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2012 O.U.A.T Question with Answer

Physics

1. In the circuit shown below the readings of the ammeter and voltmeter are

(a) 4A, 10V

(b) 0.4A, 4V

(c)

(d) 4A, 4V

Answer: (b)

2. If a simple pendulum oscillates with an amplitude 50 mm and time period of 2 s, then its maximum velocity is

(a) 0.10 m/s

(b) 0.15 m/s

(d) 0.16 m/s

Answer: (d)

3. If the pressure amplitude in a sound wave is doubled, then the intensity of sound is increased by a factor of

(a) √2

(b) 2

(d) 0.5

Answer: (c)

4. The stationary wave produced on a string is represented by the equation where x and y are in cm and t in second. The distance between consecutive nodes is

(a) 2 cm

(b) 3 cm

(d) 8 cm

Answer: (c)

5. y = a cos(kx + ωt) super imposes on another wave giving a stationary wave having node at x = 0. The equation of the other wave which superimposes on to it will be

(a) −a cos(kx – ωt)

(b) −a cos(kx + ωt)

(d) a cos(kx – ωt)

Answer: (a)

6. A string in a musical instrument is 50 cm long and its fundamental frequency is 800 Hz. If a frequency of 1000 Hz is to be produced then required length of the string is

(a) 62.5 cm

(b) 50 cm

(d) 37.5 cm

Answer: (c)

7. If a spring extends by x on loading, then the energy stored by the spring will be (if T is the tension in the spring and K is spring constant)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

8. If 8 be the surface tension, the work done in breaking a big drop of radius R into n drops of equal radius is

(a) Rn²³S

(b) R(n²³ – 1)S

(d) 4πR²(n¹³ – 1)S

Answer: (d)

9. A thin glass prism (μ = 1.5) is immersed in water (μ = 1.3). If the angle of deviation in air for a particular ray be δ, then that in water will be

(a) 0.6 δ

(b) 0.5 δ

(d) 0.2 δ

Answer: (a)

10. In an astronomical telescope the final image for normal vision is formed at

(a) the focus of the eye-piece

(b) the least distance of distinct vision

(d) Infinity

Answer: (b)

11. To produce a pure spectrum on a screen with the help of a prism, which of the following is not required?

(a) Narrow slit

(b) Extended source of light

(d) Convex lens

Answer: (d)

12. Two lenses in contact form an archromatic lens. Their focal lengths are in the 3 : 4. Ratio of their dispersive powers will be

(a) 4 : 3

(b) 1 : 3

(d) 3 : 1

Answer: (c)

13. In a movie hall if the distance between the projector and the screen is increased by 2%, illumination on the screen will be

(a) increased by 4%

(b) decreased by 4%

(d) decreased by 2%

Answer: (b)

14. Fraunhoffer’s line commonly visible in the Sun’s spectrum are example of

(a) line emission spectrum

(b) the absorption spectrum

(d) band absorption spectrum

Answer: (b)

15. The wavelength of the first line of Balmer series of hydrogen atom is λ. The wavelength of the same line in doubly ionized lithium will be

(a) λ/2

(b) λ/9

(d) λ/27

Answer: (b)

16. If the critical angle for total internal reflection from a medium to vacuum is 30°, the velocity of light in the medium is

(a) 3 × 10⁸ m/s

(b) 1.5 × 10⁸ m/s

(d) √3 × 10⁸ m/s

Answer: (b)

17. A radioactive element has a half-life 2 hours. In 8 hours 1 gm of radioactive material is reduced to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

18. Which of the following helps in knowing about the stability, of nucleus?

(a) Binding energy per nucleon

(b) Binding energy

(d) Neither (A) nor (B)

Answer: (a)

19. Mass defect for the nucleus of helium is 0.0303 a.m.u. The binding energy per nucleon for helium will be

(a) 28 MeV

(b) 7 MeV

(d) 1 MeV

Answer: (b)

20. When a metal with work function of 0.6 eV is illuminated with the light of 2 eV, the necessary stopping potential for the metal will be

(a) 2.6 V

(b) 3.6 V

(d) 1.4 V

Answer: (d)

21. If W₁, W₂, and W₃ represent the work done in moving a particle from A to B along three different paths 1, 2 and 3 respectively (as shown in the gravitational field of a point mass m, find the correct relation between W₁, W₂ and W₃.

(a) W₁ = W₂ = W₃

(b) W₁ > W₂ > W₃

(d) W₂ > W₁ > W₃

Answer: (a)

22. A block of mass 2 kg is kept on the floor. The coefficient of static friction is 0.4. If a force F of 2.5 newton is applied on the block as shown in the figure,

the frictional force between the block and the floor will be

(a) 10 N

(b) 7.84 N

(d) 2.5 N

Answer: (a)

23. Two simple harmonic motions are represented by and respectively. The ratio of their amplitudes will be

(a) 2

(b)

(c)

(d) 1

Answer: (d)

24. A body starting from rest moves along a straight line with a constant acceleration. The variation of speed (v) with distance (S) is represented by the graph

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

25. Specific heat at constant pressure is greater than the specific heat at constant volume. The reason behind this statement is

(a) heat is used up to increase temperature at constant pressure

(b) heat is used by gas for expansion oat constant pressure

(d) None of the above statements are true

Answer: (a)

26. The absolute zero is temperature at which

(a) molecular motion ceases

(b) water freezes quickly

(d) solid, liquid and gaseous state of a body exist simultaneously

Answer: (a)

27. The freezing point of water is marked in a faulty thermometer as 20℃ and boiling points as 150℃. A thermometer at 60℃ will be shown as

(a) 78℃

(b) 98℃

(d) 130℃

Answer: (b)

28. What is the moment of inertia of a disc of mass M and radius R about an axis parallel to its diameter and at a distance R/2 from the centre?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

29. If we dip capillary tubes of different radii r in water and water rises to different heights h in them, then

(a) h/2= constant

(b) h/r = constant

(d) hr² = constant

Answer: (c)

30. In old age arteries carrying blood in the human body become narrow resulting in an increase in the blood pressure. This follows from

(a) Pascal’s Law

(b) Stoke’s Law

(d) Archimedes Principle

Answer: (b)

31. An ideal engine exhausting heat at 77℃ is to have a 30% efficiency. It must take heat at

(a) 127℃

(b) 227℃

(d) 673℃

Answer: (b)

32. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the separation between the slits is 4 × 10⁻³ m and the distance of the screen from the p lane of the slit is 2 m. Light of wavelength in the range 2000 Å to 8000 Å is allowed to fall on the slits. The wavelength that will be present on the screen at 5 × 10⁻³ m from the central maximum is

(a) 3500 Å

(b) 2500 Å

(d) 6500 Å

Answer: (b)

33. A composite slab consists of two parts of equal thickness. The thermal conductivity of one is twice that of the other. What will be the ratio of temperature difference across the two layers in the state of equilibrium ?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 4

Answer: (b)

34. Amongst the following which quantity is not dimensionless?

(a) Relative permeability

(b) Relative density

(d) Relative velocity

Answer: (d)

35. A wooden rod cannot float vertically in a pond of water because

(a) centre of gravity lies above the metacentre

(b) centre of gravity lies below the metacentre

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

36. Two rods, one of copper and the other made of aluminium, having initial length l₁ and l₂ are connected together to form a single rod of length l₁ + l₂. The coefficient of linear expansion for copper and aluminium are α₁ and α₂ If the length of each rod increases by the same amount when their temperature are raised by t℃, then the ratio will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (d)

37. A particle undergoes uniform circular motion. About which point on the plane of the circle, will the angular momentum of the particle remain conserved?

(a) Centre of the circle

(b) On the perimeter of the circle

(d) Outside the circle

Answer: (a)

38. Gas thermometers are more sensitive than the liquid thermometers because they

(a) are lighter

(b) have low specific heat

(d) have large coefficient of expansion

Answer: (d)

39. In which of the process, internal energy of system remains constant ?

(a) Isothermal

(b) Isochoric

(d) Adiabatic

Answer: (a)

40. What is the thermal capacity of one gram water when it is at the boiling point ?

(a) Zero

(b) Infinity

(d) 540 cal/K

Answer: (d)

41. The percentage of fissionable mass in uranium 235 is

(a) 0.1%

(b) 0.2%

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

42. A wooden log of mass M and length L is hanged vertically down by a frictionless nail. A bullet of mass m strikes with velocity v and sticks to it. Just after the collision about the nail the angular velocity of the system will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

43. The dimensional formula of emf in MKS is

(a) ML²T⁻²Q⁻¹

(b) ML²³T⁻²Q⁻²

(d) ML⁻¹T⁻²Q⁻²

Answer: (a)

44. If and given that then angle between will be.

(a) 75°

(b) 60°

(d) 30°

Answer: (b)

45. A vector is represented by Its length in XY plane is

(a) √5

(b) √10

(d) 2

Answer: (b)

46. A boat which has a speed of 5 km/h in still water crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest path in 15 minutes. The velocity of the river in km/h is

(a) 3

(b) 4

(d) 1

Answer: (c)

47. A quarter horse power motor runs at a speed of 600 rpm. Assuming 40% efficiency the work done by the motor in one rotation will be

(a) 7.46 J

(b) 7400 J

(d) 74.6 erg

Answer: (a)

48. A space craft of mass ‘m’ and moving with velocity ‘v’ suddenly breaks into two pieces of same mass ‘m’. After the explosion one of the mass ‘m’ becomes stationary. The velocity of the other part of the craft will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

49. If R is the radius of a planet, g is the acceleration due to gravity, then the mean density of the planet is given by

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

50. For a given material the Young’s modulus is 2.4 times that of rigidity modulus. Its Poisson’s ratio is

(a) 2.4

(b) 1.2

(d) 0.2

Answer: (d)

51. Pressure exerted by a gas is

(a) independent of density of the gas

(b) inversely proportional to the density of the gas

(d) directly proportional to the density of the gas

Answer: (d)

52. A thin concave and a thin convex lenses are in contact. The ratio of the magnitude of power of two lenses is 2/3 and focal length of combination is 30 cm, then the focal lengths of individual lenses are

(a) 75 cm, 50 cm

(b) −75 cm, 50 cm

(d) −15 cm, 10 cm

Answer: (d)

53. A bob of mass M is suspended by a masless string of length L. The horizontal velocity V at position A is just sufficient to make it reach the point B. The angle θ at which the speed of the bob is half of t hat at A, satisfies

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (d)

54. An alpha particle having kinetic energy of 10 MeV is moving towards a stationary nucleus of atomic n umber 50. The distance of closest approach will be

(a) 1.44 × 10⁻¹⁵ m

(b) 14.4 × 10⁻¹⁵ m

(d) 14.4 × 10⁻¹⁶ m

Answer: (b)

55. The electrostatic potential V at any point (x, y, z) in space is given by V = 4x²

(a) The Y and Z components of electrostatic field at any point is zero

(b) The x-component of the electrostatic field at any points is given by

(d) All the above (a), (b), (c) are correct

Answer: (d)

56. The law of equipartition of energy is applicable to the system whose constituents are

(a) in random motion

(b) in orderly motion

(d) moving with constant speed

Answer: (a)

57. In a Wheatstone’s bridge all the four arms have equal resistance R. The resistance of the galvanometer arm is also R. The equivalent resistance of the combination as seen by the battery is

(a) R/2

(b) R

(d) R/4

Answer: (b)

58. A heater boils 1 kg of water in time T₁ and another heater boils the same water in time T₂. If both are connected in series water boils in time

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

59. A proton is rotating along a circular path with kinetic energy K in an uniform magnetic field B. If the magnetic field is mad four times, then the kinetic energy of the rotation proton will be

(a) 16 K

(b) 8 K

(d) K

Answer: (c)

60. A galvanometer may be converted in to ammeter or a voltmeter. In which of the following the resistance of the device so obtained will be largest?

(a) Voltmeter of range 10 V

(b) Voltmeter of range 1V

(d) Ammeter of range 1 A

Answer: (a)

61. A wire of certain length carries a steady current. It is first bent to form a circular coil of one turn. The same wire is next bent to form a circular coil the three turns. The ratio of magnetic inductions at the centre of the coil in the two cases is

(a) 1 : 9

(b) 9 : 1

(d) 1 : 3

Answer: (a)

62. 5 m long wire carries a current 5A. It experiences a force 7.5 N when place in uniform magnetic field of intensity 2T. The angle between the magnetic field and direction of current is

(a) 90°

(b) 60°

(d) 30°

Answer: (d)

63. The equation of an A.C. signal is represented by V = V₀ sin ω In what time the voltage will be half of the maximum value starting from initial time t = 0.

(a) t/12

(b) t/8

(d) t/4

Answer: (b)

64. In insulators

(a) valence band is partially filled with electrons

(b) conduction band is partially filled with electrons

(d) conduction band is empty and valence band is filled with electrons

Answer: (c)

65. In the depletion region of an unbiased p-n junction diode, there are

(a) only electrons

(b) only holes

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

66. A vertical copper disc of diameter 40 cm makes 30 revolutions per second about a horizontal axis passing through its centre. A uniform field 10⁻² Wb/m² acts perpendicular to the plane of the disc. Potential difference developed between the centre of the disc and rim of disc is

(a) 5.472 × 10⁻² V

(b) 1.432 × 10⁻² V

(d) 6.973× 10⁻² V

Answer: (c)

Chemistry

1. The double helical structure of DNA is due to

(a) phosphodiester bond

(b) hydrogen bond

(d) electrostatic force of attraction

Answer: (b)

2. According to Faraday’s second law, the mass deposited on the electrode is directly proportional to

(a) charge of ion

(b) atomic mass

(d) atomic mass / charge of the ion

Answer: (d)

3. The synthesis of 3-octyne is achieved by adding a bromoalkane into a mixture of sodium amide and an alkyne. The bromoalkane and alkyne respectively are

(a) BrCH₂CH₂CH₂CH₂CH₃and CH₃CH₂C ≡ CH

(b) BrCH₂ CH₂CH₃ and CH₃ CH₂ CH₂C ≡ CH

(d) Br CH₂CH₂ CH₂CH₃ and CH₃CH₂C ≡ C

Answer: (d)

4. What type of hybridization is considered on I in IF₇ ?

(a) sp³d

(b) dsp³

(d) d²sp³

Answer: (c)

5. Ethylene can be separated from acetylene by passing the mixture through

(a) fuming H₂SO₄

(b) pyrogallol

(d) charcoal powder

Answer: (c)

6. Electron is an alloy of

(a) Mg and Zn

(b) Fe and Mg

(d) Al and Zn

Answer: (a)

7. The oxidant which is used as an antiseptic is

(a) KBrO₃

(b) KMnO₄

(d) KNO₃

Answer: (b)

8. The catalyst used for olefin polymerization is

(a) Ziegler-Natta catalyst

(b) Wilkinson catalyst

(d) Merrifield resin

Answer: (a)

9. In which of the following reactions new C-C bond is not formed ?

(a) Cannizzaro reaction

(b) Wurtz reaction

(d) Friedel Craft reaction

Answer: (a)

10. In a borax bead test, the brown colour is due to

(a) Cr

(b) Co

(d) Fe

Answer: (d)

11. Shape of carbon dioxide is

(a) tetrahdedral

(b) trigonal

(d) linear

Answer: (d)

12. Lunar caustic is

(a) AgCl

(b) AgNO₃

(d) KNO₃

Answer: (b)

13. Tollens reagent can be used to detect

(a) (CH₃)₂CHOH

(b) CH₃COCH₃

(d) CH₃OCH₃

Answer: (c)

14. Which amine of the following will not respond to carbylamines test?

(a) Ethylamine

(b) Methylamine

(d) Phenylamine

Answer: (c)

15. Which base is found only in the nucleotide of RNA ?

(a) Adenine

(b) Uracil

(d) Cystosine

Answer: (b)

16. The purest coal is

(a) anthracite

(b) bituminous

(d) lignite

Answer: (a)

17. Seaweed is an important source of

(a) Cl₂

(b) I₂

(d) Br₂

Answer: (b)

18. Which of the following is not a lewis acid ?

(a) BF₃

(b) AlCl₃

(d) CCl₄

Answer: (d)

19. Cannizzaro reaction is not given by

(a) trietylacetaldehyde

(b) acetaldehyde

(d) formaldehyde

Answer: (b)

20. German silver is

(a) silver made in Germany

(b) an alloy of silver

(d) a silvery white paint

Answer: (c)

21. Sodium nitroprusside when added to an alkaline solution of sulphide ions produces purple coloration due to formation of

(a) Na[Fe(H₂O)₅NOS]

(b) Na₄[Fe(CN)₅NOS]

(d) Na₄[Fe(H₂O₂)₅NOS]

Answer: (b)

22. Baeyer’s reagent is

(a) alkaline KMnO₄ solution

(b) acidified KMnO₄ solution

(d) aqueous Br₂ solution

Answer: (a)

23. Which of the following is the hardest substance ?

(a) Steel

(b) Graphite

(d) Diamond

Answer: (d)

24. An important mineral for Mg is

(a) malachite

(b) cassiterite

(d) galena

Answer: (c)

25. It is possible to distinguish between optical isomers by

(a) IR spectroscopy

(b) mass spectroscopy

(d) polarimetry

Answer: (d)

26. Which of the following is used in radiocarbon dating?

(a) C¹²

(b) C¹¹

(d) C¹⁴

Answer: (d)

27. The number of d-electrons in Cr[(H₂O)₆]³⁺ ion is

(a) 2

(b) 3

(d) 5

Answer: (b)

28. Hyperconjugation involves overlap of following orbitals ?

(a) sigma-sigma

(b) sigma-pi

(d) pi-d

Answer: (b)

29. The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(a) 4-bromo-3-cyanophenol

(b) 2-bromo-5-hydroxybenzonitrile

(d) 6-bromo-3-hydroxybenzonitrile

Answer: (a)

30. Among the following compounds, the most acidic is

(a) p-nitrophenol

(b) p-hydroxybenzoic acid

(d) p-toluic acid

Answer: (a)

31. The bond energy (Kcal mol⁻¹) of C-C single bond is approximately

(a) 1

(b) 10

(d) 1000

Answer: (c)

32. In the reaction

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (d)

33. In self-reduction, the reducing species is

(a) S

(b) O²⁻

(d) SO₃

Answer: (b)

34. Passing H₂S gas into a mixture of Fe³⁺, Ni²⁺, Zn²⁺, Pb²⁺, Cu²⁺ ions in an acidified aqueous solution precipitates

(a) Pb²⁺, Cu²⁺

(b) Fe³⁺, Ni²⁺

(d) Zn²⁺, Pb²⁺

Answer: (a)

35. On increasing the temperature of the source and sink of an engine working in a Carnot’s cyclic process, the efficiency of the engine

(a) decreases

(b) increases

(d) may increase or decrease depending on the nature of the working substance

Answer: (a)

36. For the reaction 2A + B → Products, doubling the initial concentration o f both the reactants increases the rate by a factor of 8 and doubling the concentration of B alone doubles the rate. The order of the reaction with respect to A and B are respectively

(a) one and two

(b) two and one

(d) two and two

Answer: (b)

37. An example of thermosetting plastic is

(a) PVC

(b) Nylon

(d) Bakelite

Answer: (d)

38. Which of the following is not a green house gas ?

(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) water vapour

(d) Ozone

Answer: (b)

39. Minamata disease is related to

(a) Pb

(b) As

(d) Hg

Answer: (d)

40. To prepare a 100 ml. standard solution of 0.01 N strength of oxalic acid (C₂H₂O₄ ∙ 2H₂O), the amount of oxalic acid required is

(a) 0.126 g

(b) 0.63 g

(d) 0.0063 g

Answer: (c)

41. Heavy water

(a) contains dissolved Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ ions

(b) contains dissolved Ca²⁺ ions only

(d) is made up of ₁H² and ₈O¹⁶ atoms

Answer: (a)

42. The oxidation number of Pt in [Pt(C₂H₄)Cl₃]⁻ is

(a) +2

(b) +4

(d) +3

Answer: (a)

43. [Co(NH₃)₅Br]SO₄ and [Co(NH₃)₅SO₄] are

(a) geometrical isomers

(b) optical isomers

(d) ionization isomers

Answer: (d)

44. In which of the following molecule hydrogen bridge bond is present?

(a) Water

(b) Hydrogen peroxide

(d) Diborane

Answer: (d)

45. The bond order of NO molecule is

(a) 2

(b) 3

(d) 1.5

Answer: (c)

46. CO₂ i s isostructural with

(a) C₂H₂

(b) HgCl₂

(d) NH₃

Answer: (c)

47. Complete the following equation.

₉₂U²³⁸ + – – – – – → ₉₄PU²⁴¹ + ₀n¹

(a) ₀n¹

(b) ₁D²

(d) ₂He⁴

Answer: (d)

48. The equilibrium constant (K) of a reaction may be written as :

(a) K = exp(−∆G/RT)

(b) K = exp(−∆G⁰/RT)

(d) K = exp(−∆H⁰/RT)

Answer: (b)

49. For the reaction 2CO + O₂ ↔ 2CO₂, the relation between K_p and k_c is

(a) K_p = K_c

(b) K_p = K_cRT

(d) K_p = K_c/RT

Answer: (d)

50. Among the following compounds which is paramagnetic ?

(a) C₂

(b) N₂

(d) O₂

Answer: (d)

51. The state of hybridization and structure of XeF₄ is

(a) sp³, tetrahedral

(b) dsp², square planar

(d) sp³d², octahedral

Answer: (c)

52. For a process of vaporization at constant temperature and pressure, the correct set of thermodynamic parameter is

(a) ∆G > 0, ∆S = 0

(b) ∆G = 0, ∆S = 0

(d) ∆G = 0, ∆S > 0

Answer: (c)

53. For a certain first order reaction t_1/2 = 100 sec. The rate constant for the reaction is

(a) 6.93 × 10² s⁻¹

(b) 6.93 × 10⁻³ s⁻¹

(d) 6.93 × 10³ s⁻¹

Answer: (c)

54. ZnO is white when cold while it is yellow when hot, due to

(a) Nonstoichiometric crystal defect

(b) Schottky defect

(d) impurity

Answer: (c)

55. The IUPAC nomenclature of the complex [Pt(NH₃)₆][PtCl₄] is

(a) Hexaamineplatinum (II) tetrachloroplatinum(II)

(b) Hexaammoniumplatinum(II) tetra-chloroplatinate(II)

(d) Hexaammineplatinum(II) tetrachloroplatinate(II)

Answer: (d)

56. The shape and magnetic properties of complexes [NiCl₄]²⁻, [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻, Ni(CO)₄ respectively are

(a) tetrahedral & paramagnetic, square planar & diamagnetic, square planar & diamagnetic

(b) tetrahedral & paramagnetic, square planar & diamagnetic, tetrahedral & diamagnetic

(d) square planar & paramagnetic, square3 planar & diamagnetic, square planar & diamagnetic

Answer: (b)

57. The amount of N₂ liberated at STP on dissociation of 8 gm of NH₄NO₂ is

(a) 3.8 litre

(b) 22.4 litre

(d) 2.8 litre

Answer: (d)

58. How many electrons have the total charge of 1 coulomb ?

(a) 6.023 × 10²³

(b) 6.023 × 10⁻²³

(d) 1.602 × 10⁻¹⁹

Answer: (c)

59. Copper reacts with concentrated HNO₂ to give

(a) NO₂

(b) NO

(d) N₂

Answer: (a)

60. Milk is a colloid where dispersed phase is

(a) solid and dispersion medium is liquid

(b) liquid and dispersion medium is solid

(d) solid and dispersion medium is solid

Answer: (c)

61. When ammonia is passed over heated cupric oxide the gas produced is

(a) N₂O

(b) NO

(d) N₂

Answer: (d)

62. 1 ml. of an HCl solution of pH 5 is diluted to 1 litre. The pH of the r esulting solution is

(a) 8

(b) 6.9

(d) 7

Answer: (b)

63. In a saturated solution of CaF₂, the concentration of F⁻ ion is 0.0067 g/litre. Find out the solubility product of CaF₂.

(a) 2.19 × 10⁻⁷

(b) 0.00228

(d) 3.2 × 10⁻¹¹

Answer: (a)

64. The reason for non-ideality of real gases is due to

(a) intermolecular force of attraction

(b) a finite volume of the gas molecules that reduces the effective volume of the container

(c) intermolecular force of attraction and a finite volume of the gas molecules that reduces the effective volume of the container

(d) intermolecular force of attraction

Answer: (a)

65. Which of the following orders regarding ionization energy is correct ?

(a) N < O < F

(b) N > O > F

(d) N > O < F

Answer: (a)

Mathematics

1. If then

(a) a = 1, b = c

(b) a = 1, c = 1

(d) b = 2, c = 2a

Answer: (c)

2. If a force is acting at the point P(1, −1, 3) then the moment of about the point Q(2, −1, 3) is

(a)

(b)

(d) 17

Answer: (a)

3. If are three non-zero vectors such that then the value of is

(a) greater than zero

(b) less than zero

(d) 3

Answer: (b)

4. If ¹⁵P_r–1 : ¹⁶P_{r – 2}= 3 : 4, then r is equal to

(a) 8

(b) 14

(d) 10

Answer: (b)

5. The number of triangles can be drawn through n given points on a circle is

(a) ⁿC₃

(b) (ⁿ(C₃ – n)

(d) n – 3

Answer: (a)

6. A polygon has 54 diagonals. Number of sides of this polygon is

(a) 12

(b) 15

(d) 9

Answer: (a)

7. is equal to

(a) −2

(b) −1/2

(d) 5/2

Answer: (d)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

9. is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

10. The number of ways 6 rings of different types can be had in four fingers, is

(a) 6⁴

(b) 4⁶

(d) ⁶C₄

Answer: (b)

11. is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

12. is equal to

(a) 1

(b) 1/2

(d) 0

(a) 1

(b) 1/2

(d) 0

13. then f ‘(x) is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

14. The area bounded by the curve y = 2x – x² and the straight line y = −x is

(a) 9/2

(b) 35/6

(d) 13/4

Answer: (a)

15. The area bounded by the curve y = x sin x and the x-axis between x = 0 and x = 2π is

(a) 2π

(b) 3π

(d) π

Answer: (a)

16. The solution of the equation is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

17. The solution of (x + y) dx + (y – x)dy= 0 is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

18. The solution of is

(a) 2y sin x – cos 2x = c

(b) 2y sin x + cos 2x = c

(d) 2y sin x = c cos 2x

Answer: (b)

19. If (x² – ay) – (ax – y²) dy = 0 and y(0) = 0, then

(a) x³+ y³ + 3axy = 0

(b) x³ + y³ – 3axy = 0

(d) x³ – y³ – 3axy = 0

Answer: (b)

20. If the straight line x + y = a is tangent to the ellipse then the value of a is

(a) ±6

(b) ±10

(d) ±25

Answer: (c)

21. The equation of normal to the curve 2y = (3 – x²) at x = 1, is

(a) x + y = 0

(b) x + y + 1 = 0

(d) x – y = 0

Answer: (d)

22. The locus of the mid-points of the portion of the line x cos θ + y sin θ = a intercepted between the axes, is

(a) x² + y² = 4a²x²y²

(b) a²(x² + y²) = 4x²y²

(d) x² + y² = 4a²

Answer: (b)

23. The distance between the lines 4x + 3y = 9 and 8x + 6y = 15, is

(a) 3

(b) 0.3

(d) 6

Answer: (b)

24. The angle between the pair of lines x²(cos²θ – 1) + y² sin²θ – xy sin² θ = 0, is

(a) π/3

(b) π/4

(d) π/2

Answer: (d)

25. The value of K for which the circles x² + y² – 4x – Ky – 12 = 0 and x² + y² + 6x + 4y – 12 = 0 cut orthogonally, is

(a) K = 3

(b) K = 4

(d) K = −2

Answer: (c)

26. If (2, 0) is the vertex and y-axis the directrix of a parabola, then the focus is

(a) (2, 0)

(b) (−2, 0)

(d) (−4, 0)

Answer: (c)

27. The eccentricity of the hyperbola 9x² – 16y² = 144, is

(a) 5/4

(b) 9/7

(d) 16/9

Answer: (a)

28. The foot of the perpendicular from the point (7, 14, 5) to the plane 2x + 4y – z = 2, is

(a) (1, 2, 8)

(b) (2, 1, 5)

(d) (1, 14, 8)

Answer: (a)

29. If P(−1, 4, −3) i s one end of a diameter PQ of the sphere x² + y² + z² – 3x – 2y + 2z – 15 = 0, then the coordinates of Q, are

(a) (−2, 4, −1)

(b) (−4, 2, 1)

(d) (4, −2, 1)

Answer: (d)

30. A coin is tossed 5 times. The probability that the tail appears an odd number times, is

(a) 3/5

(b) 1/3

(d) 2/15

Answer: (c)

31. If A and B are two events such that P(A) > 0 and P(B) ≠ 1, then is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

32. The maximum value of z = 5x₁ + 7x₂, subject to x₁ + x₂ ≤ 4, 3x₁ + 8x₂ ≤ 24, 10x₁ + 7x₂ ≤ 35, x₁, x₂ ≥ 0, is

(a) 17.5

(b) 25.1

(d) 21

Answer: (c)

33. A company produces 2 types of hats. Every hat A requires twice as much labour time as the second hat B. If the company produces only hat B, then it can produce a total of 500 hats a day. The market limits daily sales of hat A and B to 150 and 250 respectively. The profit on hat A and B are Rs. 8 and Rs. 5 respectively. The optimal solution by graphical method is

(a) (120, 220)

(b) (125, 250)

(d) (130, 230)

Answer: (b)

34. The length of a minute pointer of a watch is 12 cm. The distance travelled by the pointer in 40 minutes, is

(a) 20π cm

(b) 4 π/3cm

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

35. The value of sin 50° − sin 70° + sin 10° is

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 1/4

Answer: (c)

36. Let R be the set of all real numbers. Then

(a) (R, +) as well as (R, ×) is a group

(b) (R, +) is a group but (R, ×) is not a group

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

37. Let G be the set of all 2 × 2 matrices over the field or real numbers. Then

(a) (G, ×) is an abelian group

(b) (G, ×) is a non-abelian group

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

38. Let G be a group of order n and a ∈ G such that O(a) = m. Then

(a) m > n

(b) m ≥ n

(d) m = n

Answer: (b)

39. The order of the permutation is

(a) 0

(b) 1

(d) 3

Answer: (b)

40. Let V be a vector space over the field F. Let 0 ≠ α ∈ V and 0 ≠ a ∈ Then

(a) a⁻¹ as well as α⁻¹ exist

(b) a⁻¹ exists but α⁻¹ does not exist

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

41.

(a) ±(3 + 4i)

(b) ±(3 – 4i)

(d) ±(4 − 3i)

Answer: (a)

42. i¹⁰⁴ + i¹⁰⁰ + i¹¹⁴ + i¹¹⁰ is equal to

(a) 0

(b) −1

(d) −i

Answer: (a)

43. For any complex number z, the minimum value of |z| + |z – 1| is

(a) 1/2

(b) 3/2

(d) 1

Answer: (d)

44. The complex number (sin x + i cos 2x) and (cos x – i sin 2x) are conjugate to each other for

(a) x = 0

(b) x = nπ

(c)

(d) no value of x

Answer: (d)

45. If A and B are two matrices such that A + B and AB are both defined.

(a) both are null matrices

(b) both are identity matrices

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

46. If then for every positive integer n, Aⁿ is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

47. The matrix is nilpotent of index

(a) 2

(b) 3

(d) 6

Answer: (b)

48. If A is a symmetric matrix, then A³ is

(a) symmetric

(b) skew-symmetric

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

49. If and f(x) = 2x² – 4x + 5, then f(A) is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

50. If A is a 3-rowed square matrix, then |adj(adj(A)| is equal to

(a) |A|⁶

(b) |A|³

(d) |A|²

Answer: (c)

51. If the points (x₁, y₁), (x₂, y₂) and (x₃, y₃) are collinear, then the rank of the matrix is

(a) 0

(b) 1

(d) less than 3

Answer: (d)

52. The eigvenvalues of a Skew-Hermitian matrix are

(a) real or zero

(b) purely imaginary or zero

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

53. If and (aI₂ + bA)² = A, then

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

54. If ω is an imaginary cube root of unity, then the value of is

(a) 1

(b) ω

(d) 0

Answer: (d)

55. If a, b, c be positive real numbers, then the value of is

(a) 0

(b) positive

(d) a perfect square

Answer: (c)

56. The value of is

(a) 0

(b) abc

(d) 4a²b²c²

Answer: (d)

57. For the positive numbers x, y, z the numerical value of is

(a) 0

(b) 1

(d) log(x + y + z)

Answer: (a)

58. If |A| = 2 and A is a 2 × 2 matrix, the value of det[adj {adj(adj A²)}] is

(a) 4

(b) 16

(d) 128

Answer: (a)

59. The existence of the unique solution of the system x + y + z = b, 2x + 3y – z = 6, 5x – y + az = 10 depend on

(a) b only

(b) a only

(d) neither a nor b

Answer: (b)

60.

(a) 0

(b) 1

(d) 1/e

Answer: (b)

61.

(a) −2

(b) 4

(d) −8

Answer: (c)

62.

(a) 0

(b) 1

(d) Does not exist

Answer: (c)

63. If f(x) = |x|³, then f ‘(0) = is

(a) 0

(b) 1/2

(d) +1

Answer: (a)

64.

(a) 0

(b) 1/2

(d) 3/2

Answer: (c)

65. If then at x = 0 is

(a) 0

(b) 1

(d) y

Answer: (b)

66. If Rolle’s theorem holds for f(x) = x³ – 6x² + kx + 5 on [1, 3] with the value of k is

(a) −3

(b) 3

(d) 11

Answer: (d)

67. Let f(x) = x(x – 1) (x – 2) be define in . Then, the value of c of the mean value theorem is

(a) 0.16

(b) 0.20

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

68. The position vectors of the points A, B, C are and respectively. These points

(a) form an isosceles triangle

(b) form a right angle

(d) form a scalene triangle

Answer: (a)

Biology

1. A diploid cell contains in its nucleus

(a) an even number of chromosomes

(b) an odd number of chromosomes

(d) either an even or an odd number of chromosomes

Answer: (c)

2. Which of the following is not a disease ?

(a) Cystic fibrosis

(b) Thalassaemia

(d) Cretinism

Answer: (d)

3. Genetic map is one that

(a) shows the stages during the cell division

(b) shows the distribution of various species

(d) establishes the various stages of the gene evolution

Answer: (c)

4. A genetically engineered microorganism used successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a species of

(a) Pseudomonas

(b) Trichoderma

(d) Bacillus

Answer: (a)

5. Which one of the following is commonly used in transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants?

(a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(b) Penicillium expansum

(d) Meloidogyne incognita

Answer: (a)

6. Which one of the following plants is monoecious ?

(a) Cycas

(b) Papaya

(d) Pinus

Answer: (d)

7. MHC-II may be found on all of the following expect

(a) B-cells

(b) cytotoxic T-cells

(d) body cells for self-recognition

Answer: (d)

8. Resin and turpentine are obtained from

(a) Cycas

(b) Pinus

(d) Cedrus

Answer: (b)

9. The nerve chord of chordate is

(a) hollow

(b) solid

(d) black

Answer: (b)

10. Which of the following characters differentiate birds and mammals ?

(a) Metanephric kidney

(b) 7-cervical vertebrae

(d) One arotic arch

Answer: (b)

11. Sacromere is distance between

(a) two I-bands

(b) A and I bands

(d) Z and A bands

Answer: (c)

12. Which organ forms antibodies ?

(a) Thyroid

(b) Liver

(d) Tonsil

Answer: (d)

13. Which of the following is called pacemaker ?

(a) SA Node

(b) SV Node

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

14. Blackening of urine when exposed to air is a metabolic disorder in human beings. This is due to

(a) Phenylalanine

(b) tyrosine

(d) homogentisic acid

Answer: (d)

15. Phenylketonuria is a genetic disorder of

(a) trisomic condition

(b) monosomic condition

(d) autosomal recessive gene

Answer: (d)

16. G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with haemolysis of

(a) lymphocytes

(b) RBCs

(d) leucocytes

Answer: (b)

17. The limbs of a insect and the leg of a bird are

(a) analogous

(b) homologous

(d) analogous and homologous

Answer: (a)

18. Which of the following is not a part of Darwin’s theory of evolution ?

(a) Genetic drift

(b) Natural Selection

(d) Struggle for existence

Answer: (a)

19. Sum total of genes in a population is

(a) genotype

(b) gene flow

(d) gene pool

Answer: (d)

20. Randon genetic drift in a population probably results from

(a) highly genetically variable individuals

(b) interbreeding within the population

(d) large population size

Answer: (a)

21. Drawin’s theory states that

(a) characters are acquired through inheritance

(b) species change morphologically with time

(d) evolution is due to effect of environment

Answer: (c)

22. Glucocorticoids are produced by the

(a) thyroid

(b) pituitary

(d) adrenal medulla

Answer: (c)

23. Basic unit of classification is

(a) family

(b) genus

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

24. System of classification used by Linnaeus was

(a) Natural system

(b) Artificial system

(d) Asexual system

Answer: (b)

25. AIDS is due to

(a) deficiency of T₄ lymphocytes

(b) bacterial infection

(d) high blood pressure

Answer: (a)

26. Viroids are

(a) infectious nucleoproteins

(b) infectious nucleic acids

(d) infectious lipoproteins

Answer: (b)

27. Litmus yielding lichen is known as

(a) Rocella tinctaria

(b) Lecanora esculenta

(d) Centroria islandica

Answer: (a)

28. Interferons are produced in response to infection of

(a) fungi

(b) tapeworms

(d) bacteria

Answer: (c)

29. Virus envelope is known as

(a) capsid

(b) virion

(d) core

Answer: (a)

30. Interferons are

(a) specific type immunoglobulins

(b) proteins released by cells in response to viral infections

(d) Both (B) & (C)

Answer: (d)

31. Transduction was first studied in

(a) Escherichia

(b) Rhizobium

(d) Pneumococcus

Answer: (c)

32. Which of the following is the food poisoning and as forming rod bacterium ?

(a) Clostidium

(b) Salmonella

(d) Shigella

Answer: (a)

33. The grown of a tree is faster during

(a) autumn

(b) winter

(d) spring

Answer: (a)

34. Which of the hormone inhibits FSH production in female mammal ?

(a) estrogen

(b) adrenalin

(d) testosterone

Answer: (a)

35. The most common plant hormone IAA was first isolated from

(a) human urine

(b) avena coleoptile

(d) corn germ oil

Answer: (a)

36. Closure of leaflets of Mimosa pudica is an example of

(a) thigmotactic movement

(b) thigmotropic movement

(d) None of these

Answer: (d)

37. Photochemical smog is caused by a light mediated reaction between

(a) NO₂ unburnt hydro carbons

(b) NO₂ and O₃

(d) SO₂ and O₃

Answer: (b)

38. Cochineal insects are useful for

(a) wed control

(b) cerbicide

(d) cactus control

Answer: (d)

39. Tiger is not a resident of in which one of the following national park ?

(a) Gir

(b) Jim Corbett

(d) Sundarban

Answer: (a)

40. Full form of the IRRI is

(a) International Rice Research Institute

(b) Intra Rice Research Institute

(d) International Raw Rice Institute

Answer: (a)

41. Epiphytes are most abundant in a

(a) tropical rain forest

(b) temperate deciduous forest

(d) scrub land

Answer: (a)

42. Which of the following aquatic ecosystems has very little primary productivity ?

(a) River

(b) Estuary

(d) Marsh

Answer: (a)

43. What is deficient in the patient of Haemophilia A ?

(a) AHF (Anti Haemophilic Factor)

(b) Thrombin

(d) PTC (Plasma Thrmboplastin Component)

Answer: (a)

44. A benign tumor is more likely to become malignant when

(a) the tumor cells no longer respond to growth factor signals

(b) the rate of cell division slows down

(d) several tumor suppressor genes are inactivated by mutations

Answer: (a)

45. Which of the following plants yields a fibre called sunn hemp ?

(a) Boehmeria

(b) Helecteres isora

(d) Crotalaria juncea

Answer: (d)

46. Pesticides include

(A) insecticides only

(B) insecticides, nematocides and rodenticides

(D) herbicides and insecticides product of the body of honey bee ?

Answer: (c)

47. Phylogenetic system of classification refers to the grouping of plants on the basis of

(a) all morphological characters

(b) evolutionary trends

(d) floral similarities

Answer: (b)

48. Floral diagram fails to indicate

(a) position of ovary on the thalamus

(b) epiphylly & epipetally

(d) aestivation of placentation

Answer: (d)

49. Asteraceae is now known as

(a) Cruciferae

(b) Gramineae

(d) Compositae

Answer: (d)

50. Obligate parasites are those which

(a) can survive only in the presence of a living host

(b) normally lead a parasitic life but under changed circumstances can lives as saprophytes

(d) None of the above

Answer: (d)

51. Early blight of potato is caused by

(a) Phytopthora infestans

(b) Alternaria solani

(d) Colletotrichum falcatum

Answer: (b)

52. Symbiotic association between fungus and root of higher plant is

(a) Puffball

(b) Orchid

(d) Mycorrhiza

Answer: (d)

53. Africa ‘sleeping sickness’ in human is used by

(a) Giardia intestinalis

(b) Trichomonas vaginalis

(d) Leismania donovani

Answer: (c)

54. The shivering of malaria occurs when

(a) the signet ring is formed

(b) schizonts are on reticulo endothelial cells

(d) merozoites are liberated from RBC with toxin

Answer: (d)

55. The bacteria (Clostridium botutinum) that cause botulism are

(a) obligate aerobes

(b) facultative anaerobes

(d) facultative aerobes

Answer: (c)

56. Plasmids found in the cells of bacteria are molecules of

(a) DNA

(b) RNA

(d) DNA bound by histones

Answer: (a)

57. Who developed vaccine first time?

(a) Edward Jenner

(b) Louis Pasteur

(d) J. Lister

Answer: (a)

58. Which is the first stable product of CO₂ fixation in C₃ plants ?

(a) Ribulose phosphate

(b) PGA

(d) Starch

Answer: (b)

59. Emersion effect is associated with

(a) respiration

(b) salt absorption

(d) transpiration

Answer: (c)

60. The light reactions of photosynthesis supply the calvin cycle with

(a) light energy

(b) CO₂ and ATP

(d) ATP and NADPH

Answer: (d)

61. Site of respiration in plants is

(a) ribosome

(b) chloroplast

(d) lysosomes

Answer: (c)

62. The end product of citric acid cycle is

(a) pyruvic acid

(b) citric acid

(d) ethanol

Answer: (c)

63. Synthesis of ATP in mitochondria requires

(a) oxygen

(b) pyruvic acid

(d) FMN

Answer: (a)

64. Respiratory quotient is maximum when the respiratory substrate is

(a) glucose

(b) fat

(d) protein

Answer: (a)

65. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive disorder located on chromosome

(a) 17

(b) 16

(d) 11

Answer: (c)

66. In a metacentric chromosome, the centromere is located

(a) between one end and the middle of the chromosome

(b) near one end of the chromosome

(d) any where along the length of chromosome

Answer: (a)

67. Sebaceous gland are

(a) merocrine

(b) holocrine

(d) acrine

Answer: (b)

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