MANAGEMENT
Paper – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. Match the items of List – I with those of List – II and give the correct code from the following :
2. Match the items of the following two lists and give the correct code for the following :
3. Cost-plus pricing is not suitable for
(A) Monopoly Pricing
(B) Product Tailoring
(C) Refusal Pricing
(D) Monopsony Pricing
4. Indicate the correct code matching the items of List – I with those in List – II as follows :
5. In a mixed economy, the central problems are solved through which of following ?
(A) Price mechanism
(B) Regulated market mechanism
(C) Market mechanism and economic planning
(D) Economic planning and control
6. Indicate the correct code matching the items in List – I with those in List – II as follows :
7. The study of gestures and body postures for their impact on communication is known as :
(A) Kinesics
(B) Proximics
(C) Semantics
(D) Informal channels
8. Which of the following deals with “what, why, when and how” tasks to be performed ?
(A) Job Analysis
(B) Job Description
(C) Job Specification
(D) Job Enrichment
9. According to Henry Mintberg, managers perform three roles. Indicate the one role which is not among them.
(A) Decisional
(B) Informational
(C) Interpersonal
(D) Supervisory
10. The Ringlemann effect describes
(A) the tendency of groups to make risky decisions
(B) social loafing
(C) social facilitation
(D) the satisfaction of members’ social needs
11. The term “workforce diversity” refers to differences in race, age, gender, ethnicity, and _______ among people at work.
(A) social status
(B) personal wealth
(C) able-bodiedness
(D) political preference
12. Match the following and indicate the correct code :
13. Which of the following techniques permits the complainant to remain anonymous ?
(A) The exit interview
(B) The gripe-box system
(C) The opinion survey
(D) None of the above
14. Which of the following Acts has a direct relevance for grievance handling practices ?
(A) The Industrial Employment (Standing Order) Act, 1946
(B) The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(C) The Factories Act, 1948
(D) All of the above
15. That the authority rests solely with the management with no right to anyone to challenge is the basis of the
(A) Pluralist Approach
(B) Systems Approach
(C) Unitary Approach
(D) Social Action Approach
16. Which of the following is not a welfare provision under the Factories Act, 1948 ?
(A) Canteen
(B) Crèches
(C) First Aid
(D) Drinking water
17. A person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory under the Factories Act, 1948 is called
(A) Occupier
(B) Manager
(C) Chairman
(D) Managing Director
18. In which of the following methods grievances are ascertained at the time of employees quitting the organisation ?
(A) The exit interview method
(B) The gripe-box system
(C) The open-door policy
(D) Opinion surveys
19. Redressal of employees’ grievances covers
(A) positive attitude towards employees’ grievances and readiness to help
(B) expediting machinery for resolving employees’ grievances
(C) equitable salary system for all
(D) both (A) and (B)
20. Which of the following are most closely interconnected ?
(A) Leadership and organisation structure
(B) Leadership and motivation
(C) Leadership and planning
(D) Leadership and performance appraisal
21. _______ is defined as disputes between parties submitted and decided by a neutral third party.
(A) Collective Bargaining
(B) Affirmation Action
(C) Arbitration
(D) Negotiation
22. The appropriate method to derive the growth rate according to Dividend- Growth Model for equity valuation is
(A) Growth rate of sales over a period of time
(B) Plough-back ratio multiplied with return-on-equity
(C) Plough-back ratio multiplied with net profit margin
(D) Growth rate of fixed assets over a period of time
23. Match the items given in List – I and List – II and indicate the correct code :
24. Match the correct option for each of the following approaches of Capital structure theories :
25. Under the Walter Model, if the rate of return is greater than the cost of capital :
(A) Price per share does not vary with the increase or decrease in dividend pay-out ratio.
(B) Price per share increases as the dividend pay-out ratio increases.
(C) Price per share increases as the dividend pay-out ratio decreases.
(D) None of the above.
26. Which one of the following is not the major objectives of International Monetary Fund ?
(A) Promoting co-operation among countries on international monetary issues.
(B) Giving loans to countries for the purpose of economic development.
(C) Promoting stability in the exchange rates.
(D) Promoting free mobility of capital across countries.
27. Match the correct combination for Assertion and Reason as argued by Shapiro and Titman :
Assertion (A) : Management decisions to insure or hedge asset appear at best neutral mutation.
Reason (R) : The price of systematic risk is identical for all the participants in the financial market.
(A) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
(B) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.
(C) Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are incorrect.
(D) Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are correct.
28. Conservative policy of working capital refers to
i. Situation with high investment in current assets
ii. Situation which stimulates sales
iii. Situation with frequent production stoppages
Codes :
(A) iii is correct.
(B) ii is correct.
(C) i is correct.
(D) i and ii are correct.
29. DUPONT analysis refers to
30. Match the following and indicate the correct code :
31. Consider the following statements :
1. Usually people from the same culture, social class and occupation have the same life style.
2. The consumer buying decision will involve the same stages regardless of whether the goods involved are low or high involvement.
3. “Salesmen are born, not made.”
4. The ultimate goal of a customer-oriented organisation is to maximise its customer’s satisfaction.
Indicate the correct answer through the codes.
Codes :
(A) All the statements are true.
(B) Statements 1 and 2 are false, others are true.
(C) Statement 3 is true, others are false.
(D) All are false.
32. Cognitive dissonance is associated with which stage of the consumer buying decision process ?
(A) Need recognition
(B) Information search
(C) Evaluation of alternative
(D) None of the above
33. Consider the following statements :
i. Brand equity is a function of brand awareness and brand preference.
ii. Product lines tend to shorten over time.
iii. The Standards of Weights and Measures (Packaged Commodities) Rules, 1977 provide for the labelling rules relating to packaged commodities.
iv. AIDA Model is relevant to advertising as well as physical distribution.
Indicate the correct answer.
Codes :
(A) All the above statements are false.
(B) Only iii is true.
(C) i, iii and iv are true.
(D) Only i is true.
34. A marketer developing a brand name that is easy to pronounce would conduct :
(A) An association test
(B) A memory test
(C) A preference test
(D) A recall test
35. Before performing the business analysis for developing a new product, a company should be engaged in
(A) Idea screening
(B) Product development
(C) Marketing strategy development
(D) Product positioning
36. Relationship marketing aims at building mutually satisfying longterm relations with
(A) Customers
(B) Employees
(C) Marketing partners
(D) All of the above
37. In the social-cultural arena, marketers may not understand
(A) People’s views
(B) Organisation’s views
(C) Society’s views
(D) Government’s views
38. A manufacturer of industrial goods would use ______ sales force structure.
(A) Territorial
(B) Matrix
(C) Product
(D) Market
39. Which of the following is/are a type(s) of direct marketing ?
(A) Direct-Response Advertising
(B) Personal Selling
(C) Telemarketing
(D) All of the above
40. In inventory control, which one of the following factors does not affect the ROL (Re-Order-Level) ?
(A) Average Daily Usage
(B) Lead Time
(C) Safety Stock
(D) Holding Costs
41. The number of allocated cells in the optimal solution of a transportation problem having m rows and n columns is :
(A) m + n – 1
(B) m + n – 1 or less
(C) m + n + 1
(D) None of the above
42. In a railway yard, goods trains arrive at a rate of 30 trains per day. Assume that the inter-arrival time follows an
exponential distribution and the service distribution is also an exponential with an average of 36 minutes. The probability that the size of the queue exceeds 10 is
(A) 0.944
(B) 0.750
(C) 0.250
(D) 0.056
43. If in the optimal solution of a linear programming problem, a non-basic variable has zero value in the Cj – Zj
row, the problem
(A) has no feasible solution
(B) has multiple optimal solutions
(C) is unbounded
(D) (A) and (B), but not (C)
44. The best model to compute the probability that a machine functioning well in one period will continue to function or will break down in the next period is
(A) Delphi Model
(B) Decision-tree Model
(C) Multiplicative Model
(D) Markov-Process Model
45. Statement – I : 
charts use the sample standard deviation to measure process variability.
Statement – II : The lower control limit on an R chart is always 
Codes :
(A) Both Statements I and II are correct.
(B) Statement I is correct, but II is wrong.
(C) Statement I is wrong, but II is correct.
(D) Both Statements I and II are wrong.
46. Assuming ‘X’ as the ‘quantity of rainfall’ and ‘Y’ as the ‘agricultural yield’, which of the following will express the regression equation of Y on X ?
47. Read the following statements and indicate the correct code from given below :
Statement I : A subjective probability may be nothing more than an educated guess.
Statement II : One reason that decision-makers at high levels often use subjective probabilities is that they are concerned with unique situations.
Codes :
(A) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is wrong.
(B) Statement I is wrong, but Statement II is correct.
(C) Both Statements I and II are correct.
(D) Both Statements I and II are wrong.
48. Which of the following is a step in performing analysis of variance ?
i. Determine an estimate of population variance from within samples.
ii. Determine an estimate of population variance from among the sample means.
iii. Determine the difference between expected and observed frequency for each class.
Codes :
(A) i and ii only.
(B) i and iii only.
(C) ii and iii only.
(D) i, ii and iii
49. From the following, identify the decision-support systems :
i. Status inquiry system
ii. Data analysis system
iii. Accounting system
iv. Information system
Codes :
(A) i, ii and iii
(B) ii, iii and iv
(C) only iii
(D) i, ii, iii and iv
50. Which of the following are the components of data warehouses ?
i. Metadata
ii. Integration Programs
iii. Summarised data
iv. Archives
Codes :
(A) i, ii and iii only
(B) i, iii and iv only
(C) ii, iii and iv only
(D) i, ii, iii and iv
51. Arrange the following stages involved in DBMS in proper sequence :
i. Creating
ii. Defining
iii. Data structuring
iv. Updating
v. Interrogating
Codes :
(A) i, iii, ii, iv and v
(B) ii, i, iii, v and iv
(C) iii, ii, v, iv and i
(D) ii, iii, i, iv and v
52. For years Converse had a major share in the athletic shoe market. Then, in the 1980’s, Nike and Reebok re-invented the athletic shoe industry, and Converse changed nothing. Now Converse is a minor brand in a growth industry. According to the BCG matrix, Converse is an example of
(A) Cash Cow
(B) Dog
(C) Question mark
(D) Star
53. The managerial process of developing and maintaining a viable fit between an organisation’s objectives, skills, and resources, and its market opportunities is called
(A) Establishing strategic business units
(B) Market-oriented strategic planning
(C) Market research
(D) Portfolio analysis
54. Low cost, product differentiation, and focused market are the examples of
(A) Corporate strategy
(B) Business strategy
(C) Functional strategy
(D) Behavioural strategy
55. The word “Tactic” is the most likely to be associated with
(A) Corporate strategy
(B) Business strategy
(C) Operational strategy
(D) Behavioural strategy
56. A marketing effectiveness review is part of _______ control.
(A) Annual Plan
(B) Profitability
(C) Proficiency
(D) Strategic
57. When a cigarette manufacturing company drastically cuts price of a popular brand of its cigarettes, to
increase its share in the competitive market, it is implementing a ______ strategy.
(A) Integrative growth
(B) Market development
(C) Market penetration
(D) Product development
58. An entrepreneur who is neither willing to introduce new changes nor to adopt new methods is known as :
(A) Adoptive Entrepreneur
(B) Fabian Entrepreneur
(C) Innovative Entrepreneur
(D) Drone Entrepreneur
59. UNIDO preparatory meeting on the “Role of Women in Industrialisation in Developing Countries” held in
February 1978. Identified constraints, which hinder women from participating in industrial activities. The meeting was held at
(A) Vienna
(B) New Delhi
(C) Geneva
(D) Mexico City
60. Which of the following statements is false ?
(A) Venture capital is outside equity that comes from professionally managed pools of investor money.
(B) Term Loan from bank is needed to pay dividends to shareholders on time.
(C) Permanent working capital is the amount a firm needs to produce goods and services at the lowest point of demand.
(D) Temporary working capital is the amount which a firm may need to meet seasonal demand.
61. Small Industries Development Organisation (SIDO) has been set up to
(A) promote, aid and foster the growth of small-scale industries in the country.
(B) formulate, coordinate and monitor the policies and programmes for promotion and development of small scale
industries.
(C) provide consultancy and training to small entrepreneurs – both existing and prospective.
(D) provide integrated administrative framework at the district level for promotion of small-scale industries in
rural areas.
62. Match the items in the two lists :
63. First industrial estate in India was established by SSIB in 1955 at
(A) Okhla in Delhi
(B) Ghaziabad in Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajkot in Gujarat
(D) Sannat Nagar in Jammu & Kashmir
64. The Companies Bill, 2012 has been passed by Parliament in August, 2013. What is not true about this Bill ?
1. It does not provide for corporate social responsibility.
2. It provides for measures to curb corporate frauds.
3. It does not include the concept of corporate fraud.
4. It emphasises on self reputation and stringent penalties on professionals.
Codes :
(A) All of the above are true.
(B) While items 1 and 2 are true, the rest are not.
(C) While items 2 and 4 are true, the rest are not.
(D) All of the above are false.
65. A high ranking organizational official (e.g. general counsellor or vice president) who is expected to provide strategies for ensuring ethical conduct throughout the organization is known as
(A) Ethics Manager
(B) Ethics Officer
(C) Ethics Controller
(D) Ethics Counsellor
66. Indicate the correct code for the following statements about Assertion (A) and Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : All ethical theories are not equally applicable every time in all types of ethical dilemma resolution.
Reason (R) : The ethical resolution should be based as far as possible on a cognitive ethical principle with justification.
Codes :
(A) (A) is correct, (R) is incorrect.
(B) (R) is correct, (A) is incorrect.
(C) Both the statements (A) and (R) are correct.
(D) Both the statements (A) and (R) are incorrect.
67. According to which committee should an organization submit regular social reports ?
(A) Sachchar Committee
(B) Kumarmangalam Birla Report
(C) Both of above
(D) None of above
68. The method of collecting money for Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) by raising prices or following
many other unethical ways is often described as :
(A) Reverse effect
(B) Reverse Robinhood effect
(C) Boomerang
(D) Roosevelt effect
69. When the values and priorities of the parent organization guides the strategic decision making of all its
international operations, it is known as
(A) Polycentric Orientation
(B) Regiocentric Orientation
(C) Ethnocentric Orientation
(D) Geocentric Orientation
70. Indicate the correct code for the following two statements of Assertion and Reason :
Assertion (A) : GDP increases a currency’s value.
Reason (R) : Since there is likely to be greater demand for country’s currency.
Codes :
(A) (A) and (R) both are correct, but (R) is not the appropriate explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
71. The salient features of India’s Foreign Trade Policy are :
i. Reducing the interest burden and extension of the interest subvention scheme.
ii. Rationalizing defence-related imports.
iii. Focus on labour-intensive sectors.
iv. Extension of zero-duty EPCG scheme.
Codes :
(A) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
72. Arrange the following steps of Dispute Settlement Mechanism under the WTO in the systematic order :
i. Panel Proceedings
ii. Appellate Body
iii. Consultations
iv. Compliance Panel
v. Arbitration Panel
Codes :
(A) iii i ii iv v
(B) v iv iii ii i
(C) iv ii iii v i
(D) i ii iii iv v
73. Which of the following schemes is not a part of India’s Foreign Trade Policy 2009-14 ?
(A) DFIA (Duty-Free Import Authorization)
(B) TFITES (Tax-Free IT Export Scheme)
(C) VKGUY (Vishesh Krishi and Gram Udyog Yojana)
(D) FMS (Focus-Market Scheme)
74. Indicate correct code for the following statements of Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R) :
Assertion (A) : The Global Managers must develop systems and policies that address floor price, ceiling price and optimum price.
Reasoning (R) : The Global Managers must be in line with global opportunities and constraints.
Codes :
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) both are correct, but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).
(C) (A) and (R) both are correct, and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
(D) (A) and (R) both are incorrect.
75. Match the following in the context of International Market Entry and indicate the correct code :
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