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2009 O.U.A.T Question with Answer
Physics
1. One Fermi is equal to
(a) 10−19 m
(b) 10−12 m
(c) 10−15 m
(d) 10−18 m
Answer: (c)
2. One Angstrom is equal to
(a) 10−10 m
(b) 10−9 m
(c) 10−8 m
(d) 10−6 m
Answer: (a)
3. Velocity of light is
(a) 3 × 108 ms−1
(b) 3 × 10−8 ms−1
(c) 3 × 1010 ms−1
(d) 3 × 1012 ms−1
Answer: (a)
4. Which of the following is not a unit of length ?
(a) Angstrom
(b) Light year
(c) Micro second
(d) Metre
Answer: (c)
5. Motion of gas molecules in a room is a case of
(a) one dimension
(b) two dimensions
(c) three dimensions
(d) four dimensions
Answer: (c)
6. An insect crawling on the floor of a room is case of
(a) one dimension
(b) two dimensions
(c) three dimensions
(d) four dimensions
Answer: (b)
7. A body covered a distance of 5 metre along a semicircular path. The ratio of distance to displacement is
(a) 11 : 7
(b) 12 : 5
(c) 8 : 3
(d) 7 : 5
Answer: (a)
8. The area of acceleration time curve gives
(a) displacement of the body
(b) velocity
(c) change of velocity of acceleration
(d) rate of change of acceleration
Answer: (c)
9. Time is a scalar because
(a) it has no magnitude
(b) it has no direction
(c) it cannot be resolved into compounds
(d) it has no magnitude as well as direction
Answer: (b)
10. Identify the vector quantity
(a) Time
(b) Current density
(c) Work
(d) Electric current
Answer: (b)
11. Which of the following is a vector quantity?
(a) Infinitesimally small rotation
(b) Current
(c) Pressure
(d) Work
Answer: (a)
12. The rectangular components of a force of 13 N are
(a) 5 N, 12 N
(b) 10 N, 11 N
(c) 6.5 N, 6.5 N
(d) 9 N, 12 N
Answer: (a)
13. When the angle between the force and displacement obtuse, the work done is
(a) unity
(b) zero
(c) positive
(d) negative
Answer: (d)
14. Work is measured in
(a) newton
(b) newton – cm
(c) joule
(d) watt
Answer: (c)
15. Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by a body because of
(a) Motion
(b) position
(c) mass
(d) Gravity
Answer: (a)
16. Kinetic energy is measured in
(a) joules
(b) newton
(c) watt
(d) dyne
Answer: (a)
17. The motion of our earth is a case of
(a) translator motion
(b) rotator motion
(c) both translational and rotational
(d) oscillatory
Answer: (c)
18. A cracker explodes in air, the path followed by the C.M. after explosion is
(a) parabolic
(b) hyperbola
(c) ellipse
(d) straight
Answer: (a)
19. The equivalent of torque in linear motion is
(a) momentum
(b) impulse
(c) acceleration
(d) force
Answer: (d)
20. Torque depends upon
(a) only force
(b) only the point of application of force
(c) only on the mass of the object
(d) None of the statements is correct
Answer: (d)
21. The value of Gravitational Constant was first of all determined in the laboratory by
(a) Newton
(b) Boys
(c) Galileo
(d) Cavendish
Answer: (c)
22. On the surface of the earth, the value of g is maximum at
(a) the equator
(b) the poles
(c) 45° latitude
(d) 60° latitude
Answer: (b)
23. The minimum velocity projection to go out from earth’s gravitational pull is called
(a) orbital velocity
(b) escape velocity
(c) terminal velocity
(d) uniform velocity
Answer: (b)
24. The orbital speed of mercury planet is
(a) greater than that of earth
(b) less than that of earth
(c) equal to that of earth
(d) less than that of pluto
Answer: (a)
25. Who said that the motion along a horizontal plane is perpetual?
(a) Rutherford
(b) Bohr
(c) Galileo
(d) Aristotle
Answer: (c)
26. Newton’s second law relates force and
(a) velocity
(b) density
(c) impulse
(d) Acceleration
Answer: (d)
27. One kilogram force is equal to
(a) 9.8 N
(b) 980 N
(c) 980 dynes
(d) 105 dynes
Answer: (a)
28. Rocket works on the principle of conservation of
(a) momentum
(b) mass
(c) energy
(d) angular momentum
Answer: (a)
29. Pascal is the unit of
(a) force
(b) momentum
(c) impulse
(d) pressure
Answer: (d)
30. The atmospheric pressure is about
(a) 107 Nm−2
(b) 105 Nm−2
(c) 103 Nm−2
(d) 109 Nm−2
Answer: (b)
31. Heat is
(a) orderly motion
(b) degree of hotness
(c) disorderly motion
(d) degree of coldness
Answer: (c)
32. The unit of modulus of elasticity is
(a) dyne/cm
(b) dyne/cm2
(c) Nm−1
(d) dynes
Answer: (b)
33. The temperature of a body on Rankine scale is 510°. The temperature of the body on Celsius will be
(a) 20°
(b) 30°
(c) 40°
(d) 10°
Answer: (d)
34. The common temperature for Celsius and Kelvin scale is
(a) −100°
(b) −273°
(c) zero
(d) No common temperature
Answer: (d)
35. Very low temperatures are measured by
(a) gas thermometers
(b) pyrometers
(c) thermocouple thermometers
(d) vapour pressure thermometers
Answer: (c)
36. The triple point temperature in the case of water is
(a) 273.15°C
(b) 273.15 K
(c) 237.16°C
(d) 273.16 K
Answer: (d)
37. Frequency is measured in
(a) cycles
(b) cycles per second
(c) hertz per second
(d) meter per second
Answer: (b)
38. The heart beat of a person is 90 per minute. The frequency is
(a) 90 Hz
(b) 60 Hz
(c) 1.33 Hz
(d) 1.5 Hz
Answer: (d)
39. Fourier was primarily a
(a) Mathematician
(b) Astronomer
(c) Botanist
(d) Geologist
Answer: (a)
40. A spring is replaced by another spring of stiffer material. Its time period will
(a) remain same
(b) increase
(c) decrease
(d) fluctuate
Answer: (b)
41. Sound is
(a) an electromagnetic wave
(b) a transverse wave
(c) a longitudinal wave
(d) not a wave
Answer: (a)
42. The formula for the speed of sound waves was first obtained by
(a) Galileo
(b) Newton
(c) Einstein
(d) Huygen
Answer: (b)
43. In the case of sound waves the pressure is
(a) more at the condensation
(b) more at the rarefaction
(c) same everywhere
(d) zero
Answer: (a)
44. In which medium will the speed of sound be maximum ?
(a) Air
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Water
(d) Steel
Answer: (d)
45. The positive and negative names of electricity were given by
(a) Faraday
(b) Lenz
(c) Benjanium Frankein
(d) Galileo
Answer: (a)
46. The charge on the electron is
(a) 1.6 × 10−16 C
(b) 1.6 × 10−17 C
(c) 1.6 × 10−8 C
(d) 1.6 × 10−19 C
Answer: (d)
47. A proton is composed of which of the following quarks?
(a) 1U + 1d
(b) 2U + 2d
(c) 1U + 2d
(d) 2U + 1d
Answer: (d)
48. The dielectric constant K of an insulator can be
(a) 0.4
(b) Zero
(c) −2
(d) 6
Answer: (b)
49. The e.m.f. of a Leclanche cell is of the order of
(a) 1.1 V
(b) 1.08 V
(c) 1.45 V
(d) 1.12 V
Answer: (c)
50. The internal resistance of a secondary cell is
(a) very low
(b) very high
(c) equal to that of primary cell
(d) more than that of primary cell
Answer: (d)
51. Which of the following cells gives fairly steady current ?
(a) Voltaic cell
(b) Daniel cell
(c) Leclanche cell
(d) Fuel cell
Answer: (b)
52. The capacity o f a cell is expressed in
(a) Ah
(b) farad
(c) ohm
(d) Vh
Answer: (a)
53. One kilowatt hour is equal to
(a) 3.6 × 102 J
(b) 3.6 × 104 J
(c) 3.6 × 106 J
(d) 3.6 × 107 J
Answer: (c)
54. Standard resistance coils are made of
(a) silver
(b) gold
(c) copper
(d) manganin
Answer: (d)
55. Nichrome is
(a) a metal
(b) non-metal
(c) amalgams
(d) alloy
Answer: (d)
56. Fuse wire is made of
(a) constantan
(b) Cu
(c) lead-tin alloy
(d) tungsten
Answer: (c)
57. The magnetic field is measured in
(a) newton
(b) faraday
(c) rutherford
(d) tesla
Answer: (d)
58. One tesla is defined as
(a) weber-m
(b) weber m−1
(c) weber m2
(d) weber m−2
Answer: (d)
59. A charged particle enters at 30° to the magnetic field. Its path becomes
(a) circular
(b) helical
(c) elliptical
(d) straight line
Answer: (b)
60. Pole strength is measured in
(a) Am−1
(b) Am−2
(c) Am
(d) Am2
Answer: (c)
61. Susceptibility has the units of
(a) tesla
(b) Am2
(c) Am−2
(d) No units
Answer: (d)
62. Magnetic moment is a
(a) vector
(b) scalar
(c) flux
(d) unit
Answer: (a)
63. The laws of electromagnetic induction are the contribution of
(a) Faraday
(b) Maxwell
(c) Lawrence
(d) Hall
Answer: (a)
64. Eddy currents are also known as
(a) Focault currents
(b) Faraday currents
(c) Huygen currents
(d) Franklin currents
Answer: (a)
65. The frequency of a.c. used in India is
(a) 50 Hz
(b) 50 KHz
(c) 100 Hz
(d) 60 Hz
Answer: (a)
66. The output of a dynamo using a split ring commutator is
(a) D.C.
(b) A.C.
(c) fluctuating D.C.
(d) half-wave rectified D.C.
Answer: (a)
Chemistry
1. Rutheford’s scattering experiment is related to the size of the
(a) nucleus
(b) atom
(c) electron
(d) neutron
Answer: (a)
2. Electromagnetic radiation with maximum wave-length is
(a) ultraviolet
(b) radiowave
(c) x-ray
(d) infrared
Answer: (b)
3. The heaviest particle is
(a) α
(b) electron
(c) proton
(d) neutron
Answer: (a)
4. Which of the following elements occur free in nature?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Phosphorus
(c) Arsenic
(d) Antimony
Answer: (a)
5. The number of electrons in Al3+ is
(a) 13
(b) 16
(c) 10
(d) 9
Answer: (c)
6. AP- orbital can accommodate
(a) 4 electrons
(b) 6 electrons
(c) 2 electrons with parallel spins
(d) 2 electrons with opposite spins
Answer: (d)
7. Which of the following does (do) not consist of particles of matter?
(a) Alpha rays
(b) Beta rays
(c) Gamma rays
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
8. Isotone of 32Ge76 is (are)
(a) 32Ge77
(b) 33As77
(c) 34Se77
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
9. Which of the following species has a trigonal planar shape ?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (b)
10. Which of the following is not an electrophile ?
(a) NH3
(b) BF3
(c) AlCl3
(d) Hg2+
Answer: (a)
11. Which of the following is not a nulceophile?
(a) OH−
(b) NH3
(c) BF3
(d) HSO3−
Answer: (c)
12. In CH3CH2OH, the bond that undergoes heterolytic cleavage most readily is
(a) C−C
(b) C−O
(c) C−H
(d) O−H
Answer: (d)
13. Ammonical silver nitrate reacts with
(a) Ethyne
(b) Ethylene
(c) Butyne-2
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
14. Acetylene is
(a) red coloured gas
(b) useful in polymer industry
(c) alkaline permanganate solution
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
15. Benzene can undergo
(a) substitution
(b) decarboxylation
(c) elimination
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
16. Amongst the following the compound that is nitrated with difficulty is
(a) Benzene
(b) Nitrobenzene
(c) Toluene
(d) Phenol
Answer: (b)
17. Which of the following decolourizes alkaline KMnO4?
(a) C8H3
(b) C3H4
(c) CH4
(d) CCl4
Answer: (b)
18. Nuclides having the same atomic and mass numbers are known as
(a) isomers
(b) isotopes
(c) isotones
(d) isobars
Answer: (a)
19. Which of the following nuclei is unstable?
(a) 5B10
(b) 4Be10
(c) 7N14
(d) 8O16
Answer: (b)
20. The larges stable nucleus is
(a) U-238
(b) U-235
(c) Pb-206
(d) Bi-209
Answer: (b)
21. The rate of reaction of substances is proportional to their
(a) stability
(b) molecular weight
(c) equivalent weight
(d) active mass
Answer: (d)
22. In a reversible reaction both side rates of reactions are
(a) same
(b) different
(c) one side more
(d) not definite
Answer: (a)
23. The number of gram molecules of a substance present in unit volume is termed as
(a) activity
(b) normal solution
(c) molar concentration
(d) active mass
Answer: (d)
24. The law of mass action was enunciated by
(a) Guldberg and Waage
(b) Bodenstein
(c) Berthelot
(d) Graham
Answer: (a)
25. In reversible reaction both side rates of a reaction are
(a) same
(b) different
(c) one side more
(d) reactant rates less
Answer: (a)
26. The rate of reaction does not depend upon
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) concentration
(d) catalyst
Answer: (d)
27. The rate constant of a reaction depends on
(a) temperature
(b) mass
(c) weight
(d) time
Answer: (a)
28. In which of the following cases, does the reaction go farthest to completion?
(a) K = 102
(b) K = 10−2
(c) K = 10
(d) K = 1
Answer: (a)
29. The temperature coefficient of most of the reactions lies between
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Answer: (b)
30. The minimum energy necessary to permit a reaction is
(a) internal energy
(b) threshold energy
(c) activation energy
(d) free energy
Answer: (b)
31. In the hydrogenation of oils the catalyst used is
(a) iron
(b) platinum
(c) nickel
(d) molybdenum
Answer: (c)
32. Theory of ionization was given by
(a) Rutherford
(b) Faraday
(c) Graham
(d) Arrhenius
Answer: (d)
33. Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to the presence of
(a) free electrons
(b) free ions
(c) free molecules
(d) atoms of sodium and chlorine
Answer: (b)
34. 1 litre of water contains 10−7 moles of H+ .Degree of ionization of water is
(a) 1.8 × 10−7
(b) 1 × 10−9
(c) 3.6 × 10−7
(d) 3.6 × 10−9
Answer: (a)
35. The pH of an aqueous solution is 4.0. Its pOH will be
(a) 4.0
(b) 6.0
(c) 8.0
(d) 10.0
Answer: (d)
36. Which one of the following has highest pH ?
(a) Distilled water
(b) 1 M NH3
(c) 1 M NaOH
(d) water saturated with chlorine
Answer: (c)
37. The pH of distilled water is
(a) 0.0
(b) 14
(c) 7
(d) 9
Answer: (c)
38. The pH of pure water at 25℃ is close to
(a) 0.0
(b) 14.0
(c) 7.0
(d) 9.0
Answer: (c)
39. An electrolyte is one
(a) which conducts electric current
(b) which is capable of ionization by passing electric current
(c) which dissociated into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
40. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to
(a) dilution
(b) number of ions
(c) current density
(d) volume of the solution
Answer: (b)
41. The one that is a good conductor of electricity in the following list of solids is
(a) sodium chloride
(b) graphite
(c) diamond
(d) sodium
Answer: (b)
42. The electrolytic conductance is a direct measure of
(a) resistance
(b) potential
(c) concentration
(d) dissociation
Answer: (d)
43. Electrolysis of molten NaCl leads to the formation of
(a) sodium and hydrogen
(b) sodium and oxygen
(c) hydrogen and oxygen
(d) sodium and chlorine
Answer: (d)
44. On the electrolysis of aqueous solution of sodium sulphate, on cathode we get
(a) Na
(b) Hz
(c) SO1
(d) SO3
Answer: (b)
45. Law of electrolysis was given by
(a) Lamark
(b) Ostwald
(c) Faraday
(d) Arrhenius
Answer: (c)
46. Phosphorus pentachloride reacts with
(a) klater
(b) ethers
(c) amines
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
47. Phenol is
(a) a base weaker than ammonia
(b) an acid stronger than carbonic acid
(c) an acid weaker than carbonic acid
(d) a neutral compound
Answer: (c)
48. Hydrogen bonding is possible in
(a) ethers
(b) hydrocarbons
(c) water
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
49. Which of the following compounds can’t be used as acetylating agent?
(a) Acetyl Chloride
(b) Acetic anhydride
(c) Acetic acid
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
50. Which of the following compounds will give a yellow precipitate with iodine and alkali?
(a) Acetophenone
(b) Methyl acetate
(c) Acetamide
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
51. Acetamide reacts with NaOBr in alkaline medium to form
(a) NH3
(b) CH3NH2
(c) CH3CN
(d) CH3CH2NH2
Answer: (b)
52. On strong heating ammonium acetate gives
(a) acetamide
(b) methyl cyanide
(c) urea
(d) formamide
Answer: (a)
53. How many primary amines are possible for the formula C4H11N?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer: (d)
54. Amongst the following, the most basic compound is
(a) Benzylamine
(b) Aniline
(c) Acetanilide
(d) P-Nitroaniline
Answer: (a)
55. 5 grams each of the following gases at 87℃ and 750 mm pressure are taken. Which of them will have the least volume?
(a) HF
(b) HCl
(c) HBr
(d) HI
Answer: (d)
56. The largest number of molecules is in
(a) 54 gm of N2O5
(b) 28 gm of CO
(c) 36 gm of H2O
(d) 46 gm of C12H5OH
Answer: (c)
57. The value of R in calorie/degree/mole is
(a) 0.0831
(b) 8.31
(c) 8.31 × 107
(d) 1.987
Answer: (d)
58. The vapour density of a gas is 11.2. The volume occupied by 11.2 gm of the gas at N.T.P. is
(a) 1 litre
(b) 11.2 litre
(c) 22.4 litre.
(d) 44.8 litre
Answer: (b)
59. The rates of diffusion of SO2 and O2 (S = 32, O = 16) are in the ratio
(a) 1 : 1√2
(b) 1 : 32
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 1 : 4
Answer: (a)
60. In solids the constituent particles may be
(a) Atoms
(b) ions
(c) molecules
(d) Either of the above three
Answer: (d)
61. In square close packing pattern in one layer, the available space filled by the spheres is
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 52.4%
(d) 60%
Answer: (b)
62. The available space filled in hexagonal close packing pattern in one layer is
(a) 40%
(b) 2.4%
(c) 60.4%
(d) 70%
Answer: (c)
63. Which of the following does not adopt hcp structure?
(a) Be
(b) Mg
(c) Fe
(d) Mo
Answer: (c)
64. Which of the following is the smallest cation?
(a) Na+
(b) Mg2+
(c) Ca2+
(d) Al3+
Answer: (d)
65. Which of the following element occurs in free state?
(a) C
(b) Si
(c) Ge
(d) Sn
Answer: (b)
66. The ability of a substance to assume two or more crystalline structure is called
(a) isomerism
(b) polymorphism
(c) isomorphism
(d) amorphism
Answer: (b)
Biology
1. Palaeontology is the study of
(a) Bones
(b) Fossils
(c) Primates
(d) Birds
Answer: (b)
2. Which of the following deals with the plants an environmental relationship?
(a) Ecology
(b) Phytogeography
(c) Plant morphology
(d) Palaeobotany
Answer: (a)
3. Study of disease of different plants is
(a) Pathology
(b) Plant physiology
(c) Anatomy
(d) Phycology
Answer: (a)
4. The science of vegetable culture is called as
(a) Floriculture
(b) Agriculture
(c) Olericulture
(d) Horticulture
Answer: (c)
5. Pedology is the science of
(a) Disease
(b) Pollution
(c) Soil
(d) Rocks
Answer: (c)
6. The basic unit of classification is
(a) Genes
(b) Species
(c) Family
(d) Order
Answer: (b)
7. Who is the father of taxonomy ?
(a) Engler
(b) Aristotle
(c) Linnaeus
(d) Eichler
Answer: (c)
8. Which spreads the cy&ts of Entamoeba histolytica
(a) Mosquito
(b) Bed bug
(c) Mouse
(d) House fly
Answer: (d)
9. Shuffner’s granules are found in malaria patient in the cells of
(a) liver
(b) red blood cells
(c) signet ring trophozoite
(d) gametocytes of plasmodium
Answer: (b)
10. Plasmodium is
(a) Monogenetic
(b) Digenetic
(c) Polygenetic
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
11. Regulation of water in the body is called
(a) Homoeostasis
(b) Excretion
(c) Paedogenesis
(d) Osmoregulation
Answer: (d)
12. The tail of tadpole larva, is lost in adult Herdmania due to
(a) Parasitism
(b) Ptedatism
(c) Commensalism
(d) Phagocytosis
Answer: (b)
13. Most characteristic feature of plant’s cell is
(a) chlorophyll present
(b) cell wall present
(c) only one vacuole
(d) plastids present
Answer: (d)
14. ATP transport is the function of
(a) Golgi body
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Nucleus
(d) ER
Answer: (b)
15. Mitochondria are activated by
(a) Golgi body
(b) Plasma
(c) Nucleus
(d) ER
Answer: (c)
16. Peroxisomes were discovered by
(a) De Duve
(b) Golgi
(c) Rhodin
(d) Hexley
Answer: (a)
17. The activities of all living cells are controlled by
(a) Chloroplast
(b) Tonoplast
(c) Nucleus
(d) Auxins
Answer: (c)
18. The site of respiration within cell is
(a) Ribosome
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Golgi body
(d) Nucleus
Answer: (b)
19. Animal cell is limited by
(a) Plasma membrane
(b) Cell wall
(c) Basement membrane
(d) cell membrane
Answer: (a)
20. Which of the following is described as “Energy currency of the cell”?
(a) DNA
(b) RNA
(c) ATP
(d) Vitamins
Answer: (c)
21. The acrosome of human sperm is formed by
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Centrioles
(c) Golgi bodies
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: (c)
22. Crossing over of chromosomes takes place during
(a) Amitosis
(b) Meiosis
(c) Mitosis
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
23. Genetic crossing usually takes place during
(a) Mitosis
(b) Meiosis I
(c) Meiosis II
(d) Mitosis and Meiosis
Answer: (b)
24. During meiosis, the chromosome number is
(a) halved
(b) unchanged
(c) doubled
(d) tripled
Answer: (a)
25. In plant cells, cell plate formation is
(a) Acropetal
(b) Centripetal
(c) Centrifugal
(d) Basipetal
Answer: (c)
26. A transformed cell of the body which has lost control over its division is called
(a) Mast cell
(b) Leukocyte
(c) Cancer cell
(d) Connective cell
Answer: (c)
27. Viruses which cause cancers are known as
(a) Virion
(b) Virioids
(c) RNA viruses
(d) Oncogenic viruses
Answer: (d)
28. The chromosomes are made up of
(a) DNA
(b) DNA + Proteins
(c) RNA
(d) RNA + Proteins
Answer: (a)
29. Centromeres are found is
(a) primary constrictions
(b) secondary constrictions
(c) Both (A) and (B)
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
30. A hybrid has
(a) both nuclei of the two fusing cells.
(b) only cytoplasm of two fusing cells.
(c) cytoplasm of two fusing cells and one nucleus.
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
31. Genes are arranged on
(a) Ribosomes
(b) Centrosomes
(c) Chromosomes
(d) Lysosomes
Answer: (c)
32. RNA is found only in
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Nucleoplasm
(c) Cytoplasm and Nucleoplasm
(d) Chromosome
Answer: (a)
33. RNA has which of the following sugar ?
(a) Ribose
(b) Hexose
(c) Fructose
(d) Glucose
Answer: (a)
34. The amino acid proline is coded by
(a) CCU
(b) CCA
(c) CCC
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
35. Mendel was born at
(a) Heinzendorf
(b) Vienna
(c) Prague
(d) Paris
Answer: (b)
36. The A, B, AB and O types of human blood groups were discovered by
(a) Londsteiner
(b) De Vries
(c) Careens
(d) Weiner
Answer: (a)
37. AB blood group is an example for
(a) total dominance
(b) partial dominance
(c) co-dominance
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
38. Antigens are also called
(a) Agglutinogens
(b) Immuno globulins
(c) Agglutinins
(d) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: (a)
39. The antigen present in blood group A is
(a) A
(b) B
(c) AB
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
40. Water is lost from the plant body by
(a) Transpiration
(b) Guttation
(c) Both (A) and (B)
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
41. The rate of transpiration is measured by
(a) Photometer
(b) Hygrometer
(c) Auxanometer
(d) Potometer
Answer: (d)
42. Dilution of milk with water involves
(a) osmosis
(b) diffusion
(c) filtration
(d) imbibition
Answer: (b)
43. DPD stands for
(a) Diffusion Pressure Deficit
(b) Diffusion Potential Deficit
(c) Daily Phosphate Demand
(d) Daily Photosynthetic Depression
Answer: (a)
44. Diffusion pressure of pure water is
(a) zero
(b) 100 atm
(c) 1000 atm
(d) 1236 atm
Answer: (a)
45. A primary carnivore is also called a
(a) Producer
(b) Autotroph
(c) Secondary consumer
(d) Tertiary consumer
Answer: (c)
46. Chipko movement is associated with
(a) H. N. Bahuguna
(b) S. I. Bahuguna
(c) R. Mishra
(d) Kamal Nath
Answer: (b)
47. The national headquarters of NEERI is at
(a) Mumbai
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Nagpur
(d) Chennai
Answer: (c)
48. DDT is a
(a) bio-degradable pollutant
(b) bio-nondegradale pollutant
(c) non-polluting chemical
(d) (a) or (b) depending upon its concentration
Answer: (b)
49. Two wheelers can become environmental hazards mainly because of
(a) their noise
(b) their numbers
(c) their speed
(d) their exhaust fumes
Answer: (d)
50. We can find which of these birds only in the jungle?
(a) Bulbul
(b) Crow
(c) Sparrow
(d) Hombill
Answer: (d)
51. In pond ecosystem the food chain begins with
(a) Aquatic animals
(b) Small fishes
(c) Phytoplankton
(d) Zooplankton
Answer: (c)
52. A food chain starts with
(a) Nitrogen fixation
(b) Decay
(c) Respiration
(d) Photosynthesis
Answer: (d)
53. The interconnected food chains are called
(a) Food web
(b) Parasitic food chain
(c) Detritous food chain
(d) Predator food chain
Answer: (a)
54. The theory of panspermia was proposed by
(a) Richter
(b) Aristotle
(c) Redi
(d) Oparin
Answer: (d)
55. The theory of biogenesis was proposed by
(a) Aristotle
(b) Francisco Redi
(c) A. I. Oparin
(d) Louis Pasteur
Answer: (d)
56. Theory of chemical evolution was hypothesized by A.I. Oparin in
(a) 1900
(b) 1914
(c) 1964
(d) 1984
Answer: (b)
57. Archaeopteryx is a link between
(a) amphibians and fishes
(b) fishes and reptiles
(c) reptiles and birds
(d) birds and mammals
Answer: (c)
58. Mutation theory was proposed by
(a) Gregor Mendel
(b) Hugo de Vries
(c) J. B. S. Haldane
(d) H. J. Muller
Answer: (b)
59. The first life on earth was
(a) animals life
(b) plant life
(c) animals and plant life
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
60. Paratonic movements are
(a) Phototropism
(b) Geotropism
(c) Thigmotropism
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
61. Which of the following is known as the age of mammals?
(a) Palaeozoic era
(b) Mesozoic era
(c) Conozoic era
(d) Precambian era
Answer: (a)
62. Growth in a plant organ involves
(a) Cell division
(b) Cell elongation
(c) Karyokinesis
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: (d)
63. IAA plays a role in
(a) Phototropism
(b) Cell elongation
(c) Karyokinesis
(d) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: (d)
64. GA was first obtained in crystalline form by
(a) Yabuta
(b) Sumiki
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Sawada
Answer: ()
65. The naturally occurring gaseous hormone is
(a) Ethylene
(b) GA
(c) ABA
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
66. ABA has the ability of influence
(a) Thigmotropism
(b) Thigmonasty
(c) Geotropism
(d) All of these
Answer: (c)
67. Movement of roots towards gravity is in the case of
(a) positive geotropism
(b) negative geotropism
(c) positive phototropism
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
68. The dropping movement of leaves of Mimosa plant when touched is
(a) Nyctinasty
(b) Thigmonasty
(c) Photonasty
(d) Seismonasty
Answer: (b)
Mathematics
1. If a, b, c are in A.P. , b, c, d are in G.P. and c, d, e are in H.P. then
(a) a, c, e are in A.P.
(b) a, c, e are in G.P.
(c) a, c, e are in H.P.
(d) a = d = e
Answer: (b)
2. If 
are in A.P. then a, b, c are in
(a) A. P.
(b) G.P.
(c) H.P.
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
3. If log12 18 = m, log24 54 = n, then mn + 5(m – n + 1) = ?
(a) −6
(b) −3
(c) 3
(d) 6
Answer: (d)
4. If ω be a complex cube root of unity, then the value of (a + b) (aω + bω2) (aω2 + bω) is
(a) a3 + b3
(b) a3 – b3
(c) 0
(d) 3(a3 + b3)
Answer: (a)
5. If the roots of the equation x2 – 2(a + b)x + a(a + 2b + c) = 0 are equal, then
(a) a = b = c
(b) a, b, c are in A.P.
(c) a, b, c are in G.P.
(d) a, b, c are in H.P.
Answer: (c)
6. There are 18 points in a plane. Out of which 5 are collinear. The number of triangles that can be formed by joining the points is
(a) 816
(b) 810
(c) 806
(d) 800
Answer: (c)
7. A candidate has to secure the minimum marks in each of the six subjects to pass in an examination. In how many ways can he fail?
(a) 62
(b) 26
(c) 62 – 1
(d) 26 – 1
Answer: (b)
8. If x is real, then the maximum value of 1 – 2x – x2 is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
Answer: (b)
9. Log2 e – log4 e + log8 e− …… to ∞ = ?
(a) log 2
(b) e
(c) 1/e
(d) 1
Answer: (d)
10. If sin x = 3/5, cos y = −12/13, where 
, then tan (x – y) = ?
(a) 15/64
(b) 16/65
(c) 16/63
(d) 15/68
Answer: (c)
11. The simplest value of 
is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (d)
12. If in a ∆ ABC, (a + b + c) (b + c – a) = 3 bc, then A =
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (c)
13. If f(x) = cos2x + sec2x, then
(a) f(x) < 1
(b) f(x) = 1
(c) 1 < f(x) < 2
(d) f(x) ≥ 2
Answer: (d)
14. If 
then x = ?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (a)
15. If the parametric co-ordinates of a point P be [3(cot θ + tan θ), 4(cot θ – tan θ)], θ = parameter, then the locus of P will be
(a) straight line
(b) circle
(c) ellipse
(d) hyperbola
Answer: (d)
16. If the area of the triangle formed by the points (−1, m), (m – 2, 1), (m – 2, m) be 25/2 sq. units, then m = ?
(a) 2 or –4
(b) 6 or –4
(c) 6 or –2
(d) 4 or –2
Answer: (b)
17. The radius of the circle passing through the point (0, 0), (3, 0) and (0, 4) is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (a)
18. If the equation of diretrix of the parabola y2 – kx + 8 = 0 is x = 1, then the value of k is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer: (d)
19. The eccentric angle of a point on the ellipse x2 + 3y2 = 6 at a distance 2 units from the centre is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (b)
20. The eccentricity of the geometric locus represented by the equation 16x2 – 9y2 = 144 is
(a) 5/2
(b) 3/2
(c) 5/3
(d) 4/3
Answer: (c)
21. If f(x) = |x| − [x], where [x] is the greatest integer not greater than x, then f(−5) = ?
(a) 0.5
(b) 4.5
(c) 7.5
(d) 0.7
Answer: (c)
22. If the function 
when x ≠ 0 is continuous at x = 0, then f(0) = ?
(a) 1
(b) 2/3
(c) 3/2
(d) 0
Answer: (a)
23. 
(a) 0
(b) 2/3
(c) 1/3
(d) Does not exist
Answer: (d)
24. If f(x) = x – [x], x < 2 and f(x) 3x – 5, x > 2 then 
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) Does not exist
Answer: (b)
25. 
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d)
Answer: (c)
26. 
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (c)
27. If 
then 
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (b)
28. If y = tan−1 x and 
then p = ?
(a) −1
(b) 1
(c) −2
(d) 2
Answer: (d)
29. 
(a) 1/2
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) √2
Answer: (a)
30. 
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (c)
31. 
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (d)
32. 
is solution of the differential equation
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (d)
33. A particle is moving in a straight line such that its distance at any time t is given by 
, then acceleration is minimum for t = ?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer: (a)
34. The point on the curve y2 – x, at which the tangent makes an angle 45° with X-axis is
(a) (4, 2)
(b) (1/4, 1/2)
(c) (1, 1)
(d) (1, −1)
Answer: (b)
35. The normal to a curve y = f(x) is parallel to X-axis if
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (b)
36. The area of the parabola y2 = 4x bounded by the latus rectum (in sq. units) is
(a) 2/3
(b) 4/3
(c) 8/3
(d) 16/3
Answer: (b)
37. If the nth term of an AP is P, then the sum of its first (2n – 1) terms is
(a) nP
(b) (n – 1)P
(c) (2n + 1)P
(d) (2n – 1)P
Answer: (d)
38. If x, 2x + 1, 4x + 5, …. are in GP, then its sixth term is
(a) 18
(b) 27
(c) 243
(d) 729
Answer: (b)
39. If log10 x = a and log100 y = b then the value of 10a +2b – 2 in terms of x, y is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (b)
40. If 
and r2 = er, then 
(a) 1
(b) 
(c) 
(d) rr1
Answer: (c)
41. The path of a particle moving in a straight line is given by s = t3 – 6t2 + 9t + 4. Its velocity increases for
(a) t > 2
(b) t < 3
(c) 2 < t < 3
(d) t > 3
Answer: (d)
42. The complex numbers z + x + iy which satisfy the equation 
is
(a) the X-axis
(b) the Y-axis
(c) the straight lines x = 5
(d) the circle x2 + y2 = 25
Answer: (a)
43. If the roots of the equation a(b – c)x2 + b(c – a)x + c(a – b) = 0 are equal, the a, b, c are in
(a) AP
(b) GP
(c) HP
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
44. If the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 be in the ratio m n, then (m + n)2/mn = ?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (d)
45. A polygon has 54 diagonals. Then the number of sides of the polygon is
(a) 9
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 18
Answer: (b)
46. A five digit number divisible by 3 is to be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 without repetition. The total number of ways this can be done is
(a) 96
(b) 120
(c) 216
(d) 240
Answer: (b)
47. If Un + 1 = 3Un – 2Un – 1 and U0 = 0, U1 = 1 then Un = ?
(a) n + 1
(b) 2n – 1
(c) 2n – 1
(d) 2n – 1 + 1
Answer: (d)
48. If (1 – x + x2)n = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + ……+a2nx2n, then a0 + a1 + a2 + …… + a2n = ?
(a) 3n – 1
(b) 3n + P
(c) (3n – 1)/2
(d) (3n + 1)/2
Answer: (d)
49. The sum of the infinite series 
is
(a) log 3
(b) 
(c) log 2
(d) 
Answer: (c)
50. In a third order determinant, if the cofactor of the element in the second row and third column is K times the corresponding minor, then K = ?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) −1
(d) cannot be determined
Answer: (c)
51. Among 52 guests 16 drink tea but not coffee and 33 drink tea. The number of guests who drink coffee but not tea is
(a) 17
(b) 36
(c) 19
(d) 34
Answer: (c)
52. If A and B are two events and 
then P(Ac ∩ Bc) = ?
(a) 3/20
(b) 17/20
(c) 13/20
(d) 7/20
Answer: (a)
53. The simplest value of cosec 10° − 4 sin 70° is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
Answer: (c)
54. If y = a log x + bx2 + x has its extreme values at x = −1 and x = 2, then
(a) a = 2, b = −1
(b) a = 2, b = −1/2
(c) a = −2, b = 1/2
(d) a = 1/2, b = −1
Answer: (b)
55. The simplest value of (sin2 240 – sin2 60) (sin2 420 – sin2 120) is
(a) 1
(b) 1/4
(c) 1/16
(d) 1/64
Answer: (c)
56. The simplest value of 
is
(a) a/b
(b) 2a/b
(c) b/a
(d) 2b/a
Answer: (b)
57. The number of all possible triplets (a1, a2, a3) such that a1 + a2cos 2x + a3 sin2 x = 1 is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Answer: (d)
58. The parameteric co-ordinates of a point P is 
then the locus of P is
(a) circle
(b) an ellipse
(c) a hyperbola
(d) a rectangular hyperbola
Answer: (*)
59. A ray of light coming from the point (1, 2) passes through the point (3, 5) after reflexion at the point A on X-axis. The abscissa of the point A is
(a) 9/5
(b) 13/5
(c) 17/5
(d) 21/5
Answer: (*)
60. If one end of a focal chord of y2 = 4ax is (at2, 2at) then the length of the focal chord is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (d)
61. Eccentricity of a hyperbola of which the coordinates of the foci are (±5, 0) and the length of the latus rectum 9/2 is
(a) 3/2
(b) 4/3
(c) 5/4
(d) 6/5
Answer: (c)
62. Which of the following function reaches its maximum at x = 0?
(a) y = x5 – x3
(b) y = x1/3
(c) 
(d) y = 1 – x2
Answer: ()
63. 
(a) 1/2
(b) 1/3
(c) 1/6
(d) 1
Answer: (b)
64. If 
is to be continuous at x = 0, then f(0) = ?
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 0
Answer: (c)
65. If 
then f ‘ = 0 ?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer: (d)
66. The particular solution of the differential equation (1 + y2)dx + (1 + x2)dy = 0, with y = 1 for x = 0 is
(a) (x + 1) (y + 1) = 2
(b) (x + 1) (y + 1) = 4
(c) xy = 2
(d) xy = 4
Answer: (a)
67. The area bounded by the curve x2 = y, the X-axis and the ordinates x = 1 and x = k(>1) is 
then K = ?
(a) 2
(b) 3/2
(c) 3
(d) 5/2
Answer: (c)
68. The angle that the normal to the parabola x = at2, y = 2at at t = 1, makes with the X-axis is
(a) 45°
(b) 90°
(c) 135°
(d) 180°
Answer: (c)
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