SSC CGL Preliminary Examination Held on September 6, 2016
1. Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives: Preamble : Constitution : : ? : ?
(a) Word : Dictionary
(b) Contents : Magazine
(c) Explanation : Poetry
(d) Preface : Book
2. Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives:
EFG : VUT :: KLM : ?
3. Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives:
85 : 42 :: 139 : ?
Directions (Q. Nos. 4-6) For the following questions find the odd word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
7. If the given words are arranged according to English dictionary, which word will be in third place?
Directions (Q. Nos. 8-9) A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
8. ELFA, GLHA, IIJA, ?, MLNA
9. 5, 11, 17, 25, 33, 43, ?
10. Pointing towards a photo, Rakesh said, “She is the daughter of the only son of my grandfather.” How is the girl related to Rakesh?
(c) Grand Daughter
11. A is mother of B, C is son of A, D is brother of E, E is daughter of B. Who is the grandmother of E?
12. From the given alternatives words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:
13. If ‘THEN’ is written as RLBS, then how may ‘CASE’ be written in that code?
14. If ‘×’ means subtraction; ‘−’ means division, ‘÷’ means addition and ‘%’ means multiplication, then find the value of :
13 ÷ 3 × 6 % 8 – 4 ÷ 14 = ?
15. Some equations are solved on the basis of certain system. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.
If 3 ⋆ 2 ⋆ 8 ⋆ 4 = 632,
2 ⋆ 4 ⋆ 4 ⋆ 4 = 816, then
3 ⋆ 3 ⋆ 5 ⋆ 1 = ?
16. Find the missing numbers from the given alternatives
17. Rema walked 10 km South and turned right and walked 5 km. Then again she turned right and walked 10 km. Then she turned left and walked 10 km. How many km will Rema have to walk to reach the starting point?
(a) 25 km
(b) 20 km
(c) 5 km
(d) 15 km
18. One statement is given followed by two conclusions/assumptions, I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Indicate your answer.
Statements All Hindus are God fearing. No Japanese is a Hindu
I. The Japanese are not God fearing.
II. All God fearing are Hindus.
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both conclusion I and II follow
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
19. Find the number of triangles in the figure
20. Study the following Venn diagram and find the region representing persons who are educated and employed but not confirmed.
(a) A, C
(b) A, B, C
(c) B, D
(d) A, D, C
21. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
22. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded
23. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?
24. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?
25. In this question, the sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented. .The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., O can be represented by 03, 14, etc., and ‘K’ can be represented by 56, 65, etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word ‘EASE’
(a) 55, 85, 44, 42
(b) 77, 85, 88, 44
(c) 77, 66, 31, 44
(d) 00, 98, 23, 98
26. The rate at which RBI gives short term loan to commercial banks is called
(a) Repo rate
(b) Reverse Repo rate
(c) Bank rate
(d) Cash Reserve rate
27. The nationalization of major commercial banks took place in
28. Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the direct control of
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
29. Which of the following Act introduced separate electorates (communal representation) for Muslims?
(a) 1892 Act
(b) Act of 1909
(c) Reforms of 1919
(d) Government of India Act of 1935
30. Where is the Brihadeshwar temple, built during the Chola period, located?
31. The first protocol to ban the emissions of chloroflurocarbons in the atmosphere was made in
32. Blood group was discovered by
(a) Alexander Fleming
(b) William Harvey
33. Magnetic Meridian is a
(a) line parallel to the equator of the Earth
(c) line joining the geographic North and geographic South of Earth
(d) plane passing through the magnetic North and magnetic South of Earth
34. Programs that duplicate the functionality of one system on another system is known as
35. The manufacturing of iron from iron-ore involves the process of
(d) Fractional distillation
36. In a rainforest, the vegetation that grows under the shade of a canopy, is known as
(d) Forest floor
37. The term ‘roll-in’ is used in
38. Which of the following is the busiest International sea port in India?
39. The word ‘Secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by which Constitutional Amendment?
(a) 41st Constitutional Amendment
(b) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
(c) 43rd Constitutional Amendment
(d) 44th Constitutional Amendment
40. Who coined the slogan ‘Inquilab Zindabad’?
(a) Subash Chandra Bose
(b) Balagangadhar Tilak
(c) Bhagat Singh
41. ‘Great Barrier Reef’, the world’s largest Coral reef is located in
(a) Caribbean Island
42. Decoding and interpretation of visual information in brain is associated with
(a) frontal lobe
(b) occipital lobe
(c) temporal lobe
(d) parietal lobe
43. Flemings ‘Left hand Rule’ is associated with the effect of
(a) electric field on current
(b) magnetic field on magnet
(c) electric field on magnet
(d) magnetic Field on current
44. An emulsion is a colloidal solution of
(a) liquid in liquid
(b) solid in liquid
(c) gas in solid
(d) solid in solid
45. ……… is a byproduct of sewage treatment and can be decomposed to produce bio-gas.
46. The BRICS New Development Bank (NDB) is headquartered at
(b) New Delhi
47. Which one of the following cities of Iraq is located on Tigris river?
48. Human Development Index is prepared by
49. Uber Cup is associated with
50. The food in Onion is stored in the form of
51. If 4/5th of a number exceeds its 3/4th by 8, then the number is
52. The rate of discount being given on a shirt, where selling price is Rs 546 after deducting a discount of Rs 109 on its marked price, is
53. If the ratio of two numbers is 1:5 and their product is 320, then the difference between the squares of these two numbers is
54. Numbers of boys and girls are ‘x’ and ‘y’ respectively; ages of a girl and a boy are ‘a’ years and ‘b’ years respectively. The average age (in years) of all boys and girls.
55. A man bought 30 defective machines for Rs 1000. He repaired and sold them @ Rs 300 per machine. he got profit of Rs 150 per machine. how much did he spend on repairs?
(a) Rs 5500
(b) Rs 4500
(c) Rs 3500
(d) Rs 2500
56. x is 5 times longer than y. The percentage by which y is less than x is
57. A motor cycle gives an average of 45 km per litre. If the cost of petrol is Rs 20 per litre. The amount required to complete a journey of 540 km is
(a) Rs 120
(b) Rs 360
(c) Rs 200
(d) Rs 240
58. A sum of money amounts to Rs 6655 at the rate of 10% compounded annually for 3 years. The sum of money i s
(a) Rs 5000
(b) Rs 5500
(c) Rs 6000
(d) Rs 6100
59. If x2 – 4x + 1 = 0, then the value of is
60. If then the value of is
61. If then x equal to
62. If ‘O’ is the incentre of the ∆ If ∠POR = 115°, then value of ∠PQR is
63. The inradius of triangle is 4 cm and its area is 34 sq cm the perimeter of the triangle is
(a) 8.5 cm
(b) 17 cm
(c) 34 cm
(d) 20 cm
64. If tan θ + cot θ = 2, then the value of tan nθ + cot nθ is
65. A certain number of men can do a piece of work in 60 days. If there were 6 men more, the work can be finished 20 days earlier. The number of men working is
66. If a2 = b + c, b2 = c + a, c2 = a + b, then the value of
67. The area of a triangle ABC is 10.8 cm2. If CP = PB and 2AQ = QB, then the area of the triangle APQ is
(a) 3.6 cm2
(b) 0.9 cm2
(c) 2.7 cm2
(d) 1.8 cm2
68. ABCD is a trapezium in which AD | | BC and AB = DC = 10 m, then the distance of AD from BC is
(a) 10√2 m
(c) 5√2 m
69. From the top of a building 60 m high, the angle of depression of the top and bottom of a tower are observed to be 30° and 60°. The height of the tower in meter is
(a) 40 m
(b) 45 m
(c) 50 m
(d) 55 m
70. If a circle of radius 12 cm is divided into two equal parts by one concentric circle, then radius of inner circle is
(a) 6 cm
(b) 4 cm
(c) 6√2 cm
(d) 4√2 cm
71. If cos x = sin y and cot (x – 40°) = tan(50° − y), then th value of x and y are
(a) x = 70°, y = 20°
(b) x = 75°, y = 15°
(c) x = 85°, y = 5°
(d) x = 80°, y = 10°
Directions (Q. Nos. 72-75) The bar graph shows the number of males and females (in crores) in India during 1951-91. Read the graph and answer the following questions.
72. What was the approximate percentage of female population in India during 1991?
73. What was the approximate number of males in India in 1971 per thousands females?
74. What is the ratio of the numbers of females in India in 1961 per thousands males to the number of males in India in 1991 per thousand fefmales?
(a) 943 : 1077
(b) 1077 : 943
(c) 1073 : 913
(d) 913 : 1073
75. Assuming that the rate of increase in the total population in India during 1991-2001 remains the same as that was during the period 1981-91, estimate the total population in India in 2001.
(a) 105.62 crore
(b) 106.25 crore
(c) 106.52 crore
(d) 105.26 crore
76. In the following question, out of four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
77. In the following question, out of the four alternatives,, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word.
78. Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word.
Directions (Q. Nos. 79-81) In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error, the letter of that part will be the answer. If the sentence has no error, mark (d) as you answers.
79. He told his friend (A) / that he could not be that work (B) / because it is not to his taste. (C) No Error (D)
80. The tragedy of Julius Caesar (A) / was written by William Shakespeare (B) / about 1599. (C) No Error (D)
81. The writer is (A) / evidently enamoured at (B) / the subject (C) No Error (D)
Directions (Q. Nos. 82-84) The sentence given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative.
82. Nothing is impossible ……….. him.
83. My relations ………. him are not friendly.
84. George …………. to this country a year ago.
(a) was coming
(c) is coming
Directions (Q. Nos. 85-87) In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
85. Blow one’s trumpet
(a) To praise another
(b) To praise a leader
(c) To praise oneself
(d) To praise a community
86. Stick to his guns
(a) Stand by his truth
(b) Maintain his own opinion
(c) Maintain his weapons
(d) Maintain his anger
87. At sea
(b) At a loss
Directions (Q. Nos. 88-90) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences.
88. one who is eighty years old
89. A shady fertile place in the desrt
90. A place where bees are kept
Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) A sentence/a part of the sentence is underlined. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).
91. Seeing may be believing but understanding are definitely knowing.
(a) understanding could be knowing
(b) understanding to know
(c) understanding is definitely knowing
(d) No improvement
92. There are some bacteria that are survive inside nuclear power stations.
(d) No improvement
93. No sooner did she finish the lecture, that the students began to leave.
(a) then the students began to leave
(b) than the students began to leave
(c) and the students began to leave
(d) No improvement
94. Hundred gathered to await the boxer’s arrival at the airport.
(a) to await for
(b) to awaits for
(c) to wait
(d) No improvement
95. The dissidents hold a great problem in every political paty.
(d) No improvement
Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
Stockholm is spread out on an archipelago of 14 islands, where Lake Malaren meets the Baltic Sea. More airy than Venice, with wide-open spaces, it is one-third water. Its other two-thirds combine arched bridges, jet fountains, and palatial buildings trimmed with gold. For Stockhomers, fans of great outdoors, this is an amiable and graceful home and a healthy environment in which to live. Minutes from the city centre are parks and woodland for recreation, and clear water for swimming and fishing.
In winter, everyone takes to ice-skating, on artificial rinks in the shadows of grand places, or on the frozen waters of the channel.
Stockholm is also a city at the leading edge of fashion, design and advanced technology. Fashion houses and IT companies use the city as a test market for their innovations, especially as Stockholmers are followers of technology.
Stockholm is the capital as well as the largest city of Sweden. It is the sit of the government and Parliament of the country.
96. An archipelago is a collection of
97. Stockholm is
(a) one-third water and two-thirds arched bridges, jet fountains and palatial buildings
(b) two-third water and one-third land
(c) full of tall buildings
(d) a city with lots of people
98. What is the opposite of the word ‘amiable’?
99. Why is Stockholm used as a test market for innovation by IT companies and Fashion houses?
(a) The Stockholmers are followers of technology.
(b) Stockholm is the largest city of Sweden.
(c) The citizens are fashionable
(d) The people like the outdoors.
100. Stockholm is important to the country because
(a) it has palatial buildings
(b) there are parks and woodlands for recreation
(c) there are artificial skating rinks
(d) it is the largest city and capital of Sweden
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