# SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-I) Exam-2015 Question Paper With Answer Key

SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-I) Exam-2015

PART-A : GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING

1. P, Q, R, S, T, U are 6 members of a family in which there are two married couples. T, a teacher is married to a doctor who is mother of R and U. Q, the lawyer is marred to P – P has one son and one grandson. Of the two married ladies on is a house wife. There is also one student and one male engineer in the family. Which of the following is true about the grand-daughter of the family?

(A) She is a student

(B) She is a an engineer

(C) She is a doctor

(D) She is a lawyer

Directions (Qs. 2 & 3) : In these questions, which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

2.

3.

Directions (Qs. 4 & 5) : In these questions, which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

4. a_b_ca_b_c_a_cc

(A) a b a b a c

(B) a c b c a b

(C) a c a c a b

(D) a b a b c a

(A) b c c b a

(B) b b c a d

(C) c b b a a

(D) c c b b a

6. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

7. In certain code FARMER is written as MAFMRE, in that code which word will be written a GIVALEL.

(A) VIALEGL

(B) VELAIGL

(C) VAGIELL

(D) AIGALE

Directions (Qs. 8 to 12) : In these questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

8.

(A) 3564

(B) 5634

(C) 6543

(D) 5364

9.

(A) 30

(B) 10

(C) 20

(D) 40

10. 18   21      24

3      9        3

6       4        8

21      26      ?

(A) 27

(B) 29

(C) 24

(D) 22

11. 2       4       2

3         9       3

4        16      4

8         64      ?

(A) 8

(B) 24

(C) 16

(D) 9

12. I          25      15      40      8

II          65      25      90      [?]

III         45      15      60      12

(A) 6

(B) 18

(C) 24

(D) 12

Directions (Qs. 13 to 17) : In these questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

13. PALAEONTOLOGY : FOSSIL : : PHRENOLOGY : ?

(A) PANCREAS

(B) SKULL

(C) LUNGS

(D) THYROID

14. MIKE : OGMC : : CIAD : ?

(A) AJCF

(B) ENCF

(C) EGCB

(D) EICB

15. 9 : 50 : : ?

(A) 18 : 190

(B) 22 : 110

(C) 15 : 225

(D) 20 : 105

16. 16 : 22 : : 36 : ?

(A) 46

(B) 26

(C) 24

(D) 44

17.

(A) O

(B) N

(C) K

(D) I

18. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:

ENVIRONMENT

(A) EMINENT

(B) ENTRANCE

(C) MOVEMENT

(D) ENTER

19. Identify the pair which ‘DOES NOT’ exhibit the same relationship as the capitalized pair :

ETYMOLOGY : WORDS

(A) ANATOMY : BODY

(B) PSYCHOLOGY : MIND

(C) ARCHEOLOGY : ANTIQUES

(D) PHILOSOPHY : LANGUAGES

Directions (Qs. 20 to 23) : In these questions, find the odd number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

20.

(A) (56, 19)

(B) (42, 14)

(C) (108, 36)

(D) (69, 23)

21. 32, 13, 51, 24, 46, 20, 72, 45

(A) 72

(B) 13

(C) 20

(D) 46

22.

(A) EARS

(B) NOSE

(C) EYES

(D) VESTIBULAR

23.

(A) RNJF

(B) YUQM

(C) SOKG

(D) TPLI

Directions (Qs. 24 & 25) : In these questions, which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?

24. Crop 2. Root 3. Stem 4. Seed 5. Flower

(A) 4 2 3 5 1

(B) 2 4 5 1 3

(C) 2 3 4 1 5

(D) 2 3 5 1 4

25. Frog 2. Eagle 3. Grasshopper 4. Snake 5. Grass

(A) 5, 3, 1, 4, 2

(B) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1

(C) 3, 4, 2, 5, 1

(D) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4

26. Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the classes given below:

Soda Water, Mineral Water, Liquid

27. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. On the same basis find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation.

4 – 5 – 1 = 514, 3 – 5 – 6 = 563, 0 – 6 – 8 = ?

(A) 068

(B) 806

(C) 680

(D) 860

Directions (Qs. 28 & 29) : In these questions, two statements are given followed by two conclusions / assumptions, I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Mark your answer accordingly.

28. Statements :

I. Some men are good.

II. Some men are wise.

Conclusions :

I. Some wise men are good

II. Some good men are wise.

(A) Only II follows

(B) Both I and II follow

(C) Only I follows

(D) Neither I nor II follows

29. Statements :

I. All poets are day dreamers.

II. All painters are day dreamers.

Conclusions :

I. All painters are poets.

II. Some day dreamers are not painters.

(A) Both I and II follows

(B) Only I follows

(C) Only II follows

(D) Neither I nor II follows

30. Identify the answer figure from which the pieces given in the question figure have been cut.

Directions (Q. 31) : A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g. ‘A’ can be represented by 01, 14 etc. and ‘E’ can be represented by 55, 66 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘ORGAN’.

31.

(A) 98, 03, 44, 22, 58

(B) 67, 22, 31, 58, 22

(C) 75, 03, 11, 22, 76

(D) 86, 40, 23, 14, 96

Directions (Q. 32):

If you start running from a point towards North and after covering 4 kms. you turn to your left and run 5 kms. and then again turn to your left and run 5 kms. and then turn to left again and run another 6 kms. and before finishing you take another left turn and run 1 km, then answer the following question  based on this information.

32. From the finishing point if you have to reach the point from where you started, in which direction will you have to run?

(A) West

(B) North

(C) South

(D) East

33. A man takes 6 km. distance to go around the rectangular area. If the area of the rectangle is 2 sq km, find the difference between length and breadth.

(A) 0.75 km.

(B) 1 km.

(C) 2 km.

(D) 0.5 km.

Directions (Qs. 34 & 35) : In these questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

34. 0, 7, 26, 63, ?

(A) 124

(B) 96

(C) 87

(D) 123

35. 1, 2, 2, 4, 3, 8, 7, 10, ?

(A) 11

(B) 13

(C) 9

(D) 8

36. How many circles are there in this figure.

(A) 16

(B) 17

(C) 13

(D) 22

37. Identify which one of the given alternatives will be another member o f the group of that class.

Lucknow, Patna, Bhopal, Jaipur, ?

(A) Mysore

(B) Shimla

(C) Pune

(D) Indore

38. Sohan drove 15 kms. to the west from his house, then turned left and walked 20 kms. He then turned East and walked 25 kms. and finally turning left covered 20 kms. How far he is from his house.

(A) 10 kms

(B) 5 kms

(C) 40 kms

(D) 80 kms

39. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the given question figure. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

40. In the given figure 10% are students and parents, and the 10% are students, teachers and parents, 15% are teachers and parents. 35% are students and teachers. How many percentage are only teachers, parents and students.

(A) 65, 40, 45

(B) 45, 40, 65

(C) 40, 45, 65

(D) 40, 65, 45

41. Name a single letter that can be suffixed to the following words to form new words?

HAT BAR BAT PIN BATH

(A) B

(B) D

(C) A

(D) E

42. From the answer figures, select the cut piece from which the question figure is formed/made.

43. Which one of the areas marked I-VII represents the urban educated who are not hardworking?

(A) I

(B) II

(C) III

(D) IV

44. In a certain code, LUTE is written as MUTE and GATE is written as HATE, then how BLUE will be written in that code?

(A) GLUE

(B) FLUD

(C) FLUE

(D) CLUE

45. Six students, A, B, C, D, E, F are sitting on the ground. A and B belong to Ruby House, while the rest belong to Emerald House. D and F are tall, while others are short. C and D are wearing glasses while other are not wearing. Which girl of Emerald House is tall and is wearing glasses?

(A) C

(B) B

(C) A

(D) D

46. Which single letter can be prefixed to the following words in order to  obtain entirely new words? (Same letter has to be prefixed in all the five words of each.)

EAT OUR IS AS AT

(A) C

(B) S

(C) H

(D) B

47. From the given answer figures, select the one which is hidden/embedded in the question figure.

48. In the question given below, the symbols used are as

∆ = equal to

⊗ = not equal to

+ = greater than

∅ = less than

− = not less than

O = not greater than

Read the question, mark the correct response.

IF X – Y – Z then it does not.

(A) X ⊗ Y∆Z

(B) X ∅ Y + Z

(C) X O Y + Z

(D) X ∅ Y – Z

49. In a certain code language ‘481’ means ‘sky is blue’, ‘246’ means ‘sea is deep’ and ‘698’ means ‘sea looks blue’. What number is the code for ‘blue’.

(A) 1

(B) 9

(C) 8

(D) 6

50. Arrange these letters of each group to make a meaningful word and then find the odd one out.

(A) VEENS

(B) GHIET

(C) VIDEID

(D) ORFU

PART – B : GENERAL AWARENESS

51. Heavy metals got their name because compared to other atoms they have

(A) Higher atomic numbers

(C) Higher densities

(D) Higher atomic masses

52. What is ordinary Law ?

(A) Laws made and enforced by the Government

(B) Laws made by the Supreme Court

(C) Laws made by the High Court

(D) Laws made by the common people.

53. Who discovered the first antibiotic?

(A) A. Fleming

(B) W. Fleming

(C) C. Waksman

(D) Louis Pasteur

54. Cyanide poisoning causes death in seconds because

(A) It causes cardiac arrest

(B) It breaks the electron transport chain

(C) It denatures enzymes of the heart/muscle

(D) It causes Lysis of red blood cells.

55. Fascism believes in the application of the principle of

(A) Dictatorship

(B) Utilitarianism

(C) Totalitarianism

(D) Democracy

56. Microbial Type Culture Collection Centre is situated at

(A) Chandigarh

(B) New Delhi

(D) Bengaluru

57. When a helium atom loses an electron it becomes

(A) A positive helium ion

(B) A proton

(C) A negative helium ion

(D) An alpha particle

58. When is International ‘Yoga Divas’ celebrated?

(A) 21st May

(B) 21st July

(C) 21st June

(D) 25th April

59. Photo chemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among

(A) CO, CO2 and peroxy acetyl nitrate in the presence of Sunlight.

(B) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature.

(C) NO2, O3 and peroxy acetyl nitrate in the presence of Sunlight.

(D) High concentration of NO2, O3, and CO in the evening.

60. The Dynamo converts

(A) Mechanical energy into Electrical Energy

(B) Electrical energy into Mechanical Energy

(C) Mechanical energy into Magnetic Energy

(D) None of these

61. The name of the upper house of the Indian Parliament is :

(A) Legislative Assembly

(B) Rajya Sabha

(C) Senate

(D) House of Lords

62. The father of computer is

(A) Charles Babbage

(B) Love Lice

(C) Charles Dickens

(D) Oliver Twist

63. The ore of Aluminium is

(A) Fluorspar

(B) Chalco pyrites

(C) Bauxite

(D) Hematite

64. When one gene pair hides the effect the other unit, the phenomenon is referred to as

(A) None of the options

(B) Epistasis

(C) Mutation

(D) Dominance

65. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India?

Select the answer using the code given below.

1 – Arsenic

2 – Sorbitol

3 – Fluoride

4 – Formaldehyde

5 – Uranium

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

(B) 1, 3 and 5

(C) 1 and 3

(D) 2, 4, and 5

66. “Don’t Laugh : We are Police”. This books was compiled by :

(A) Shanti Swaroop, I.G. Police

(B) K. P. S. Gill, D. G. P.

(C) Bishan Lal Vohra, I.G.P.

(D) None of the options

67. The Liquidity Preference Theory of Interest was propounded by :

(A) J. M. Keynes

(B) Alfred Marshall

(C) David Ricardo

68. Earthquakes are caused by

(A) Earth revolution

(B) Denudation

(C) Earth rotation

(D) Tectonism

69. A Fuse wire is characterized by

(A) Low resistance and high melting point

(B) High resistance and high melting point

(C) Low resistance and low melting point

(D) High resistance and low melting point

70. PSW stands for

(A) Program status word

(B) Primitive status word

(C) Process status word

(D) Processor status word

71. In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of

(A) Insect and fungi

(B) Water limits and fire

(C) None of the options

(D) Limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients

72. Which of the following costs is related to marginal cost ?

(A) Implicit cost

(B) Fixed cost

(C) Variable cost

(D) Prime cost

73. Liberalism stands for

(A) Religious orthodoxy

(B) Freedom in social, political and economic aspects

(C) Self-emancipation

(D) A movement & an attitude

74. Mahatma Gandhi began his political activities in India first from :

(A) Dandi

(B) Champaran

(C) Kheda

(D) Sabarmati

75. Waksman got the Nobel Prize for the discovery of

(A) Penicillin

(B) Chloromycetin

(C) Neomycin

(D) Streptomycin

76. Who is considered founder of the Gupta Empire?

(A) Samudra Gupta

(B) Chandra Gupta I

(C) Srigupta

(D) Chandra Gupta II

77. On 2nd June 2015 a Conference on Make in India Indigenization of Currency was organized by the Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India. Who inaugurated the Conference?

(A) Prime Minister

(B) Finance Minister

(C) Governor, R.B.I

(D) Finance Secretary

78. For a missile launched with a velocity less than the earth’s escape velocity, the total energy is

(A) Positive

(B) Zero

(C) Negative

(D) Either positive or negative

79. The Battle of Plassey was fought in the year

(A) 1775

(B) 1757

(C) 1761

(D) 1576

80. Which was the first hydel power project in India?

(B) Palli Vasal in Kerala

(C) Siva Samudram in Karnataka

81. In which year did Dada Saheb Phalke produce the first Feature film ?

(A) 1910

(B) 1911

(C) 1912

(D) 1913

82. Spring tides occur on

(A) The day when the moon’s position is in its first quarter

(B) Full  moon day as well as on new moon day

(C) Full moon day only

(D) New moon day only

83. The oldest form of composition of Hindustani vocal music is

(A) None of the options

(B) Ghazal

(D) Thumri

84. Molybdenum deficiency affects the activity of

(A) Nitrogenase

(B) Nitrate reductase

(C) Chlorate reductase

(D) All of the given options

85. The Classical Dance of Andhra Pradesh is

(A) Kuchipudi

(B) Kathakali

(C) Odissi

(D) Bharatnatyam

86. The Environment (Protection) Bill was passed by the Parliament of India in

(A) 1984

(B) 1986

(C) 1972

(D) 1981

87. The Mediterranean regions are characterized by heavy rain in

(A) Autumn

(B) Spring

(C) Winter

(D) Summer

88. Xenobiotics which are inherently resistant to microbial attack are called as :

(B) Persistent

(C) Recalcitrant

(D) All of the given options

89. Autocracy means

(A) Rule by few

(B) Absolute rule by one

(C) Rule by the representatives

(D) Rule by the king

90. G E F, an international aid-giving agency, has the full form

(A) Global Educational Fund

(B) Global Environment Fund

(C) Global Economic Fund

(D) Global Energy Fund

91. Who directed the film on the dacoit queen Phoolan Devi

(A) Anil Kapoor

(B) Shashi Kapoor

(C) Abbas Mastan

(D) Shekhar Kapoor

92. The Women’s Reservation Bill seeks how much reservation for women in the State Assemblies and Lok Sabha?

(A) 36%

(B) 25%

(C) 30%

(D) 33%

93. Raga Kameshwari was composed by

(A) Uday Shankar

(C) None of the options

(D) Pandit Ravi Shankar

94. The business in Stock Markets and other securities markets is regulated by :

(A) State and Exchange Bank

(B) Stock and Exchange Bank

(C) Securities and Exchange Board of India

(D) Sole  Trade and Exchange Bank of India

95. Indian first talkie film produced in 1931 was

(A) Alamara

(B) Neel Kamal

(C) Indra Sabha

(D) Shakuntala

96. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystem in the order of decreasing productivity

(A) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans

(B) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves

(C) Oceans, mangroves, lakes grasslands

(D) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes

97. What is the fascist view of state ?

(A) State is under the control of a king

(B) Nation state is unquestionably sovereign

(C) State enhances the ideal of individualism

(D) State is the instrument of exploitation in the hands of few.

98. State Bank of India was previously known as :

(A) Syndicate Bank

(B) Co-operative Bank of India

(C) Imperial Bank of India

(D) Canara Bank

99. The technology used in the electronic printer is called

(A) Micro array

(B) Micro technology

(C) Micro millimetric

(D) Micro encapsulation

100. The earth completes one rotation on its axis in :

(A) 23 hrs./30 min

(B) 24 hrs.

(C) 23 hrs./56 min./4.9 sec

(D) 23 hrs./10 min./2 sec

PART – C : QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

101. If PQRS is a rhombus and ∠SPQ = 50°, then ∠RSQ is

(A) 55°

(B) 45°

(C) 75°

(D) 65°

Directions (Qs. 102 to 105) : In these questions, the Graph shows the demand and production of different companies. Study the graph and answer these questions.

102. What is the ratio of the companies having more demand than production to those having more production than demand?

(A) 2 : 1

(B) 2 : 3

(C) 3 : 2

(D) 1 : 2

103. What is the difference between the average demand and the average production of the companies (in lakh tones)? [Approximately]

(A) 325

(B) 275

(C) 250

(D) 200

104. The production of company A is approximately what percent of the demand of company C ?

(A) 65%

(B) 60%

(C) 50%

(D) 55%

105. The demand of company B is what percentage of the production of company F?

(A) 60%

(B) 70%

(C) 50%

(D) 80%

106. If  then the value of cos2β is

(A) 0

(B)

(C)

(D)

Directions (Qs. 107 to 109) : In these questions, study the following frequency polygon and answer the questions, Given a line graph showing the number of students passed in Higher Secondary Examination in a school over the years 2008 to 2013

107. The increase in percentage of passed students from 2008 to 2011 approximately is :

(A) 555%

(B) 54.5%

(C) 53.05%

(D) 50.5%

108. The average of passed students in the years 2008, 2009, 2012 approximately is :

(A) 134.56

(B) 134.32

(C) 134.67

(D) 134.41

109. The decrease is percentage of passed students from 2011 to 2012 approximately is :

(A) 8.25%

(B) 8.27%

(C) 8.22%

(D) 8.24%

110. A man spends 75% of his income. His income is increased by 20% and he increased his expenditure by 10%. His savings are increased by :

(A) 37(1/2)%

(B) 10%

(C) 25%

(D) 50%

111. If the sum of two numbers, one of which is 2/3 times the other, is 50, then the number are :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

112. Out of four numbers the average of the first three is 16 and that of the last three is 15. If the last number is 20 then the first number is

(A) 21

(B) 25

(C) 23

(D) 28

113. A shopkeeper gains 17% after allowing a discount of 10% on the marked price of an article. Find his profit percent if the articles are sold at marked price allowing no discount.

(A) 23%

(B) 37%

(C) 30%

(D) 27%

114. Two circles touch externally. The sum of their areas is 130 π sq cm and the distance between their centres is 14 cm. The radius of the smaller circle is :

(A) 3 cm

(B) 2 cm

(C) 4 cm

(D) 5 cm

115. If  , then the value of  is

(A) 2

(B) 3/7

(C) 1/2

(D) 1

116. A number exceeds its two fifth by 75. The number is

(A) 125

(B) 150

(C) 112

(D) 100

117. The length of canvas, 75 cm wide required to build a conical tent of height 14 m and the floor area 346.5 m2 is :

(A) 770 m

(B) 665 m

(C) 490 m

(D) 860 m

118. If two supplementary angles differ by 44°, then one of the angles is

(A) 102°

(B) 65°

(C) 68°

(D) 72°

119. The ratio of each interior angle to each exterior angle of a regular polygon is :

(A) 6

(B) 9

(C) 7

(D) 8

120. If  , then the value of  is

(A) 0

(B) −4

(C) 4

(D) 2

121. A can do a work in 10 days and B in 20 days. If they together work on it for 5 days, then the fraction of the work that is left is :

(A) 3/4

(B) 3/20

(C) 4/3

(D) 1/4

122. XY and XZ are tangents to a circle, ST is another tangent to the circle at the point R on the circle, which intersects XY and XZ at S and T, respectively. If XY = 15 cm and TX = 9 cm then RT is

(A) 3 cm

(B) 7.5 cm

(C) 4.5 cm

(D) 6 cm

123. If θ is an acute angle and tan2θ + 1/tan2θ = 2, then the value of θ is :

(A) 15°

(B) 30°

(C) 60°

(D) 45°

124. The percentage increase in the surface area of a cube when each side is doubled is :

(A) 200%

(B) 300%

(C) 50%

(D) 150%

125. Given that x3 + y3 = 72 and xy = 6 with x > y, then the value of x – y is

(A) −4

(B) −2

(C) 4

(D) 2

126. In a rhombus ABCD, ∠A = 60° and AB = 12 cm, then the diagonal BD is :

(A) 6 cm

(B) 2√3 cm

(C) 10 cm

(D) 12 cm

127. If the cube root of 79507 is 43, then the value of

(A) 47.73

(B) 0.4773

(C) 4.773

(D) 477.3

128. The measures of two angles of a triangle is in the ratio 4 : 5. If the sum of these two measures is equal to the measure of third angle, find the smallest angle.

(A) 40°

(B) 90°

(C) 50°

(D) 10°

129. The angle of elevation of a tower from a distance of 100 mt. from its foot is 30°. Then the height of the tower is :

(A) 100√3 mt

(B)

(C)

(D) 50√3 mt

130. Cost price of 100 books is equal to the selling price of 60 books. The gain percentage/loss percentage is –

(A) 66%

(B) 66(3/2)%

(C) 67%

(D) 66(2/3)%

131. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 24, 30 and 40 days, respectively. They began the work together but C left 4 days before completion of the work. In how many days was the work done ?

(A) 14

(B) 13

(C) 11

(D) 12

132. If m – 5n = 2, then the value of (m3 – 125n3 – 30 mn) is

(A) 6

(B) 8

(C) 7

(D) 9

133. A boat can travel with a speech of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of stream is 4 km/hr in the same direction, time taken by boat to go 60 km in opposite direction is

(A) 7 hrs

(B) 9 hrs

(C) 3(9/17) hrs

(D) 4 hrs

134. A and B entered into a partnership investing Rs. 16000 and Rs. 12000, respectively. After 3 months A withdrew Rs. 5000 while B invested Rs. 5000 more. After 3 more months C joins the business with a capital of Rs. 21000. The share of B exceeds that of C, out of a total profit of Rs. 26400 after one year by

(A) Rs. 4800

(B) Rs. 1200

(C) Rs. 3600

(D) Rs. 2400

135. Pipe A can fill a tank in 4 hours and pipe B can fill it in 6 hours. If they are opened on alternate hours and if pipe A is opened first, in how many hours, the tank shall be full ?

(A) 4(2/3)

(B) 3(1/4)

(C) 4(1/2)

(D) 3(1/2)

136. The average of 7,11, 15, x, 14, 21, 25 is 15, then the value of x is

(A) 3

(B) 14.5

(C) 13.3

(D) 12

137. If two medians BE and CF of a triangle ABC, intersect each other at G and if BG = CG, ∠BGC = 60° and BC = 8 cm, then area of the triangle ABC is

(A) 48√3 cm2

(B) 96√3 cm2

(C) 48 cm2

(D) 64√3 cm2

138. If 0° ≤ A ≤ 90°, the simplified form of the given expression sin A cos A(tan A – cot A) is.

(A) 1

(B) 1- cos2A

(C) 2sin2A – 1

(D) 1 – 2sin2A

139. Find the square root of

(A) 2/3

(B) 1/3

(C) 3/2

(D) 3

140. The printed price of an article is 40% higher than its cost price. Then the rate of discount such that he gains 12% profit is :

(A) 18%

(B) 21%

(C) 15%

(D) 20%

141. A person of height 6ft. wants to pluck a fruit which is on a  high tree. If the person is standing  away from t he base of the tree, then at what angle should be throw a stone so that, it hits the fruit.

(A) 60°

(B) 45°

(C) 30°

(D) 75°

142. A sum of money lent out at simple interest amounts to Rs. 720 after 2 years and Rs. 1020 after a further period of 5 years. Find the principal.

(A) Rs. 120

(B) Rs. 6000

(C) Rs. 1740

(D) Rs. 600

143. If tan θ + cot θ = 5, then tan2θ + cot2θ is

(A) 26

(B) 23

(C) 25

(D) 24

144. List price of a book is Rs. 100. A dealers sells three such books for Rs. 274.50 after allowing discount at a certain rate. Find the rate of discount.

(A) 8.33%

(B) 8.34%

(C) 8.16%

(D) 8.5%

145. If  then value of x is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

146. If  the ratio of (2x + 3y) and (3y – 2x) is

(A) 1 : 1

(B) 2 : 1

(C) 3 : 2

(D) 3 : 1

147. The value of tan 1° tan 2° tan 3° ……… tam 89° is

(A) −1

(B) 1

(C) None of the options

(D) 0

148. ABC is a cyclic triangle and the bisector of ∠BAC, ∠ABC and ∠BCA meet the circle at P, Q and R, respectively. Then the angle ∠RQP is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

149. ABC is a triangle and the sides AB, BC and CA are produced to E, F and G, respectively. If ∠CBE = ∠ACF = 130°, then the value of ∠GAB

(A) 100°

(B) 130°

(C) 80°

(D) 90°

150. Raj and Prem walk in opposite directions at the rate of 3 km and 2 km per hour, respectively. How far will they be from each other after 2 hrs. ?

(A) 8 km

(B) 10 km

(C) 2 km

(D) 6 km

PART – D : ENGLISH COMPREHENSION

Directions (Qs. 151 to 160) : In these questions, a sentence / a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed choose “No Improvement”. Mark your answer accordingly.

151. We do not believe in a dual policy of the company.

(A) in these dual

(B) No improvement

(C) in this dual

(D) on these dual

152. The glass figurine that was being shown in the store window appealed to me.

(A) that was exhibited

(B) No improvement

(C) that was on display

153. The notorious criminal went to the police to go to prison.

(A) gave himself up for the police

(B) No improvement

(C) submitted to the police

(D) surrendered himself before the police

154. He met European lady at the conference who works for an NGO.

(A) No improvement

(B) a European lady who works for an NGO, at the conference

(C) an European lady at the conference who works for an NGO

(D) European lady who works for an NGO at the conference

155. The practice of starving the children in order to cure diarrhoea also aggravates the situation.

(A) No improvement

(B) starve children

(C) starving children

(D) starving child

156. She said that she was glad to be here that evening.

(A) to come here

(B) No improvement

(C) to have been here

(D) to be there

157. I did not see you for a long time.

(A) No improvement

(B) saw

(C) have not seen

(D) have not been seeing

158. This news is too good to be true.

(A) cannot be true

(B) so good that it should be true

(C) No improvement

(D) so good that it cannot be true

159. If he has time he will telephone

(A) might

(B) could

(C) No improvement

(D) would

160. He is somehow tall for his age.

(A) many

(B) rather

(C) No improvement

(D) much

Directions (Qs. 161 to 165) : In these questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and m ark that part as your answer. If a sentence is free from error, then mark the letter corresponding to “No Error” as your answer.

161. I watched how the pianoist used her left hand

(A) used her left hand

(B) the pianoist

(C) I watched how

(D) No error

162. You are required to give an explanation for your conduct within two days of receipt of this letter.

(A) within two days of the receipt of this letter.

(C) No error

(D) You are required to

163. The ruins of the spillway are a vital clue to the epic struggle that unfold as generations of Khmer engineers coped with a water system that grew complex and unruly.

(A) The ruins of the spillway are a vital clue

(B) No error

(C) coped with a water system that grew complex and unruly.

(D) to the epic struggle that unfold as generations of Khmer engineers

164. Bobby learnt the alphabets at the age of two.

(A) No error

(B) Bobby learnt the

(C) alphabets at the

(D) age of two

165. The sum and substance of this poem is as follows.

(A) No error

(B) of this poem

(C) is as follows

(D) The sum and substance

Directions (166 & 167) : In these questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

166.

(A) commendation

(C) tommorow

(D) coherent

167.

(A) annonymous

(B) disipate

(C) carcas

(D) aneursym

Directions (Qs. 168 to 174) : In these questions, out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences.

168. To free someone from all blames

(A) Fling

(B) Consolidate

(C) Exonerate

(D) Forbid

169. The burial of a corpse

(A) Interment

(B) Inernment

(C) Interrogate

(D) Interpose

170. One who makes an official examination of accounts

(A) Registrar

(B) Creditor

(C) Chartered Accountant

(D) Auditor

171. A person who deliberately sets fire to a building

(A) Hijacker

(B) Extortionist

(C) Arsonist

(D) Assassin

172. Conferred ass an honor

(A) Honorific

(B) Honorary

(C) Honorarium

(D) Honorable

173. That which cannot be effaced

(A) Illegible

(B) Indelible

(C) Affable

(D) Invincible

174.  One who does not believe in the existence of God

(A) Cynic

(B) Atheist

(C) Mystic

(D) Theist

Directions (Qs. 175 to 179) : In these questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

175. I and my friend always go Dutch when we eat out.

(A) go together

(B) pay for each other’s meal

(C) divide the costs

(D) drive together

176. He’s as daft as a brush. Don’t believe a word of what he says.

(A) unreliable

(B) very funny

(C) really silly

(D) a liar

177. A closefisted man does not know the significance of human life.

(A) a miser

(B) a poor man

(C) an ill-mannered man

(D) a rich man

178. I hope you will back me at t he meeting.

(A) criticise

(B) support

(C) follow

(D) speak after I do

179. I shall always remember my alma mater with gratitude.

(A) teacher who inspired me

(B) kindergarten days

(C) institutions where I got education

(D) mother’s loving care

Directions (Qs. 180 to 182) : In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

180. FRUGAL

(A) Simple

(B) Miserly

(C) Plain

(D) Economical

181. PLEBISCITE

(A) Representation

(B) Renunciation

(C) Referendum

(D) Reservation

182. DIMINISH

(A) Worsen

(B) Shorten

(C) Reduce

(D) Prohibit

Directions (Qs. 183 to 187) : In these questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(S). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

183. Ships are ________ by giant engines.

(A) sailed

(B) driven

(C) pulled

(D) dragged

184. Krisda’s stories ________ me very strangely.

(A) afflicted

(B) affected

(C) effected

(D) changed

185. Work should be guided by some _______ desire of altruism and ______.

(A) shallow ; ability

(B) genuine ; philanthropy

(C) good ; liberty

(D) false ; honesty

186. She pipped herrival _______the gold medal.

(A) to

(B) for

(C) near

(D) with

187. By morning, the fury of the floods _______.

(A) abated

(B) retired

(C) ebbed

(D) receded

Directions (Qs. 188 to 192) : In these questions, you have a passage with 5 questions following, Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question.

PASSAGE

The desert floras shame us with their cheerful adaptations to the seasonal limitations. Their whole duty is to flower and fruit, and they do it hardly, or with tropical luxuriance, as the rain admits. It is recorded in the report of the Death Valley expedition that after a year of abundant rains, on the Colorado desert was found a specimen of Amaranthus ten feet high. A year later the same species in the same place matured in the drought at four inches. Seldom does the desert herb attain the full stature of the type. Extreme aridity and extreme altitude have the same dwarfing effect, so that we find in the high Sierras and in Death Valley related species in miniature that reach a comely growth in mean temperatures. Very fertile are the desert plants in expedients to prevent evaporation, turning their foliage edgewise toward the sun, growing silky hairs, exuding thick gum. The wind, which has a long sweep, harries and helps them. It rolls up dunes about the stocky stems, encompassing and protective, and above the dunes, which may be, as with the mesquite, three times as high as a man, the blossoming twigs flourish and bear fruit.

188. The mesquite is a ______

(A) a tribe of people

(B) a type of desert animal

(C) a desert flora

(D) a sand dune

189. How does the wind keep the desert floras to grow?

(A) by blowing the clouds away

(B) by blowing the heat away

(C) by rolling up protective sand dunes.

(D) by blowing gently.

190. What stops the desert floras performing their duty well?

(A) the desert animals

(B) the people who pluck them

(C) the desert sand

(D) the rain

191. What lesson do the desert floras have to teach us?

(A) How to grow in dry places.

(B) How to adapt to limitations.

(C) How to live a long time.

(D) How to grow with grace.

192. The desert plants face the danger of _______ from extreme aridity and extreme altitude.

(A) loss of reproduction

(B) early death

(C) painful growth

(D) dwarfism

Directions (Qs. 193 to 197) : In these questions, you have a passage with 5 questions following. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

PASSAGE

The  public distribution system, which provides food at low prices, is a subject of vital concern. There is growing realization that through India has enough food to feed its masses two square meals a day, the monster of starvation and food insecurity continues to haunt the poor in our country.

Increasing the purchasing power of the poor through providing productive employment leading to rising income, and thus good standard of living the ultimate objective of public policy. However, till then, there is a need to provide assured supply of food through a restructured, more efficient and decentralized public distribution system (PDS). Although the PDS is extensive-it is one of the largest such systems in the world-it hasn’t reached the rural poor and the remote places. It remains an urban phenomoneon, with the majority of the rural poor still out of its reach due to lack of economic and physical access. The poorest in the cities and the migrants are left out, for they generally do not possess ration cards. The allocation of PDS supplies in big cities is larger than in rural areas. In view of such deficiencies in the system, the PDS urgently needs to be streamlined. Also, considering the large foodgrain production combined with food subsidy on one hand and the continuing slow starvation and dismal poverty of rural population on the other, there is a strong case for making PDS target-group oriented. By making PDS target-group oriented. By making PDS target-group oriented, not only the poorest and the neediest would be reached without additional cost but we can also reduce the overall costs incurred.

193. What should be an appropriate step to make the PDS effective?

(B) To increase the amount of foodgrain per ration card.

(C) To streamline the PDS.

(D) To decrease the allotment of food grains.

194. What according to the passage, would be the rationale of making the PDS target-group oriented?

(A) It will remove poverty

(B) It will give food to the poorest section without additional cost.

(C) It will motivate the target-group population to work more.

(D) It will abolish the imbalance of urban and rural sectors.

195. The public distribution system, which provides food at _______ is a subject of vital concern.

(A) low prices

(B) as per capita income

(C) high prices

(D) fair prices.

196. The full form a PDS is

(A) Partial Distribution System

(B) Private Distribution System

(C) Party Distribution System

(D) Public Distribution System

197. Which of the following is true of Public Distribution System?

(A) It has reached the remotest corner of the country

(B) It has remained effective only in the cities

(C) It has improved its effectiveness over the years

(D) It is unique in the world because of its effectiveness

Directions (Qs. 198 to 200) : In these questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word

198. URBANE

(A) Crude

(B) Loud

(C) Native

(D) Rural

199. BOLD

(A) Fearful

(B) Timid

(C) Coy

(D) Nervous

200. AUTHENTIC

(A) Real

(B) False

(C) Genuine

(D) Factual

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