs are there in the ship? (Human have two legs, lions have four legs, cubs have four legs.)

(a)   747

(b)   3258

(c)   29178

(d)   26561

Answer: (c)

143. As shown in the figure, there is a square of 24 cm. A circle is inscribed inside the square. Inside the circle are four circles of equal radius which are inscribed. The total area of the shaded region in the figure given below is

(a)   576-196π

(b)   584-196π

(c)   864-196π

(d)   None of these

Answer: (a)

144. In the figure given below, the value of x and y would be

(a)   10 and 15

(b)   5 and 10

(c)   06 and 12

(d)   12 and 06

Answer: (b)

145. Suresh went into a restaurant and had a happy lunch for Rs 162. He paid for the same using a Rs 500 note. He was so happy with the meal and hence purchased a mini snack box for Rs 37 and paid for the same u sing a Rs 100 note. Mr. Suresh ensured that he collected the balance from the cashier in both cases. Although he was satisfied with the service, he did not pay any tips to the server. The next day when the cashier went and deposited the money in the bank, it was found by the banker that only the two currency notes which were given by Mr. Suresh were counterfeit notes. As per policy, the bank immediately tore both the notes using their shedding machine. What is the total loss to the restaurant in this transaction?

(a)   Rs 1200

(b)   Rs 600

(c)   Rs 7991

(d)   None of these

Answer: (b)

146. If 2x + 2x + 1 = 48 then the value of xx is

(a)   04

(b)   64

(c)   256

(d)   16

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 147-150) Following table shows the percentage population of six states below poverty line and  proportion of male and female.

147. If the total population of State A is 5000, then what is the number of females above poverty line in State A?

(a)   2000

(b)   2400

(c)   2600

(d)   Data inadequate

Answer: (b)

148. If the population of States C and D together is 20000, then what is the total number of females below poverty line in these States?

(a)   5000

(b)   6000

(c)   7200

(d)   None of these

Answer: (d)

149. If the population of males below poverty line in State C is 6000 and State E is 1000, then what is the ratio of the total population of States C and E?

(a)   2 : 1

(b)   3 : 5

(c)   1 : 5

(d)   None of these

Answer: (a)

150. If the State F population of females below poverty line is 16000, then what is the population of males below poverty line in that State?

(a)   8000

(b)   6000

(c)   12000

(d)   None of these

Answer: (d)

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