# JIPMER Medical Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2016 With Answer Key

JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2016

Physics

1. The displacement x of a particle varies with time t as x = ae−αt + beβt, where a, a, b, α and β are positive constants. The velocity of the particle will

(a)   decrease with time

(b)   be independent of α and β

(c)   drop to zero when α − β

(d)   increase with time

2. A transformer having efficiency of 75% is working on 220 V and 4.4 kW power supply. If the current in the secondary coil is 5A. What will be the voltage across secondary coil and the current in primary coil?

(a)   VS = 220 V, iP = 20 A

(b)   VS = 660 V, iP = 15 A

(c)   VS = 660 V, iP = 20 A

(d)   VS = 220 V, iP = 15 A

3. A fish rising vertically to the surface of water in a lake uniformly at the rate of 2 m/s observes a kingfisher diving vertically towards the water at a rate of 10 m/s. If refractive index of water n = 4/3, what will be the actual velocity o f the kingfisher

(a)   10 m/s

(b)   8 m/s

(c)   6 m/s

(d)   9 m/s

4. One mole of a monoatomic ideal gas undergoes the process A → B in the given p-V diagram. The molar heat capacity for this process is

(a)   3R/2

(b)   13R/6

(c)   5R/2

(d)   2R

5. A pan with a set of weights is attached to a light spring. The period of vertical oscillation is 0.5s. When some additional weights are put in pan, then the period of oscillations increases by 0.1s. The extension caused by the additional weight is

(a)   5.5 cm

(b)   3.8 cm

(c)   2.7 cm

(d)   1.3 cm

6. A cylinder of radius R and length L is placed in a uniform electric field E parallel to the cylinder axis. The total flux for the surface of the cylinder is given by

(a)   2πR2E

(b)   πR2/E

(c)   R/E

(d)   zero

7. If A + B = C and that C is perpendicular to What is the angle between A and B, if |A| = |C|

(a)

(b)

(c)

8. A beam of light travelling along X-axis is described by the electric field  the maximum magnetic force on a charge q = 2e, moving along Y-axis with the speed of 3 × 108 m/s is

(a)   19.2 × 10−17 N

(b)   1.92 × 10−17 N

(c)   0.192 N

(d)   None of these

9. A body is whirled in a horizontal circle of radius 25 cm. It has an angular velocity of 13 rad/s. What is its linear velocity at any point on circular path?

(a)   2 m/s

(b)   3 m/s

(c)   3.25 m/s

(d)   4.25 m/s

10. In the given figure, potential difference between A and B is

(a)   0

(b)   5 V

(c)   10 V

(d)   15 V

11. A block having 12g of element is placed in a room. This element is a radioactive element with half-life of 15 yr. After how many years will there be just 1.5 g of the element in the box?

(a)   40 yr

(b)   45 yr

(c)   20 yr

(d)   15 yr

12. In the given figure what will be the coefficient of mutual inductance

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

13. An L-C-R series circuit with a resistance of 100 Ω is connected to 200 V (AC source) and angular frequency 300 rad/s. When only the capacitor is removed, then the current lags behind the voltage by 60°. The average power dissipated in original L-C-R circuit is

(a)   50 W

(b)   100 W

(c)   200 W

(d)   400 W

14. The intensity of each of the two slits in Young’s double slit experiment is I0. Calculate the minimum separation between the points on the screen, where intensities are 2I0 and I0. If fringe width is b

(a)   b/5

(b)   b/8

(c)   b/12

(d)   b/4

15. A metal rod at a temperature of 145°C, radiates energy at a rate of 17 W. If its temperature is increased to 273°C, then it will radiate at the rate of

(a)   49.6 W

(b)   17.5 W

(c)   50.3 W

(d)   67.5 W

16. Two wires are stretched through same distance. The force constant of second wire is half as that of the first wire. The ratio of work done to stretch first wire and second wire will be

(a)   2 : 1

(b)   1 : 2

(c)   3 : 1

(d)   1 : 3

17. A square wire of side 2.0 c is placed 20 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm with its centre on the axis of the mirror and its plane normal to the axis. The area enclosed by the image of wire is

(a)   7.5 cm2

(b)   6 cm2

(c)   2 cm2

(d)   4 cm2

18. A lead bullet penetrates into a solid object and melts. Assuming that 50% of kinetic energy was used to heat it, the initial speed of the bullet is (the initial temperature of the bullet is 25°C and its melting point is 300°C). Latent heat of fusion of lead = 2.5 × 104 J/kg and specific heat capacity of lead = 125 J/kg-K

(a)   100 m/s

(b)   ≈ 490 m/s

(c)   520 m/s

(d)   360 m/s

19. A quarter cylinder of radius R and refractive index 1.5 is placed on a table. A point object P is kept at a distance of mR from it as shown in figure. For water value of m for which a ray from P will emerge parallel to the table?

(a)   2/3

(b)   3/2

(c)   4/3

(d)   3/4

20. The graph 1/λ and stopping potential (V) of three metals having work function ϕ1, ϕ2 and ϕ3 in an experiment of photoelectric effect is plotted as shown in figure. Which one of the following statement is/are correct? [Here λ is the wavelength of the incident ray]

(i) Ratio of work functions ϕ1 : ϕ2 : ϕ3 = 1: 2 : 4

(ii) Ratio of work functions ϕ1 : ϕ2 : ϕ3 = 4 : 2 : 1

(iii)  , where h = Planck’s constant, c = speed of light

(iv) The violet colour-light can eject photoelectrons from metals 2 and 3

(a)   (i), (iii)

(b)   (i), (iv)

(c)   (ii), (iii)

(d)   (i), (ii) and (iv)

21. The concentric, conducting spherical shells X, Y and Z with radii r, 2r and 3r, respectively. X and Z are connected by a conducting wire and Y is uniformly charged to charge Q as shown in figure. Charges on shells X and Z will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

22. The temperature of gas is raised from 27°C to 927°C. The root mean square speed

(a)   gets halved

(b)   gets doubled

(c)   is  the earlier value

(d)   remains the same

23. A particles slides down on a smooth incline of inclination 30°, fixed in an elevator going up with an acceleration 2 m/s2. The box of incline has a length 4m. The time taken by the particle to reach the bottom will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

24. A stone projected with a velocity u at an angle θ with the horizontal reaches maximum height H1. When it is projected with velocity u at an angle  with the horizontal, it reaches maximum height H2. The relation between the horizontal range R of the projectile, H1 and H2 is

(a)

(b)   R = 4(H1 – H2)

(c)   R = 4(H1 + H2)

(d)

25. Two batteries of emf 3V and 6V with internal resistances 2Ω and 4Ω are connected in a circuit with resistance of 10Ω as shown in figure. The current and potential difference between the points P and Q are

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

26. A light string passes over a frictionless pulley. To one of its ends a mass of 8 kg is attached. To its other end two masses of 7 kg each are attached. The acceleration of the system will be

(a)   10.2 g

(b)   5.10 g

(c)   20.36 g

(d)   0.27 g

27. A capillary tube of length L and radius r is connected with another capillary tube of the same length but half the radius in series. The rate of steady volume flow of water through first capillary tube under a pressure difference of p is V. The rate of steady volume flow through the combination will be (the pressure difference across the combination is p)

(a) 17 V

(b)

(c)

(d)

28. A system consist of a cylinder surrounded by a cylindrical shell. A cylinder is a radius R and is made of material of thermal conductivity K, whereas a cylindrical shell has inner radius R and outer radius 2R and is made of material of thermal conductivity twice as that of cylinder. Assuming the system in steady state and negligible heat loss across the cylindrical surface, find the effective thermal conductivity of the system, if the two ends of the combined system are maintained at two different temperatures.

(a)   3K

(b)

(c)   7K/4

(d)   5K/4

29. An isotropic point source emits light with wavelength 500 nm. The radiation power of source is P = 10 W. Find the number of photons passing through unit area per second at a distance of 3 m from the source.

(a)   5.92 × 1017/m2 s

(b)   2.23 × 1017/m2 s

(c)   2.23 × 1018/m2 s

(d)   5.92 × 1018/m2 s

30. If a proton and anti-proton come close to each other and annihilate, how much energy will be released?

(a)   1.5 × 10−10 J

(b)   3 × 10−10 J

(c)   4.5 × 10−10 J

(d)   2 × 10−10 J

31. A body a rest slides down a 30° inclined plane. The time taken by it to slide down is twice the time it takes when it slides down the same distance in the absence of friction. The coefficient of friction between the body and the inclined plane is

(a)   0.43

(b)   0.37

(c)   0.64

(d)   0.75

32. A bat emitting an ultrasonic wave of frequency 4.5 × 104 Hz at speed of 6 m/s between two parallel walls. The two frequencies heared by the bat will be

(a)   4.67 × 104 Hz, 4.34 × 104 Hz

(b)   4.34 × 104 Hz, 4.67 × 104 Hz

(c)   4.5 × 104 Hz, 5.4 × 104 Hz

(d)   4.67 × 103 Hz, 4.34 × 104 Hz

33. The charges on two spheres are +7 μC and −5 μC respectively. They experience of force F. If each of them is given an additional charge of −2μC, then the new force of attraction will be

(a)   F

(b)   F/2

(c)   F/√3

(d)   2F

34. A rod made up of metal is 1.2 m long and 0.8 cm diameter. Its resistance is 3.5 × 10−3 Ω. Another disc made of the same metal is 2.0 cm in diameter and 1.25 mm thick. What is the resistance between the round faces of the disc?

(a)   1.35 × 10−8 Ω

(b)   2.70 × 10−7 Ω

(c)   5.82 × 10−7 Ω

(d)   8.10 × 10−5 Ω

35. A body is moving along a rough horizontal surface with an initial velocity of 10 ms−1. If the body comes to rest after travelling a distance of 12 m, then the coefficient of sliding friction will be

(a)   0.5

(b)   0.2

(c)   0.4

(d)   0.6

36. The magnification produced by a astronomical telescope for normal adjustment is 10 and the length of the telescope is 1.1 m. The magnification, when the image is formed atleast distance of distinct vision is

(a)   6

(b)   18

(c)   16

(d)   14

37. A circular current carrying coil has a radius R. The distance from the centre of the coil, on the axis, where B will be 1/8 of its value at the centre of the coil is

(a)   R/√3

(b)   √3 R

(c)   2√3 R

(d)   2R/√3

38. Angular width of central maximum in the Fraunhoffer diffraction pattern of a slit is measured. The slit is illuminated by light of wavelength 6000 Å. When the slit is illuminated by light of another wavelength, then the angular width decreases by 30%. The same decrease in angular width of central maximum is obtained when the original apparatus is immersed in a liquid. The refractive index of the liquid will be

(a)   1.25

(b)   1.42

(c)   1.67

(d)   1.5

39. An energy of 68.0 eV is required to excite a hydrogen-like atom in its second Bohr energy level to third energy level the charge of nucleus is Ze. The wavelength of a radiation required to eject the electron from first orbit to infinity is

(a)   2.2 nm

(b)   2.85 nm

(c)   3.2 nm

(d)   2.5 nm

40. A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field in four different orientations I, II, III and IV as shown in figure. Arrange them in decreasing order of potential energy.

(a)   I > III > II > IV

(b)   I > II > III > IV

(c)   I > IV > II > III

(d)   III > IV > I > II

41. Two different isotherms representing the relationship between pressure p and volume V at a given temperature of the same ideal gas are shown for masses m1 and m2, then

(a)   Nothing can be predicted

(b)   m1 < m2

(c)   m1 = m2

(d)   m1 > m2

42. A7 Li target is bombarded with a proton beam current of 10−4 A for one hour to produce 7Be of activity 1.8 × 108 disintegrations per second. Assuming that one 7Be radioactive nuclei is produced by bombarding 1000 protons, its half-life is

(a)   0.87 × 107 s

(b)   0.2 × 107 s

(c)   0.67 × 108 s

(d)   0.87 × 106 s

43. In the given figure, the capacitors C1, C3, C4, C5 have a capacitance 4 μF each. If the capacitor C2 has a capacitance 10 μF, then effective capacitance between A and B will be

(a)   2 μF

(b)   6 μF

(c)   4 μF

(d)   8 μF

44. The truth table for the following logic circuit is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

45. A sphere of mass m moving with velocity v hits inelastically with another stationary sphere of same mass. The ratio of their final velocities will be (in terms of e)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

46. A small spherical drop fall from rest in viscous liquid. Due to friction, heat is produced. The correct relation between the rate of production of heat and the radius of the spherical drop at terminal velocity will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

47. A galvanometer of resistance 25 Ω shows a deflection of 5 divisions when a current of 2 mA is passed through it. If a shunt of 4Ω is connected and there are 20 divisions on the scale, then the range of the galvanometer is

(a)   1 A

(b)   58 A

(c)   58 mA

(d)   30 mA

48. The total charge induced in a conducting loop when it is moved in magnetic field depends on

(a)   the rate of change of magnetic flux

(b)   initial magnetic flux only

(c)   the total change in magnetic flux

(d)   final magnetic flux only

49. Particles of masses m, 2,, 3, …, nm are placed on the same line at distances L, 2L, 3L, …, nL from O. The distance of centre of mass from O is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

50. The length of a given cylindrical wire is increased by 150%. Due to consequent decrease in diameter the change in the resistance of the wire will be

(a)   200%

(b)   525%

(c)   300%

(d)   400%

51. An ideal solenoid having 5000 turns/m has an aluminium core and carries a current of 5A. If χAl = 2.3 × 10−5, then the magnetic field developed at centre will be

(a)   0.031 T

(b)   0.048 T

(c)   0.027 T

(d)   0.050 T

52. A ball of radius R rolls without slipping. Find the fraction of total energy associated with its rotational energy, if the radius of the gyration of the ball about an axis passing through its centre of mass is K.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

53. A capacitor is charged and then made to discharge through a resistance. The time constant is τ. In what time will be potential difference across the capacitor decrease by 10%?

(a)   τ ln 0.1

(b)   τ ln 0.9

(c)

(d)

54. A body of mass 2 m is placed on earth’s surface. Calculate the change in gravitational potential energy, if this body is taken from earth’s surface to a height of h, where h = 4R.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

55. The slope of isothermal and adiabatic curves are related as

(a)   isothermal curve slope = adiabatic curve slope

(b)   isothermal curve slope = γ × adiabatic curve slope

(c)   adiabatic curve slope = γ × isothermal curve slope

(d)   adiabatic curve slope = 1/2 × isotherma curve slope

56. A solid sphere of mass M and radius 2R rolls down an inclined plane of height h without slipping. The speed of its centre of mass when it reaches the bottom is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

57. A liquid of density 800 kg/m3 is filled in a cylindrical vessel upto a height of 3 m. This cylindrical vessel stands on a horizontal plane. There is circular hole on the side of the vessel. What should be the minimum diameter of the hole to move the vessel on the floor, if plug is removed. Take the coefficient of friction between the bottom of the vessel and the p lane as 0.5 and total mass of vessel plus vessel as 95 kg.

(a)   0.107 m

(b)   0.053 m

(c)   0.206 m

(d)   0.535 m

58. The transfer ratio β of a transistor is 50. The input resistance of the transistor when used in the common emitter configuration is 2 kΩ. The peak value of the collector AC current for and AC input voltage of 0.02 V peak is

(a)   200 μA

(b)   0.01 mA

(c)   0.25 mA

(d)   500 μA

59. The volume of an ideal gas is doubled in an isothermal process. Then, which of the following is true?

(a)   Work done by the gas is positive

(b)   Work done by the gas in negative

(c)   Internal energy of the system decreases

(d)   Internal energy of the system increases

60. A prism of a certain angle deviates the red and blue rays by 8 and 12, respectively. Another prism of the same angle deviates the red and blue rays by 10 and 14, respectively. The prism are small angled and made of different materials. The dispersive power of the materials of the prisms are in the ratio

(a)   5 : 6

(b)   9 : 11

(c)   6 : 5

(d)   11 : 9

JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2016

Chemistry

1. Temperature of a gas is t K. What would be the temperature at which volume and pressure, both will reduced to half of the initial values?

(a)   t/2

(b)   t/4

(c)   t/3

(d)   t/8

2. What will be the number of waves formed by a Bohr electron in one complete revolution in its second orbit?

(a)   Three

(b)   Two

(c)   One

(d)   Zero

3. When 2-methyl butyl bromide is treated with sodium ethoxide in ethanol, what will be the major product?

(a)   2-methyl but-2-ene

(b)   3-methyl but-1-ene

(c)   2-methyl but-1-ene

(d)   2-methyl sodium-butoxide

4. Solid NaHCO3 will be neutralized by 40.0 mL of 0.1 M H2SO4 What would be the weight of solid NaHCO3 in gram?

(a)   0.672 g

(b)   6.07 g

(c)   17 g

(d)   20 g

5. The pair of boiling point and compound are given as,

Which will show lowest vapor pressure at room temperature?

(a)   C6H6

(b)   CH3OH

(c)   C6H5NO2

(d)   C6H5NH2

6. In the following conversion,

Identify ‘A’ from the following option

(a)   NaBD4

(b)   LiAlD4

(c)   Mg, ether/D2O

(d)   BH3, D2O

7. Ethers like ROR can be cleaved by concentrated HI but not by HCl because

(a)   I is a weaker nucleophile than Cl

(b)   I is stronger nucleophile than Cl

(c)   SN1 mechanism carried out in this reaction is rapidly in presence of HI.

(d)   None of the above

8. In the reaction,

How many electron donating groups are attached with the carbon atom of unsaturated part of the product ‘B’?

(a)   Two

(b)   Three

(c)   Four

(d)   None of these

9. At 27°C one mole of an ideal gas is compressed isothermally and reversibly from a pressure of 2 atm to 10 atm.

Choose the correct option from the following.

(a)   Change in internal energy is positive

(b)   Heat is negative

(c)   Work done is −965.84 cal

(d)   All are incorrect

10. Which of the following hydrocarbons is the most reactive towards addition of H2SO4?

(a)   Ethene

(b)   Propylene

(c)   3-methyl but-1-ene

(d)   1-butene

11. Choose the incorrect statement about noble gas?

(a)   Boiling point increases with increasing atomic mass

(b)   Helium has least tendency to form compound

(c)   Noble gases have some value of electron affinity

(d)   Xenon has maximum number of compounds

12. For the cell reaction

Pb + Sn2+ → Pb2+ + Sn

Given that, Pb → Pb2+, E° = 0.13 V

Sn2+ + 2e → Sn; E° = −0.14 V

What would be the ratio of cation concentration for which E = O?

(a)   1/4

(b)   1/2

(c)   1/3

(d)   1/1

13. [CuCl4­]2− exists while [Cul4]2− does not exist, because

(a)   I is stronger reductant than Cl

(b)   I is weaker reductant than Cl

(c)   I is stronger oxidant than Cl

(d)   None of the above

14. In the reaction,

X + I2 + 2HCl → SnCl4 + 2HI

The correct option regarding X is /are

(a)   It is an strong reducing agent

(b)   It is an angular molecule

(c)   It is used as a reagent in test of Hg2+ radical

(d)   All of the above

15. If oxide ions are arranged in hcp and the aluminium ions occupy two thirds of octahedral voids. What will be the formula of the compound?

(a)   AlO3

(b)   Al2O3

(c)   (Al2O3)

(d)   Al3O4

16. Actinides exhibit larger number of oxidation state than that of corresponding lanthanides. The reason behind this aspect is

(a)   lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d-orbitals than between 4f and 5d-orbitals

(b)   larger atomic size of actinides than the lanthanides

(c)   more energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than between 4f and 5d-orbitals

(d)   greater reactive nature of the actinides than the lanthanides

17. Aqueous solution of AlCl3 is acidic towards litmus while of NaCl is not. The correct reason behind this is

(a)   AlCl3 furnishes OH ion in the solution

(b)   AlCl3 furnishes H+ ion in the solution

(c)   AlCl3 furnishes both H+ well as OH ion in the solution

(d)   AlCl3 is the salt of strong base and strong acid

18. The melting point of solid substances is directly proportional to pressure acting on them. However, ice-melts at a temperature lower than its usual melting point, when the pressure increases. This is because

(a)   ice is not a true solid

(b)   the bonds break under pressure

(c)   ice is loss dense than water

(d)   pressure generates heat

19. The E° values for Mn and Zn are more negative than expected because negative than expected because

(a)   they have either half-filled and fully-filled configurations

(b)   they can easily donate electrons

(c)   it is Quite easy to remove electrons from their orbitals

(d)   None of the above

20. For the formation of Cr2O3 and Al2O3, values of ∆fG° are 540 kJ mol−1 and −827 kJ mol−1 What will be the possibility for reaction of Cr2O3 by Al?

(a)   Reduction of Cr2O3 by Al will take place

(b)   Oxidation of Cr2O3 by Al will take place

(c)   Neither oxidation nor reduction will take place

(d)   Reaction is not feasible

21. Work is being performed, when a weight lifter lifts a base ball off a weight rack. This is due to

(a)   magnetic attraction

(b)   gravity

(c)   electrostatic repulsion

(d)   mechanical force

22. Magnetic moment of [Ti(H2­O)6]4+, [Mn(H2O)6]2+ and [Cr(H2O)6]3+ can be represented as X, Y and Z.

They are in order of

(a)   X < Z < Y

(b)   Z < Y < X

(c)   X < Y < Z

(d)   Z < Y < X

23. Beryllium differs in properties from other elements of its own group but shows resemblance with aluminium because of

(a)   relatively bigger ionic radius and high polarizing power of Be

(b)   relatively smaller ionic radius and high polarizing power of Be

(c)   relatively bigger ionic radius is the only reason behind this

(d)   None of the above

24. Two similar reactions have the same rate constant at 25°C but at 35°C, one of the reaction has a higher rate constant than the other. The appropriate reason for this is

(a)   due to effective collisions

(b)   due to different activation energies

(c)   due to different threshold energies

(d)   due to higher population of molecules

25. In [CO(H2O)6]2+, there are three unpaired electrons present. The μexperimental of 4.40 BM.

This is because of

(a)   increase in number of unpaired electrons

(b)   some contribution of the orbital motion of the electron to the magnetic moment

(c)   change in orbital spin of the electron

(d)   d-d transition

26. When excess of NaOH solution is added to aqueous solution of iodine, the colour of solution becomes

(a)   blue

(b)   yellow

(c)   colourless

(d)   pale green

27. Look at the graph,

Choose the correct equation from the following which best suited to the above graph

(a)   [At] = [A]0 – Kt

(b)   [At] = [A]0 + Kt

(c)   [At] = [A0]e−Kt

(d)   [At] = Kt2 + [A0]

28. Choose the correct statement from the following

(a)   NH4+ and CH4 are not isoelectronic species

(b)   BF3 does not have dipole moment

(c)   O – Cl – O obeys octet rule

(d)   O in O3 is sp3-hybridized

29. Lauryl alcohol on treatment with H2SO4 followed by neutralization forms a product which is

(a)   cationic detergent

(b)   anionic detergent

(c)   neutral detergent

(d)   antidepressant

30. When an iron object is plated with tin, tin does not act as sacrificial anode in protecting against corrosion, because

(a)   tin is more reactive than iron

(b)   tin is less reactive than iron

(c)   reactivity of tin and iron is same

(d)   tin is oxidizing agent while iron is not so

31. Which of the following pair of compounds will have three sp2-hybride orbitals?

(a)   SO2, CH4

(b)   SO3, C2H­4

(c)   BF3, SF4

(d)   I3, SF4

32. Consider the reaction,

H2 + X2 → 2HX, where X is halogen. The reactivity of halogens decrease in the order of

(a)   Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2

(b)   I2 > Br2 > F2 > Cl2

(c)   F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2

(d)   I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2

33. Choose the correct statement from the following.

(a)   The greater positive value of E°OP indicates greater reactivity of metal

(b)   F is strong oxidant while Cu2+ is weak reductant

(c)   The metals placed above Mg in the electrochemical series do not decompose water at ordinary temperature

(d)   Oxides of Hg do not decompose on heating

34. 100 mL of a solution contains 2 g of acetic acid and 3g of sodium acetate providing Ka = 1.8 × 10−5, then choose the correct option.

(a)   This solution is basic in nature

(b)   This solution is acidic in nature

(c)   This solution is amphoteric in nature

(d)   This solution is neutral in nature

35. Consider the following structures.

Choose the correct statement regarding the above structures.

(a)   Dipole moment varies as II > III > I

(b)   II is more stable than I

(c)   I is the most reactive among three

(d)   All of the above

36. On the basis of Langmuir adsorption isotherm the amount of gas adsorbed at very high pressure.

(a)   Reaches a constant limiting value

(b)   Goes on increasing with pressure

(c)   Goes on decreasing with pressure

(d)   First increasing and then decreasing with pressure

37. Both Mg and Fe metal can reduce copper from a solution having Cu2+ ion, according to equilibria.

Mg(s) + Cu2+ ⇌ Mg2+ + Cu(s); K1 = 6 × 1090

Fe(s) + Cu2+ ⇌ Fe2+ + Cu­(s); K2 = 3 × 1026

Choose the correct option regarding above equilibrium

(a)   Mg removes more Cu2+ from solution

(b)   Fe removes more Cu2+ from solution

(c)   Both will equally remove Cu2+ from solution

(d)   Both metals cannot remove Cu2+ from solution

38. Consider the following reaction sequence

Choose the correct option regarding the different products obtained in the above reaction sequence.

(a)   ‘D’ is an alcohol consisting one carbon more than the starting alcohol

(b)   Product ‘B’ is formed via SN2-pathway

(c)   ‘C’ is an amine

(d)   All of the above

39. Which of the following is crossed aldol product in the reaction?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

40. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the reaction?

(a)   The equivalent weight of CH3CHO is 2

(b)   Three moles of OH are required in the above reaction

(c)   CH3CHO is an oxidizing agent

(d)   Reduction of [Ag(NH3)2] occurs

41. Consider the following compounds.

Cl3C – COOH   Br3C – COOH  I3C – COOH

(I)                     (II)               (III)

The decreasing order of decarboxylation is

(a)   I > II > III

(b)   III > II > I

(c)   III > I > II

(d)   II > I > III

42. Which of the following is an example of carbylamines reaction?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)   Ph2 – NH + HONO → Ph2 – N – N = O + H2O

43. C3H9N reacts with Hinsberg reagent and the product is insoluble in alkali but soluble in ether. This nitrogen containing compound is

(a)   primary amine

(b)   secondary amine

(c)   tertiary amine

(d)   methyl isocyanide

44.

Product ‘Q’ is

(a)   an amide

(b)   an amine

(c)   nitro compound

(d)   nitrile compound

45. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a)   Polypropylene is a thermoplastic polymer

(b)   Melamine-formaldehyde is a thermosetting polymer

(c)   Mixture of styrene and methyl methacrylate can form ionic addition polymer

(d)   Low-density polythene is a poor conductor of electricity

46. Match the particle with its characteristic.

(a)   A – p; B – r; C – q; D – s

(b)   A – p; B – q; C – r; D – s

(c)   A – r; B – s; C – p; D – q

(d)   A – s; B – r; C – p; D – q

47. The magnitude of screening effect depends upon the number of

(a)   inner electrons

(b)   outer electrons

(c)   bond order

(d)   Both (a) and (b)

48. Highest energy will be absorbed to eject out the electron in the configuration.

(a)   1s2 2s2 2p1

(b)   1s2 2s2 2p3

(c)   1s2 2s2 2p2

(d)   1s2 2s2 2p4

49. Sugars are separated by using the solvent BAW (n-butanol acetic acid – H2O) and detected by spraying the plate with

(a)   aniline hydrogen phthalate solution

(b)   hydrogen peroxide solution

(c)   crystals of I2

(d)   cupric oxide

50. Duma’s method involves the determination of nitrogen content in the organic compound in the form of

(a)   NH3

(b)   N2

(c)   NaCN

(d)   (NH4)2SO4

51. Which of the following statement(s) is not correct?

(a)   Suspended particulate matter is an important pollutant released by diesel vehicles

(b)   Soot particles (size < 5μ) cause fibrosis of the lung living

(c)   H2SO4 particulates have size of 500 – 1000 nm

(d)   Photochemical smog is formed by oxides of sulphur, smoke and dust particles

52. At radioactive equilibrium, the ratio between two atoms a radioactive elements A and B is 3.1 ×109 : 1. If the half-life period of A is 2 × 1010 yrs, then the half-life of B is

(a)   9.54 yrs

(b)   2.14 yrs

(c)   3.29 yrs

(d)   6.45 yrs

53. The effective neutron capture radius of a nucleus having a cross-section of 1.0 barr is [ Given, 1 barr = 1.0 × 10−24 cm2]

(a)   5.6 × 10−13 cm

(b)   4.3 × 10−13 cm

(c)   2.3 × 10−11 cm

(d)   5.6 × 10−24 cm

54. Lime stone is added in the extraction of lead from galena why?

(a)   It prevents the formati Con of PbSO4

(b)   It remove the impurity of silica as fusible slag

(d)   All of the above

55. A hypothetical reaction A → 2B proceeds through the following sequence of steps

(I) A → C; ∆rH = q1

(II) C → D; ∆rH = q2

The heat of hypothetical reaction is

(a)   q1  + q2 – 2q3

(b)   q1 + q2 + 2q3

(c)   q1 + 2q2 – 2q3

(d)   q1 – q2 + 2q3

56. Anhydrous mixture of KF and HF contain which types of ions?

(a)   K+, H+, F

(b)   {KF+, (HF)}

(c)   KH+, F

(d)   K+, HF2

57. Polypropylene can be obtained by polymerization of

(a)   CH2 = CH – CH2 – Cl

(b)   CH2 = CH – Cl

(c)   CH3 – Cl

(d)   CH3 – CHCl2

58. (X), (X) formed in the above reaction is

(a)

(b)   (C6H5)2NOH

(c)

(d)

59. 2 L of gas at STP Weight 14g.

The gas would be

(a)   H2

(b)   CO

(c)   B2H6

(d)   All of these

60. The value of n in

MnO4 + 8H+ + ne → Mn2+ + 4H2O is

(a)   5

(b)   4

(c)   2

(d)   3

JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2016

Biology

(a)   Gamete ln vitro Fertilization Technique

(b)   Gamete Inter Fallopian Tube

(c)   Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer

(d)   Gamete ln vitro Fertilization Transfer

2. Consider the following statements and Choose correct ones from given options.

(I) Shark do not have any bone in its body.

(II) Water snake and salamander belongs to same class and have largest RBC.

(III) Silver fish is a true fish while cuttle and star fishes are mollusks and echinoderms respectively.

(IV) Ornithorhynchus is a connecting link between reptiles and mammals.

(a)   I, II and IV

(b)   I and IV

(c)   I, II and III

(d)   III and IV

3. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(a)   Diphtheria – Corynebacerium

(b)   Elephantiasis – Wuchereria

(c)   Plague – Paramyxo

(d)   Lockjaw – Clostridium

4. The largest muscle in the human is

(a)   biceps

(b)   gluteus maximus

(c)   stapedius

(d)   masseter

5. The best description on natural selection is

(a)   the reproductive success of the members of a population best adapted to environment

(b)   it acts when the resources are unlimited

(c)   a change in the proportion of variations within a population

(d)   it follows Hardy-Weinberg principle

6. The chromosome of cell duplicate during the

(a)   S-phase of cell cycle

(b)   G1-phase of cell cycle

(c)   G2-phase of cell cycle

(d)   prophase of cell division

7. Adenosine triphosphate was discovered by

(a)   Jack Lipman

(b)   A Bloor

(c)   Karl Lohmann

(d)   Emil Fisher

8. Lens of eyes is derived from

(a)   ectoderm

(b)   mesoderm

(c)   endoderm

(d)   Both (b) and (c)

9. Schneiderian and tympanic membrane respectively belongs to

(a)   ear and nose

(b)   ear and eye

(c)   ear and ear

(d)   nose and ear

10. Due to alcohol abuse brain related disease Korsakkoff’s syndrome occurs. Which nutrient is responsible for this syndrome?

(a)   Vitamin-B12

(b)   Fat

(c)   Protein

(d)   Vitamin-B1

11. Who received Nobel Prize in 2008 for the discovery of HIV?

(a)   Harald Zur Hausen

(b)   Luc Montagnier

(c)   Jack Szostak

(d)   Carol Greider

12. Which one of the following is a reorganization site for restriction enzyme Bam HI?

(a)   5ʹ– GAATTC – 3ʹ 3ʹ – CTTAAG – 5ʹ

(b)   5ʹ – GGATCC – 3ʹ 5ʹ – CCATGG – 3ʹ

(c)   5ʹ – GGATCC -– 3ʹ 3ʹ – CCTAGG – 5ʹ

(d)   5ʹ– GAATTC – 3ʹ 5ʹ– GTTAAC – 3ʹ

13. Golden ages of reptiles and fishes are respectively

(a)   Mesozoic and Devonian

(b)   Jurassic and Permian

(c)   Triassic and Silurian

(d)   Palaeozoic and Mesozoic

14. Match the following Columns.

(a)   A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2

(b)   A – 2; B – 3; C – 4; D – 1

(c)   A – 3; B – 4; C – 2; D – 1

(d)   A – 3; B – 1; C – 4; D – 2

15. Which one of the following pair is not correctly matched?

(a)   Almond-Drupe

(b)   Brinjal-Berry

(c)   Guava-Pepo

(d)   Loquat-Pome

16.The powerhouse of cells is first discovered by

(a)   C Benda in 1897

(b)   Kolliker in 1850

(c)   Claude in 1880

(d)   Kingsburg in 1882

17. During chloride shift or Hamburger phenomenon, when the whole blood is saturated with CO2, following changes occurs. Which one of them is not correct?

(a)   Bicarbonate content of plasma and corpuscles increase

(b)   Chloride content of plasma diminished and that of the cell is increased

(c)   Total base of blood remain unchanged

(d)   Water content and volume of corpuscles decrease

18. Which one of the following elements is activator for both ribulose biphosphate, carboxylase oxygenase and phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase in photosynthetic carbon fixation?

(a)   Mg2+

(b)   Zn2+

(c)   Mn2+

(d)   Cl and K+

19. Common phase in aerobic and anaerobic respiration is

(a)   Kreb’s cycle

(b)   glycolysis

(c)   glycogenolysis

(d)   ETS

20. ‘Treponema pallidum’ pathogen is a cause of

(a)   leprosy

(b)   plague

(c)   syphilis

(d)   pertussis

21. Which one of the following pair is not correct?

(a)   Mangolian idiocy – 21st chromosome

(b)   Patau syndrome – 13th chromosome

(c)   Cri-Du-Chat – 11th chromosome

(d)   Edward syndrome – 18th chromosome

22. Which one of the following pair is not correct?

(a)   single-stranded DNA

(b)   single-stranded RNA

(c)   double-stranded DNA

(d)   None of the above

23. An irregular mode of reproduction resulting in the development of an embryo without fertilization is called

(I) parthenogenesis

(II) apogamy

(III) sporophytic budding

Select the correct answer  using the code given below.

(a)   Only I

(b)   Only II

(c)   II and III

(d)   I, II and III

24. In which one of the family formation of endosperm doesn’t take place?

(a)   Orchidaceae

(b)   Cactaceae

(c)   Ranunculaceae

(d)   Malvaceae

25. In cardiac cycle maximum time is taken by

(a)   atria systole

(b)   atria diastole

(c)   ventricle systole

(d)   ventricle diastole

26. A horse and a donkey can breed to produce mule which is an infertile animal. The infertility is because horse and donkey belong to different

(a)   class

(b)   order

(c)   species

(d)   genus

27. Source of commercial chewing gum latex is

(a)   Hevea brasiliensis

(b)   Carica papaya

(c)   Ficus elastica

(d)   Achras sapota

28. Compare the statement I and II and choose the correct option.

Statement I In the flowering plants due to higher accumulation of auxins dormancy of lateral buds occurs.

Statement II In Maryland Mammoth (a tobacco variety) flowering occurred at different time at different latitude due to gibberellins concentration.

(a)   Statement I is true, but II is false

(b)   Statement I is false, but II is true

(c)   Both statements are true

(d)   Both statements are false

29. Which one of the given pollination technique/adaptation is different than others?

(a)   Herkogamy

(b)   Geitonogamy

(c)   Dichogamy

(d)   Heterostyly

30. The phenotypic ratio of trihybrid cross in F2-generation is

(a)   27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1

(b)   9 : 3 : 3 : 1

(c)   1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1

(d)   27 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 9 : 1 : 2 : 1

31. A point mutation where guanine is replaced by cytosine is also called

(a)   frame shift mutation

(b)   transition mutation

(c)   translocation mutation

(d)   transversion mutation

32. Match the following Columns.

(a)   A – 4; B – 3; C – 2; D – 1

(b)   A – 2; B – 3; C – 1; D – 4

(c)   A – 3; B – 1; C – 2; D – 4

(d)   A – 4; B – 2; C – 1; D – 3

33. Match the following Columns.

(a)   A – 1; B – 4; C – 2; D – 3

(b)   A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2

(c)   A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4

(d)   A – 3; B – 1; C – 4; D – 2

34. Which one of the following antibodies plays an important role as mediator in allergic response?

(a)   IgE

(b)   IgG

(c)   IgD

(d)   IgA

35. Which one of the following human ancestors is known as tool maker?

(a)   Homo erectus

(b)   Java man

(c)   Homo habilis

(d)   Heidelberg man

36. Which one of the following is a matching pair of vector and the disease?

(a)   Culex – Filariasis

(b)   Housefly – Leprosy

(c)   Aedes aegypti – Chickenpox

(d)   Sandfly – Cholera

37. Consider these following sentences and choose the correct ones.

(I) Each gene contains a specific promoter region and a leader sequence for guiding the beginning of transcription.

(II) Only one strand of DNA, called template strand is copied by RNA polymerase this strand runs in 3ʹ → 5ʹ direction.

(III) RNA polymerase adds complementary nucleotides forming single strand mRNA in 3ʹ → 5ʹ direction.

(IV) Section of DNA that has been transcribed is rewound into its original configuration.

(a)   II, III and IV

(b)   II and IV

(c)   I, II and IV

(d)   I, II, and IV

38. Which one of the following is not correct pair of type of cancer and origin place?

(a)   Benign tumour – Non-cancerous tumour

(b)   Carcinomas – Cancer of epithelial tissues

(c)   Lymphomas – Haematopoietic cells tumour

(d)   Sarcomas – Cancer of glands (secretory tissues)

39. In animals normally which organism has maximum number of chromosomes?

(a)   Butterfly

(b)   Elephant

(c)   Hermit crab

(d)   Chimpanzee

40. During meiosis-I, the bivalent chromosomes clearly appear as tetrads during

(a)   diakinesis

(b)   diplotene

(c)   pachytene

(d)   zygotene

41. Snapdragon flower is an exception of Mendel’s laws. It is a good example of

(a)   law of dominance

(b)   complementary gene

(c)   codominance

(d)   incomplete dominance

42. Consider these sentences regarding to the structure and nature of DNA.

(I) DNA has tow pyrmidine bases which contain single ring structure.

(II) In DNA, composition of bases should be

(III) Each base pair of DNA is 3.4Å apart from othes base pair.

(IV) The nucleosome model DNA packaging was proposed by Kornberg and Thomas.

Choose the correct statements from given options.

(a)   I and III

(b)   I, II and III

(c)   II, III and IV

(d)   I, III and IV

43. The term ‘prebiotic’ soup’ for organic water containing mixture of simple organic compounds was given by

(a)   Richter

(b)   Haldane

(c)   Arrhenius

(d)   Miller

44. Number of Barr body which will found in case of Turner’s syndrome will be

(a)   1

(b)   2

(c)   0

(d)   Can’t be determine by given data

45. Which one of the following options is not a sexually transmitted disease?

(a)   AIDS

(b)   Hepatitis-B

(c)   Pertussis

(d)   Syphilis

46. The Sub-units of 80S ribosome will be

(a)   40S, 40S

(b)   60S, 40S

(c)   60S, 20S

(d)   55S, 25S

47. Pyloric sphincter guards the opening between

(a)   stomach and duodenum

(b)   cardia and fundus

(c)   oesophagus and stomach

(d)   fundus and pylorus

48. Vegetative propagation of Bryophyllus takes place through

(a)   bulbil

(b)   corms

(c)   leaf buds

(d)   eyes

49. Pappus helps in dispersal of pollen in

(a)   Asteraceae

(b)   Brassicaceae

(c)   Malvaceae

(d)   Solanaceae

50. Diphtheria is caused by

(a)   poison released by living bacterial cell into the host

(b)   poison released from dead bacterial cell into the host

(c)   poison released by virus into the host

(d)   excessive immune response by the body of host

51. Which one of the following microbes is the source for vitamin-C?

(a)   Pseudomonas sp.

(b)   Acetobacter sp.

(c)   Aspergillus sp.

(d)   Chlorella

52. The fact that DNA is a genetic material was established by the experiment of

(a)   Meselson and Stahl

(b)   Hershey and Chase

(c)   Avery, Macleod and McCarty

(d)   Rosalind Franklin and Kornberg

53. Match the following Columns.

(a)   A – 3; B – 2; C – 1; D – 4

(b)   A – 2; B – 4; C – 1; D – 3

(c)   A – 4; B – 3; C – 2; D – 1

(d)   A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4

54. Which one of the following hormones is released by posterior lobe of pituitary gland?

(a)   FSH

(c)   ACTH

(d)   MSH

55. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the innerside of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?

(a)   First negative then positive and again back to negative

(b)   First positive then negative and continue to be negative

(c)   First negative then positive and continue to be positive

(d)   First positive then negative and again back to positive

56. Uric acid is the excretory waste of

(b)   birds

(c)   amphibians larvae

(d)   mammals

57. In case of pregnancy the heartbeat of embryo starts at

(a)   4th week

(b)   7th week

(c)   6th week

(d)   5th week

58. PPLO are smallest cell in the living world. The extend form of PPLO is

(a)   Pseudo Pneumonia Length Orge

(b)   Pseudo Plank Leg Organelle

(c)   Penumonia Plank Like Organism

(d)   Pleuro Penumonia Like Organism

59. Slime-mould belongs to

(a)   kingdom-Protista

(b)   kingdom-Monera

(c)   kingdom-Fungi

(d)   kingdom-Plantae

60. Which one of the following is not a flower?

(a)   Shoe-flower

(b)   Sunflower

(c)   Larkspur

(d)   Water lily

JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2016

English & Quantitative Reasoning

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Fill up blanks in the passage given below with the most appropriate word from the options given for each blank.

The …….(1)….. age is the age of machines. From the ….(2)… the industrial Revolution began in Europe. Man’s life has been changing …(3)… many ways. At first the change was …(4)… Now machines have become …(5)… of our daily lives.

1.

(a)   modern

(b)   new

(c)   civilized

(d)   present

2.

(a)   birth

(b)   time

(c)   beginning

(d)   start

3.

(a)   into

(b)   to

(c)   in

(d)   with

4.

(a)   slow

(c)   fast

(d)   stagnant

5.

(a)   component

(b)   part

(c)   necessity

(d)   support

Directions (Q. Nos. 6-8) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The alphabet number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, then the answer is (e).

6. We (a) / saw (b)/ a elephant (c)/ In the zoo. (d)/ No error (e)

7. It is (a) / a most (b)/ beautiful (c)/ painting of the gallery. (d)/ No error (e)

8. Mr Gaurav Sharma (a)/ is (b)/ coming to (c)/ dinner. (d)/ No error (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 9-10) Select the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the given words.

9. DEMISE

(a)   Result

(b)   Default

(c)   Death

(d)   Apprehension

10. DISPARITY

(a)   Distaste

(b)   Dissimilarity

(c)   Criticism

(d)   Distinction

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-12) Find the missing number/letter from the given alternatives.

11. BMO, EOQ, HQS, ?

(a)   SOW

(b)   LMN

(c)   KSU

(d)   SOV

12. 4117, 5138, 6159, 71710, ?

(a)   71382

(b)   76599

(c)   81911

(d)   81798

Directions (Q. Nos. 13-14) In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given alternatives.

13.

(a)   8

(b)   3

(c)   6

(d)   36

14.

(a)   60

(b)   39

(c)   55

(d)   65

15. If the Ist of November falls on Monday, what day will the 25th of November will be?

(a)   Tuesday

(b)   Thursday

(c)   Wednesday

(d)   Friday

16. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in given letter series shall complete it?

m_st_u_t_ _st

(a)   ummmu

(b)   umsmu

(c)   muumm

(d)   ttssuu

17. A and Bare standing at a distance of 20 km from each other on a straight East-West road. A and B start walking simultaneously Eastwards and Westwards respectively and both cover a distance of 5 km. Then, A turns to his left and walks 10 km. B turns to his right and walks 10 km at the same speed. What will be the distance between them?

(a)   10 km

(b)   30 km

(c)   20 km

(d)   25 km

18. There are three baskets of fruits. 1st basket has twice the number of fruits in the 2nd basket. 3rd basket has three-fourth of the fruits in the first. The average of the fruits in all the baskets is 30. What is the number of fruits in the first basket?

(a)   20

(b)   30

(c)   35

(d)   40

19. Find the word which cannot be formed from the letter used in the given word.

GERMINATION

(a)   ORNAMENT

(b)   TERMINAL

(c)   IGNITE

(d)   GERMAN

20. In a certain code, MODEL is written as 513# 2 and DEAR is written as 3 # % 8. How is LOAD written in that code?

(a)   23%1

(b)   21%3

(c)   25%3

(d)   21#3

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