OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2007 With Answer Key Mobile View

2007 O.U.A.T Question with Answer

Physics

1. Two bodies of masses m1, m2 have equal kinetic energies. If p1, p2 are their momenta, the ratio p 1/p2 is equal to

(a) (b)  m1/m2

(c)  m2/m1

(d) 2. At what angle to the horizon a body must be projected so that the vertical height attained and the horizontal range are equal.

(a)  tan1 1

(b)  tan1 2

(c)  tan1 3

(d)  tan1 4

3. The energy of electron in H-atom is given by En = (−6/n2)eV. Then, the energy required to send the electron from the first orbit to the second is

(a)  10.2 eV

(b)  13.6 eV

(c)  12.1 eV

(d)  3.4 eV

4. Equal number of identical cells, each of emf e and internal resistance r are joined in series and parallel. If R be the external resistance of the circuit, then the condition for equal current in two case is

(a)  er = R

(b)  R = r/e

(c)  r = R

(d)  R = r/2

5. An engine moves along a straight line such that s ∝ t2 where s is the distance traversed by the engine in time t. The power of the engine is proportional to

(a)  t2

(b)  t

(c)  t1/2

(d)  t4

6. When ultraviolet radiation is incident on a metallic surface, no photoelectrons are emitted. Another beam of radiation however causes photoemission from the same surface. The second beam must consist of

(b)  infrared rays

(d)  X-rays

7. The current in a coil of inductance 20μH increases uniformly from zero to 1 ampere in 0.1 second. The magnitude of the induced emf in volt is given by

(a)  2 × 104

(b)  2

(c)  2 × 105

(d)  2 × 106

8. A certain radioactive element transform into In the process, how many α and β particles are emitted?

(a)  6, 8

(b)  7, 4

(c)  4, 7

(d)  8, 6

9. The image of an object formed by a convex mirror is 1/n times the size of the object. The focal length of the mirror is f. The object distance is

(a)  (n – 1)f

(b)  f/n

(c)  (n + 1)f

(d)  nf

10. The refractive angle of a prism is 60° and  there refractive index of the prismatic material is If a ray of emergent light grazes the second surface of refraction, the angle of incidence would be

(a)  45°

(b)  60°

(c)  30°

(d)  0°

11. The path difference between the two waves

y1 =  a1sin(ωt – 2πx/λ) and

y2 = a2 cos(ωt – 2πx/λ + ϕ) is given by

(a)  (λ/2π)ϕ

(b)  (2π/λ)ϕ

(c)  (λ/2π)(ϕ + π/2)

(d)  (2π/λ) (ϕ + π/2)

12. An equiconvex lens of focal length 2 m is symmetrically cut into two pieces to obtained two plano-convex lenses. The focal length of each piece is

(a)  4 m

(b)  2 m

(c)  1 m

(d)  8 m

13. With what velocity should a source of sound approach a stationary observer so that the apparent frequency be double the actual? (Velocity of sound = 332 m/s)

(a)  83 m/s

(b)  166 m/s

(c)  332 m/s

(d)  None of these

14. In a capillary glass tube, water rises to a height h. The cross-sectional area of the tube is next reduced to one-fourth of the previous value. The water will now rise to a height

(a)  4h

(b)  h/4

(c)  2h

(d)  h/2

15. A proton of mass m moves with a velocity v parallel to a magnetic field of flux density B. The force experienced by proton is

(a)  Bv

(b)  zero

(c)  Bmv

(d)  None of these

16. A D.C. voltage supply has an internal resistance of rΩ. A resistive load R is connected across the terminals of the supply. the power developed in R is maximum when the value of R is

(a)  1Ω

(b)  √2Ω

(c)  r2Ω

(d)  rΩ

17. The susceptibility of a diamagnetic material is

(a)  0

(b)  grater than 1

(c)  negative

(d)  less than 1

18. The saturation current of a diode valve is governed by

(a)  Ampere’s law

(b)  Kirchoff’s law

(c)  Chirld’s law

(d)  Richardson’s law

19. In a vacuum tube, the principal effect of negative space charge is to

(a)  increase electron emission from cathode

(b)  decrease the grid current

(c)  increase the plate voltage

(d)  decrease the plate current

20. A triode valve has a resistance 5 × 103 ohm and its mutual conductance is 1.5 × 103/volt. The valve has an amplification factor

(a)  7.5

(b)  3 × 105

(c)  3 × 106

(d)  75

21. A charged particle moves in a uniform magnetic field at right angles to the direction of the field. Which of the following would change?

(a)  Charge of the particle

(b)  Speed of the particle

(c)  Energy of the particle

(d)  Trajectory of particle

22. How much electricity should be passed through an electrolyte solution for one second to liberate one gram-equivalent weight of the substance at the electrode.

(a)  1 C

(b)  96500 C

(d)  Both (b) and (c)

23. A p article moves such that the velocity in m/sec is given by The acceleration of the body at the instant t = 2s given by

(a)  1 ms−2

(b)  2 ms−2

(c)  4 ms−2

(d)  6 ms−2

24. The sum of the absorptance, reflectance and transmittance of a body is always

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  between 0 and 1

(d)  infinite

25. A liquid flows through a tube. If α, β be the cross-sections of the portions of the tube at two places 1 and 2, then the ratio of the speeds v1/v2 at the two places will be

(a)  α/β

(b)  β/α

(c)  α22

(d) 26. The turn-ratio in a step-up transformer is 1 : 3. A Lechlance cell of emf 1.5V is connected across the primary. The volt age across the secondary will be

(a)  4.5 V

(b)  0.5 V

(c)  0 V

(d)  None of these

27. In n-p-n transistor, the collector current is

(a)  equal to emitter current

(b)  slightly less than emitter current

(c)  greater than emitter current

(d)  None of these

28. The nuclei suitable for fusion process are

(a)  light nuclei

(b)  heavy nuclei

(c)  intermediate nuclei in periodic table

(d)  any nuclei

29. In Young’s double slit experiment, the separation and having a refractive index μ. If c be the velocity of light in vacuum, the time taken by light to travel this thickness of glass is

(a)  unchanged

(b)  halved

(c)  Doubled

30. Light travels through a glass plate of thickness and having a refractive index μ. If c be the velocity light in vacuum, the time taken by light to travel this thickness of glass is

(a)  t/μc

(b)  tμc

(c)  tμ/c

(d)  tc/μ

31. The angular momentum of the electron in H-atom can possibly be

(a)  h/4π

(b)  h/2π

(c)  2π /h

(d)  h/π

32. If elements with principal quantum number n > 4 were not allowed in nature, the number of possible elements would be

(a)  60

(b)  32

(c)  4

(d)  64

33. If the main A.C. supply is 220V, the maximum voltage of the supply will be

(a)  220V

(b)  440V

(c)  311V

(d)  None of these

34. The average power in a pure inductive circuit is given by

(a)  Irms × Vrms

(b)  Imax × V­max

(c)  1

(d)  zero

35. A capacitor of 0.052 F after being charged to 600 V is connected across another capacitor of 0.1F. the voltage across the capacitor changes from 600 V to

(a)  100 V

(b)  120 V

(c)  300 V

(d)  None of these

36. In the decay equation, a neutron can be considered as nucleus of (A = mass number, Z = atomic number)

(a)  A = 0, Z = 0

(b)  A = 1, Z = 0

(c)  A = 0, Z = 1

(d)  A = 0, Z = −1

37. Ne nucleus, after absorbing energy, decays into two α-particles and an unknown nucleus. The unknown nucleus is

(a)  nitrogen

(b)  carbon

(c)  boron

(d)  oxygen

38. The potential energy of an electron in the first Bhor orbit in an H-atom is

(a)  13.6 eV

(b)  −13.6 eV

(c)  27.2 eV

(d)  −27.2 eV

39. The astronaut in a satellite moving in a circular orbit somewhat expels out one fifth of the mass of the satellite. Now the satellite will be

(a)  go to an orbit of smaller radius

(b)  go to an orbit of larger radius

(c)  go to an orbit elliptic radius

(d)  remain in the same orbit.

40. The potential difference between A and B is 23 V. The potential difference in volt across the 3 μF capacitor is given by

(a)  7

(b)  8

(c)  23

(d)  4

41. One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a process , where a, b are constants. When V = b, the temperature of the gas is

(a)  a/27Rb

(b)  ab/R

(c)  ab/2R

(d)  ab/5R

42. A tank containing water has two orifices at depths 40 cm and 90 cm below the free surface of water. The ratio of discharges through orifices is

(a)  4 : 9

(b)  2 : 3

(c)  5 : 9

(d)  1 : 1

43. A liquid of refractive index 1.5 is poured into a beaker such that the height of the liquid is 6 cm. The apparent depth of the liquid will be

(a)  3 cm

(b)  5 cm

(c)  9 cm

(d)  None of these

44. A photon behave as if it had a mass equal to

(a)  hγ/c

(b)  hγ/c2

(c)  c/hγ

(d)  c2/hγ

45. In the circuit shown in the figure, the heat produced in the 5 Ω resistor, due to current flowing through it, is 10 calories/s. The heat generated in the 4 Ω resistor is given by

(a)  1 cal/s

(b)  2 cal/s

(c)  3 cal/s

(d)  4 cal/s

46. In Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity of light at the central fringe is I0. The intensity of light at the same spot, when one of the slits is closed is

(a)  (1/2)I0

(b)  I0

(c)  (1/4)I0

(d)  None of these

47. A sphere has numerically equal volume and surface area. Such a sphere has a radius

(a)  9 unit

(b)  6 unit

(c)  3 unit

(d)  None of these

48. A physical quantity P is given by the relation The quantity that brings in the maximum percentage error is

(a)  B

(b)  A

(c)  D

(d)  C

49. A closed vessel of volume V contains helium at a pressure P and temperature T. Another closed vessel of same volume V contains oxygen at pressure 2P and temperature T/2. The ratio of mHe : mO2 is

(a)  1 : 8

(b)  1 : 2

(c)  4 : 1

(d)  1 : 16

50. A mixture of two gases A and B is enclosed at constant temperature. The ratio of the molecular weights A (diatomic) and B(monatomic) is 8. The ratio of the r.m.s. speed of molecules of B to that of the molecules of A is

(a)  8

(b)  4

(c)  16

(d)  2√2

51. The Newtonian constant of gravitation G has the dimensional formula

(a)  MLT3

(b)  ML2T3

(c)  ML3T2

(d)  None of these

52. Two vectors are such that . Then the angle between the vectors is

(a)  0°

(b)  90°

(c)  120°

(d)  180°

53. A bomb of mass 9 kg explodes into two pieces of mass 3 kg and 6 kg. If the velocity of the smaller piece be 16 m/sec, then kinetic energy of the larger piece is

(a)  96 J

(b)  384 J

(c)  192 J

(d)  None of these

54. A machine gun fires n bullets a second. If the mass and speed of each bullet be m and v respectively, then the force acting on the machine gun is

(a)  mn/v

(b)  mnv

(c)  mv/n

(d)  None of these

55. What is the total current in the circuit shown in the adjacent diagram?

(a)  1 A

(b)  2 A

(c)  3 A

(d)  None of these

56. A certain radioactive element disintegrates for an interval of time equal to its mean life. What fraction of element is left?

(a)  e1

(b)  √e

(c)  1 – e1

(d)  1 – √e

57. The frequency f light falling on a photosensitive material is doubled. Then the kinetic energy of the photelectron

(a)  is also doubled

(b)  is less than double

(c)  more than double

(d)  None of these

58. A convex lens has maximum focal length for

(a)  yellow rays

(b)  green rays

(c)  violet rays

(d)  red rays

59. In a simple harmonic motion, it is found that the maximum acceleration is α and the maximum velocity is β. The period of the S.H.M is

(a) (b) (c)  T = 2πβ/α

(d)  T = β2

60. Two satellites of masses m1, m2 (m1 > m2) revolve around the earth in circular orbits of radii r1 and r2 (r1 > r2) respectively. If their speeds be v1 and v2 respectively then

(a)  v1 = v2

(b)  v1 < v2

(c)  v1/r1 = v2/r2

(d)  v1 > v2

61. If the densities of two gases are in the ratio 25 : 9, then the velocities of sound in the two gases will be in the ratio of

(a)  9 : 25

(b)  3 : 5

(c)  5 : 3

(d)  None of these

62. The ratio of the radius of planet P to that of plant Q is r. The ratio of the g-values on the planets is x. Then, the ratio of the escape velocities corresponding to the two planets is

(a)  xr

(b) (c) (d) 63. There are two charges +1 μC and +5 μC, separated by a distance d. The ratio of the forces acing on them is

(a)  1 : 5

(b)  5 : 1

(c)  1 : 25

(d)  1 : 1

64. The Young’s modulus of a material in the form of a wire is numerically equal that stress which will increase the length L0 of the wire to

(a) (b)  2L0

(c) (d)  None of these

65. Which of the following is an ohmic conductor

(a)  Transistor

(b)  Thermionic valve

(c)  Constantan

(d)  Electrolyte

66. When light travels from one medium to another, separated by a sharp boundary, the characteristic that does not change is

(a)  velocity

(b)  wavelength

(c)  amplitude

(d)  frequency

Chemistry

1. Bohr’s model can explain

(a)  the spectrum of hydrogen only

(b)  the spectrum of atom or ion containing one electron only

(c)  the spectrum of hydrogen molecule

(d)  the solar spectrum

2. The outermost electronic configuration of the most electronegative atom is

(a)  ns2 np3

(b)  ns2 np4

(c)  ns2 np5

(d)  ns2 np6

3. Diagonal relationship exists between

(a)  Li and Mg

(b)  Na and Mg

(c)  K and Mg

(d)  Al and Mg

4. The energy required to remove an electron of a gaseous atom from its ground state is called

(a)  potential energy

(b)  ionization energy

(c)  electrode potential

(d)  activation energy

5. Amongst the following, the molecule that is linear is

(a)  CO2

(b)  NO2

(c)  SO2

(d)  SiO2

6. Which has the least bond angle?

(a)  NH3

(b)  BeF2

(c)  H2O

(d)  CH4

7. Amongst the following molecules, the one with the largest distance between the two adjacent carbon atoms is

(a)  ethane

(b)  ethene

(c)  ethyne

(d)  benzene

8. Graphite is used in nuclear reactors

(a)  as a fuel

(b)  for lining inside of the reactor as an insulator

(c)  as a lubricant

(d)  for reducing the velocity of neutrons

9. Which of the following elements is most metallic?

(a)  P

(b)  As

(c)  Bi

(d)  Sb

10. Oxygen molecule exhibits

(a)  paramagpetism

(b)  diamagnetism

(c)  ferromagnetism

(d)  ferrimagnetism

11. Mark the element which displaces other halogens from their compounds.

(a)  F

(b)  Cl

(c)  Br

(d)  I

12. Which of the following series contain only nucleophiles?

(a)  H2O, SO3, H3O+

(b)  NH3, H2O, ROH

(c)  NH3, H2O, AlCl3

(d)  CN, SO3, OH

13. Which of the following exerts +I effect ?

(a)  CH3

(b)  Cl

(c)  −NH2

(d)  −NO2

14. Which of the following shows geometrical isomerism

(a)  but-1-ene

(b)  but-2-ene

(c)  propene

(d)  1, 1-dichlorobutane

15. . The compound is

(a)  acetic acid

(b)  acetaldehyde

(c)  acetone

(d)  ethanol

16. Chloroform is slowly oxidized by air in presence of sunlight to form

(a)  formyl chloride

(b)  phosgene

(c)  trichloroacetic acid

(d)  formic acid

17. The change in internal energy of a system depends on

(a)  initial and final states of the system

(b)  whether the path is reversible

(c)  whether the path is irreversible

(d)  None of these

18. In exothermal reactions

(a)  ∆E = 0

(b)  ∆H is negative

(c)  S = 0

(d)  H is positive

19. If the equilibrium constant of the reaction 2HI ⇌ H2 + I2 is 0.25, the equilibrium constant of the reaction H2 + I3 ⇌ 2HI would be

(a)  4

(b)  3

(c)  2

(d)  1

20. For the reaction N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 + heat

(a)  Kp = Ke

(b)  Kp = KcRT

(c)  Kp = Kc(RT)1

(d)  Kp = Kc(RT)1

21. Diazonium salt decomposes as C6H5N2 + Cl → C6H2Cl + N2

At 0℃, the evolution of N2 becomes 2 times faster when the initial concentration of the salt is doubled. So it is

(a)  a first order reaction

(b)  a second order reaction

(c)  independent of the initial concentration of the salt

(d)  a zero order reaction

22. If the concentration is expressed in moles litre, the unit of the rate constant of a first order reaction is

(a)  Mole litre1 sec1

(b)  sec1

(c)  Mole litre1

(d)  Mole1

23. The number of Faradays needed to reduce 4 gm equivalents of Cu2+ to Cu metal will be

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  1/2

(d)  4

24. The radionucleide undergoes two successive β-decays followed by one α-decay. The atomic number and mass number respectively of the resulting radionucleide are :

(a)  92 and 234

(b)  94 and 230

(c)  90 and 230

(d)  92 and 230

25. Half-life of a radioelement X is twice that of another radioelement Y. Initially the number of X and Y atoms are Nx and Ny If after 3 h alf lives of X, the number of atoms of X and Y become equal. then the ratio of Nx : Ny is

(a) 1 : 2

(b)  1 : 3

(c)  1 : 6

(d)  1 : 8

26. A solution of potassium ferrocyanide would contain

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  5 ions

27. In the complexes [Fe(CN)6]3 & [Cr(C2O4)]3 the respective coordination number of iron and chromium are

(a)  6 and 3

(b)  3 and 3

(c)  6 and 6

(d)  3 and 6

28. Which of the following metal is obtained by leaching its ore with dilute cyanide solution?

(a)  Silver

(b)  Titanium

(d)  Zinc

29. Which one of the following metals forms a volatile compound and this property is taken advantage for its extractioq?

(a)  Iron

(b)  Nickel

(c)  Cobalt

(d)  Tungsten

30. Alkali metals give colour in Bunsen flame due to

(a)  ionization potential

(b)  low melting point

(c)  softness

(d)  one electron in outermost orbit

31. Glauber’s salt is

(a)  Na2CO3, 10H2O

(b)  Na2SO4, 10H2O

(c)  CuSO4, 5H2O

(d)  FeSO4, 7H2O

32. The geometry and type of hybrid orbital present about the central atom in BF3 is

(a)  linear; sp

(b)  trigonal, sp2

(c)  tetrahedral, sp3

(d)  pyramidal, sp3

33. Transition metal are coloured due to

(a)  small size

(b)  metallic nature

(c)  unpaired d electrons

(d)  all

34. Cr has which of the following electronic configuration?

(a)  3s2 3p6 3d4 4s2

(b)  3s2 3P6 3d5 4s1

(c)  3s2 3P6 3d6

(d)  None of these

35. Cinnabar is an ore of

(a)  Hg

(b)  Cu

(c)  Pb

(d)  Zn

36. When acetaldehyde is heated with Fehling’s solution, it gives a precipitate of

(a)  Cu

(b)  CuO

(c)  Cup

(d)  Cu + CuO +Cu2O

37. The formation of cyanohydrin from a ketone is an example of

(c)  nucleophilic substitution

(d)  electrophilic substitution

38. Cannizzaro reaction is not responded by

(a)  trimethylacetaldehyde

(b)  benzaldehyde

(c)  acetaldehyde

(d)  fonnaldehyde

39. Which compound would liberate CO2 from, NaHCO3 solution ?

(a)  CH3CONH2

(b)  CH3NH2

(c)  (CH3)4N+OH

(d)  [CH3NH3]+ Cl

40. Benzenediazonium chloride on reaction with phenol in weakly alkaline medium gives

(a)  diphenyl ether

(b)  para hydroxyazobenzene

(c)  chlorobenzene

(d)  benzene

41. Cyclopentadienyl anion is aromatic due to the presence of

(a)  6 π electrons

(b)  10 π electrons

(c)  4 π electrons

(d)  12 π electrons

42. The reaction of tolune with chlorine in presence of FeCl3 gives predominantly

(a)  benzoyl chloride

(b)  m-chlorotoluene

(c)  benzyl chloride

(d)  o-and p-chlorotoluenes

43. Which of the following does not react with Fehling’s solution?

(a)  Acetaldehyde

(b)  Glucose

(c)  Benzaldehyde

(d)  Formaldehyde

44. Benzyl alcohol is obtained from benzaldehyde by

(a)  Wurtz reaction

(b)  Cannizzaro reaction

(c)  Perkin reaction

(d)  Claisen reaction

45. Which of the following is responsible for depletion of stratospheric ozone?

(a)  Polyhalogens

(b)  Ferrocene

(c)  Fullerenes

(d)  Chlorofluorocarbons

46. A greenhouse gas is

(a)  H2S

(b)  H2O vapour

(c)  SO2

(d)  NO2

47. Natural rubber is a polymer of

(a)  neoprene

(b)  chloroprene

(c)  isoprene

48. Which of the following is an antibiotic?

(a)  Chloroamphenicol

(b)  Aspirin

(c)  Paracetamol

(d)  Chloroquine

49. Which one of the following is a conducting polymer?

(a)  PVC

(b)  Bakelite

(c)  Polyaniline

(d)  Polyethylene

50. An atom is 10 times heavier than 1/12th mass of a carbon atom (C-12). The mass of the atom in a.m.u. is

(a)  10

(b)  120

(c)  1.2

(d)  12

51. Haemoglobin contains 0.33% of iron by mass. The molecular mass of haemoglobin is approximately 67200. the number of iron atoms (at. mass 56) in one molecule of haemoglobin is

(a)  6

(b)  1

(c)  4

(d)  2

52. Analysis shows that a binary compound of x(at. mass = 10) and y(at. mass = 20) contains 50% x. The formula of the compound is

(a)  xy

(b)  x2y

(c)  xy2

(d)  x2­y3

53. The maximum number of molecules is present in

(a)  15 L of H2 gas at STP

(b)  5L of N2 gas at STP

(c)  .5 g of H2 gas

(d)  10 g of O2 gas

54. Equal weights of ethane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25℃. The fraction of the total pressure exerted by hydrogen is

(a)  1 : 2

(b)  1 : 1

(c)  1 : 16

(d)  15 : 16

55. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that of a gas X. The molecular weight of X is

(a)  64

(b)  32

(c)  4

(d)  8

56. In Vander Waal’s equation of state for a real gas, the term that accounts for intermolecular forces is

(a)  (v – b)

(b)  RT

(c) (d)  (RT)1

57. Which of the following is not a coligative property?

(a)  Osmotic pressure

(b)  Elevation of b.p.

(c)  Vapour pressure

(d)  Depression of f.p.

58. Blood and the solution in which blood cells retain their normal forms are

(a)  isotonic

(b)  hypertonic

(c)  isoosmotic

(d)  equinormal

59. Milk is an example of

(a)  pure solution

(b)  emulsion

(c)  gel

(d)  suspension

60. Gold number represents

(a)  quantity of gold in alloys

(b)  percentage of gold in gold biscuits

(c)  colloid protective power

(d)  percentage of gold in colloidal gold

61. The sky appears blue due to

(a)  dispersion

(b)  reflection

(c)  transmission

(d)  scattering

62. How many Cl are there around Na+ ion in NaCl crystal?

(a)  3

(b)  4

(c)  6

(d)  8

63. In a crystal, the atoms are located at the position of

(a)  maximum P.E.

(b)  minimum P.E.

(c)  zero P. E.

(d)  infinite P.E.

64. The number of d-electron retained in Fe2 ion (at, no. of Fe = 26) is

(a)  6

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  5

65. For principal quantum number n= 4, the total number of orbitals having t = 3 is

(a)  3

(b)  7

(c)  5

(d)  9

66. Rutherford’s experiment on scattering of a particles showed for the first time that the atom has

(a)  electrons

(b)  protons

(c)  nucleus

(d)  neutrons

Biology

1. The last five vertebral in the human vertebral column is fused and called

(a)  Pygostyle

(b)  Coccyx

(c)  Sacrum

(d)  Urostyle

2. Thoracic ribs have two heads which articulate with

(a)  the sternum and the neural arch of the stenum

(b)  the neural arch and the transverse process of the vertebra

(c)  the sternum and transverse process of vertebra

(d)  the sternum and the neural spine of vertebra

3. During muscle contraction which filaments of a myofibril move?

(a)  Myosin filaments

(b)  Actin filaments

(c)  Both myosin and actin filaments

(d)  None of these

4. At the time of swallowing food the nasal passage is blocked by

(a)  terminal part of the soft palate

(b)  the epiglottis

(c)  the tongue

(d)  the turbinates

5. Normal quite breathing of either the costal or abdominal type is known as

(a)  Apnea

(b)  Dyspnea

(c)  Orthopnea

(d)  Eupnea

6. Breathing rate is controlled by coordination centres in

(a)  the medulla oblongata

(b)  the hypothalamus

(c)  the cerebral hemisphere

(d)  the cerebellum

7. Wall of the stomach is not damaged/digested by the gastric juice, because

(a)  Stomach lining secretes antacid

(b)  Stomach cells produce some antienzymes

(c)  Stomach lining is covered with thick mucus

(d)  Gastric juice is diluted with water in food

8. Lacteals are

(a)  the ducts of mammary gland

(b)  blood vessels draining the small intestine

(c)  lymph vessels in the villi of intestine

(d)  blood vessels in the kidney

9. Parathormone tends to increase blood concentration of calcium, the reverse effect is produced by

(a)  Glucocorticoides

(b)  Thyrocalcitonin

(c)  Aldosterone

(d)  Thyroxine

10. Granular leukocyte are produced in

(a)  the red bone narrow

(b)  the lymphatic tissue

(c)  the liver

(d)  the spleen

11. Which of the following constituents are essential for normal blood clotting?

(a)  Vitamin B12 and Na+

(b)  Vitamin B12 and Ca++

(c)  Vitamin K and Ca++

(d)  Vitamin K and Na+

12. Bundle of His is situated in

(a)  the wall of the interauricular spetum

(b)  the interventricular septum

(c)  the wall of the pulmonary aorta

(d)  the wall of the superior vencava

13. Nissl bodies consist of

(a)  groups of flat, membranous sacs and RNA

(b)  membranous sacs containing mitochondria

(c)  vesicles secreting acetylcholine

(d)  vesicles secreting cholinesterase

14. A nerve impulse is

(a)  the depolarization of the nerve fibre

(b)  the repolarization of the nerve fibre

(c)  the self propagating wave of negativity

(d)  a wave of positivity

15. The appetite centre is located in

(a)  the cerebral cortex

(b)  the lateral part of the hypothalamus

(c)  the middle part of the  hypothalamus

(d)  medulla oblongata

16. The blood group of a child is AB, and that of one of the parents is B; the blood group of other parent may be

(a)  A, AB

(b)  B, AB

(c)  A, B, AB

(d)  O, B

17. The blood plasma of a person of blood group AB is transfused into person of group ‘O’ the recipient will

(a)  die

(b)  suffer from agglutination

(c)  suffer from hemorrhage

(d)  remain normal

18. The cause of Down’s syndrome is

(a)  loss of one chromosome

(b)  trisomy of 21st chromosome

(c)  an XXY condition

(d)  and XO condition

19. Infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is

(a)  Trophozoite stage

(c)  Octanucleated cysts

(d)  Minuta stage

20. Exflagellationis the process found in the formation of

(a)  Sporozoites in Plasmodium vivax

(b)  Female garnets of Plasmodium vivax

(c)  Male garnets of Plasmodium vivax

(d)  Ookinete of Plasmodium vivax

21. Digestion of food in Hydra is

(a)  extracellular

(b)  intracellular

(c)  both extracellular and intracellular

(d)  some times extracellular, sometimes intracellular

22. Gonads of Obelia are placed in the

(a)  Blastostyle

(b)  Feeding Zooid

(c)  Medusa

(d)  Hydrorhyza

23. Physalia is a

(a)  Solitary Zooid

(b)  Polymorphic Colony

(c)  Dimorphic Colony

(d)  Trimorphic Colony

24. During copulation of earthworms sperms are transferred into

(a)  Oviducts

(b)  Spermathecae

(c)  Seminal vesicles

(d)  Sperm ducts

25. The elongated body with two pairs of legs in each body segments is found in

(a)  Scorpion

(b)  Millipede

(c)  Mites

(d)  Prawn

26. The fish with placoid scales and heterocercal tail is

(a)  Jelly fish

(b)  Cuttle fish

(c)  Dogfish

(d)  Cat fish

27. A mammal that lays egg is

(a)  The scaly ant eater (pangolin)

(b)  Kangaroo

(c)  Whale

(d)  Platypus

28. The adult chordaic without persistent notochord is

(a)  the ascidian

(b)  the amphioxus

(c)  the scoliodon

(d)  Hagfish

29. The best non-renewable energy resource for mankind is

(a)  Nuclear energy

(b)  Hydroelectricity

(c)  Solar energy

(d)  Thermal power

30. Excretory organs in Cockroach are

(a)  Green gland

(b)  Nephridia

(c)  Malpighian tubules

(d)  Coxal gland

31. Osphradium is present in the mantle cavity near

(a)  ctenidium

(b)  right nuchal lobe

(c)  over the buccal mass

(d)  left nuchal lobe

32. The last moulting of Ascar larva takes place in

(a)  Lung of man

(b)  Intestine of man

(c)  Liver of man

(d)  Heart of man

33. The smallest unit of a rom pound eye in Periplaneta is

(a)  Ommatidium

(b)  Rod cells

(c)  Cone cells

(d)  Rhabdome

34. Primitive streak develops during

(a)  Cleavage

(b)  Blastulation

(c)  Gastrulation

(d)  Implantation

35. Slight yellow colour of normal urine is due to the presence of

(a)  Billirubin

(b)  Billivardin

(c)  Ketone bodies

(d)  Urochrome

36. Rate of glomerular filtration and the power of nitrogen retention of kidney decreases and insomnia is found in

(a)  Grave’s disease

(c)  Cushing’s syndrome

(d)  Diabetes mellitus

37. The plants do not store carbohydrates as glucose, because it

(a)  would replace ribose in DNA synthesis

(b)  is an unstable molecule

(c)  attracts insects harbivores

(d)  dissolves in water, thereby altering the  osmotic balance

38. The spindle fibres formed during mitosis connect to the

(a)  Nucleoli

(b)  Sugar-phosphate strands

(c)  Kinetochores

(d)  Nuclear membrane

39. The carbohydrates in cell membrane participates in

(a)  cell to cell recognition

(b)  transporting substances across the  membrane

(c)  attaching the membrane to the cytoskeleton

40. The two strands of a double-helix model DNA are held together hydrogen bond between

(a)  sugar and phosphate group

(b)  sugar and nitrogenous bases

(c)  phosphate groups and nitrogenous bases

(d)  nitrogenous bases

41. In the synthesis of a new strand for a DNA molecule by linking nucleotides to the developing strand which enzyme catalyzes?

(a)  DNA ligase

(b)  DNA polymerase

(c)  Tupoisomerase

(d)  Endonuclease

42. A Barr-body is a

(a)  extranuclear molecular DNA

(b)  connection between two X-chromosome.

(c)  coiled, inert X-chromosome

(d)  Supernumerary Y-chromosome

43. Most of the fossils are found in

(a)  Granite rock

(b)  Lava flows

(c)  Black soil

(d)  Sedimentary rock

44. The ‘Natural selection’ is best defined as occurring when the environment causes

(a)  differ initial success in reproduction

(b)  differential mortality

(c)  assertive mating

(d)  a reduced gene pool

45. Presence of Cnidoblast cell is the characteristic feature of

(a)  Physalia

(b)  Beroe

(c)  Poterion

(d)  Trypanosoma

46. The Hybrid disease in man is caused by the larvae of

(a)  Echinococcus granulosus

(b)  Taenia solium

(c)  Ancylostoma duodenale

(d)  Fasciola hepatica

47. Microfilaria bancroffii is the embryo of

(a)  Ascaris lumbricoides

(b)  Ancylostoma duodenale

(c)  Fasciola hepatica

(d)  Wuchereria sp

48. The enzymes of Lysosomes are capable of

(a)  Aerobic cellular respiration

(b)  Synthesizing proteins

(c)  Digesting part of cells

(d)  Synthesizing lipids

49. Which one of the following is a crop pest?

(a)  Tse-tse fly

(b)  Drosophila

(c)  Aphid

(d)  Pediculus

50. SO2 of the atmosphere combines with water to form H2SO4 and this when reaches to soil it

(a)  increases pH of soil

(b)  decreases pH of soil

(c)  pH remains unchanged

(d)  Soil eroded easily

51. Dependance of host cell nucleic add for multiplication is found in

(a)  Bacteria

(b)  Mycoplasma

(c)  Virus

(d)  Eukaryotes

52. Fixation of atmospheric Nitrogen to the soil is known as

(a)  Nitrogen fixation

(b)  Denitrification

(c)  Ammonification

(d)  Decomposition

53. Azygospores is produced in spirogyra by

(a)  Conjugation

(b)  Parthenogenesis

(c)  Syngamy

(d)  Fertilization

54. Which of the following is a development for pterdophytes over Bryophytes?

(a)  Formation of spores

(b)  Alternation of generation

(c)  Vascular system

(d)  Presence of ovator

55. All of the following features are shown by Monocotyledonous plants except

(a)  Bears only one Cotyledon in their embryo

(b)  Radicle on germination produces adventitious roots

(c)  Leaves show parallel venation

(d)  Vascular bundles are open in stem

56. Which of the following is true in exalbuminous seed?

(a)  Only nucellus is consumed

(b)  None of the endosperm and nucellus are consumed.

(c)  Only endosperm is consumed

(d)  Both endosperm and nucellus are consumed.

57. Tuberous modification of roots is for

(a)  mechanical support

(b)  vital function

(c)  storage of food

(d)  reproduction

58. Which of the following pair of words are appropriately matched?

(a)  Tuber-Ginger

(b)  Rhzome-Onion

(d)  Phyllode-Hugonia

59. When rachis contains more than three leaflets in a compound pinnate leaf, it is called

(a)  Peripinnate

(c)  Imparipinnate

(d)  Decompound

60. In which of the following Hypanthodium type of inflorescence is seen?

(a)  Euphorbia

(b)  Ficus

(c)  Dorstenia

(d)  Sibricus

61. Which of the following combination of Chromosomal pattern is produced by double fertilization and triple fusion?

(a)  n and n

(b)  2n and 3n

(c)  n and 2n

(d)  2n and 2n

62. Which of the following diseases is most likely to occur due to noise pollution?

(a)  Hypertension

(b)  Diabetes

(c)  Lung cancer

(d)  Renal failure

63. Chlorophyll is found to be concentrated in which part of plastid?

(a)  Grana

(b)  Lamellae

(c)  Stroma

(d)  Sap

64. Which of the following phenomenon contradicts Mendels’ Law of Independent Assortment?

(b)  Testcross

(c)  Back cross

(d)  Abberation

65. Which one of the following enzymes is used in genetic Engineering?

(a)  Lipoprotein lipase

(b)  Endonuclease

(c)  Enterokinase

(d)  Amylase

66. All of the following are end products in light reaction of photosynthesis except

(c)  Oxygen

(d)  Phosphoglyceric acid

67. How many molecules of ATP are produced in anaerobic glycolysis?

(a)  Two

(b)  Three

(c)  Four

(d)  Five

68. Which of the following hormones helps in blooming of flowers?

(a)  Auxin

(b)  Cytokinin

(c)  Gibberelin

(d)  Florigen

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