# OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2009 With Answer Key Mobile View

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Physics

1. One Fermi is equal to

(a)  1019 m

(b)  1012 m

(c)  1015 m

(d)  1018 m

2. One Angstrom is equal to

(a)  1010 m

(b)  109 m

(c)  108 m

(d)  106 m

3. Velocity of light is

(a)  3 × 108 ms1

(b)  3 × 108 ms1

(c)  3 × 1010 ms1

(d)  3 × 1012 ms1

4. Which of the following is not a unit of length ?

(a)  Angstrom

(b)  Light year

(c)  Micro second

(d)  Metre

5. Motion of gas molecules in a room is a case of

(a)  one dimension

(b)  two dimensions

(c)  three dimensions

(d)  four dimensions

6. An insect crawling on the floor of a room is case of

(a)  one dimension

(b)  two dimensions

(c)  three dimensions

(d)  four dimensions

7. A body covered a distance of 5 metre along a semicircular path. The ratio of distance to displacement is

(a)  11 : 7

(b)  12 : 5

(c)  8 : 3

(d)  7 : 5

8. The area of acceleration time curve gives

(a)  displacement of the body

(b)  velocity

(c)  change of velocity of acceleration

(d)  rate of change of acceleration

9. Time is a scalar because

(a)  it has no magnitude

(b)  it has no direction

(c)  it cannot be resolved into compounds

(d)  it has no magnitude as well as direction

10. Identify the vector quantity

(a)  Time

(b)  Current density

(c)  Work

(d)  Electric current

11. Which of the following is a vector quantity?

(a)  Infinitesimally small rotation

(b)  Current

(c)  Pressure

(d)  Work

12. The rectangular components of a force of 13 N are

(a)  5 N, 12 N

(b)  10 N, 11 N

(c)  6.5 N, 6.5 N

(d)  9 N, 12 N

13. When the angle between the force and displacement obtuse, the work done is

(a)  unity

(b)  zero

(c)  positive

(d)  negative

14. Work is measured in

(a)  newton

(b)  newton – cm

(c)  joule

(d)  watt

15. Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by a body because of

(a)  Motion

(b)  position

(c)  mass

(d)  Gravity

16. Kinetic energy is measured in

(a)  joules

(b)  newton

(c)  watt

(d)  dyne

17. The motion of our earth is a case of

(a)  translator motion

(b)  rotator motion

(c)  both translational and rotational

(d)  oscillatory

18. A cracker explodes in air, the path followed by the C.M. after explosion is

(a)  parabolic

(b)  hyperbola

(c)  ellipse

(d)  straight

19. The equivalent of torque in linear motion is

(a)  momentum

(b)  impulse

(c)  acceleration

(d)  force

20. Torque depends upon

(a)  only force

(b)  only the point of application of force

(c)  only on the mass of the object

(d)  None of the statements is correct

21. The value of Gravitational Constant was first of all determined in the laboratory by

(a)  Newton

(b)  Boys

(c)  Galileo

(d)  Cavendish

22. On the surface of the earth, the value of g is maximum at

(a)  the equator

(b)  the poles

(c)  45° latitude

(d)  60° latitude

23. The minimum velocity projection to go out from earth’s gravitational pull is called

(a)  orbital velocity

(b)  escape velocity

(c)  terminal velocity

(d)  uniform velocity

24. The orbital speed of mercury planet is

(a)  greater than that of earth

(b)  less than that of earth

(c)  equal to that of earth

(d)  less than that of pluto

25. Who said that the motion along a horizontal plane is perpetual?

(a)  Rutherford

(b)  Bohr

(c)  Galileo

(d)  Aristotle

26. Newton’s second law relates force and

(a)  velocity

(b)  density

(c)  impulse

(d)  Acceleration

27. One kilogram force is equal to

(a)  9.8 N

(b)  980 N

(c)  980 dynes

(d)  105 dynes

28. Rocket works on the principle of conservation of

(a)  momentum

(b)  mass

(c)  energy

(d)  angular momentum

29. Pascal is the unit of

(a)  force

(b)  momentum

(c)  impulse

(d)  pressure

30. The atmospheric pressure is about

(a)  107 Nm2

(b)  105 Nm2

(c)  103 Nm2

(d)  109 Nm2

31. Heat is

(a)  orderly motion

(b)  degree of hotness

(c)  disorderly motion

(d)  degree of coldness

32. The unit of modulus of elasticity is

(a)  dyne/cm

(b)  dyne/cm2

(c)  Nm1

(d)  dynes

33. The temperature of a body on Rankine scale is 510°. The temperature of the body on Celsius will be

(a)  20°

(b)  30°

(c)  40°

(d)  10°

34. The common temperature for Celsius and Kelvin scale is

(a)  −100°

(b)  −273°

(c)  zero

(d)  No common temperature

35. Very low temperatures are measured by

(a)  gas thermometers

(b)  pyrometers

(c)  thermocouple thermometers

(d)  vapour pressure thermometers

36. The triple point temperature in the case of water is

(a)  273.15°C

(b)  273.15 K

(c)  237.16°C

(d)  273.16 K

37. Frequency is measured in

(a)  cycles

(b)  cycles per second

(c)  hertz per second

(d)  meter per second

38. The heart beat of a person is 90 per minute. The frequency is

(a)  90 Hz

(b)  60 Hz

(c)  1.33 Hz

(d)  1.5 Hz

39. Fourier was primarily a

(a)  Mathematician

(b)  Astronomer

(c)  Botanist

(d)  Geologist

40. A spring is replaced by another spring of stiffer material. Its time period will

(a)  remain same

(b)  increase

(c)  decrease

(d)  fluctuate

41. Sound is

(a)  an electromagnetic wave

(b)  a transverse wave

(c)  a longitudinal wave

(d)  not a wave

42. The formula for the speed of sound waves was first obtained by

(a)  Galileo

(b)  Newton

(c)  Einstein

(d)  Huygen

43. In the case of sound waves the pressure is

(a)  more at the condensation

(b)  more at the rarefaction

(c)  same everywhere

(d)  zero

44. In which medium will the speed of sound be maximum ?

(a)  Air

(b)  Hydrogen

(c)  Water

(d)  Steel

45. The positive and negative names of electricity were given by

(b)  Lenz

(c)  Benjanium Frankein

(d)  Galileo

46. The charge on the electron is

(a)  1.6 × 1016 C

(b)  1.6 × 1017 C

(c)  1.6 × 108 C

(d)  1.6 × 1019 C

47. A proton is composed of which of the following quarks?

(a)  1U + 1d

(b)  2U + 2d

(c)  1U + 2d

(d)  2U + 1d

48. The dielectric constant K of an insulator can be

(a)  0.4

(b)  Zero

(c)  −2

(d)  6

49. The e.m.f. of a Leclanche cell is of the order of

(a)  1.1 V

(b)  1.08 V

(c)  1.45 V

(d)  1.12 V

50. The internal resistance of a secondary cell is

(a)  very low

(b)  very high

(c)  equal to that of primary cell

(d)  more than that of primary cell

51. Which of the following cells gives fairly steady current ?

(a)  Voltaic cell

(b)  Daniel cell

(c)  Leclanche cell

(d)  Fuel cell

52. The capacity o f a cell is expressed in

(a)  Ah

(c)  ohm

(d)  Vh

53. One kilowatt hour is equal to

(a)  3.6 × 102 J

(b)  3.6 × 104 J

(c)  3.6 × 106 J

(d)  3.6 × 107 J

54. Standard resistance coils are made of

(a)  silver

(b)  gold

(c)  copper

(d)  manganin

55. Nichrome is

(a)  a metal

(b)  non-metal

(c)  amalgams

(d)  alloy

56. Fuse wire is made of

(a)  constantan

(b)  Cu

(d)  tungsten

57. The magnetic field is measured in

(a)  newton

(c)  rutherford

(d)  tesla

58. One tesla is defined as

(a)  weber-m

(b)  weber m1

(c)  weber m2

(d)  weber m2

59. A charged particle enters at 30° to the magnetic field. Its path becomes

(a)  circular

(b)  helical

(c)  elliptical

(d)  straight line

60. Pole strength is measured in

(a)  Am1

(b)  Am2

(c)  Am

(d)  Am2

61. Susceptibility has the units of

(a)  tesla

(b)  Am2

(c)  Am2

(d)  No units

62. Magnetic moment is a

(a)  vector

(b)  scalar

(c)  flux

(d)  unit

63. The laws of electromagnetic induction are the contribution of

(b)  Maxwell

(c)  Lawrence

(d)  Hall

64. Eddy currents are also known as

(a)  Focault currents

(c)  Huygen currents

(d)  Franklin currents

65. The frequency of a.c. used in India is

(a)  50 Hz

(b)  50 KHz

(c)  100 Hz

(d)  60 Hz

66. The output of a dynamo using a split ring commutator is

(a)  D.C.

(b)  A.C.

(c)  fluctuating D.C.

(d)  half-wave rectified D.C.

Chemistry

1. Rutheford’s scattering experiment is related to the size of the

(a)  nucleus

(b)  atom

(c)  electron

(d)  neutron

2. Electromagnetic radiation with maximum wave-length is

(a)  ultraviolet

(c)  x-ray

(d)  infrared

3. The heaviest particle is

(a)  α

(b)  electron

(c)  proton

(d)  neutron

4. Which of the following elements occur free in nature?

(a)  Nitrogen

(b)  Phosphorus

(c)  Arsenic

(d)  Antimony

5. The number of electrons in Al3+ is

(a)  13

(b)  16

(c)  10

(d)  9

6. AP- orbital can accommodate

(a)  4 electrons

(b)  6 electrons

(c)  2 electrons with parallel spins

(d)  2 electrons with opposite spins

7. Which of the following does (do) not consist of particles of matter?

(a)  Alpha rays

(b)  Beta rays

(c)  Gamma rays

(d)  None of these

8. Isotone of 32Ge76 is (are)

(a)  32Ge77

(b)  33As77

(c)  34Se77

(d)  None of these

9. Which of the following species has a trigonal planar shape ?

(a) (b) (c) (d) 10. Which of the following is not an electrophile ?

(a)  NH3

(b)  BF3

(c)  AlCl3

(d)  Hg2+

11. Which of the following is not a nulceophile?

(a)  OH

(b)  NH3

(c)  BF3

(d)  HSO3

12. In CH3­CH2OH, the bond that undergoes heterolytic cleavage most readily is

(a)  C−C

(b)  C−O

(c)  C−H

(d)  O−H

13. Ammonical silver nitrate reacts with

(a)  Ethyne

(b)  Ethylene

(c)  Butyne-2

(d)  None of the above

14. Acetylene is

(a)  red coloured gas

(b)  useful in polymer industry

(c)  alkaline permanganate solution

(d)  None of these

15. Benzene can undergo

(a)  substitution

(b)  decarboxylation

(c)  elimination

(d)  None of these

16. Amongst the following the compound that is nitrated with difficulty is

(a)  Benzene

(b)  Nitrobenzene

(c)  Toluene

(d)  Phenol

17. Which of the following decolourizes alkaline KMnO4?

(a)  C8H3

(b)  C3H4

(c)  CH4

(d)  CCl4

18. Nuclides having the same atomic and mass numbers are known as

(a)  isomers

(b)  isotopes

(c)  isotones

(d)  isobars

19. Which of the following nuclei is unstable?

(a)  5B10

(b)  4Be10

(c)  7N14

(d)  8O16

20. The larges stable nucleus is

(a)  U-238

(b)  U-235

(c)  Pb-206

(d)  Bi-209

21. The rate of reaction of substances is proportional to their

(a)  stability

(b)  molecular weight

(c)  equivalent weight

(d)  active mass

22. In a reversible reaction both side rates of reactions are

(a)  same

(b)  different

(c)  one side more

(d)  not definite

23. The number of gram molecules of a substance present in unit volume is termed as

(a)  activity

(b)  normal solution

(c)  molar concentration

(d)  active mass

24. The law of mass action was enunciated by

(a)  Guldberg and Waage

(b)  Bodenstein

(c)  Berthelot

(d)  Graham

25. In reversible reaction both side rates of a reaction are

(a)  same

(b)  different

(c)  one side more

(d)  reactant rates less

26. The rate of reaction does not depend upon

(a)  pressure

(b)  temperature

(c)  concentration

(d)  catalyst

27. The rate constant of a reaction depends on

(a)  temperature

(b)  mass

(c)  weight

(d)  time

28. In which of the following cases, does the reaction go farthest to completion?

(a)  K = 102

(b)  K = 102

(c)  K = 10

(d)  K = 1

29. The temperature coefficient of most of the reactions lies between

(a)  1 and 3

(b)  2 and 3

(c)  1 and 4

(d)  2 and 4

30. The minimum energy necessary to permit a reaction is

(a)  internal energy

(b)  threshold energy

(c)  activation energy

(d)  free energy

31. In the hydrogenation of oils the catalyst used is

(a)  iron

(b)  platinum

(c)  nickel

(d)  molybdenum

32. Theory of ionization was given by

(a)  Rutherford

(c)  Graham

(d)  Arrhenius

33. Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to the presence of

(a)  free electrons

(b)  free ions

(c)  free molecules

(d)  atoms of sodium and chlorine

34. 1 litre of water contains 107 moles of H+ .Degree of ionization of water is

(a)  1.8 × 107

(b)  1 × 10−9

(c)  3.6 × 107

(d)  3.6 × 109

35. The pH of an aqueous solution is 4.0. Its pOH will be

(a)  4.0

(b)  6.0

(c)  8.0

(d)  10.0

36. Which one of the following has highest pH ?

(a)  Distilled water

(b)  1 M NH3

(c)  1 M NaOH

(d)  water saturated with chlorine

37. The pH of distilled water is

(a)  0.0

(b)  14

(c)  7

(d)  9

38. The pH of pure water at 25℃ is close to

(a)  0.0

(b)  14.0

(c)  7.0

(d)  9.0

39. An electrolyte is one

(a)  which conducts electric current

(b)  which is capable of ionization by passing electric current

(c)  which dissociated into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent

(d)  None of the above

40. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to

(a)  dilution

(b)  number of ions

(c)  current density

(d)  volume of the solution

41. The one that is a good conductor of electricity in the following list of solids is

(a)  sodium chloride

(b)  graphite

(c)  diamond

(d)  sodium

42. The electrolytic conductance is a direct measure of

(a)  resistance

(b)  potential

(c)  concentration

(d)  dissociation

43. Electrolysis of molten NaCl leads to the formation of

(a)  sodium and hydrogen

(b)  sodium and oxygen

(c)  hydrogen and oxygen

(d)  sodium and chlorine

44. On the electrolysis of aqueous solution of sodium sulphate, on cathode we get

(a)  Na

(b)  Hz

(c)  SO1

(d)  SO3

45. Law of electrolysis was given by

(a)  Lamark

(b)  Ostwald

(d)  Arrhenius

46. Phosphorus pentachloride reacts with

(a)  klater

(b)  ethers

(c)  amines

(d)  None of these

47. Phenol is

(a)  a base weaker than ammonia

(b)  an acid stronger than carbonic acid

(c)  an acid weaker than carbonic acid

(d)  a neutral compound

48. Hydrogen bonding is possible in

(a)  ethers

(b)  hydrocarbons

(c)  water

(d)  None of these

49. Which of the following compounds can’t be used as acetylating agent?

(a)  Acetyl Chloride

(b)  Acetic anhydride

(c)  Acetic acid

(d)  None of these

50. Which of the following compounds will give a yellow precipitate with iodine and alkali?

(a)  Acetophenone

(b)  Methyl acetate

(c)  Acetamide

(d)  None of these

51. Acetamide reacts with NaOBr in alkaline medium to form

(a)  NH3

(b)  CH3NH2

(c)  CH3CN

(d)  CH3CH2NH­2

52. On strong heating ammonium acetate gives

(a)  acetamide

(b)  methyl cyanide

(c)  urea

(d)  formamide

53. How many primary amines are possible for the formula C4H11N?

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

54. Amongst the following, the most basic compound is

(a)  Benzylamine

(b)  Aniline

(c)  Acetanilide

(d)  P-Nitroaniline

55. 5 grams each of the following gases at 87℃ and 750 mm pressure are taken. Which of them will have the least volume?

(a)  HF

(b)  HCl

(c)  HBr

(d)  HI

56. The largest number of molecules is in

(a)  54 gm of N2O5

(b)  28 gm of CO

(c)  36 gm of H2O

(d)  46 gm of C­12H5OH

57. The value of R in calorie/degree/mole is

(a)  0.0831

(b)  8.31

(c)  8.31 × 107

(d)  1.987

58. The vapour density of a gas is 11.2. The volume occupied by 11.2 gm of the gas at N.T.P. is

(a)  1 litre

(b)  11.2 litre

(c)  22.4 litre.

(d)  44.8 litre

59. The rates of diffusion of SO2 and O2 (S = 32, O = 16) are in the ratio

(a)  1 : 1√2

(b)  1 : 32

(c)  1 : 2

(d)  1 : 4

60. In solids the constituent particles may be

(a)  Atoms

(b)  ions

(c)  molecules

(d)  Either of the above three

61. In square close packing pattern in one layer, the available space filled by the spheres is

(a)  40%

(b)  50%

(c)  52.4%

(d)  60%

62. The available space filled in hexagonal close packing pattern in one layer is

(a)  40%

(b)  2.4%

(c)  60.4%

(d)  70%

63. Which of the following does not adopt hcp structure?

(a)  Be

(b)  Mg

(c)  Fe

(d)  Mo

64. Which of the following is the smallest cation?

(a)  Na+

(b)  Mg2+

(c)  Ca2+

(d)  Al3+

65. Which of the following element occurs in free state?

(a)  C

(b)  Si

(c)  Ge

(d)  Sn

66. The ability of a substance to assume two or more crystalline structure is called

(a)  isomerism

(b)  polymorphism

(c)  isomorphism

(d)  amorphism

Biology

1. Palaeontology is the study of

(a)  Bones

(b)  Fossils

(c)  Primates

(d)  Birds

2. Which of the following deals with the plants an environmental relationship?

(a)  Ecology

(b)  Phytogeography

(c)  Plant morphology

(d)  Palaeobotany

3. Study of disease of different plants is

(a)  Pathology

(b)  Plant physiology

(c)  Anatomy

(d)  Phycology

4. The science of vegetable culture is called as

(a)  Floriculture

(b)  Agriculture

(c)  Olericulture

(d)  Horticulture

5. Pedology is the science of

(a)  Disease

(b)  Pollution

(c)  Soil

(d)  Rocks

6. The basic unit of classification is

(a)  Genes

(b)  Species

(c)  Family

(d)  Order

7. Who is the father of taxonomy ?

(a)  Engler

(b)  Aristotle

(c)  Linnaeus

(d)  Eichler

8. Which spreads the cy&ts of Entamoeba histolytica

(a)  Mosquito

(b)  Bed bug

(c)  Mouse

(d)  House fly

9. Shuffner’s granules are found in malaria patient in the cells of

(a)  liver

(b)  red blood cells

(c)  signet ring trophozoite

(d)  gametocytes of plasmodium

10. Plasmodium is

(a)  Monogenetic

(b)  Digenetic

(c)  Polygenetic

(d)  None of the above

11. Regulation of water in the body is called

(a)  Homoeostasis

(b)  Excretion

(c)  Paedogenesis

(d)  Osmoregulation

12. The tail of tadpole larva, is lost in adult Herdmania due to

(a)  Parasitism

(b)  Ptedatism

(c)  Commensalism

(d)  Phagocytosis

13. Most characteristic feature of plant’s cell is

(a)  chlorophyll present

(b)  cell wall present

(c)  only one vacuole

(d)  plastids present

14. ATP transport is the function of

(a)  Golgi body

(b)  Mitochondria

(c)  Nucleus

(d)  ER

15. Mitochondria are activated by

(a)  Golgi body

(b)  Plasma

(c)  Nucleus

(d)  ER

16. Peroxisomes were discovered by

(a)  De Duve

(b)  Golgi

(c)  Rhodin

(d)  Hexley

17. The activities of all living cells are controlled by

(a)  Chloroplast

(b)  Tonoplast

(c)  Nucleus

(d)  Auxins

18. The site of respiration within cell is

(a)  Ribosome

(b)  Mitochondria

(c)  Golgi body

(d)  Nucleus

19. Animal cell is limited by

(a)  Plasma membrane

(b)  Cell wall

(c)  Basement membrane

(d)  cell membrane

20. Which of the following is described as “Energy currency of the cell”?

(a)  DNA

(b)  RNA

(c)  ATP

(d)  Vitamins

21. The acrosome of human sperm is formed by

(a)  Mitochondria

(b)  Centrioles

(c)  Golgi bodies

(d)  Endoplasmic reticulum

22. Crossing over of chromosomes takes place during

(a)  Amitosis

(b)  Meiosis

(c)  Mitosis

(d)  None of the above

23. Genetic crossing usually takes place during

(a)  Mitosis

(b)  Meiosis I

(c)  Meiosis II

(d)  Mitosis and Meiosis

24. During meiosis, the chromosome number is

(a)  halved

(b)  unchanged

(c)  doubled

(d)  tripled

25. In plant cells, cell plate formation is

(a)  Acropetal

(b)  Centripetal

(c)  Centrifugal

(d)  Basipetal

26. A transformed cell of the body which has lost control over its division is called

(a)  Mast cell

(b)  Leukocyte

(c)  Cancer cell

(d)  Connective cell

27. Viruses which cause cancers are known as

(a)  Virion

(b)  Virioids

(c)  RNA viruses

(d)  Oncogenic viruses

28. The chromosomes are made up of

(a)  DNA

(b)  DNA + Proteins

(c)  RNA

(d)  RNA + Proteins

29. Centromeres are found is

(a)  primary constrictions

(b)  secondary constrictions

(c)  Both (A) and (B)

(d)  None of these

30. A hybrid has

(a)  both nuclei of the two fusing cells.

(b)  only cytoplasm of two fusing cells.

(c)  cytoplasm of two fusing cells and one nucleus.

(d)  None of these

31. Genes are arranged on

(a)  Ribosomes

(b)  Centrosomes

(c)  Chromosomes

(d)  Lysosomes

32. RNA is found only in

(a)  Cytoplasm

(b)  Nucleoplasm

(c)  Cytoplasm and Nucleoplasm

(d)  Chromosome

33. RNA has which of the following sugar ?

(a)  Ribose

(b)  Hexose

(c)  Fructose

(d)  Glucose

34. The amino acid proline is coded by

(a)  CCU

(b)  CCA

(c)  CCC

(d)  All of the above

35. Mendel was born at

(a)  Heinzendorf

(b)  Vienna

(c)  Prague

(d)  Paris

36. The A, B, AB and O types of human blood groups were discovered by

(a)  Londsteiner

(b)  De Vries

(c)  Careens

(d)  Weiner

37. AB blood group is an example for

(a)  total dominance

(b)  partial dominance

(c)  co-dominance

(d)  None of these

38. Antigens are also called

(a)  Agglutinogens

(b)  Immuno globulins

(c)  Agglutinins

(d)  Both (A) and (B)

39. The antigen present in blood group A is

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  AB

(d)  None of these

40. Water is lost from the plant body by

(a)  Transpiration

(b)  Guttation

(c)  Both (A) and (B)

(d)  None of these

41. The rate of transpiration is measured by

(a)  Photometer

(b)  Hygrometer

(c)  Auxanometer

(d)  Potometer

42. Dilution of milk with water involves

(a)  osmosis

(b)  diffusion

(c)  filtration

(d)  imbibition

43. DPD stands for

(a)  Diffusion Pressure Deficit

(b)  Diffusion Potential Deficit

(c)  Daily Phosphate Demand

(d)  Daily Photosynthetic Depression

44. Diffusion pressure of pure water is

(a)  zero

(b)  100 atm

(c)  1000 atm

(d)  1236 atm

45. A primary carnivore is also called a

(a)  Producer

(b)  Autotroph

(c)  Secondary consumer

(d)  Tertiary consumer

46. Chipko movement is associated with

(a)  H. N. Bahuguna

(b)  S. I. Bahuguna

(c)  R. Mishra

(d)  Kamal Nath

47. The national headquarters of NEERI is at

(a)  Mumbai

(b)  Bengaluru

(c)  Nagpur

(d)  Chennai

48. DDT is a

(c)  non-polluting chemical

(d)  (a) or (b) depending upon its concentration

49. Two wheelers can become environmental hazards mainly because of

(a)  their noise

(b)  their numbers

(c)  their speed

(d)  their exhaust fumes

50. We can find which of these birds only in the jungle?

(a)  Bulbul

(b)  Crow

(c)  Sparrow

(d)  Hombill

51. In pond ecosystem the food chain begins with

(a)  Aquatic animals

(b)  Small fishes

(c)  Phytoplankton

(d)  Zooplankton

52. A food chain starts with

(a)  Nitrogen fixation

(b)  Decay

(c)  Respiration

(d)  Photosynthesis

53. The interconnected food chains are called

(a)  Food web

(b)  Parasitic food chain

(c)  Detritous food chain

(d)  Predator food chain

54. The theory of panspermia was proposed by

(a)  Richter

(b)  Aristotle

(c)  Redi

(d)  Oparin

55. The theory of biogenesis was proposed by

(a)  Aristotle

(b)  Francisco Redi

(c)  A. I. Oparin

(d)  Louis Pasteur

56. Theory of chemical evolution was hypothesized by A.I. Oparin in

(a)  1900

(b)  1914

(c)  1964

(d)  1984

57. Archaeopteryx is a link between

(a)  amphibians and fishes

(b)  fishes and reptiles

(c)  reptiles and birds

(d)  birds and mammals

58. Mutation theory was proposed by

(a)  Gregor Mendel

(b)  Hugo de Vries

(c)  J. B. S. Haldane

(d)  H. J. Muller

59. The first life on earth was

(a)  animals life

(b)  plant life

(c)  animals and plant life

(d)  None of these

60. Paratonic movements are

(a)  Phototropism

(b)  Geotropism

(c)  Thigmotropism

(d)  All of these

61. Which of the following is known as the age of mammals?

(a)  Palaeozoic era

(b)  Mesozoic era

(c)  Conozoic era

(d)  Precambian era

62. Growth in a plant organ involves

(a)  Cell division

(b)  Cell elongation

(c)  Karyokinesis

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

63. IAA plays a role in

(a)  Phototropism

(b)  Cell elongation

(c)  Karyokinesis

(d)  Both (A) and (B)

64. GA was first obtained in crystalline form by

(a)  Yabuta

(b)  Sumiki

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

65. The naturally occurring gaseous hormone is

(a)  Ethylene

(b)  GA

(c)  ABA

(d)  None of these

66. ABA has the ability of influence

(a)  Thigmotropism

(b)  Thigmonasty

(c)  Geotropism

(d)  All of these

67. Movement of roots towards gravity is in the case of

(a)  positive geotropism

(b)  negative geotropism

(c)  positive  phototropism

(d)  None of these

68. The dropping movement of leaves of Mimosa plant when touched is

(a)  Nyctinasty

(b)  Thigmonasty

(c)  Photonasty

(d)  Seismonasty

Mathematics

1. If a, b, c are in A.P. , b, c, d are in G.P. and c, d, e are in H.P. then

(a)  a, c, e are in A.P.

(b)  a, c, e are in G.P.

(c)  a, c, e are in H.P.

(d)  a = d = e

2. If are in A.P. then a, b, c are in

(a)  A. P.

(b)  G.P.

(c)  H.P.

(d)  None of these

3. If log12 18 = m, log24 54 = n, then mn + 5(m – n + 1) = ?

(a)  −6

(b)  −3

(c)  3

(d)  6

4. If ω be a complex cube root of unity, then the value of (a + b) (aω + bω2) (aω2 + bω) is

(a)  a3 + b3

(b)  a3 – b3

(c)  0

(d)  3(a3 + b3)

5. If the roots of the equation x2 – 2(a + b)x + a(a + 2b + c) = 0 are equal, then

(a)  a = b = c

(b)  a, b, c are in A.P.

(c)  a, b, c are in G.P.

(d)  a, b, c are in H.P.

6. There are 18 points in a plane. Out of which 5 are collinear. The number of triangles that can be formed by joining the points is

(a)  816

(b)  810

(c)  806

(d)  800

7. A candidate has to secure the minimum marks in each of the six subjects to pass in an examination. In how many ways can he fail?

(a)  62

(b)  26

(c)  62 – 1

(d)  26 – 1

8. If x is real, then the maximum value of 1 – 2x – x2 is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  5

9. Log2 e – log4 e + log8 e …… to ∞ = ?

(a)  log 2

(b)  e

(c)  1/e

(d)  1

10. If sin x = 3/5, cos y = −12/13, where , then tan (x – y) = ?

(a)  15/64

(b)  16/65

(c)  16/63

(d)  15/68

11. The simplest value of is

(a) (b) (c) (d) 12. If in a ∆ ABC, (a + b + c) (b + c – a) = 3 bc, then A =

(a) (b) (c) (d) 13. If f(x) = cos2x + sec2x, then

(a)  f(x) < 1

(b)  f(x) = 1

(c)  1 < f(x) < 2

(d)  f(x) ≥ 2

14. If then x = ?

(a) (b) (c) (d) 15. If the parametric co-ordinates of a point P be [3(cot θ + tan θ), 4(cot θ – tan θ)], θ = parameter, then the locus of P will be

(a)  straight line

(b)  circle

(c)  ellipse

(d)  hyperbola

16. If the area of the triangle formed by the points (−1, m), (m – 2, 1), (m – 2, m) be 25/2 sq. units, then m = ?

(a)  2 or –4

(b)  6 or –4

(c)  6 or –2

(d)  4 or –2

17. The radius of the circle passing through the point (0, 0), (3, 0) and (0, 4) is

(a) (b) (c) (d) 18. If the equation of diretrix of the parabola y2 – kx + 8 = 0 is x = 1, then the value of k is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

19. The eccentric angle of a point on the ellipse x2 + 3y2 = 6 at a distance 2 units from the centre is

(a) (b) (c) (d) 20. The eccentricity of the geometric locus represented by the equation 16x2 – 9y2 = 144 is

(a)  5/2

(b)  3/2

(c)  5/3

(d)  4/3

21. If f(x) = |x| − [x], where [x] is the greatest integer not greater than x, then f(−5) = ?

(a)  0.5

(b)  4.5

(c)  7.5

(d)  0.7

22. If the function when x ≠ 0 is continuous at x = 0, then f(0) = ?

(a)  1

(b)  2/3

(c)  3/2

(d)  0

23. (a)  0

(b)  2/3

(c)  1/3

(d)  Does not exist

24. If f(x) = x – [x], x < 2 and f(x) 3x – 5, x > 2 then (a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  2

(d)  Does not exist

25. (a) (b) (c) (d) 26. (a) (b) (c) (d) 27. If then (a) (b) (c) (d) 28. If y = tan1 x and then p = ?

(a)  −1

(b)  1

(c)  −2

(d)  2

29. (a)  1/2

(b)  2

(c)  1

(d)  √2

30. (a) (b) (c) (d) 31. (a) (b) (c) (d) 32. is solution of the differential equation

(a) (b) (c) (d) 33. A particle is moving in a straight line such that its distance at any time t is given by , then acceleration is minimum for t = ?

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  5

34. The point on the curve y2 – x, at which the tangent makes an angle 45° with X-axis is

(a)  (4, 2)

(b)  (1/4, 1/2)

(c)  (1, 1)

(d)  (1, −1)

35. The normal to a curve y = f(x) is parallel to X-axis if

(a) (b) (c) (d) 36. The area of the parabola y2 = 4x bounded by the latus rectum (in sq. units) is

(a)  2/3

(b)  4/3

(c)  8/3

(d)  16/3

37. If the nth term of an AP is P, then the sum of its first (2n – 1) terms is

(a)  nP

(b)  (n – 1)P

(c)  (2n + 1)P

(d)  (2n – 1)P

38. If x, 2x + 1, 4x + 5, …. are in GP, then its sixth term is

(a)  18

(b)  27

(c)  243

(d)  729

39. If log10 x = a and log100 y = b then the value of 10a +2b – 2 in terms of x, y is

(a) (b) (c) (d) 40. If and r2 = er, then (a)  1

(b) (c) (d)  rr1

41. The path of a particle moving in a straight line is given by s = t3 – 6t2 + 9t + 4. Its velocity increases for

(a)  t > 2

(b)  t < 3

(c)  2 < t < 3

(d)  t > 3

42. The complex numbers z + x + iy which satisfy the equation is

(a)  the X-axis

(b)  the Y-axis

(c)  the straight lines x = 5

(d)  the circle x2 + y2 = 25

43. If the roots of the equation a(b – c)x2 + b(c – a)x + c(a – b) = 0 are equal, the a, b, c are in

(a)  AP

(b)  GP

(c)  HP

(d)  None of these

44. If the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 be in the ratio m n, then (m + n)2/mn = ?

(a) (b) (c) (d) 45. A polygon has 54 diagonals. Then the number of sides of the polygon is

(a)  9

(b)  12

(c)  15

(d)  18

46. A five digit number divisible by 3 is to be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 without repetition. The total number of ways this can be done is

(a)  96

(b)  120

(c)  216

(d)  240

47. If Un + 1 = 3Un – 2Un – 1 and U0 = 0, U1 = 1 then Un = ?

(a)  n + 1

(b)  2n – 1

(c)  2n – 1

(d)  2n – 1  + 1

48. If (1 – x + x2)n = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + ……+a2nx2n, then a0­ + a1 + a2 + …… + a2n = ?

(a)  3n – 1

(b)  3n + P

(c)  (3n – 1)/2

(d)  (3n + 1)/2

49. The sum of the infinite series is

(a)  log 3

(b) (c)  log 2

(d) 50. In a third order determinant, if the cofactor of the element in the second row and third column is K times the corresponding minor, then K = ?

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  −1

(d)  cannot be determined

51. Among 52 guests 16 drink tea but not coffee and 33 drink tea. The number of guests who drink coffee but not tea is

(a)  17

(b)  36

(c)  19

(d)  34

52. If A and B are two events and then P(Ac ∩ Bc) = ?

(a)  3/20

(b)  17/20

(c)  13/20

(d)  7/20

53. The simplest value of cosec 10° − 4 sin 70° is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  2

(d)  4

54. If y = a log x + bx2 + x has its extreme values at x = −1 and x = 2, then

(a)  a = 2, b = −1

(b)  a = 2, b = −1/2

(c)  a = −2, b = 1/2

(d)  a = 1/2, b = −1

55. The simplest value of (sin2 240 – sin2 60) (sin2 420 – sin2 120) is

(a)  1

(b)  1/4

(c)  1/16

(d)  1/64

56. The simplest value of is

(a)  a/b

(b)  2a/b

(c)  b/a

(d)  2b/a

57. The number of all possible triplets (a1, a2, a3) such that a1 + a2cos 2x + a3 sin2 x = 1 is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  2

(d)  3

58. The parameteric co-ordinates of a point P is then the locus of P is

(a)  circle

(b)  an ellipse

(c)  a hyperbola

(d)  a rectangular hyperbola

59. A ray of light coming from the point (1, 2) passes through the point (3, 5) after reflexion at the point A on X-axis. The abscissa of the point A is

(a)  9/5

(b)  13/5

(c)  17/5

(d)  21/5

60. If one end of a focal chord of y2 = 4ax is (at2, 2at) then the length of the focal chord is

(a) (b) (c) (d) 61. Eccentricity of a hyperbola of which the coordinates of the foci are (±5, 0) and the length of the latus rectum 9/2 is

(a)  3/2

(b)  4/3

(c)  5/4

(d)  6/5

62. Which of the following function reaches its maximum at x = 0?

(a)  y = x5 – x3

(b)  y = x1/3

(c) (d)  y = 1 – x2

63. (a)  1/2

(b)  1/3

(c)  1/6

(d)  1

64. If is to be continuous at x = 0, then f(0) = ?

(a)  3

(b)  5

(c)  7

(d)  0

65. If then f ‘ = 0 ?

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  5

66. The particular solution of the differential equation (1 + y2)dx + (1 + x2)dy = 0, with y = 1 for x = 0 is

(a)  (x + 1) (y + 1) = 2

(b)  (x + 1) (y + 1) = 4

(c)  xy = 2

(d)  xy = 4

67. The area bounded by the curve x2 = y, the X-axis and the ordinates x = 1 and x = k(>1) is then K = ?

(a)  2

(b)  3/2

(c)  3

(d)  5/2

68. The angle that the normal to the parabola x = at2, y = 2at at t = 1, makes with the X-axis is

(a)  45°

(b)  90°

(c)  135°

(d)  180°