# GATE Exam 2023 Architecture and Planning (AR) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE-2023

AR: Architecture and Planning

General Aptitude.

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. He did not manage to fix the car himself, so he _______ in the garage.

(A)  got it fixed

(B)  getting it fixed

(C)  gets fixed

(D)  got fixed

2. Planting : Seed : : Raising : _____

(By word meaning)

(A)  Child

(B)  Temperature

(C)  Height

(D)  Lift

3. A certain country has 504 universities and 25951 colleges. These are categorised into Grades I, II, and III as shown in the given pie charts.

What is the percentage, correct to one decimal place, of higher education institutions (colleges and universities) that fall into Grade III?

(A)  22.7

(B)  23.7

(C)  15.0

(D)  66.8

4. The minute-hand and second-hand of a clock cross each other _______ times between 09:15:00 AM and 09:45:00 AM on a day.

(A)  30

(B)  15

(C)  29

(D)  31

5. The symbols  are to be filled, one in each box, as shown below.

The rules for filling in the four symbols are as follows.

(1) Every row and every column must contain each of the four symbols.

(2) Every 2 × 2 square delineated by bold lines must contain each of the four symbols.

Which symbol will occupy the box marked with ‘?’ in the partially filled figure?

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

6. In a recently held parent-teacher meeting, the teachers had very few complaints about Ravi. After all, Ravi was a hardworking and kind student. Incidentally, almost all of Ravi’s friends at school were hardworking and kind too. But the teachers drew attention to Ravi’s complete lack of interest in sports. The teachers believed that, along with some of his friends who showed similar disinterest in sports, Ravi needed to engage in some sports for his overall development.

Based only on the information provided above, which one of the following statements can be logically inferred with certainty?

(A)  All of Ravi’s friends are hardworking and kind.

(B)  No one who is not a friend of Ravi is hardworking and kind.

(C)  None of Ravi’s friends are interested in sports.

(D)  Some of Ravi’s friends are hardworking and kind.

7. Consider the following inequalities

p2 – 4q < 4

3p + 2q < 6

where p and q are positive integers.

The value of (p + q) is ______.

(A)  2

(B)  1

(C)  3

(D)  4

8. Which one of the sentence sequences in the given options creates a coherent narrative?

(i) I could not bring myself to knock.

(ii) There was a murmur of unfamiliar voices coming from the big drawing room and the door was firmly shut.

(iii) The passage was dark for a bit, but then it suddenly opened into a bright kitchen.

(iv) I decided I would rather wander down the passage.

(A)  (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)

(B)  (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)

(C)  (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

(D)  (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

9. How many pairs of sets (S,T) are possible among the subsets of {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} that satisfy the condition that S is a subset of T?

(A)  729

(B)  728

(C)  665

(D)  664

10. An opaque pyramid (shown below), with a square base and isosceles faces, is suspended in the path of a parallel beam of light, such that its shadow is cast on a screen oriented perpendicular to the direction of the light beam. The pyramid can be reoriented in any direction within the light beam. Under these conditions, which one of the shadows P, Q, R, and S is NOT possible?

(A)  P

(B)  Q

(C)  R

(D)  S

AR: Architecture and Planning

PART A: Common FOR ALL CANDIDATES

Q.11 – Q.28 Carry ONE mark Each

11. The triad of secondary colours in the additive colour system is _________.

(A)  Cyan, Magenta, Yellow

(B)  Red, Green, Blue

(C)  Purple, Green, Orange

(D)  Magenta, Blue, Yellow

12. The criterion that is specifically mentioned in Special Conditions of Contract (SCC) is__________.

(A)  Scope and performance of the work

(C)  Labour regulation

(D)  Arbitration and law

13. The command employed in AutoCAD® to create a mesh from a line or curve that is swept along a straight path (as shown in the figure below) is _________.

(A)  TABSURF

(B)  REVSURF

(C)  RULESURF

(D)  EDGESURF

14. As per the Burra Charter (2013) ‘Cultural Significance’ means __________ for past, present or future generations.

(A)  historic, aesthetic, scientific, social or spiritual value

(B)  archaeological, architectural, environmental, cultural value

(C)  natural, cultural, mixed, intangible heritage

(D)  heritage value, authenticity, integrity

15. As per URDPFI (2015), the density range (in persons per Hectare) suggested for overall planning approach for small towns in hill areas is ________.

(A)  20-30

(B)  45-75

(C)  100-125

(D)  125-150

16. In ecology, the term ‘niche’ refers to ______.

(A)  the ways in which species interact with biotic and abiotic factors of the environment

(B)  only the abiotic factors such as temperature and rainfall

(C)  the gradient change of physiochemical characteristics between two ecosystems

(D)  the zone of junction or a transition area between two biomes

17. Lowry’s model of Metropolis (1964) includes two _____________ spatial interaction models.

(A)  Singly constrained

(B)  Doubly constrained

(C)  Unconstraine

(D)  Triply constrained

18. Select the method(s) that involve(s) a pairwise comparison matrix for quantifying the weights of decision criteria.

(A)  Analytical hierarchy process

(B)  Exploratory factor analysis

(C)  Latent class analysis

(D)  Multiple linear regression

19. Select the micro-organism which is NOT an enteric pathogen.

(A)  Staphylococcus aureus

(B)  Vibrio cholerae

(C)  Escherichia coli

(D)  Salmonella typhi

20. Select the publication by Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) related to Environmental Accounts as per UN-SEEA framework.

(A)  EnviStats India 2022

(B)  Energy Conservation Building Code 2017

(C)  Eco Niwas Samhita 2018

(D)  Climate Change 2022: Impacts, Adaptation and Vulnerability

21. Ebenezer Howard suggested the maximum population of ‘Garden City’ as________ persons.

(A)  10,000

(B)  22,000

(C)  32,000

(D)  58,000

22. In eighteenth century English gardens, __________was used to eliminate visual boundaries between the garden and the landscape.

(A)  Stroll garden

(B)  Sunken fence

(C)  Topiary

(D)  Qanat

23. The figure below shows the spatial arrangement of rooms in a building with access from the exterior, marked as ‘entry’. Identify the appropriate diagram showing the access to rooms starting from the entry.

24. In high-rise buildings, the method adopted to prevent ingress of smoke in an enclosed fire staircase is _________.

(A)  Polarization

(B)  Pressurization

(C)  Perpetuation

(D)  Fumigation

25. Select the Act which stipulates prohibited area of 100 m around centrally protected monuments in India.

(A)  The Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972

(B)  The AMASR (Amendment and Validation) Act, 2010

(C)  Urban Land (Ceiling and Regulation) Act, 1976

(D)  Environment Protection Act, 1986

26. Select the option(s) which include(s) a pair of ‘Gestalt’ principles.

(A)  Proximity and Similarity

(B)  Continuity and Closure

(C)  Grain and Texture

(D)  Scale and Proportion

27. Select the option(s) which is/are NOT considered as primary air pollutant(s).

(A)  Suspended particulate matter

(B)  Oxides of nitrogen

(C)  Volatile organic compounds

(D)  Peroxyacetyl Nitrate

28. Select the Biosphere Reserve(s) in India which is/are listed in the ‘Man and the Biosphere’ program of UNESCO.

(A)  Sunderban

(B)  Sena Oura

(C)  Majang Forest

(D)  Gulf of Mannar

Q.29 – Q.49 Carry TWO marks Each

29. Match the buildings in Group I with their dominant spatial pattern in Group II.

(A)  P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-5

(B)  P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(C)  P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5

(D)  P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

30. Match the Parts of Residential Buildings in Group-I with their respective minimum width (in m) in Group-II as per the National Building Code 2016

(A)  P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3

(B)  P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(C)  P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-4

(D)  P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3

31. Match the following City Planning concepts in Group-I with their proponents in Group-II

(A)  P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-3

(B)  P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2

(C)  P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

(D)  P-1, Q-5, R-3, S-2

32. With reference to planning and design of housing, identify the correct statements.

(P) Gross population density is higher than net population density

(Q) Gross population density is lower than net population density

(R) Net population density is directly proportional to area of the plot

(S) Net population density is inversely proportional to area of the plot

(A)  Both Q and S are correct

(B)  Both Q and R are correct

(C)  Both P and R are correct

(D)  Both P and S are correct

33. Match the Mission in Group I with their objectives in Group II.

(A)  P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1

(B)  P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-3

(C)  P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1

(D)  P-2, Q-5, R-3, S-4

34. Select the option(s) that is/are listed among the Sustainable Development Goals as articulated by the United Nations.

(B)  Sustainable Cities and Communities

(C)  Protection of Indigenous Culture and Architecture

(D)  Good Health and Well-being

35. Select the statement(s) that are TRUE regarding ‘Building Security Services’.

(A)  ‘Radio Frequency Identification Device’ is used for electronic access control system.

(B)  ‘Magnetic Loop Detector’ is used for fire detection system.

(C)  ‘Infrared Sensor’ is used in public broadcasting system.

(D)  ‘Iris Scan’ is a type of biometric access control system.

36. Select the statement(s) that are TRUE regarding ‘Quality and Cost-Based Selection (QCBS)’ system for tendering.

(A)  Financial bid is opened before technical bid.

(B)  Earnest Money Deposit (EMD) is submitted before the opening of technical bid.

(C)  Technically qualified bidder with lowest financial bid is always awarded the job.

(D)  A composite scoring system considering both the financial and technical bids is adopted for awarding the job.

37. Design of septic tank requires consideration of space for the following item(s).

(A)  Settling of incoming sewage

(B)  Storage of digested sludge

(C)  Installation of liner to allow seepage of effluent

(D)  Digestion of the settled sludge

38. Select the place(s) which have adopted the “star pattern” of the French Garden in the design of its /their urban form(s).

(A)  Versailles

(B)  Washington D.C.

(D)  Jaipur

39. Select the parameter(s) required for determining peak rates of runoff using the Rational formula.

(A)  Intensity of rainfall

(B)  Coefficient of runoff

(C)  Velocity of flow

(D)  Hydraulic mean depth of flow

40. As per Solid Waste Management Rules 2016 (Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate, Govt. of India) select the correct statement(s).

(A)  “dry waste” means waste other than bio-degradable waste and inert street sweepings.

(B)  “combustible waste” means biodegradable, recyclable, reusable, hazardous solid waste having maximum calorific value of 800 kcal/kg.

(C)  “domestic hazardous waste” includes expired medicine, CFL bulbs, discarded paint drums.

(D)  “biodegradable waste” means any inorganic material that cannot be degraded by micro-organisms into simpler stable compounds.

41. Select the correct statement(s) from the following.

(A)  Introduction of automobiles led to urban sprawl.

(B)  Compact cities show relatively higher carbon emissions.

(C)  Land use and transportation planning is inter-dependent on each other.

(D)  Addition of a transport mode in an urban area does not change accessibility.

42. Choose the correct statement(s) with regard to composting.

(A)  It produces natural soil amendment and enhances the effectiveness of fertilizer.

(B)  Warm temperature of tropical regions is least suitable for composting.

(C)  Composting is an aerobic thermophilic process.

(D)  Windrow composting and in-vessel composting are two of the common composting methods.

43. Select the item(s) that are NOT stipulated as obligatory function(s) of the urban local bodies as per the 12th Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

(A)  Urban poverty alleviation

(B)  Promotion of cultural, educational and aesthetic aspects

(C)  Special measures for disaster mitigation

(D)  Prevention of cruelty to animals

44. The annual precipitation recorded in a town is 400 mm. Rainwater is being collected from the flat roof of a building, and then treated to potable standards, and stored. Water loss due to evaporation, transmission and treatment is 40 percent of the total harvested volume. The roof area is 500 sq.m. There are 3 occupants, with average daily water demand as 200 lpcd. The stored rainwater will be adequate for the household’s daily use for ________ days [in integer].

45. A primary school is having 8 class rooms, each having internal dimensions of 15m × 10m × 4m (height). Only the internal walls of all the class rooms are proposed to be painted. Assume a deduction of 10% internal wall area due to doors, windows etc. The specification suggests two coats of paint application. The spreading rates of the selected paint during base coat and finish coat are 4.5 l/sq.m and 2.5 l/sq.m respectively. The amount of paint (in liters) required for the job will be _______ [in integer].

46. A construction project consists of four activities. The quantity of work, manpower requirement, and the productivity of the activities are listed in the table below. The interrelationship between the activities are also mentioned in the table. The construction project will start on January 29. Assume no holidays for the entire duration of the project. The project will finish on February _____ [mention date in number].

47. For a privately developed group housing project, the ratio of total number of dwelling units of HIG: MIG: LIG is 3:2:1. The proposed average size of HIG, MIG and LIG units in sq.m are 100, 60 and 30 respectively. The ratio of the total built up area between (MIG + LIG) to HIG will be 1: ______ [in integer].

48. The surface development of a three dimensional object is shown in the figure below. The dotted lines indicate the folds. The dimensions given in the figure are in centimeter. The volume of the three-dimensional object (in cu.cm) is_________ [ rounded off to one decimal place].

49. A residential housing project is designed in a plot measuring 1 hectare. The car parking area is equally distributed between the ground floor and the basement. Considering the data given below, the number of cars accommodated in the basement will be________ [in integer].

Data:

FAR consumed = 2.0 Car parking area is exempted from built up area for FAR calculations. One car parking to be given for each 100 sq.m of built up area. Area required for accommodating each car in ground floor = 15 sq.m Area required for accommodating each car in basement = 25 sq.m

PART B1: FOR Architecture CANDIDATES ONLY

Q.50 – Q.56 Carry ONE mark Each

50. As per the CPWD Specifications (2019), the material used for cleaning marble flooring after polishing is__________.

(A)  Oxalic Acid

(B)  Caustic Soda

(C)  Bleaching Power

(D)  White Cement

51. The proportion of the sides of a traditional Japanese tatami mat is _______.

(A)  1 : 1.414

(B)  1 : 1.5

(C)  1 : 2

(D)  1 : 1.618

52. As per IS:4954 – 1964, the acceptable noise level (in dB) for urban residential areas is____________.

(A)  35-45

(B)  65-75

(C)  20-30

(D)  15-25

53. Identify the Indian tribe that is associated with the vernacular dwelling illustrated in the image below.

(A)  Bhotia, Uttarakhand

(C)  Naga, Nagaland

(D)  Kutia Kondh, Odisha

54. Thermal diffusivity of a wall is influenced by the choice of building material. Identify the statement(s) that is/are correct.

(A)  Thermal diffusivity is inversely proportional to thermal conductivity.

(B)  Increase in specific heat capacity increases the thermal diffusivity.

(C)  Materials with low thermal diffusivity have a high amplitude dampening effect.

(D)  Thermal diffusivity is inversely proportional to the density of material.

55. Select the statement(s) which are NOT correct with respect to burnt clay bricks.

(A)  Lime (<10% of clay) in carbonated form lowers the fusion point of bricks.

(B)  Magnesia (>1% of clay) imparts red colour to the bricks.

(C)  Iron Pyrites tend to oxidize and decompose the brick during burning.

(D)  Alkalis (alkaline salts) when present in excess (>10% of clay) decrease the probability of efflorescence.

56. Select the example(s) of Art Nouveau architecture.

(A)  Basilica of the Sagrada Familia, Barcelona

(B)  Chrysler Building, New York

(C)  Eiffel Tower, Paris

(D)  Mackintosh Building of the Glasgow School of Art, Glasgow

Q.57 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

57. Match the buildings in Group I with their architectural feature in Group II.

(A)  P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-5

(B)  P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3

(C)  P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-2

(D)  P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5

58. Match the architects in Group I with their key architectural ideas in Group II.

(A)  P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-3

(B)  P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-5

(C)  P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3

(D)  P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-2

59. Match the pump types in Group-I with their key components in Group-II.

(A)  P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-5

(B)  P-1, Q-2, R-5, S-3

(C)  P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-1

(D)  P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

60. Match the geometric forms in Group I with the buildings in Group II.

(A)  P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2

(B)  P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-4

(C)  P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(D)  P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

61. Match the instruments in Group I with the physical quantities they measure in Group II.

(A)  P-5, Q-2, R-1, S-3

(B)  P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(C)  P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5

(D)  P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-4

62. Match the terms in Group I with their associated items in Group II.

(A)  P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-2

(B)  P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(C)  P-1, Q-5, R-4, S-2

(D)  P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-5

63. Choose the correct statement(s) from the following:

(A)  Waste water from sinks, baths, etc. enters through the top inlet of a gully trap, while foul water from sweeping of rooms or courtyards enters from side inlet.

(B)  Anti-siphon traps have a reduced water-way at the inlet side, while the outlet being larger prevents the pipe from filling full and causing siphonic action.

(C)  Intercepting traps prevent foul gases from street sewer to enter into the house.

(D)  P, Q and S traps are classified according to their shape.

64. A steel wire of 5.65 mm diameter and 50 m length is used for a hoisting crane. The wire is used to vertically lift a weight of 200 kg attached to its lowest end. Assume the Young’s Modulus of Elasticity of Steel as 2 × 105 N/mm2 and gravitational acceleration as 10 m/sec2. The elongation of the steel wire (in mm ) will be ____ [rounded off to two decimal places].

65. A simply supported RCC beam of span 4 m is supporting a brick wall over its entire span. The brick wall is 250 mm thick and 2 m high. The RCC beam has a depth of 600 mm and width of 250 mm. The density of brick masonry and RCC can be assumed as 18 KN/m3 and 25 KN/m3 Considering the load of the wall and self-weight of the RCC beam, the maximum bending moment in the beam (in KN-m) will be _______ [rounded off to two decimal places].

PART B2: FOR Planning CANDIDATES ONLY

Q.66 – Q.72 Carry ONE mark Each

66. Select the most appropriate scale to measure Attitude, Opinion and Perception.

(A)  Likert scale

(B)  Ratio scale

(C)  Richter scale

(D)  Armstrong scale

67. Jal Shakti Abhiyan initiated by the Ministry of Jal Shakti does NOT include ____.

(A)  Water conservation and rain water harvesting

(B)  Renovation of traditional water bodies

(C)  Hydroelectric power generation

(D)  Intensive afforestation

68. Select the correct sequence of activities for transit-operation planning process.

(A)  Network Route Design → Timetable Development → Vehicle Scheduling → Crew Scheduling

(B)  Timetable Development → Crew Scheduling → Vehicle Scheduling → Network route design

(C)  Vehicle Scheduling → Crew Scheduling → Network Route Design → Timetable Development

(D)  Crew Scheduling → Vehicle Scheduling → Timetable Development → Network Route Design

69. Select the correct sequence of steps for designing the operation of a signalized intersection.

(A)  Signal Phasing → Green Allocation → Cycle Length Selection

(B)  Green Allocation → Cycle Length Selection → Signal Phasing

(C)  Cycle Length Selection → Signal Phasing → Green Allocation

(D)  Signal Phasing → Cycle Length Selection → Green Allocation

70. Considering the following statements (P, Q, and R), select the correct option.

(P) Prediction of travel demand depends on target year modal alternatives.

(Q) Prediction of travel demand depends on target year population.

(R) Prediction of travel demand depends on target year land use.

(A)  Only P is correct

(B)  Only P & R are correct

(C)  Only Q & R are correct

(D)  P, Q, and R are all correct

71. During Covid-19 pandemic, the ARHC scheme was launched in 2021 by the Government of India to address the problems of poor urban migrants. The term ARHC refers to__________.

(A)  Accessible Rural Health Centre

(B)  Affordable Rental Housing Complexes

(C)  Affordable Rentals for Homeless Citizens

(D)  Accessible Rural Housing Complexes

72. Choose the non-probability sampling method where the sample is taken from a group of people easy to contact or reach.

(A)  Simple random sampling

(B)  Snowball sampling

(C)  Convenience sampling

(D)  Stratified random sampling

Q.73 – Q.81 Carry TWO marks Each

73. Match the items in Group-I with the most appropriate stages of travel demand modelling in Group-II.

(A)  P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(B)  P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1

(C)  P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5

(D)  P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-5

74. Match the Acts in Group-I with the corresponding organizations empowered by the Act in Group-II.

(A)  P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(B)  P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5

(C)  P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-5

(D)  P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-2

75. As per IRC 11:1962, separate bicycle tracks may be provided when the peak hour ________.

Which of the following statement(s) can be used to correctly fill in the blank?

(P) Bicycle traffic is 400 bicycles/hour or more and the volume of motorized vehicles is 100-200 vehicles/hour

(Q) Bicycle traffic is 100 bicycles/hour or more and the volume of motorized vehicles exceed 200 vehicles/hour

(R) Bicycle traffic is 100-200 bicycles/hour and the volume of motorized vehicle is 100-200 vehicles/hour

(A)  Only P & Q

(B)  Only P & R

(C)  Only R

(D)  P, Q & R

76. As per URDPFI Guidelines (2015), match the following settlement types in Group-I to their population range in Group-II.

(A)  P-5, Q-2, R-3, S-1

(B)  P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5

(C)  P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(D)  P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-5

77. Match the application areas in Group I with the Satellites/Satellite sensors in Group II.

(A)  P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(B)  P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-4

(C)  P-5, Q-2, R-4, S-3

(D)  P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-1

78. Select the institution(s) that are mandated as per the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 of India.

(A)  Panchayat

(B)  Municipal council

(C)  Ward committee

(D)  Gram Sabha

79. Select the method(s) that can be used for landuse classification based on satellite images.

(A)  Maximum Likelihood

(B)  Northwest Corner Method

(C)  K Means

(D)  ANN

80. The figure below shows a contour diagram and two points (A & B) on the continuously ascending surface. The horizontal projection of AB is 200 m long, and the gradient of AB is 1 in 25. The constant contour interval (in m) is ______ [in integer].