# SSC – Sub-Inspectors in Delhi Police CAPFs and Assistant Sub-Inspectors in CISF Exam March-2016 Question Paper With Answer Key

SSC – Sub-Inspectors in Delhi Police CAPFs and Assistant Sub-Inspectors in CISF Exam March-2016

PART-A : GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING

Directions (Qs. 1 to 4) : In the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses:

1.

(A) 27

(B) 9

(C) 24

(D) 18

2.

(A) 131

(B) 128

(C) 130

(D) 129

3.

(A) 39

(B) 37

(C) 41

(D) 29

4. 16    25   48  8

2      5    3    6

8     25   36  16

4      5     4    ?

(A) 8

(B) 6

(C) 12

(D) 3

Directions (Qs. 5 & 6) : In the following questions, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘A’ can be represented by 03, 44 etc., and ‘Q’ can be represented by 55, 78 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word given in the questions.

5. RETAIL

(A) 77, 85, 21, 13, 57, 20

(B) 20, 77, 85, 21, 13, 57

(C) 77, 21, 20,85,57,13

(D) 20, 85, 77, 21, 57,13

6. BIRDS

(A) 86, 12, 75, 23, 68

(B) 87, 75, 12, 68, 23

(C) 87, 12, 75, 68, 23

(D) 23, 75, 12, 87, 23

Directions (Qs. 7 & 8): In the following questions, from the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:

7. PERAMBULATOR

(A) LABOUR

(B) MARBLE

(C) RAMBLE

(D) RAMPANT

8. ORGANIZATION

(A) ORATION

(B) ORGANISE

(C) NATION

(D) ORGAN

9. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

_qpx_rq_xxr_pxx_qp-x

(A) xrprqx

(B) pxrqxr

(C) rsqprx

(D) rxpqrx

10. Sanjith faces towards north turning to his right, he walks 10 m. he then turns to left and walks 30 m. he moves 25 m to his right and again to right through 50 m. Finally he turns to right and moves 40 m. In which direction is he now from his starting point?

(A) North-East

(B) South-East

(C) South-West

(D) North-West

11. A is elder to B while C and D are elder to E who lies between A and C. If C is elder to B, who is the youngest?

(A) B

(B) A

(C) C

(D) D

Directions (Qs. 12 & 13): In the following questions, from the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

12.

13.

14. A 7 metre long piece of cloth is cut into three smaller pieces. How long is the longest of the three pieces? Given that

Statements:

I. One piece is 3.70 metre long.

II. One piece is 1.50 metre longer than another piece and the remaining piece is 90 cm long.

(A) Statement II alone but not Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the  problem.

(B) Statement I alone is sufficient and also statement II alone is sufficient to answer the problem.

(C) Statement I and II both are needed to answer the problem.

(D) Statement I alone but not Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the problem.

15. Which numbers complete the series?

3 1 53_5 9_11

(A) 8,7

(B) 7,7

(C) 7,6

(D) 6,6

16. Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.

Statements:

1. All pens are Erasers.

2. All Erasers are Pencils.

Conclusions:

I. All Pencils are Pens.

II. All pens are Pencils.

(A) Both conclusions I and II follow.

(B) Only conclusion II follows.

(C) Only conclusion I follows.

(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Directions (Q. 17 to 22): In the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

17. ABDG : ZYWT : : BCEH : ?

(A) YXVS

(B) SVXY

(C) QPRU

(D) YXTS

18. 43 : 57 : : 111 : ?

(A) 135

(B) 136

(C) 133

(D) 134

19. Modesty : Arrogance : : ?

(A) Debility : Strength

(B) Ship : Fleet

(C) Speak : Lecture

(D) Obese : Fat

20. AZBY : CXDW : : EVFU : ?

(A) FUVE

(B) ZYEU

(C) GTHS

(D) BXWD

21. Nurture : Neglect : : Denigrate : ?

(B) Extol

(C) Recognize

(D) Reveal

22. 23 : 0827 : : 45 : ?

(A) 12025

(B) 08125

(C) 64125

(D) 12125

Directions (Qs. 23 to 28): In the following questions, find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

23. Find the odd letters:

(A) L R X

(B) I N U

(C) A G M

(D) M S Y

24. Find the odd number:

(A) 166

(B) 795

(C) 286

(D) 583

25. Find the odd word.

(A) Air Marshal

(B) Group Captain

(C) Wing Commander

(D) Captain

26. Find the odd number pair.

(A) 108-97

(B) 99-63

(C) 183-54

(D) 243-132

27. Find the odd word.

(A) Square

(B) Rhombus

(C) Kite

(D) Rectangle

28. Find the odd letters.

(A) D F O U

(B) N P S W

(C) K M P T

(D) D F I M

Directions (Qs. 29 & 30): In the following questions, which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

29.

30.

31. In a peculiar mathematical operation, plus means multiplication means sum of digits of two numbers. Follow these rules and solve the following example.

(6 × 7) – (8 × 9) – (10 × 11)

(A) 52

(B) 33

(C) 224

(D) 04

32. The structure shown in the figure is made of small cubes. First, third and fifth layers are made of black cubes and the others are white cubes. How many cubes are there in the structure?

(A) 45

(B) 25

(C) 95

(D) 75

33. Indu starts travelling towards east and stops after 35 km and turns right and walks another 15 km and again turn right and walks 15 km and then stops. What is the minimum distance Indu has to walk to reach the starting point?

(A) 35 km

(B) 20 km

(C) 30 km

(D) 25 km

34. A square sheet of paper has been folded and punched as shown by the question figures. You have to figure out from amongst the four answer figures how it will appear when unfolded.

35. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of t he following?

1. estimate 2. contract

3. concept 4. plan

5. execute

(A) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1

(B) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5

(C) 1, 4, 3, 5, 2

(D) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5

Directions (Qs. 36 & 37): In the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given options that will complete the series.

36. AZWD, CXUF, _?_, GTQJ

(A) EVPI

(B) EUSH

(C) EVSH

(D) EUTH

37. 3, 17, 45, 87, _?_

(A) 183

(B) 123

(C) 143

(D) 153

38. Triangle represents school teachers. Square represents married persons. Circle represents persons living in joint families.

Married persons living in joint families but not working as school teachers are represented by

(A) D

(B) F

(C) A

(D) C

39. If BHASHA is coded as 154754, BRAIN is coded as 13408, AHINSA will be coded as

(A) 450847

(B) 450874

(C) 458074

(D) 405847

40. Grouping of words are given. Choose the next words in the series from the given options.

AFGHAN, INDEFINITLY, SYNOPSIS, STUPENDOUS, BURST

(A) RESCRIPT

(B) COMPANION

(C) GLACIAL

(D) HIJACKER

41. A circular piece of paper is folded and punched as shown in the question figures. How will it appear when opened?

42. Which of the following diagrams represents the correct relationship between Doctors, Specialist Doctors and Patients?

43. Mona is 6 years younger to her husband and he is 5 times as old as his daughter Rina. If Rina was 5 years old 3 years back, what is the present age of Mona?

(A) 35

(B) 34

(C) 40

(D) 30

Directions (Qs. 44 & 45) : In the following questions, if a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

44.

45.

46. The information collected through a survey conducted among the public is represented in the Venn diagram given below. Study the diagram and answer the question.

Which of the following represents Govt. servants who are tax payers, but are n either females nor graduates?

(A) 7

(B) 12

(C) 6

(D) 15

47. Four positions of a dice are given below. Identify the number at the bottom when top is 5.

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 1

(D) 3

48. X is sister of Y. Y is brother of Z. Z is the husband of P. O is father of Y. How is P related to O?

(A) Daughter-in-law

(B) Uncle

(C) Daughter

(D) Sister

49. In a certain language GAMBLE is coded as FBLCKF. How is FLOWER coded in that code?

(A) GKPVFQ

(B) EKNVDQ

(C) EMNXDS

(D) GMPVDS

50. If 678 = 83, 476 = 75 and 567 = 80, what is 369 = ?

(A) 18

(B) 72

(C) 99

(D) 40

PART-B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND GENERAL AWARENESS

51. Who among the following is not one of the recipients of Arjuna Award 2015 ?

(A) Jitu Rai (Shooting)

(B) Dipa Karmakar (Gymnastics)

(C) Anoop Singh (Wrestling)

(D) P. R. Sreejesh (Hockey)

52. The book “Globalization, Democratization and Distributive Justice” has been authored by

(A) Anita Nair

(B) Karan Bajaj

(C) Salman Rushdie

(D) Mool Chand Sharma

53. If the selling price of a product under perfect competition is Rs 25, the Marginal Revenue will be

(A) more than Rs 25

(B) less than Rs 25

(C) zero

(D) equal to Rs 25

54. The concept of ‘Liberty Equality and Fraternity’ enshrined in the Indian Constitution is inspired from

(A) Irish Constitution

(B) US Constitution

(C) French Constitution

(D) UK Constitution

55. If the pressure in a closed vessel is reduced by drawing out some gas, the mean free path of the gas molecules will

(A) remain unchanged

(B) increase

(C) increase or decrease depending on the nature of the gas.

(D) decrease

56. The Directive Principles of state policy of the Indian Constitution is an idea borrowed from the Constitution of

(A) American

(B) Russian

(C) Australian

(D) Ireland

57. Which of the following is present in maximum amount in acid rain?

(A) HCl

(B) H2SO­4

(C) H2CO3

(D) HNO­3

58. U-235 belongs to which member of the series?

(A) Neptunium series

(B) Actinium series

(C) Thorium series

(D) Uranium series

59. Marginal Revenue is

(A) Revenue realized on every unit sold.

(B) Revenue realized on the sale of an extra unit.

(C) Revenue realized from the sale of all units.

(D) The average revenue of a firm.

60. The lethal close required to kill 50% of the lab animals tested under standard is referred as

(A) ID

(B) ID50

(C) LD50

(D) MLD

61. Which of the following countries has become the first country in the world to receive funds from United Nations for its fast-growing Solar Home Systems?

(B) Switzerland

(C) Myanmar

(D) Afghanistan

62. An organic compound which produces bluish-green coloured flame on heating in presence of copper is

(A) Chlorobenzene

(B) Benzaldehyde

(C) Aniline

(D) Benzoic Acid

63. The capsule of Anthoceros differs from Funaria in that in the latter

(A) columella is present.

(B) elaters are present

(C) columella is absent.

(D) elaters are absent.

64. Which one of the following Pacts sought to resolve the Hindu-Muslim differences?

(A) Lahore Pact

(B) Lucknow Pact

(C) Gandhi-Irwin Pact

(D) Poona Pact

65. How many times did Babur invade India before 1526 A.D.?

(A) Four times

(B) Two times

(C) Five times

(D) None of these

66. The principle involved in the absorption of water by soil is

(A) Suction action

(B) Condensation

(C) Principle of absorption

(D) Capillary action

67. In the absence of the President and Vice-President, who discharges the functions of the President?

(A) Comptroller and Auditor-General

(B) Attorney General

(C) Chief Justice of India

68. Starch is insoluble in water but still it is stored in large quantity in potato because

(A) it is synthesized in potato root.

(B) it is useful for human.

(C) soil microorganisms deposit it in the tuber.

(D) it is translocated in the form of sugar from leaves.

69. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court covers

(A) Civil and Criminal cases.

(B) National Integrity of India.

(C) Terrorism-related cases.

(D) Disputes between different units of the Indian Union.

70. In Indian architecture ‘Surkhi’ was introduced by

(A) Kushans

(B) Mughals

(C) Guptas

(D) Sultanate Sultans

71. Which of the following has become the first airport in the world to be fully operational on Solar Power?

(A) Amritsar International Airport

(B) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose International Airport.

(C) Lokpriya Gopinath Bardoli International Airport.

(D) Cochin International Airport Ltd. (Kerala).

72. Political Science is a science of

(A) Cultural Engineering

(B) Political Engineering

(C) Economic Engineering

(D) Social Engineering

73. Which of the following is not the essential element of the State?

(A) Sovereignty

(B) Institutions

(C) Government

(D) Population

74. Viruses that infect bacteria are called

(A) Basal body

(B) Basidiospores

(C) Bacteriophages

(D) Basophils

75. Altocumulus clouds occur at altitude of

(A) 200 m – 6000 m

(B) 6000 m – 10000 m

(C) 1000 m – 1800 m

(D) 10000 m – 12000 m

76. Demand curve is indetermine under

(A) duopoly

(B) pure competition

(C) oligopoly

(D) monopoly

77. In which type of vulnerability, an unauthorized host pretends to be authorized host by meeting some authorization criterion?

(A) Tunnel

(B) Phishing

(C) Spoofing

(D) Keystroke logger

78. In terms of value, India’s exports in descending order are

(A) Textiles, Gems & Jewellery, Engineering goods.

(B) Textiles, Engineering goods, Gems & Jewellery

(C) Germs & Jewellery, Textiles, Engineering goods.

(D) Engineering goods, Gems & Jewellery, Textiles.

79. The Vedic literature was composed between

(A) 3000 B.C. and 1000 B.C.

(B) 3500 B.C. and 1000 B.C.

(C) 2500 B.C. and 500 B.C.

(D) 3500 B.C. and 2500 B.C.

80. The minor irrigation schemes have Culturable Command Area (CCA) up to

(A) 2500 hectares

(B) 3000 hectares

(C) 1500 hectares

(D) 2000 hectares

81. Parliamentary Government is a form of Constitutional democracy in whcih

(A) the legislature emerge from and is responsible to the executive.

(B) the executive emerge from and is responsible to the judiciary.

(C) the legislature emerge from and is responsible to the judiciary.

(D) the executive emerge from and is responsible to the legislature.

82. Who among following Indian writers have been long listed among the 13 international authors for the Man Booker Prize of 2015?

(A) Arvind Adiga and Shashi Tharoor

(B) Amitav Ghosh and Amrita Pritam

(C) Chetan Bhagat and Jumpa Lahiri

(D) Anuradha Roy and Sanjeev Sahata

83. Who among the following was the Prime Minister of England when India was given independence?

(A) Attlee

(B) Wavell

(C) Mountbatten

(D) Churchill

84. A dispersion indicates

(A) the value of standard deviation.

(B) the value of mode.

(C) spread of data around central measure.

(D) the value of mean.

85. In which of the following years the Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed?

(A) 1932

(B) 1931

(C) 1929

(D) 1935

86. A closed vessel containing some gas at atmospheric pressure and room temperature is placed in fast-moving train. The temperature of the gas will

(A) increase or decrease depending on the chemical composition of the gas.

(B) decrease.

(C) increase.

(D) remain unchanged.

87. The method of age determination called “radioactive uranium dating” cannot be used to determine the age of

(A) rocks

(B) the earth

(C) minerals on earth

(D) fossils and  plant bodies

88. In a simple Keynesian model equilibrium characterized by the equality of

(A) planned saving and planned investment.

(B) realized saving and planned investment.

(C) realized saving and realized investment.

(D) planned saving and realized investment.

89. Which of the following Football teams won UEFA Super Cup of Georgia on August 12, 2015?

(A) Barcelona

(C) Sevilla

90. Which of the following determines whether group of organisms that is from the same genus and species arises from a common source of from different sources?

(A) Biotyping

(B) Serotyping

(C) DNA hybridization

(D) Phage typing

91. One strategy of allocating kernel memory is known as______.

(A) register allocation

(B) frames allocation

(C) slab allocation

(D) resource allocation

92. The Rath temples at Mahabalipuram were built by

(A) Pallavas

(B) Chalukyas

(C) Cholas

(D) Chedis

93. Basicc problems of an economy is/are

(A) Decide as to what, how and for whom to produce.

(B) Providing basic requirements of life to all.

(C) Elimination of poverty and reduction of inequalities of income and wealth.

(D) Providing social security and employment to all.

94. A new molecule Heat Shock Protein 90(HSP90) was discovered in 2014 by the Didier Picard. The new discovery could help in effective treatment of

(A) TB

(B) AIDS

(C) None of these

(D) Malaria

95. Which of the following Islands is under direct threat levels due to climate change has appealed for help from European leaders?

(A) Palau

(B) Nauru

(C) Marshall Islands

(D) Tuvalu Islands

96. A plant with green leaves placed in red light will appear

(A) Green

(B) Black

(C) Red

(D) Violet

97. Professor Ramesh Chand has been appointed as new full-time member of National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog. He is a

(A) Renowned Agriculture Expert

(B) Renowned Physics Professor

(C) Renowned English Professor

(D) None of these

98. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is not responsible for

(A) Regulating Reserve Bank of India.

(B) Accounting of States & UTs and Auditing of all Government Institutions.

(C) Issue of money from the Consolidated Fund.

(D) Making payments to the States.

99. Which type of molecular motion does not contribute towards internal energy?

(A) Rotational

(B) None of these

(C) Vibrational

(D) Translational

100. Antigen presenting cells are specialized cells present in all of the following, except

(A) Kidney

(B) Skin

(C) Lymph node

(D) Spleen

PART – C: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

101. The sides of a triangle are 7 cm, 8 cm, 9 cm, then the area of the triangle (in cm2) is

(A) 24√5

(B) 6√5

(C) 30√5

(D) 12√5

102. A sum of money placed at compound interest doubles itself at 2 years. The years it will take to amount 4 times itself are

(A) 6

(B) 8

(C) 4

(D) 3

103. A man sells an article at 5% above the cost price. If he had bought it at 5% less than what h e paid for it and sold it for Rs 2 less, he would have gained 10%. The cost price of the article is

(A) Rs 250

(B) Rs 200

(C) Rs 400

(D) Rs 350

104. A number is increased by 15% and then decreased by 25% and the n umber becomes 22 less than the original number. The original number is

(A) 140

(B) 160

(C) 120

(D) 100

Directions (Qs. 105 to 109): Study the following table which shows the amount of money invested (Rupees in crore) in the core infrastructure areas of two districts, A and B of a State, and answer these questions.

105. By approximately what percent was the total investment in the two districts A and B more in 1996 as compared to 1995?

(A) 18%

(B) 24%

(C) 14%

(D) 21%

106. The total investment in electricity and thermal energy in 1995, in these two districts A and B formed approximately what percent of the total investment made in that year?

(A) 52%

(B) 47%

(C) 41%

(D) 55%

107. In district B, the investment in which are in 1996 did show the highest percentage increase over the investment in that area in 1995?

(A) Solar

(B) Nuclear

(C) Electricity

(D) Chemical

108. Approximately how many times was the total investment in 1995 and 1996 in district B was that of total investment of district A in the same years?

(A) 2.4

(B) 1.9

(C) 2.8

(D) 1.7

109. If the total investment in district B shows the same rate of increase in 1997, as it had shown from 1995 to 1996, what approximately would be the total investment in B in 1997?

(A) Rs 9170 crore

(B) Rs 8540 crore

(C) Rs 9850 crore

(D) Rs 10020 crore

110. A cylindrical rod of radius 30 cm and length 40 cm is melted and made into spherical balls of radius 1 cm. The number of spherical balls is

(A) 90000

(B) 27000

(C) 36000

(D) 40000

111. Points A and B are 100 km apart on a highway. One car starts from A and another from B at the same time. If the cars travel in the same direction, they meet in 5 hours. If the cars travel towards each other, they meet in 1 hour.

What is the speed of the faster car?

(A) 80 km/hour

(B) 40 km/hour

(C) 60 km/hour

(D) 70 km/hour

112. The average monthly income of A and B is Rs 15,050, the average monthly income of B and C is Rs 15,350 and the average income of A and C is Rs 15,200.

The  monthly income of A is

(A) Rs 14,900

(B) Rs 15,200

(C) Rs 15,500

(D) Rs 15,900

113. If 0 < A < 90°, then the value of  is

(A) 1/2

(B) 1

(C) 0

(D) 2

114. If x = 1 + √2 + √3 and y = 1 + √2 – √3, then the value of  is

(A) 2√2

(B) 2(1 + √2)

(C) 1

(D) 6

115. A man travelled a distance of 72 km in 12 hours. He travelled partly on foot at 5 km/hour and partly on bicycle at 10 km/hour. The distance travelled on foot is

(A) 52 km

(B) 46 km

(C) 50 km

(D) 48 km

Directions (Qs. 116 to 119): The bar graph shows the results of an annual examination in a secondary school in a certain year. Answer the following questions based on this chart.

116. The class having the highest number of passed students, is

(A) IX

(B) VII

(C) VIII

(D) X

117. The average number of boys passed per class is

(A) 78

(B) 75

(C) 72

(D) 70

118. The ratio of the total number of boys passed to the total number of girls passed in the three classes VII, VIII and IX is

(A) 20 : 23

(B) 21 : 26

(C) 19 : 25

(D) 18: 21

119. The class in which the number of boys passed is nearest to the average number of girls passed per class, is

(A) VIII

(B) IX

(C) VI

(D) X

120. If a person spends 40% of his income on food, 20% on house rent and 70% of the remaining on children’s education, then the percentage of his income left is

(A) 10%

(B) 6%

(C) 12%

(D) 8%

121. A sum of Rs x was put at simple interest at a certain rate for 2 years. Had it been put at 3% higher rate, it would have fetched Rs 300 more. The value of 4x is

(A) Rs 16,000

(B) Rs 20,000

(C) Rs 24,000

(D) Rs 36,000

122. If tan θ + sec θ = 2, then the value of tan θ is

(A) 4/5

(B) 3/5

(C) 2/3

(D) 3/4

123. Let a be a positive integer. When 89 and 125 are divided by a, the remainders are 4 and 6 respectively. Then the value of a is

(A) 7

(B) 15

(C) 17

(D) 9

124. The value of sin22° + sin24° + sin26° + …+ sin290° is

(A) 44

(B) 22

(C) 0

(D) 23

125. The length of the diagonal BD of the parallelogram ABCD is 12 cm. P and Q are the centroids of the ∆ABC and ∆ADC, respectively. The length (in cm) of the line segment PQ is

(A) 5

(B) 3

(C) 6

(D) 4

126. In a ∆ABC, a straight line parallel to BC intersects the sides AB and AC at P and Q, respectively such that AP : PB = 3 : 2, then the ratio of the area of ∆APQ : ∆ABC is

(A) 9 : 25

(B) 25 : 4

(C) 4 : 9

(D) 9 : 4

127. A trader lists his article 20% above the cost price and allows a discount of 10% on cash payment. His gain percent is

(A) 8%

(B) 5%

(C) 6%

(D) 10%

128. By selling an article at 3/4th of selling price, a trader incurred a loss of 10%. The profit/loss percentage, when it is sold at the original selling price, is

(A) 20% loss

(B) 20% profit

(C) 32.5% loss

(D) 120% profit

129. If 4 men and 6 women can complete a work in 8 days, while 3 men and 7 women can complete it in 10 days, then 10 women complete it in

(A) 35 days

(B) 50 days

(C) 40 days

(D) 45 days

130. From the top and bottom of a straight hill, the angle of depression and elevation of the top of a pillar of 10 m height are observed to be 60° and 30° The height (in metres) of the hill is

(A) 60

(B) 80

(C) 40

(D) 30

131. AB and AC are two chords of a circle. The tangents at B and C meet at P. If ∠BAC = 54°, then the measure of ∠BPC is

(A) 108°

(B) 54°

(C) 36°

(D) 72°

132. The value of (√6 + √10 – √21 – √35) (√6 – √10 + √21 – √35) is

(A) 18

(B) 10

(C) 27

(D) 40

133. A and B can separately finish a piece of work in 20 days and 15 days respectively. They worked together for 6 days, after which B was replaced by C. If the work was finished in next 4 days, then the number of days in which C alone could do the work is

(A) 60 days

(B) 50 days

(C) 30 days

(D) 40 days

134. If x + 1 = √y + 3, y > 0, then the value of  is

(A) 1/2

(B) 1

(C) −1

(D) 0

135. If  where x ≠ 0, then the value of  is

(A) 5

(B) 7

(C) 3

(D) 2

136. A chord of length 24 cm is at a distance of 5 cm from the centre of a circle. The length of the chord of the same circle which is at a distance of 12 cm from the centre is

(A) 17 cm

(B) 12 cm

(C) 10 cm

(D) 11 cm

137. If 3x +y = 81 and 81x – y = 3, then the value of x/y is

(A) 15/34

(B) 17/15

(C) 17/30

(D) 15/17

138. If   then the value of a + b + c is

(A) 3

(B) 6

(C) 12

(D) 9

139. PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral, such that ratio of measures of ∠P, ∠Q and ∠R is 1 : 3 : 4, then the measure of ∠S is

(A) 144°

(B) 72°

(C) 36°

(D) 108°

140. The radii of the base of a cylinder and a cone are equal and their volumes are also equal. Then the ratio of their heights is

(A) 1 : 2

(B) 1 :4

(C) 2 : 1

(D) 1 : 3

141. If then each of them is equal to

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

142. The ratio of the radii of two cylinders is 2 : 1 and their heights are in the ratio 3 : 2. Then their volumes are in the ratio

(A) 6 : 5

(B) 3 : 1

(C) 4 : 3

(D) 6 : 1

143. The average age of a class is 15.8 years. The average age of the boys in the class is 16.4 years while that of the girls is 15.4 years. The ratio of boys to girls in the class is

(A) 3 : 5

(B) 3 : 4

(C) 2 : 3

(D) 1: 2

144. The sum of two number is  and their difference is  The product of the numbers is

(A) 50

(B) 60

(C)

(D)

145. A merchant purchases a writs watch for Rs 1,200 and fixes its list price in such a way that after allowing a discount of 10%, he earns a profit of 20%. The list price of the watch is

(A) Rs 1,800

(B) Rs 1,200

(C) Rs 1,600

(D) Rs 1,400

146. If 0 < θ < 90°, then tan θ + sin θ = m and tanθ – sin θ = n, where m ≠ n, then the value of m2 – n2 is

(A) 2(tan2 θ + sin2 θ)

(B) 4 mn

(C) 2(m2 + n2)

(D) 4√mn

147. The curves surface area of a cylinder with its height equal to the radius, is equal to the curved surface area of a sphere. The ratio of volume of the cylinder to that of the sphere is

(A) 3 : √2

(B) 2√2 : 3

(C) 3 : 2√2

(D) √2 : 3

148. If p, q, r are all real numbers, then (p – q)3 + (q – r)3 + (r – p)3 is equal to

(A) 3(p – q) (q – r) (r – p)

(B) 1

(C) (p – q) (q – r) (r – p)

(D) 0

149. The value of  is

(A) 0.02

(B) 0.01

(C) 0.04

(D) 0.03

150. A can is full of a mixture of two liquids A and B in the ratio of 7 : 5. When 9 litres of mixture are drawn off from the can and replaced by the same quantity of liquid B, the ratio of A and B in the can becomes 7 : 9. The capacity of the can is

(A) 21 litres

(B) 36 litres

(C) 10 litres

(D) 20 litres

PART-D : ENGLISH COMPREHENSION

Directions (Qs. 151 to 155) : In the following questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

151.

(A) Turbulance

(B) Perservarance

(C) Surveillance

(D) Obeisance

152.

(A) Hygienic

(B) Hygeinic

(C) Hyegienic

(D) Hyigeinic

153.

(A) Confinment

(B) Consignment

(C) Conteinment

(D) Conceilment

154.

(A) Auspiscious

(B) Congrruous

(C) Hillarious

(D) Audacious

155.

(A) Divienation

(B) Dastitution

(C) Dysfunction

(D) Divarsion

Directions (Qs. 156 to 160) : In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined. Choose the alternative which best express the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

156.  To roll out the red carpet.

(A) to give a grand welcome

(B) to decorate the room

(C) to give a warning signal

157.  To put his foot down.

(A) Resign

(B) Not to yield

(C) Concede

(D) Withdraw

158. Have a foot in the grave.

(A) be afraid to die

(B) have an incurable disease

(C) be close to death

(D) have no interest in life

159.  To have an axes to grind.

(A) To have a selfish end to serve

(B) To criticize someone

(C) To fail to arouse interest

(D) To work for both sides

160.  A hornet’s nest

(A) a comfortable position

(B) a dilemma

(C) among thorns

(D) an unpleasant situation

Directions (Qs. 161 to 165) : In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. If a sentence is free from error, then mark that part corresponding to “No Error’.

161. He assured me that he will return in an hour.

(A) that he will return

(B) No error

(C) He assured me

(D) in an hour.

162. Three years have elapsed since I had gone to visit my aunt in the city.

(A) No error

(B) visit my aunt in the city.

(C) since I had gone to

(D) Three years have elapsed

163. He needs not have shouted at me that way.

(A) at me that way.

(B) He needs

(C) not have shouted

(D) No error

164. The car that he is using these days is belonging to his employer.

(A) these days is belonging

(B) to his employer.

(C) No error

(D) The car that he is using

165. I reached two hours before he had came.

(A) No error

(B) I reached

(D) two hours before

Directions (Qs. 166 to 170) : In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

166. Ostracize

(A) crucify

(C) patronise

(D) shun

167. Misanthropist

(A) pragmatist

(B) pedant

(C) zealot

(D) philanthropist

168. Unapproachable

(A) withdrawn

(B) accessible

(C) casual

(D) unclear

169. Fortify

(A) undermine

(B) strengthen

(C) support

(D) intensify

170. Abstain

(A) dismiss

(B) indulge

(C) repel

(D) disgrace

Directions (Qs. 171 to 175) : Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

Passage

The destructive process of Mountain Top Removal mining (MTR) has caused permanent damage to Appalachia. Although the law requires that mining companies restore the mountaintops after the mining has been completed, the 1.5 million acres of mountains that have already been removed cannot be regrown, re-built or replaced. The companies do secure the rock formations to prevent erosion and landslides, but their efforts cannot recreate the once beautiful mountain landscape. Furthermore, while companies are usually vigilant about securing the rock formations, they seem less interested in restoring the native vegetation. MTR operations clear enormous tracts of forest. Environmental hazards are not only created in preparing a mountaintop for mining, they also continue once the coal has been extracted. After the blast, the excess mountaintop-which miners refer to s “overburden”-is usually dumped into nearby valleys or streams. The overburden contains a variety of toxic substances, including explosive residue, silica and coal dust.

171. The term “overburden” means

(A) remnants of natural forests.

(B) debris from landslides.

(C) weeds planted by mining companies.

(D) excess mountaintop left after the extraction of coal through the blast.

172. After the MTR operation, the mining companies

(A) beautify the mountains.

(B) restore native vegetation.

(C) replace the mountaintops.

(D) secure rock formations to prevent erosion.

173. In the Appalachian region MTR has caused

(B) floods

(C) permanent beautification

(D) landslides

174. MTR operations cause environmental hazards because

(A) mountaintops dumped in valleys & streams contain toxic substance.

(B) it causes landslides.

(C) it causes explosion.

(D) it destroys natural vegetation.

175. The word opposite in meaning to “Vigilant” is

(A) annoyed

(B) careless

(D) lenient

Directions (Qs. 176 to 180) : In the following questions, a sentence/a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is required, choose “No Improvement” option.

176. You must accustom yourself with new ideas.

(A) accustomed yourself

(B) get accustom to with

(C) No improvement

(D) accustom yourself to

177. Try to lower the amount of fat in your diet.

(A) No improvement

(B) Reduce

(C) Cut

(D) Lose

178.  No sooner than it stopped raining, the children went out.

(A) No improvement

(B) did it stopped raining than

(C) did it stop raining than

(D) had it stopped raining than

179. You should cut off on the amount of cigarettes you smoke.

(A) cut out

(B) cut down

(C) cut up

(D) No improvement

(B) No improvement

Directions (Qs. 181 to 185) : Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

Passage

Flattery means ‘praising insincerely in order to please’. Every flatterer says words in which he himself does not believe. While flattering he is insincere to the man he is praising and to himself. In doing so he does not mind if he corrupts the minds of those whom he flatters.

Flattery is immoral because it stains the human conscience. It creates a world of falsehood and thus an outrage of man’s sense of decency and gentlemanly behaviour.

A man who feels happy when flattered lives in a fool’s paradise. Flattery is the ready weapon of the opportunist. This weapon easily conquers the weak willed man. It works on the general weakness of human beings. We all love to be told what we are not rather than what we are. Flattery is equally bad for him who is flattered and for him who flatters.

Flattery, deceives us by giving us false notions about ourselves. By falling a victim to it, we show lack of character. By accepting flattery we make ourselves small beings. It is an evil which ruins social and moral values by claiming what is not rightfully its own. It thrives on corruption and leads to human bankruptcy. It is thus the greatest of disease which can plague humanity.

181. How does flattery deceive us?

(A) It makes us bankrupt.

(B) It makes us fell indecent.

(C) It gives us false ideas about ourselves.

(D) It makes us more corrupt.

182. Flattery means

(A) being immoral

(B) insincere praise in order to please

(C) claiming what is not ours

(D) being anti-social

183. Flattery can stain the

(A) Human conscience

(B) heart

(C) mind

(D) emotion

184. “Thrives” in the passage means

(A) fills

(B) collects

(C) provides

(D) prospers

185. How does the weapon of flattery work?

(A) It conquers the man with a weak will.

(B) A man does not like it.

(D) It conquers the man with a strong will.

Directions (Qs. 186 to 190) : In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences.

186. The belief that God is in everything, including nature.

(A) Naturalism

(B) Mysticism

(C) Polytheism

(D) Pantheism

187. One who copies from other writers

(A) Antagonist

(B) Plagiarist

(C) Offender

(D) Contender

(B) evoluted

(D) evolved

189. The study of growing garden plants

(A) nursery

(B) horticulture

(C) nomenclature

(D) orchard

190. Scientific study of Earthquakes

(A) Seismology

(B) Astrology

(C) Anthropology

(D) Geography

Directions (Qs. 191 to 195) : In the following questions, sentences given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

191. He quarreled with his boss ________ of the consequences.

(A) weary

(B) confident

(C) devoid

(D) heedless

192. As the driver swerved violently at the turning, the wheel came off, as it was already_________.

(A) lost

(B) loose

(C) lose

(D) loss

193. His profession is teaching but his _______ is photography.

(A) vocative

(B) vacation

(C) avocation

(D) vocation

194. Some verbs need a _______ to convey the full meaning.

(A) component

(B) complement

(C) complimentary

(D) compliment

195. The demonstration passed off without_______

(A) coincidence

(B) incident

(C) incidence

(D) accident

Directions (Qs. 196 to 200) : In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best express the meaning of the given word.

196. Conjecture

(A) critic

(B) gathering

(C) strife

(D) guess

197. Brazen

(A) trashy

(B) modest

(C) melodramatic

(D) shameless

198. Synopsis

(A) preview

(B) report

(C) discussion

(D) summary

199. Contentious

(A) benevolent

(B) controversial

(C) extravagant

(D) precious

200. Jinx

(A) taunt

(B) juncture

(C) spell

(D) tour

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