GATE Exam 2020 Life Sciences (XL) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE-2020

XL: Life Sciences

GA-General Aptitude

Q1 – Q5 carry one mark each.

1. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award was conferred _____Mary Kom, a six-time world champion in boxing, recently in a ceremony _____ the Rashtrapati Bhawan (the President’s official residence) in New Delhi.

(A)  with, at

(B)  on, in

(C)  on, at

(D)  to, at

Answer: (C)

2. Despite a string of a poor performances, the changes of K. L. Rahul’s selection in the team are ______.

(A)  slim

(B)  bright

(C)  obvious

(D)  uncertain

Answer: (B)

3. Select the word that fits the analogy:

Cover : Uncover :: Associate : _______

(A)  Unassociate

(B)  Inassociate

(C)  Missassociate

(D)  Dissociate

Answer: (D)

4. Hig by floods, he kharif (summer sown) crops in various parts of the county have been affected. Officials believe that the loss in production of the kharif crops can be recovered in the output of the rabi (winter sown) crops so that the country can achieve its food-grain production target of 291 million tons in the crop year 2019-20 (July-June). They are hopeful that good rains in July-August will help the soil retain moisture for a longer period, helping winter sown crops such as wheat and pulses during the November-February period.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A)  Officials declared that the food-grain production target will be met due to good rains.

(B)  Officials want the food-grain production target to be met by the November-February period.

(C)  Officials feel that the food-grain production target cannot be met due to floods.

(D)  Officials hope that the food-grain production target will be met due to a good rabi produce.

Answer: (D)

5. The difference between the sum of the first 2n natural numbers and the sum of the first n odd natural numbers is ______.

(A)  n2 – n

(B)  n2 + n

(C)  2n2 – n

(D)  2n2 + n

Answer: (B)

Q6 – Q10 carry two marks each.

6. Repo rate is the at which Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends commercial banks, and reverse repo rate is the rate at which RBI borrows money from commercial banks.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above passage?

(A)  Decrease in repo rate will increase cost of borrowing and decrease lending by commercial banks.

(B)  Increase in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and increase lending by commercial banks.

(C)  Increase in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and decrease lending by commercial banks.

(D)  Decrease in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and increase lending by commercial banks.

Answer: (D)

7. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are seated around a circular table.

(I) S is seated opposite to W.

(II) U is seated at the second place to the right of R.

(III) T is seated at the third place to the left of R.

(IV) V is a neighbor of S.

Which of the following must be true?

(A)  P is a neighbor of R.

(B)  Q is a neighbor of R.

(C)  P is not seated opposite to Q.

(D)  R is the left neighbor of S.

Answer: (C)

8. The distance between Delhi and Agra is 233 km. A car P started travelling from Delhi to Agra and another car Q started from Agra to Delhi along the same road 1 hour after the car P started. The two cars crossed each other 75 minutes after the car Q started. Both cars were travelling at constant speed. The speed of car P was 10 km/hr more than the speed of car Q. How many kilometers the car Q had travelled when the cars crossed each other?

(A)  66.6

(B)  75.2

(C)  88.2

(D)  116.5

Answer: (B)

9. For a matrix M = [mij], i. j= 1, 2, 3, 4, the diagonal elements are all zero and mij = −mij. The minimum number of elements required to fully specify the matrix is_______.

(A)  0

(B)  6

(C)  12

(D)  16

Answer: (B)

10. The profit shares of two companies P and Q are shown in the figure. If the two companies have invested a fixed and equal amount every year, then the ratio of the total revenue of company P to the total revenue of company Q, during 2013-2018 is ______.

(A)  15 : 17

(B)  16 : 17

(C)  17 : 15

(D)  17 : 16

Answer: (B)

XL: Life Sciences – P : Chemistry (Compulsory)

Q1 – Q5 carry one mark each.

1. An aqueous solution contains a mixture of 108 M NaCl and 108 M HCl.

Choose the correct statement about this solution.

(A)  The solution is a buffer with pH less than 7.00

(B)  The solution is a buffer with pH greater than 7.00

(C)  The solution is not a buffer but has its pH less than 7.00

(D)  The solution is not a buffer but has its pH greater than 7.00

Answer: (C)

2. The coordination complex which has a distorted octahedral structure is

(Given: Atomic numbers of V: 23; Mn: 25; Ni: 28; Cu: 29)

(A)  [Ni(H2O)6]2+

(B)  [Mn(H2O)6]2+

(C)  [V(H2O)6]2+

(D)  [Cu(H2O)6]2+

Answer: (D)

3. In naphthalene, the value of the integer “n” according to Huckel’s rule of aromaticity is ______.

Answer: (2 to 2)

4. The azimuthal quantum number (l) of an electron in the  orbital of a copper atom (atomic number: 29) is ______.

Answer: (2 to 2)

5. The standard enthalpy of reaction (in kJ mol1) for obtaining three moles of H2(g) from atomic hydrogen in gas phase is ______. (Given: Standard enthalpy of formation of atomic hydrogen is gas phase is 218 kJ mol1)

Answer: (-1308 to -1308)

Q6 – Q15 carry two marks each.

6. The correct order of the first ionization energies of He, B, N and O in their corresponding ground state is

(A)  He > N > O > B

(B)  O > N > B > He

(C)  He > B > N > O

(D)  N > O > B > He

Answer: (A)

7. Based on the molecular orbital theory, which one of the following statements with respect to N2, N2+, O2 and O2+ is correct?

(A)  Bond orders of N2 and O2 are higher than their corresponding cations.

(B)  Bond energy of N2+ is higher than that of N2, whereas bond energy of O2+ is lower than that of O2.

(C)  The unpaired electrons in N2+ and O2+ are present in σ and π* orbitals, respectively.

(D)  The bond in N2+ is shorter than that is N2, whereas bond in O2 is shorter than that in O2+.

Answer: (C)

8. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about the diborane molecule?

(A)  B-Ht bond is 2-centre-2-electron bond (Ht : terminal hydrogen).

(B)  BHbB bond is a 3-centre-2-electron bond (Hb: bridged hydrogen).

(C)  The  bond angle HtBHt is 122° (Ht : terminal hydrogen)

(D)  The B-Ht bond distance is longer than B-Hb bond distance (Ht : terminal hydrogen, Hb: bridged hydrogen).

Answer: (D)

9. Given below are Newman projections of ethylene glycol and 1, 2-difluoroethane about their respective C-C bonds. The most stable conformations (lowest energy) of ethylene glycol and 1, 2-difluoroethane are

(A)  I and III respectively.

(B)  I and IV respectively.

(C)  II and III respectively.

(D)  II and IV respectively.

Answer: (A)

10. In the reaction given below, choose the condition that gives an anti-Markovnikov’s product.

(A)  Peroxide/HCl

(B)  Aqueous mercuric acetate treatment

(C)  Diborane addition

(D)  Sulfuric acid addition

Answer: (C)

11. Which one of the following hexoses will give an osazone that has a different melting point from that of the osazone obtained from D (+) glucose?

Answer: (C)

12. A molecule in solution crystallizes into two different crystal forms with rate constants of 0.02 s1 and 0.13 s1. If the crystallization is assumed to be under kinetic control, then the half-life (in seconds, rounded off to one decimal place) of the molecular is ________.

Answer: (4.5 to 4.7)

13. The standard potential (Eθcell) for a cell reaction given below is +0.7 V. The standard reactions free energy (∆rGθ) for this cell is _____ kJ mol1 (correct up to two decimal places). (Given: Faraday constant, F = 96500 C mol1)

Au3+ (aq) + 3 Ag(s) → Au(s) + 3Ag+ (aq)

Answer: (-202.66 to -202.64)

14. The activation energy (Ea) estimated for a reaction from the Arrhenius equation is 21 kJ mol1. If the frequency factor is assumed to be independent of temperature, then the ratio of the rate constants determined at 298 K and 260 K is ______ (rounded off to two decimal places). (Given: Gas constant, R = 8.315 J K−1 mol−1)

Answer: (3.44 to 3.46)

15. At a given pressure, a substance is heated from 2000 K to 2600 K. If the entropy of the substance is 60 J K1 mol1, and is assumed to be constant over the given temperature range, then the change in the chemical potential (in kJ mol1) of the substance is _________.

Answer: (-36 to -36)

XL: Life Sciences – Q : Biochemistry

Q1 – Q10 carry one mark each.

1. Which one of the following hormones initiates a signaling cascade by directly binding to an intra-cellular receptor?

(A)  Insulin

(B)  Gonadotropin

(C)  Progesterone

(D)  Epinephrine

Answer: (C)

2. Which one of the following bonds is NOT present in ATP ?

(A)  Phosphoester

(B)  Phosphoanhydride

(C)  N-Glycosidic

(D)  α-Glycosidic

Answer: (D)

3. The reaction involved in the direct conversion of L-phenylalanine of L-tyrosine is

(A)  Hydroxylation

(B)  Decarboxylation

(C)  Transamination

(D)  Reduction

Answer: (A)

4. The humn major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is

(A)  Polygenic and monomorphic

(B)  Polygenic and polymorphic

(C)  Monogenic and polymorphic

(D)  Monogenic and monomorphic

Answer: (B)

5. Har Gobind Khorana and Marshall Nirenberg elucidated the genetic code by using a cell-free protein synthesizing system. It was found that poly(U) and poly(C) result in the synthesis of poly(L-Phe) and poly(L-pro), respectively. Based on these observations, which one of the following conclusions is correct?

(A)  Codon GGG specifies L-Phe and codon AAA specifies L-Pro

(B)  Codon CCC specifies L-Phe and codon UUU specifies L-pro

(C)  Codon AAA specifies L-Phe and codon GGG specifies L-Pro

(D)  Codon UUU specifies L-Phe and codon CCC specifies L-Pro

Answer: (D)

6. Binding of an antibody to its cognate antigen does NOT involve

(A)  Covalent bonds

(B)  Electrostatic foces

(C)  Van der Waals forces

(D)  Hydrogen bonds

Answer: (A)

7. A globular protein of molecular weight 50 kDa exists as a mixture of monomers and dimmers in solution. The most appropriate technique for the separation of these two forms of the protein is

(A)  Thin layer chromatography

(B)  Ion exchange chromatography

(C)  Gel filtration chromatography

(D)  Paper chromatography

Answer: (C)

8. Choose the correct order of molecules according to their ability to diffuse across as lipid bilayer.

(A)  CO2 > H2O > Glucose > RNA

(B)  CO2 > Glucose > H2O > RNA

(C)  RNA > Glucose > CO2 > H2O

(D)  H2O > CO2 > RNA > Glucose

Answer: (A)

9. When one glucose unit from glycogen gets converted to lactate in the muscle, the ne number of ATP molecules produced is _______.

Answer: (3 to 3)

10. Considering that the three pKas of histidine are pK1 = 1.8, pK2 = 9.2 and pKR = 6.0, its isoelectric point will be ______ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Answer: (7.5 to 7.7)

Q11-  Q20 carry two marks each.

11. One mole of a native protein upon N-terminal analysis yielded one mole each of Asp and Val. Therefore, the protein in its native state exists as a

(A)  Monomer

(B)  Homo-dimer

(C)  Hetero-dimer

(D)  Tetramer

Answer: (C)

12. The prosthetic groups/cofactors involved in both 1e and 2e transfer in the mitochondrial electron transport chain are

(A)  NAD and NADP

(B)  NAD and FAD

(C)  Heme and FMN

(D)  Coenzyme Q and FMN

Answer: (D)

13. Match the items in Group I with the most appropriate items in Group II and choose the correct option.

(A)  P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

(B)  P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2

(C)  P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(D)  P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

Answer: (B)

14. The correct combination of glycosidic linkages present in glycogen is

(A)  α 1 → 4 and α 1 → 6

(B)  α 1 → 4 and β 1 → 6

(C)  α 1 → 6 and β 1 → 4

(D)  α 1 → 6 and β 1 → 6

Answer: (A)

15. Polypeptides are either biosynthesized on the ribosomes using an mRNA template or chemically synthesized by the Merrifield’s solid phase method. The correct directions of peptide synthesis are

(A)  C→ N direction on the ribosomes and N → C direction on the solid phase

(B)  N → C direction on the ribosomes and C → N direction on the solid phase

(C)  N → C direction in both cases

(D)  C → N direction in both cases

Answer: (B)

16. A solution absorbs 20% of the incident light in a cuvette of path length 1.0 cm. The amount of light transmitted by the same solution in a curvette of 3.0 cm path length is _______% (rounded off to one decimal place).

Answer: (51.1 to 51.3)

17. The second pKa of phosphoric acid is 6.8. The ratio of Na2HPO4 to NaH2PO4 required to obtain a buffer of pH 7.0 is _______ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Answer: (1.58 to 1.60)

18. A PCR in a 100 μL reaction volume, containing two primers at a concentration of 0.2 μM each, is set up to amplify a 250 base pair DNA fragment. Consider the average molecular weight of one base pair as 660 Da. If the primers are fully consumed by the end of the reaction, the amount of the final PCR product formed is ________μg (rounded off to one decimal place).

Answer: (3.2 to 3.4)

19. An enzyme obeying Michaelis-Menten kinetics shows as reaction velocity (v) of 10 μmol/min when the substrate concentration [S] equals its KM. The maximal velocity Vmax for this enzyme is _______ μmol/min (correct to integer number). (KM is Michaelis-Menten constant)

Answer: (20 to 20)

20. The enzyme glucose isomerase catalyzes the inter-conversion of glucose and fructose as shown.

The ∆G’0 for this reaction is zero kcal/mol. After adding glucose isomerase  to a 0.12 M glucose solution and allowing the reaction to attain equilibrium, the final concentration of fructose in the reaction mixture will be _____ mM.

Answer: (60 to 60)

XL: Life Sciences – R: Botany

Q1 – Q10 carry one mark each.

1. Indefinite stamen is a characteristic feature of which of the following plant families?

(A)  Malvaceae

(B)  Apocynaceae

(C)  Poaceae

(D)  Brassicaceae

Answer: (A)

2. In natural condition, which of the following plants DOES NOT exhibit anomalous secondary growth?

(A)  Rice

(B)  Aloe

(C)  Yucca

(D)  Dracaena

Answer: (A)

3. In a typical angiosperm under natural condition, primary meristems are usually established during

(A)  Gametogenesis

(B)  Embryogenesis

(C)  Vegetative phase development

(D)  Secondary growth

Answer: (B)

4. 2-Methoxy-3, 6-dichlorobenzoic acid belongs to which class of plant growth regulators?

(A)  Synthetic auxin

(B)  Synthetic cytokinin

(C)  Strigolactone

(D)  Brassinosteroid

Answer: (A)

5. In a typical green plant, the first product of Calvin cycle is

(A)  Oxaloacetic acid

(B)  Succinic acid

(C)  Maleic acid

(D)  3-Phosphoglyceric acid

Answer: (D)

6. Among the following, which best describes an organism that lives at the expense of other organisms, harmful but usually not killing?

(A)  Predator

(B)  Symbiotic

(C)  Prey

(D)  Parasite

Answer: (D)

7. The oleo-gum resin asafoetida (hing) is obtained from the cut surface of

(A)  Stem

(B)  Root

(C)  Leaf

(D)  Fruit

Answer: (B)

8. ‘Bakanae’ disease or ‘foolish seedling’ disease is caused by

(A)  Fungus

(B)  Bacterium

(C)  Virus

(D)  Mycoplasma

Answer: (A)

9. Which of the following chemicals is used for doubling of chromosome numbers during production of ‘doubled haploids’ in crop plants?

(A)  Hygromycin

(B)  Kanamycin

(C)  Colchicine

(D)  Glufosinate

Answer: (C)

10. An mRNA of a nuclear encoded plant gene, DSH20 has an ORF of 1353 nucleotides. Provided that average molecular weight of amino acid is 110 Dalton (Da) calculated molecular weight of DSH20 protein in kDa (round off to 1 decimal place) is ______

Answer: (49.5 to 49.5)

Q11 – Q20 carry two marks each.

11. Group I, Group II and Group III represent enzyme, product of the enzymatic reaction, and metabolic process, respectively.

The CORRECT combination fro Group I, Group II and Group III is

(A)  P-ii-1, Q-iv-3, R-v-2, S-iii-4

(B)  P-ii-1, Q-i-3, R-v-4, S-iii-2

(C)  P-ii-2, Q-v-3, R-i-4, S-iii-1

(D)  P-iii-1, Q-i-3, R-iv-4, S-ii-2

Answer: (B)

12. Match the following in CORRECT combination between Group I and Group II with reference to the agents that interfere with oxidative phosphorylation

(A)  P-iv, Q-i, R-ii, S-iii

(B)  P-v, Q-i, R-iii, S-iv

(C)  P-iv, Q-iii, R-ii, S-v

(D)  P-v, Q-ii, R-iii, S-iv

Answer: (A)

13. In relation to Agrobacterium mediated genetic engineering in plants, match the following in CORRECT combination

(A)  P-iv, Q-iii, R-ii, S-v

(B)  P-ii, Q-i, R-iii, S-v

(C)  P-i, Q-ii, R-iii, S-iv

(D)  P-iii, Q-i, R-ii, S-iv

Answer: (C)

14. Match the plant part (Group I) with the product obtained (Group II) and the representative plant species (Group III) in CORRECT combination

(A)  P-ii-1, Q-i-3, R-iv-2, S-iii-4

(B)  P-ii-1, Q-i-2, R-iv-4, S-iii-3

(C)  P-ii-2, Q-iv-3, R-i-4, S-iii-1

(D)  P-iv-3, Q-i-2, R-ii-4, S-iii-1

Answer: (D)

15. Select the CORRECT combination by matching the disease, causal organism and the affected

(A)  P-iv-1, Q-iii-3, R-i-2, S-ii-4

(B)  P-ii-1, Q-i-6, R-iv-4, S-iii-2

(C)  P-iii-1, Q-iv-3, R-i-5, S-ii-4

(D)  P-iv-1, Q-ii-3, R-iii-2, S-i-5

Answer: (A)

16. Match the following alkaloids with their uses and source plants in CORRECT combination

(A)  P-ii-3, Q-iv-1, R-iii-4, S-i-2

(B)  P-ii-1, Q-i-3, R-iv-4, S-iii-2

(C)  P-ii-2, Q-iv-1, R-i-4, S-iii-3

(D)  P-iii-4, Q-ii-1, R-iv-3, S-i-2

Answer: (A)

17. Match the following ecological terms with their appropriate definitions

(A)  P-i, Q-ii, R-iv, S-iii

(B)  P-ii, Q-iv, R-i, S-iii

(C)  P-iv, Q-iii, R-i, S-ii

(D)  P-iii, Q-i, R-ii, S-iv

Answer: (B)

18. Arrange the following ‘water reservoirs of earth’ in decreasing order of water volume

P-Streams

Q-Groundwater

R-Glaciers

S-Lakes and inland seas

(A)  R-Q-S-P

(B)  P-Q-R-S

(C)  S-P-R-Q

(D)  R-P-Q-S

Answer: (A)

19. Selection markers and the corresponding genes used in plant genetic engineering are given below

Choose the CORRECT combination

(A)  P-ii, Q-i, R-iv, S-iii

(B)  P-iv, Q-ii, R-i, S-iii

(C)  P-iv, Q-i, R-ii, S-iii

(D)  P-iii, Q-iv, R-ii, S-i

Answer: (C)

20. A double homozygous mutant develops green and wrinkled seeds. When it was crossed with true-breeding plant having yellow and round seeds, all the F1 plants developed yellow and round seeds. After self-fertilization of F1, the calculated percentage probability of plants with green and wrinkled seeds in the F2 population (round off to 2 decimal places) is ________

Answer: (6.25 to 6.25)

XL: Life Sciences – S: Microbiology

Q1 – Q10 carry one mark each.

1. The technique of microbial “pure culture” was pioneered by

(A)  Edward Jenner

(B)  Louis Pasteur

(C)  Robert Hooke

(D)  Robert Koch

Answer: (D)

2. The antibacterial trimethoprim is an inhibitor of

(A)  dihydrofolate reductase

(B)  dihydropteroate synthetase

(C)  N5, N10-methenyl tetrahydrofolate synthetase

(D)  serine hydroxymethyl transferase

Answer: (A)

3. Choose the correct taxonomical hierarchy among the following:

(A)  Species, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Domain

(B)  Species, Genus, Order, Class, Family, Phylum, Domain

(C)  Species, Genus, Order, Family, Class, Phylum, Domain

(D)  Species, Genus, Family, Class, Order, Phylum, Domain

Answer: (A)

4. Shifting a Sacharomyces cerevisiae culture from fermentative to aerobic respiratory mode will

(A)  decrease carbon dioxide production

(B)  increase alcohol production

(C)  increase glucose consumption

(D)  decrease ATP generation per mole of glucose

Answer: (A)

5. Which one of the following diseases is treated by a neuraminidase inhibitor?

(A)  Chickenpox

(B)  Polio

(C)  Influenza

(D)  Japanese encephalitis

Answer: (C)

6. Which one of the following does NOT provide three-dimensional images?

(A)  Atomic force microscopy

(B)  Confocal scanning laser microscopy

(C)  Differential interference contrast microscopy

(D)  Phase-contrast microscopy

Answer: (D)

7. Which one of the following will increase the resolution of a light microscope ?

(A)  Decreasing the numerical aperture of the objective lens

(B)  Using an objective lens with a longer working distance

(C)  Using a medium of higher refractive index

(D)  Increasing the wavelength of light

Answer: (C)

8. Which one of the following conditions favors maximum expression of lac operon genes in coli?

(A)  Glucose-low, lactose-law, cAMP-high

(B)  Glucose-high, lactose-low, cAMP-high

(C)  Glucose-low, lactose-high, cAMP-high

(D)  Glucose-high, lactose-high, cAMP-low

Answer: (C)

9. Match the cellular organelle in Group I with its function in Group II

(A)  P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

(B)  P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(C)  P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3

(D)  P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

Answer: (B)

10. A 250 μl of bacteriophage stock containing 8 × 108 phages/ml is added to 500 μl of coli culture containing 4 × 108 cells/ml. The multiplicity of infection is _______.

Answer: (1 to 1)

Q11 – Q20 carry two marks each.

11. Digestion of an immunoglobulin G (IgG) molecule with pepsin will NOT

(A)  generate a bivalent antigen binding fragment

(B)  generate monovalent antigen binding fragments

(C)  destroy the complement binding site

(D)  cleave the heavy chain of IgG molecule

Answer: (B)

12. Match the process involved in nitrogen or sulfur cycle in Group I with the corresponding microbe in Group II.

(A)  P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(B)  P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

(C)  P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(D)  P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

Answer: (D)

13. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].

Assertion [a]: Diphtheria exotoxin is an example of A-B type toxin.

Reason [r]: The A component of the toxin is released from the host cell while the B component inhibits protein synthesis and kills the host cell.

(A)  Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(B)  Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(C)  Both [a] and [r] are false

(D)  [a] is true but [r] is false

Answer: (D)

14. Which one of the following statements about control of microbial growth is NOT correct?

(A)  Nonionizing radiation leads to thymine dimmers formation in DNA

(B)  Spirochetes and mycoplasma can pass through membrane filters (0.22-0.45 μm)

(C)  Use of high concentration of salts and sugars to preserve food is a chemical method of microbial control

(D)  Thermoduric bacteria can survive pasteurization

Answer: (C)

15. An example of a differential and selective medium in which colonies of Gram-negative bacteria produce large amounts of acidic products and appear green with a metallic sheen is

(A)  Blood agar

(B)  EMB agar

(C)  MacConkey agar

(D)  Mannitol salt agar

Answer: (B)

16. Which one of the following is an example of substrate level phosphorylation?

(A)  Glucose to Glucose 6-phosphate

(B)  Fructose 6-phosphate to Fructose 1, 6-biphosphate

(C)  1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate

(D)  2-phosphoglycerate to Phosphoenolpyruvate

Answer: (C)

17. A bacterial culture containing 3 × 105 live cells was exposed to a newly developed sterilizing agent. After 30 minutes of exposure, 3 live cells remained in culture. The decimal reduction time (in minutes) for the new agent is ______.

Answer: (6 to 6)

18. A bacterial culture has a generation time of 34 minutes. The time taken (in minutes, rounded off to two decimal places) for the OD550 of this exponentially growing culture to increase from 0.25 to 0.85 is ______.

Assume that OD550 has a linear relationship with the cell density.

Answer: (58.50 to 61.50)

19. A 100 μl aliquot (104 dilution) of the bacterial culture plated on the nutrient agar gave 4 colonies. The bacterial stock concentration (in million cells/ml, rounded off to one decimal place) is _____.

Answer: (0.4 to 0.4)

20. A continuous bacterial culture carried out in a chemostat is set to a flow rate of 40 ml/hr. The culture volume is equivalent to that of a cubical container having 10 cm sides. The dilution rate (in hr1, rounded off to two decimal places) of this system is ________.

Answer: (0.04 to 0.04)

XL: Life Sciences – T: Zoology

Q1 – Q10 carry one mark each.

1. Which ONE of following leucocytes is phagocytic and has clear cytoplasm?

(A)  Eosinophil

(B)  Monocyte

(C)  TH-lymphocyte

(D)  Basophil

Answer: (B)

2. Which ONE of the following techniques can be used for detecting the subcellular localization of serotonin receptor in intact cells?

(A)  Immunoelectron microscopy

(B)  SDS-PAGE

(C)  Fluorescence in-situ hybridization

(D)  Differential centrifugation

Answer: (A)

3. Which ONE of the following is NOT a site for in situ conservation?

(A)  Biosphere reserve

(B)  Wild life sanctuary

(C)  Zoological garden

(D)  Biodiversity hotspot

Answer: (C)

4. Which ONE of the following is the precursor molecule for corticosteroids?

(A)  Androgen

(B)  Estrogen

(C)  Pregnenolone

(D)  Mineralocorticoids

Answer: (C)

5. Transitional epithelia is found in which ONE of the following organs?

(A)  Liver

(B)  Lung

(C)  Brain

(D)  Urinary bladder

Answer: (D)

6. Visual signal transduction cascade is activated by rhodopsin and involves degradation rather than synthesis of which ONE of the following second messenger molecules?

(A)  cAMP

(B)  IP3

(C)  cGMP

(D)  DAG

Answer: (C)

7. The genomes of both human and Drosophila code for an amylase that acts on the same substrate. However, the sequence of nucleotides in the genes encoding the two is dissimilar. This is an example of which ONE of the following types of evolution?

(A)  Neutral

(B)  Directional

(C)  Convergent

(D)  Divergent

Answer: (C)

8. “Round dance” is performed by forager bees to indicate the distance between a food source and their colony. Which ONE of the following best represents this distance?

(A)  45 meters

(B)  450 meters

(C)  1000 meters

(D)  More than 2000 meters

Answer: (A)

9. Which ONE of the following phyla have choanocytes?

(A)  Ctenophora

(B)  Nematoda

(C)  Cnidaria

(D)  Porifera

Answer: (D)

10. Which ONE of the following glial cells is NOT derived from the ectoderm?

(A)  Astrocytes

(B)  Microglial cells

(C)  Oligodendrocytes

(D)  Ependyma

Answer: (B)

Q11 – Q20 carry two marks each.

11. Tarantulas and mosquitoes both belong to the phylum Arthropoda. Which ONE of the following represents the correct number of legs in them respectively?

(A)  6 and 6

(B)  6 and 8

(C)  8 and 8

(D)  8 and 6

Answer: (D)

12. Match the following subcellular organelles in Column I with associated functions in Column II

(A)  P-(iii), Q-(ii), R-(i), S-(iv)

(B)  P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iii), S-(iv)

(C)  P-(iv), Q-(ii), R-(i), S-(iii)

(D)  P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(iv)

Answer: (C)

13. Match the following genetic disorders in Column I with associated typical chromosomal changes mentioned in Column II

(A)  P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i)

(B)  P-(iv), Q-(ii), R-(i), S-(iii)

(C)  P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i)

(D)  P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)

Answer: (D)

14. Match the following components listed in Column I with their respective organs in Column II

(A)  P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii)

(B)  P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(iii)

(C)  P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)

(D)  P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i)

Answer: (A)

15. Match the following digestive enzymes in Column I with their respective functions in Column II.

(A)  P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i)

(B)  P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(ii)

(C)  P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)

(D)  P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i)

Answer: (B)

16. Which ONE of the following graphs represents the relationship between ventricular end-diastolic volume and cardiac output in a healthy adult individual at rest (solid line) and upon exercise (dotted line)?

Answer: (A)

17. Match the household insect vectors in Column I with their associated diseases in Column II.

(A)  P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i)

(B)  P-(iii), Q-(ii), R-(i), S-(iv)

(C)  P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(iii), S-(ii)

(D)  P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i)

Answer: (D)

18. Match the proteins in Column I with the organs in which they are maximally expressed in Column II.

(A)  P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(iii), S-(ii)

(B)  P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i)

(C)  P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i)

(D)  P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iii), S-(iv)

Answer: (C)

19. The graph below shows the activity of enzyme pepsin in the presence of inhibitors aliphatic alcohols (P) or N-acetyl-1-phenylalanine (Q). Which ONE of the following represents the nature of inhibition by P and Q, respectively?

(A)  Non-competitive and competitive

(B)  Competitive and non-competitive

(C)  Non-competitive and uncompetitive

(D)  Competitive and uncompetitive

Answer: (B)

20. In Drosophila, the red eye phenotype (W) is dominant over the recessive white eye mutant (w). In a mixed population of red and white eye flies of 10,000 individuals, 3,600 flies were white eyed. The percentage of the heterozygous red eye flies in this population is ________.

Answer: (48 to 48)

XL: Life Sciences – U : Food Technology

Q1 – Q10 carry one mark each.

1. The enzyme majorly involved in postmortem degradation of muscle proteins is

(A)  Trypsin

(B)  Calpin

(C)  Transglutaminase

(D)  Pepsin

Answer: (B)

2. Which of the following is the correct pair of essential fatty acid?

(A)  Oleic acid and Lenoleic acid

(B)  Lenoleic acid and Linolenic acid

(C)  Linolenic acid and Lauric acid

(D)  Linolenic acid and Oleic acid

Answer: (B)

3. Nisin A is produced by

(A)  Aspergillus niger

(B)  Acttobacter aceti

(C)  Lactobacillus lactis

(D)  Clostridium perfringens

Answer: (C)

4. Which of the following bacteria will stain purple color after Gram staining?

(A)  Bacillus subtilis

(B)  Escherichia coli

(C)  Pseudomonas aeruginaosa

(D)  Yersinia pestis

Answer: (A)

5. The enzyme system used for removal of glucose from egg white prior to its drying consists of

(A)  Glucose oxidase and Catalase

(B)  Glucosidase and Glucoisomerase

(C)  Glucoisomerase and Catalase

(D)  Gluccoamylase and Glucose oxidase

Answer: (A)

6. The INCORRECT pair of food borne illness and its causative microorganism is

(A)  Brucellosis-Brucella Sp.

(B)  Peptic ulcers-Bacillus subtilis

(C)  Bubonic plague-Yersinia pestis

(D)  Q fever-Coxiella burnatii

Answer: (B)

7. Which of the following is commonly used as preservative in the tomato sauce?

(A)  Sodium sulphite

(B)  Potassium sorbate

(C)  Potassium sulphite

(D)  Sodium benzoate

Answer: (D)

8. A fluid with flow behvaviour index less than one (n < 1) is

(A)  Dilatant

(B)  Pseudoplastic

(C)  Bingham plastic

(D)  Newtonian

Answer: (B)

9. The velocity of 2.2 μm diameter fat particles inside a cetribfuge, running at 6000 rpm and 20°C, is 0.25 mm s1. The velocity of 1.5 μm diameter fat particles inside the same centrifuge running at 7500 rpm and same temperature (round off to 2 decimal places) will be ____ mm s1.

Answer: (0.15 to 0.21)

10. The initial population of a bacterial strain increases from 1 × 104 cells per mL to 1 × 106 cells per mL in 120 minutes. The generation time for this strain (round off to 2 decimal places) is ______ minutes.

Answer: (17.00 to 19.00)

Q11 – Q20 carry two marks each.

11. Match the protein in Column I with its food source in Column II.

(A)  P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(B)  P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(C)  P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(D)  P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

Answer: (D)

12. Match the carbohydrate in Column I with corresponding enzyme used for its hydrolysis in Column II.

(A)  P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

(B)  P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(C)  P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(D)  P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

Answer: (A)

13. Match the edible oil refining stage in Column I with its purpose in Column II.

(A)  P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(B)  P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

(C)  P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D)  P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

Answer: (D)

14. Match the food material in Column I with its related term in Column II.

(A)  P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3

(B)  P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(C)  P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(D)  P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2

Answer: (B)

15. Match the components/system in Column I with the peeling method for fruits and vegetables in Column II.

(A)  P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(B)  P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(C)  P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D)  P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

Answer: (C)

16. Which among the given options correctly explains the nature of the microbial culture represented by lines 1, 2 and 3 in the following figure?

Answer: (B)

17. Match the equation/law in Column I with its application in Column II.

(A)  P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2

(B)  P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(C)  P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(D)  P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

Answer: (C)

18. Match the absorber used in modified atmosphere packaging and storage in Column I with the scavenger in Column II.

(A)  P-2, Q-2, R-4, S-1

(B)  P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3

(C)  P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(D)  P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

Answer: (A)

19. During extrusion cooking, food materials are generally subjected to a combination of

(A)  high shear and low pressure

(B)  high temperature and high shear

(C)  low shear and high temperature

(D)  low shear and low pressure

Answer: (B)

20. An orange juice flowing at 0.80 kg s1 enters a counter current double pipe heat exchanger at 20°C and leaves at 72° Inlet and outlet temperatures of the hot water used as heating medium in the exchanger are 81°C and 74°C, respectively. The specific heat of the orange juice is 3.74 kJ kg1 K1 and overall heat transfer coefficient is 492 W m2 K1. The heat transfer surface area (round off to 2 decimal places) will be ______ m2.

Answer: (11.00 to 14.00)

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