# OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2013 With Answer Key Mobile View

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2013 O.U.A. T Question with Answer

Physics

1. A transverse wave is represented by the equation For what value of λ is the particle velocity equal to two times the wave velocity?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

2. A car sounding its horn at 480 Hz moves towards a high wall at a speed of 20 ms1. If the speed of sound is 340 ms1, the frequency of reflected sound heard by the man sitting in the car will be nearest to

(a)  480 Hz

(b)  540 Hz

(c)  510 Hz

(d)  570 Hz

3. When a wave undergoes reflection at rarer medium then it undergoes a phase difference of

(a)  π

(b)  π/2

(c)  2π

(d)  No change in phase

4. If the temperature of solid body increases by a small amount ∆θ, its moment of inertia I about an axis increases by (α = coefficient of thermal expansion)

(a)  2αI ∆θ

(b)

(c)  0

(d)  αI∆θ

5. The ratio of the densities of two bodies is 2 : 3 and their specific heats are 0.13 and 0.08 respectively. The ratio of their thermal capacities per volume is

(a)  12 : 13

(b)  122 : 132

(c)  13 : 12

(d)  132 : 122

6. Three rods made of the same material and having the same cross-section have been joined as shown in the figure. Each rod is of the same length. The left and right ends are kept at 0℃ and 90℃ The temperature of the junction of the three rods will be

(a)  45℃

(b)  60℃

(c)  30℃

(d)  20℃

7. The emissivity and surface area of tungsten filament of an electric bulb are 0.40 and 6.74 × 105 m2 The operating temperature of filament is 2500 K. If σ = 5.7 × 108 watt m2 k4, then power of bulb is approximately

(a)  60 watt

(b)  150 watt

(c)  3000 watt

(d)  1500 watt

8. In a thermo dynamic process, a system absorbs 2 kcal of heat and the same time does 500 J of work. What is the change in internal energy o f the system?

(a)  −500 J

(b)  500 J

(c)  7900 J

(d)  8900 J

9. Boiling water is changing into steam; under the condition, the specific heat of water in cal g/℃ is

(a)  1

(b)  zero

(c)  infinity

(d)  <1

10. 22 gm of COP2 at 27℃ is mixed with 60 gm of O2 at 37℃. The temperature of mixture is

(a)  27℃

(b)  30.5℃

(c)  32℃

(d)  37℃

11. A capillary tube of length 16 cm is dipped in water. Water rises to a height 10 cm. If the whole apparatus is kept in a freely falling lift, the height of water column in that tube will be

(a)  10 cm

(b)  16 cm

(c)  5 cm

(d)  8 cm

12. A 2 kg stone tied at the end of a string 1m long is rotated in a vertical circle at a constant speed of 4 ms1. The tension in the string will be 52 N, when the stone is

(a)  at the top of the circle

(b)  half way down

(c)  at the bottom of the circle

(d)  anywhere on the circle

13. An artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit around the earth has a total energy –E0.

(a)  E0

(b)  −1.5 E0

(c)  −2E0

(d)  −E0

14. The work done in carrying a charge Q once round the circle of radius r with charge Q at the centre of the circle is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

15. A hemispherical surface of radius R is placed in a uniform electric field E in such a manner that the field is directed perpendicular to the circular plane face of the hemisphere. The electric flux through the said surface is

(a)  πR2E

(b)  4πR2E

(c)  2πR2E

(d)  2πRE

16. An electron placed in a uniform electric field, experiences an electric force equal to its weight mg. The intensity of the field is

(a)  mg.e

(b)  e/mg

(c)  mg/e

(d)  cannot be found

17. A charge ‘q’ is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal positive charges ‘Q’. The system of the three charges will be in equilibrium, if q is equal to

(a)  −Q/2

(b)  −Q/4

(c)  +Q/4

(d)  +Q/2

18. In a charged capacitor, the energy resides

(a)  on the positive plate

(b)  on both the positive and negative charged plates

(c)  in the field between the plates

(d)  around the edge of the capacitor plates

Ans: (c)

19. n cells each of e.m.f. E and internal resistance r send the same current through an external resistance R whether the cells are connected in series or in parallel. Then

(a)  R = nr

(b)  R = r

(c)  r = nR

(d)  R = √nr

20. V-I graph for parallel and series combination of two metallic resistors are shown in fig. Which graph represents the parallel combination.

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

(d)  Neither (a) nor (b)

21. What is the effective resistance between points A and B ?

(a)  4R/3

(b)  R

(c)  2R/3

(d)  R/2

22.  Two cells of unequal e.m.f. E1 and E­2(E1 < E2) and internal resistances r1 and r2 are shown in figure. VA and VB are potentials at A and B respectively, then

(a)  One cell will not continue supply energy to other

(b)  Potential energy across both cells need not be equal.

(c)  Potential difference across one cell is equal to its e.m.f.

(d)

23. An electric bulb is designed to draw power P0 at voltage V0 . If the voltage V draws a power P, then

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

24. When the temperature difference between the hot and cold junction of a thermocouple is 100 K and emf of 1 mv is generated, the thermo emf remains constant over the whole temperature range, When the temperature of the cold junction is raised by 20K, the percentage by which the emf is charged, is

(a)  −20%

(b)  20%

(c)  80%

(d)  −80%

25. Cyclotron is used to

(a)  measure charge of an electron

(b)  measure mass of a neutron

(c)  accelerate protons

(d)  detect positrons

26. A thin and flexible wire is kept on a table in the form of a rectangle and a strong current is sent through it. The shape of the wire will become.

(a)  triangular

(b)  circular

(c)  hexagonal

(d)  rectangular

27. A straight wire carrying a current of 12 A is bent into a semicircular arc of radius 2 cm as shown in the fig. The magnitude of magnetic field at the centre O of the arc due to current carrying wire AB is

(a)  1.89 × 104 T

(b)  1.72 × 103 T

(c)  2.1 × 105 T

(d)  Zero

28. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is placed in a magnetic field of induction B. The torque exerted on it is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

29. Current I is flowing inn all a coil of area A and number of turns is n. The magnetic moment of the coil is

(a)  nIA

(b)  n2IA

(c)  nI/A

(d)  nI/√A

30. A galvanometer has a resistance of G ohm and range V volt. The value of resistance used in series to convert it into voltmeter of range nV volt is

(a)  nG

(b)  (n – 1)G

(c)  G/n

(d)  G/n – 1

31. In the phenomenon of electromagnetic induction, the induced emf does NOT depend on

(a)  number of turns of the coil

(b)  time

(c)  resistance of the coil

(d)  change in flux

32. A square shaped coil of side 10 cm and number of turns 500 is placed perpendicular to magnetic flux lines, which is changing at the rate of 1TS1. The emf induced in the coil is

(a)  0.1 V

(b)  0.5 V

(c)  1 V

(d)  5 V

33. In an L-R circuit, the growth curve of current with time is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

34. A short linear object of length L lies on the axis of a spherical mirror of focal length f at a distance u from the mirror. Its image has an axial length equal to (u > > L)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

35. The refractive index of a prism material is cot A/2, where A is the angle of the prism. The minimum angle of deviation is

(a)  180° − A

(b)  90° − A

(c)  180° − 2A

(d)  A/2

36. When a small lamp is held 1.5 m above the surface of water in a tank, its image formed by reflection as the surface appears to coincide with image of the bottom of the tank (μ of water = 4/3). The depth of tank is

(a)  2m

(b)  1.5m

(c)  1m

(d)  4m

37. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm, is in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. The power of the combination is

(a)  −1.5 D

(b)  −6.5 D

(c)  +6.5 D

(d)  +6.67 D

38. A telescope is adjusted for parallel rays. The distance between the objective and the eyepiece is observed to be 20 cm. The magnifying power of the telescope is 9. The focal lengths of the lenses are

(a)  11 cm, 9 cm

(b)  9 cm, 11 cm

(c)  10 cm, 10 cm

(d)  18 cm, 2 cm

39. Two points are situated at the same distance from a source of light but in opposite side. The phase difference between the light waves at the two points will be

(a)  π/2

(b)  0

(c)  π

(d)  3π/2

40. The dual nature of light is exhibited by

(a)  diffraction and reflection

(b)  diffraction and photoelectric effect

(c)  only photoelectric effect

(d)  refraction and interference

41. A radio transmeter works at a frequency of 880 KHz and a power of 10 kW. The number of photons emitted per sec. are

(a)  1.72 × 1031

(b)  1.327 × 1034

(c)  13.27 × 1034

(d)  0.075 × 1034

42. If λ1 and λ2 denote the wavelengths of De Broglie waves for electrons in the first and 2nd Bohr orbits in hydrogen atom, then λ12 is equal to

(a)  2/1

(b)  1/2

(c)  1/4

(d)  4/1

43. The angular momentum of an electron in a hydrogen atom is proportional to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)  r2

44. Mosley’s Law for characteristic X-ray is

Which of the following statement is correct?

(a)  It is applicable to all those atoms to which Bohr’s theory is not applicable.

(b)  It is applicable to all energy levels of some atoms only.

(c)  It cannot be applied for higher values of n and n2.

(d)  it cannot be applied for higher values of z.

45. In a sample of radioactive material, what fraction of the initial number of active nulcei will remain undisintegrated after half of a half-life of the sample?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

46. Assuming that the silicon diode having resistance of 20 ohm, the current through the diode is (knee voltage 0.7 volt)

(a)  0 mA

(b)  10 mA

(c)  6.5 mA

(d)  13.5 mA

47. The current gain of a transistor is 0.95 the change in emitter current is 10 mA. The change in base current is

(a)  9.5 mA

(b)  0.5 mA

(c)  10.5 mA

(d)  (200/19) mA

48. The depletion layer in the p-n junction is caused by

(a)  drift of holes

(b)  drift of electrons

(c)  diffusion of carrier ions

(d)  migration of impurity ions.

49. The co-ordination number for a simple cubic crystal is

(a)  4

(b)  6

(c)  8

(d)  12

50. In the relation y = r sin(ωt – kx), the dimension of  is

(a)  M0L0T0

(b)  M0L1T−1

(c)  M0L0T1

(d)  M0L1T0

51. The least count of a stop watch is 1/5 sec. The time of 20 oscillations of a pendulum is measured to be 25 sec. The minimum percentage error in the measurement of time will be

(a)  0.1%

(b)  0.8%

(c)  8%

(d)  1.8%

52. A body initially at rest is moving with uniform acceleration ‘a’. Its velocity after n secs is v. The displacement of the body at last 2 sec is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

53. A body is projected at an angle 450 to the horizontal with kinetic energy ‘E’. The potential energy at the highest point of flight is

(a)  zero

(b)  E/4

(c)  E/2

(d)  3E/4

54. If  and  find the vector having the same magnitudes as  and parallel to .

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

55. A block of mass 6 kg is suspended through light spring balances A and B. Then readings of the two are

(a)  6 kg-f, zero kg-f

(b)  3 kg-f, 3 kg-f

(c)  zero kg-f, 4 kg-f

(d)  6 kg-f, 6 kg-f

56. A meter scale is standing vertically on the earth’s surface on one of its ends. It now falls on earth without slipping. Find the velocity with which the free end of the scale strikes the earth (9 = 9.8 ms2).

(a)  9.8 ms1

(b)  5.4 ms1

(c)  4.5 ms1

(d)  1 ms1

57. A uniform flexible chain of length 4 m is held on a smooth horizontal table so that 1 m overhangs one edge. The chain being perpendicular to the edge. If the chain be released from rest, the velocity with which it leaves the table will be

(a)  6.06 ms1

(b)  6 ms1

(c)  9.8 ms1

(d)  4.9 ms1

58. A particle is moving eastwards with a velocity of 5 ms1. In 10 sec the velocity changes to 5 ms1 north-wards. The average acceleration in this time is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

59. Angular momentum  vector and   The variation of log L and log p is given by

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

60. The radius of the earth is reduced by 1%, the escape velocity will (if mass of earth remains same)

(a)  increases by 0.5%

(b)  decreases by 1%

(c)  No change

(d)  Decreases by 5%

61. A thick rope of density ρ and length L is hung from a rigid support. The increase in length of the rope due to its own weight is

(Y is Young’s modulus)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

62. A lead sphere of mass m falls in aviscous liquid with a terminal velocity v0. Another lead sphere of mass 8 m through the same liquid will fall with terminal velocity

(a)  v0

(b)  4 v0

(c)  8 v0

(d)  64 v0

63. A body floats in a liquid contained in a beaker. The whole system falls freely under gravity. The upward thrust on the body due to the liquid then is

(a)  zero

(b)  equal to the liquid displaced

(c)  equal to the weight of the body in air

(d)  equal to the weight of the immersed portion in the liquid.

64. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with a frequency f. The frequency with which kinetic energy oscillates is

(a)  f

(b)  4f

(c)  2f

(d)  f/2

65. Two masses m1 and m2 are suspended together by a massless spring of constant k. When the masses are in equilibrium m1 is removed without disturbing the system. The amplitude of vibration is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

66. 56 tuning forks are arranged in a series that each fork gives 4 beats per second with previous one. The frequency of last fork is 3 times that of first. .Then frequency of first fork is

(a)  52 Hz

(b)  56 Hz

(c)  60 Hz

(d)  110 Hz

Chemistry

1. Which is INCORRECT information about phosphine?

(a)  PH3 is prepared on reaction between white P and NaOH solution

(b)  PH3 reacts with CuSO4 to form Cu3P2 as black ppt.

(c)  PH3 possesses smell of rotten fish

(d)  PH3 is soluble in base

2. When 20 gm of naphthoic acid (C11H8O2) is dissolved in 50 gm of benzene (Kf = 1.72 K Kg mol1), a freezing point depression of 2K is observed. The Van’t Hoff factor (i) is

(a)  1

(b)  0.5

(c)  2

(d)  3

3. The reagent(s) for the following conversion is/are

(a)  alcoholic KOH

(b)  alcoholic KOH followed by NaNH2

(c)  aqueous KOH followed by NaNH2

(d)  Zn/CH3OH

4. The percentage of free space in cube close packed structure in body centered packed structure are respectively

(a)  48 & 26

(b)  30 & 26

(c)  26 & 32

(d)  32 & 48

5. The Gibb’s energy for decomposition of Al2O3 at 500℃ is as follows

The potential difference needed for electrolytic reduction of Al2O3 at 500℃ is at least

(a)  2.5 V

(b)  5 V

(c)  3 V

(d)  4.5 V

6. The bond enthalpy of formation of NH3 is−46 KJ/mol. If enthalpy of formation of H2 from its atoms is – 436 KJ/mol and that of N2 is −712 KJ/mol, the average bond enthalpy of N-H bond in NH3 is

(a)  −1102 KJ/mol

(b)  −964 KJ/mol

(c)  964 KJ/mol

(d)  352 KJ/mol

7. Correct acidity order is

(a)  HClO2 > HClO > HClO3 > HClO4

(b)  HClO3 > HClO4 > HClO > HClO2

(c)  HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HClO

(d)  HClO > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4

8. Paracetamol is

(a)  antisepctic

(b)  antipyretic

(c)  analgesic

(d)  antibiotic

9. What is the product ?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

10. Van der Waals equation for gas for n-mole is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

11. The correct bond angle order is

(a)  NH3 > CCl4 > H2O > H2S

(b)  CCl4 > NH4 > H2O > H2S

(c)  H2S > CCl4 > H2O > NH3

(d)  H2O > H2S > CCl4 > NH3

12. Which can convert CH­3CHO to CH3COOC2H5?

(a)  NaOC2H5

(b)  NaNH2

(c)  Al(OC2H5)3

(d)  Al(C2H5)3

13. The reagents to prepare methyl tertiary butyl ether are

(a)  (CH3)3CONa & CH3I

(b)  CH3ONa & (CH3)3C-Cl

(c)  CH3CH2CH2CH2ONa & CH3I

(d)

14. Out of the following, the alkene that exhibits optical isomerism is

(a)  3-methyl-2-pentene

(b)  3-methyl-1-pentene

(c)  2-methyl-2-pentene

(d)  4-methyl-1-pentene

15. Consider the following bromides.

The correct order of SN1 reactivity is

(a)  A>B>C

(b)  C>B>A

(c)  B>C>A

(d)  B>A>C

16. Which compound is used to dry NH3 gas?

(a)  H2SO4

(b)  P2O5

(c)  Anhydrous CaCl2

(d)  CaO

17. Which of the following oxidation states as the most common among the lanthanides?

(a)  4

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  1

18. How many bridging oxygen atoms are present in P4O10?

(a)  6

(b)  5

(c)  10

(d)  4

19. Which metal is extracted b y self-reduction method?

(a)  Fe

(b)  Cu

(c)  Zn

(d)  Al

20. Gangue and flux combine to form

(a)  anodising

(b)  polling

(c)  bosh

(d)  slag

21. Manufacture of NH3 by Ostwald’s process involves the following successive steps.

(a)  (i) Oxidation of NH3 to NO in presence of platinum gauze catalyst

(ii) Reaction of produced NO with air gives NO2

(iii) Absorption NO2 gas by water

(b)  (i) Oxidation of NH3 to give N2O

(ii) Absorption of NO2 gas by water

(c)  (i) Oxidation of NO to N2O3

(ii) Absorption of N2O3 to produce HNO3

(d)  (i) Reaction of NH3 with SO2 to form NO2

(ii) Absorption of NO2 gas by water

22. Reaction of CH2O and CH3CHO in presence of NaOH solution gives

(a)  CH3COONa + CH2CH2OH

(b)  (CH3)2CH-COONa + C2H5OH

(c)  C(CH2OH) + HCOONa

(d)  HCOONa + C2H5OH

23. Correct relation between chemical (E) & electrochemical equivalent (Z) weight is

(a)  F ×Z × E = 0.00045

(b)  Z = E × 0.0000104

(c)  E = Z × 0.000104

(d)  1/F = Z × E × time

24. Colour of tarnished oil paintings can be recovered by

(a)  Cl2

(b)  H2O2

(c)  SO2

(d)  N2O

25. Which DOESNOT show tautomerism?

(a)

(b)  CH3CH2COCH3

(c)  CH3CHO

(d)

26. The compound that DOESNOT exhibit metamerism is

(a)

(b)  CH3OCH2CH2CH3

(c)  CH3CH2CH2NH2

(d)  CH3CH­2CH2CHO

27. The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(a)  6-bromo 3-hydroxybenzonitrile

(b)  2-bromo-5-hydroxybenzonitrile

(c)  4-bromo 3-cyano phenol

(d)  2-cyano 4-hydroxy bromobenzene

28. For a first order reaction A → P, the temperature (T) dependant rate constant (k) was found to follow the

The pre-exponential factor is

(a)  6 S1

(b)  2 × 106 S1

(c)  3 × 106 S1

(d)  1 × 106 S1

29. The correct acidity order of the following

(a)  I>IV>III>II

(b)  IV>I>III>II

(c)  II>I>III>IV

(d)  III>II>I>IV

30. Correct electron affinity order is

(a)  Cl2 > F­2 > Br2 > I

(b)  F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2

(c)  I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2

(d)  Br2 > Cl2 > I2 > F2

31. Base strength of I, II, III is

(a)  III > II > I

(b)  I > II > III

(c)  II > III > I

(d)  I > III > II

32. Equivalent conductance of NH4Cl, NaOH and NaCl at infinite dilution are E, F and G respectively. What is the value of NH4OH at infinite dilution?

(a)  E + G – F

(b)  G + F – E

(c)  2E + F – G

(d)  E + F – G

33. Reagent for Reimer Tiemann reaction is

(a)  CHCl3 + NaOH

(b)  CHCl3 + C6H6

(c)  C6H6, CCl4

(d)  CCl4 + NaCl

34. On the basis of the following E° values, the strongest oxidizing agent is

[Fe(CN)6]4 → [Fe(CN)6]3+e     E° = −0.3V

Fe+2 → Fe+3 + e                           E° = −0.77V

(a)  Fe+2

(b)  [Fe(CN)6]4

(c)  Fe+3

(d)  [Fe(CN)­6]3

35. The correct order of decreasing second ionization potential of Ti(22), V(23), Cr(24) & Mn(25) is

(a)  Mn > Cr > V > Ti

(b)  V > Ti > Cr > Mn

(c)  Cr > Mn > V > Ti

(d)  V > Ti > Mn > Cr

36. The relative reactivities of acyl compounds towards nucleophilic substitution are in the order of

(a)  acid chloride > amide > acid anhydride > ester

(b)  amide > acid chloride > acid anhydride > ester

(c)  ester > acid chloride > amide > acid anhydride

(d)  acid chloride > acid anhydride > ester > amide

37. Ionic conductance in aqueous solution follows the order :

(a)  Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+

(b)  Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+ > Li+

(c)  K+ > Na+ > Rb+ > Cs+ > Li+

(d)  Li+ > Cs+ > Rb+ > Na+ > K+

38. OCl2 possesses the shape

(a)  tetrahedral

(b)  Linear

(c)  Angular

(d)  Square planar

39. Which is TRUE for first order rate equation?

(a)  Half life period is directly proportional to initial concentration of reactants.

(b)  Half life period is independent of initial concentration of reactants.

(c)  Half life period is inversely proportional to initial concentration of reactants.

(d)  Half life period is proportional to the square of the initial concentration of reactants.

40. A compound is formed of two univalent atoms of elements M & A. The bond distance is 1 Å. If the observed dipole moment is 3.6 D, what is the % of ionic character ?

(a)  50

(b)  90

(c)  25

(d)  75

41. Which DOENOT produce haloform?

(a)  C6H5COCH3

(b)  CH3CHO

(c)  CH3CH2CHO

(d)  CH3CH(OH)CH2CH3

42. The product on reaction between propanamide, bromine & KOH solution are

(a)  K2CO3, KBr, C3H7Br, H2O

(b)  K2CO3, KBr, C2H5NH2, H2O

(c)  KBr, C3H7Br, H2O

(d)  C2H5NH2, KBr, ,H2O

43. Heating gypsum (CaSO4, 2H2O) at 120℃ gives

(a)  CaSO4

(b)  CaSO4, H2O

(c)  CaO, SO2

(d)  CaSO4, 1/2H2O

44. Henderson equation for a buffer having weak base & its salt is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

45. The products by the reaction between benzyl methyl ether with HI are

(a)  C6H5COOH & CH3I

(b)  Benzyl Iodide & CH3OH

(c)  C6H5CH3 & CH3I

(d)  Benzylalcohol & CH3I

46. The raw materials for nylon 6 : 6 are

(b)  1-amino hexane & adipic acid

(c)  terephthalic acid & adipic acid

(d)  vinyl chloride

47. Which of the following DOESNOT represent the mathematical expression for the Heisenberg uncertainty principle?

(a)  ∆X . ∆P ≥ h/4π

(b)  ∆X . ∆P ≥ h/4πm

(c)  ∆E . ∆X ≥ h/4π

(d)  ∆E . ∆t ≥ h/4π

48. Which of the following properties is exhibited by phenol?

(a)  It is soluble in aqueous NaOH & evolve CO2 in aqueous NaHCO3

(b)  It is not soluble in aqueous NaOH & evolve CO2 in aqueous NaHCO3

(c)  It is insoluble in aqueous NaOH & does not evolve CO2 aqueous NaHCO3

(d)  It is soluble in aqueous NaOH solution & does not evolve CO2 in aqueous NaHCO3

49. When H2O2 is shaken with an acidified solution of K2Cr2O7 in presence of ether, the ethereal layer turns blue due to the formation of

(a)  Cr2O3

(b)  CrO42

(c)  Cr2(SO4)3

(d)  CrO5

50. The paramagnetic behaviour of O2 is due to the presence of

(a)  two unpaired electron in πbMO

(b)  two unpaired electrons in σbMO

(c)  two unpaired electrons in π*MO

(d)  two unpaired electrons in σ*MO

51. The order of rate of nitration of A, B, C, D is

(a)  A > B > C> D

(b)  D > C > A > B

(c)  B > D > A > C

(d)  A > B > D > C

52. Choose the correct reagent to prepare DDT

(a)  Phthalic anhydride & phenol

(b)  Chlorobenzene, chloral & conc. H2SO4

(c)  Phthalic anhydride & chlorobenzene

(d)  Bromobenzene & chloral

53. Which reaction DOESNOT given chlorine?

(a)  KI & HCl

(b)  KMnO4 & HCl

(c)  K2Cr2O7 & HCl

(d)  MnO2 & HCl

54. In transforming 0.01 mole PbS to PbSO4, the volume of 10 volume H2O2 required will be

(a)  11.2 ml

(b)  22.4 ml

(c)  33.6 ml

(d)  44.8 ml

55. Which compound produces primary standard solution?

(a)  Na2CO3 . 10H2O

(b)  HCl

(c)  Na2CO3

(d)  NaOH

56. The ionic conductance of B+2 and Cl are 127 & 76 ohm1 cm2 What is the equivalent conductance?

(a)  203

(b)  279

(c)  139.5

(d)  101.5

57. Gold number of protective colloids A, B, C & D are 0.50, 0.01 0.10 & 0.005 respectively. Correct order of their protective power is

(a)  A > B > C > D

(b)  D > B > C > A

(c)  A > C > B > D

(d)  B > D > C > A

58. A plot of   versue-log p for the adsorption of a gas on a solid gives a straight line with a slope equal to

(a)  1/n

(b)  log K

(c)  −log K

(d)  n

59. 2/7 mole of solid A, is burnt completely in 5/2 mole O2 in a sealed tube. Cooling to room temperature,, pressure becomes 2/5th of the initial. Only gaseous compound L is formed. Formula of L is

(a)  A2O5

(b)  A3O4

(c)  A2O7

(d)  AO

60. Which reagent can produce ethylacetate from acetaldehyde in single step?

(a)  Pd-BaSO4

(b)  H2SO4

(c)  NaOH

(d)  Al(OC2O5)3

61. Which molecule does not show intramolecular hydrogen bonding?

(a)  KHF2

(b)  CuSO4.5H2O

(c)  m-nitrophenol

(d)  4-ethoxy- but-3-ene 4-0l-2-one

62. Which of the following two compounds have same colour?

(a)  FeCl2, VOCl2

(b)  CuCl­2, VOCl2

(c)  CuCl2, FeCl­2

(d)  MnCl2, VOCl2

63. Number of methylene groups in urotropine is

(a)  6

(b)  4

(c)  5

(d)  3

64. Boric acid in presence of glycerol behaves as

(a)  dibasic acid

(b)  monobasic acid

(c)  tribasic acid

(d)  tetrabasic acid

65. Violet complex obtained in the detection of sulphur is

(a)  Na2[Fe(NO)(CN)5]

(b)  Na3[Fe(ON SNa) (CN)5]

(c)  Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]

(d)  Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]

66. Products during passing of SO2 has through bromine water are

(a)  S + H2O

(b)  HBr

(c)  HBr + H2SO4

(d)  H2O + HBr

Mathematics

1. If the function f be defined by  then f1(x) is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

2. The position vector of a point A is   divides AB internally in the ratio 2 : 3, then the position vector of B is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

3.  is equal to

(a)  1

(b)  −1

(c)  0

(d)  The limit does not exit

4. The range of   is

(a)

(b)  [−1, 1]

(c)  [−3, 3]

(d)  None of these

5. If f(x) = sin2x and the composite function gof(x) = |sin x|, then the function g(x) is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

6. The coordinates of the vertex A of the triangle ABC are (2, 5). If the ccentroid of the triangle is at (−2, 1), then the coordinates of the midpoint of the side BC are

(a)  (4, 1)

(b)  (−4, 1)

(c)  (−1, −4)

(d)  (−4, −1)

7. If  then the value of f1(x) is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

8. Orthocentre of the triangle formed by the lines x + y = 1, x = 0 and y = 0 is

(a)  (0, 1)

(b)  (0, 0)

(c)  (1, 0)

(d)  (1, 1)

9. Distance between the parallel lines y = 2x + 7 and y = 2x + 5 is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

10. If  then the value of   is

(a)  1

(b)

(c)

(d)  0

11. The domain of definition of the function f(x) = log3+x(x2 – 1) is

(a)  (–3, –1) ∪ (1, ∞)

(b)  [–3, 1) ∪ (1, ∞)

(c)  (–3, –2) ∪ (–2, –1) ∪ (1, ∞)

(d)  [–3, –2) ∪ (–2, –1) ∪ (1, ∞)

12.

(a)  e

(b)  ex

(c)  ex

(d)  1

13. The ordinate of the circle passing through (0, 0) and (1, 0) and touching the circle x2 + y2 = 9

(a)  ±1

(b)  ±2

(c)  ±√2

(d)  ±√3

14. The centre of the circle is at (2, −3) and its circumference is 10π, then the equation if the circle is

(a)  x2 + y2 – 4x + 6y – 12 = 0

(b)  x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y + 12 = 0

(c)  x2 + y2 – 4x + 6y + 12 = 0

(d)  x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y − 12 = 0

15. If  then the value of f(2) is

(a)  1/6

(b)  1/3

(c)  −1/3

(d)  −1

16. The period of the function sin4x + cos4x is

(a)  π

(b)  2π

(c)  π/2

(d)  3π/2

17. Given f(0) = 0 and  for x ≠ 0

Then the function f(x) is

(a)  continuous at x = 0

(b)  not continuous at x = 0

(c)  both continuous and differentiable at x = 0

(d)  continuous but not differentiable at x = 0

18. The angle between the vectors   is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

19. Let A = {1, 2, 3} be a given set and a relation R on A be defined as follows.

R = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (1, 2), (2, 3), (2, 1), (3, 12)}

Then the relation R on A is

(a)  reflexive and transitive but not symmetric

(b)  reflexive and symmetric but not transitive

(c)  symmetric and transitive but not reflexive

(d)  an equivalence relation

20. If the vectors   are perpendicular to each other than λ = ?

(a)  −3

(b)  −6

(c)  −9

(d)  −1

21. Three vertices of a parallelogram ABCD are A(3, −1, 2), B(1, 2, −4) and C(−1, 1, 2).

The coordinates of D are

(a)  (2, −3, 5)

(b)  (−3, 4, 2)

(c)  (1, −2, 8)

(d)  (2, −1, −8)

22. The angle between the lines   and  is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

23. If A and B are events such that P(A) = 0.4, P(B) = 0.8 and P(B/A) = 0.6, then P(A/B) = ?

(a)  0.2

(b)  0.3

(c)  0.4

(d)  0.5

24. A couple has 2 children. What is the probability that both are girls, if its known that one of them is a girl.

(a)  1/3

(b)  2/3

(c)  3/4

(d)  5/8

25. Two numbers are selected at random from integers a through 9. If the sum is even, what is the probability that both numbers are odd.

(a)  1/6

(b)  2/3

(c)  4/9

(d)  5/8

26. If A and B are square matrices of the same order, then (A + B) (A – B) = ?

(a)  A2 – B2

(b)  A2 + AB – BA – B2

(c)  A2 – AB + BA – B2

(d)  None of these

27. The value of λ for which the matrix product  is an identity matrix.

(a)  1/2

(b)  1/3

(c)  1/4

(d)  1/5

28.

(a)  (a – b) (b – c) (c – a)

(b)  −(a – b) (b – c) (c – a)

(c)  (a + b) (b + c) (c + a)

(d)  None of these

29.

(a)  increasing in (0, 1)

(b)  decreasing in (0, 1)

(c)  increasing in (0, 1/2) & decreasing in (1/2, 1)

(d)  None of these

30.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

31.

(a)  (a + b + c)

(b)  (a + b+ c)2

(c)  (a + b + c)3

(d)  None of these

32. The general solution of the Differential Equation  is

(a)  sin1 x + sin1 y = c

(b)

(c)  tan1x + tan1 y = c

(d)  None of these

33. ∫ex(cot x + log sin x) dx = ?

(a)  ex cot x + c

(b)  ex log sin x + c

(c)  ex sin x + c

(d)  None of these

34. If ex+y = xy then,

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

35.

(a)  4

(b)  5

(c)  2

(d)  0

36. The equation of parabola whose focus is at (2, 2)) and the equation of the directrix is x + y = 0 is

(a)  x2 + y2 – 2xy + 8x + 8y + 16 = 0

(b)  x2 + y2 + 2xy – 8x – 8y + 16 = 0

(c)  x2 + y2 + 2xy + 8x + 8y =16

(d)  x2 + y2 – 2xy – 8x – 8y + 16 = 0

37.

(a)  0

(b)  π/2

(c)  π/4

(d)  None of these

38. The principal value of   is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

39.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

40. If S be the focus of the parabola y2 = 2x and PSP’ be a focal chord, then  is equal to

(a)  2

(b)  1/2

(c)  1

(d)  1/4

41. The value of  is equal to

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  π/2

(d)  None of these

42. The equation of directrix of the parabola y2 + 4y + 4x + 2 = 0 is

(a)  x = −1

(b)  x = 1

(c)  x = −3/2

(d)  x = 3/2

43. If t1 and t2 are parameters of the end points of a focal chord of a parabola y2 = 4ax then

(a)  t1 + t2 = 0

(b)  t1t2 = 1

(c)  t1 + t2 = −1

(d)  t1t2 = −1

44. If  when x ≠ 0

= 2              when x = 0

is continuous at x = 0, then the value of m is equal to

(a)  0

(b)  −1/2

(c)  ±1

(d)  ±2

45. If   and  then  is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

46. For all real x, the minimum value of  is

(a)  0

(b)  1/3

(c)  1

(d)  3

47. If ω is an imaginary cube root of unity then (1 + ω + ω2)7 equals

(a)  128ω

(b)  −128ω

(c)  128ω2

(d)  −128ω2

48. The number of different factors of 2160 is

(a)  29

(b)  39

(c)  49

(d)  None of these

49. (1 + xn) = C0 + C1x + C2x2 + C3x3 + …… + Cnxn then C0 – 2C1 + 3C2 – 4C­3 + …. +(−1)n1Cn =

(a)  2n – 1

(b)  (n – 1)2n+1

(c)  0

(d)  n2n+1

50. The sum of the series   is

(a)

(b)

(c)  1

(d)  None of these

51. Imaginary part of  is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

52. The value of log8[log15 16 × log2 15] is

(a)  2

(b)  1

(c)  2/3

(d)  3/2

53. If i2 = −1, then the value of  is

(a)  100

(b)  0

(c)  50

(d)  −50

54. If 43Cr – 6 = 433r + 1, then the value of r is

(a)  10

(b)  12

(c)  8

(d)  6

55. The sum of the integers from 1 to 100 that are divisible by 2 or 5 is

(a)  3000

(b)  3600

(c)  3250

(d)  3050

56. The number of ways in which 5 boys and 3 girls can be seated in a row so that each girl is between two boys is

(a)  2800

(b)  1880

(c)  2880

(d)  14400

57. If α and β are the roots of the equation x2 + αx + β = 0 then

(a)  α = 1, β = −2

(b)  α = 0, β = 1

(c)  α = −2, β = 0

(d)  α = −2, β = 1

58. If the sum of first n terms of an A.P. series is n2 + 2n, then the term of the series having value 201 is

(a)  99th term

(b)  100th term

(c)  101st term

(d)  102nd term

59. The number of diagonals of a polygon of n sides is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

60. If logp x = a and logx q = b, then the value of logp x is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

61. If  then the value of x is

(a)  0.1

(b)  1/3

(c)  1/5

(d)  None of these

62. The value of cos[tan1 (tan 2)] is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

63. If  then

(a)  2 cos 3θ

(b)  3 cos 3θ

(c)  2 cos 2θ

(d)  3 cos 2θ

64. In any triangle ABC, if a, b, c are in A.P. then   are in

(a)  A.P.

(b)  G.P.

(c)  H.P.

(d)  None of these

65. If A + B + C = π, then the value of  is

(a)  0

(b)  −1

(c)  1

(d)  2

66. The minimum value of 4tan2θ + 9cot2θ =

(a)  9

(b)  16

(c)  6

(d)  12

67. The set of values of x for which tan 3x – tan 2x = 1 + tan 3x . tan 2x is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Biology

1. 90% of the photosynthesis in the world is carried out by

(a)  Angiosperms

(b)  Monocots

(c)  Gymnosperms

(d)  Algae

2. One turn of Kreb’s cycle generates

(c)  two molecule of citric acid

(d)  one molecule of O2

3. How many ATP are produced from one molecule of FADH2 in ETS?

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

4. Which of the following have double fertilization?

(a)  Algae

(b)  Bryophytes

(c)  Pteridophytes

(d)  Angiosperm

5. Stomatal opening is regulated by

(a)  light

(b)  temperature

(c)  atmospheric humidity

(d)  wind

6. Hydathodes are also called

(a)  water stomata

(b)  sunken stomata

(c)  guard cells

(d)  subsidiary cells

7. Is land plants, the guard cells differ from other epidermal cells in having

(a)  mitochondria

(b)  E.R.

(c)  chloroplasts

(d)  cytoskeleton

8. If water enters in a cell, the pressure exerted by its swollen protoplast is

(a)  torgor pressure

(b)  DPD

(c)  osmotic pressure

(d)  imbibition

9. In a fully turgid cell

(a)  TP = 0

(b)  WP = 0

(c)  DPD = 0

(d)  OP = 0

10. What is the net ATP molecule gain, when 4 molecules of glucose undergo anaerobic respiration in plants?

(a)  8 ATP

(b)  20 ATP

(c)  144 ATP

(d)  16 ATP

11. The maximum growth rate occurs in

(a)  stationary phase

(b)  senescent phase

(c)  lag phase

(d)  exponential phase

12. Which pigment involves in photoperiodic change in plants

(a)  Phytochrome

(b)  Cytochrome

(c)  Chlorophyll

(d)  Anthrocyanin

13. Which of the following induces flowering in long day plants?

(a)  Gibberellins

(b)  Cytokinin

(c)  Auxins

(d)  Ethylene

14. Which type of pollen grains are found in insect pollinated flowers?

(a)  Hygroscopic

(b)  Light and sticky

(c)  Light and rough

(d)  Heavy and coloured

15. Male gametes in angiosperms formed by the division of

(a)  microspore

(b)  generative cell

(c)  vegetative cell

(d)  microspore mother cell

16. Which one of the following pairs of food components in humans reaches the stomach totally undigested?

(a)  Protein and starch

(b)  Starch and fat

(c)  Fat and cellulose

(d)  Starch and cellulose

17. Cholesterol is synthesized from

(a)  malate

(b)  oxalate

(c)  acetyl Co-A

(d)  α-Ketoglutaric acid

18. Lipids are insoluble in water, because lipid molecules are

(a)  neutral

(b)  zwitterions

(c)  hydrophobic

(d)  hydrophilic

19. Which of the following is NOT an amino acid?

(a)  Glycine

(b)  Lysine

(c)  Uracil

(d)  Tryptophan

20. Ligament connects

(a)  bone to bone

(b)  bone to muscle

(c)  muscle to muscle

(d)  Both (B) and (C)

21. Choroid plexus is a network of

(a)  nerves

(b)  capillaries

(c)  muscle fibres

(d)  lymph vessels

22. Oxyhaemoglobin carries how many molecules of oxygen?

(a)  1-4

(b)  5-8

(c)  9-12

(d)  13-16

23. Hamburger’s phenomenon is also called

(a)  sodium shift

(b)  chloride shift

(c)  hydrogen shift

(d)  bicarbonate shift

24. Tachycardia is

(a)  fast heart rate

(b)  slow heart rate

(c)  slow heart rate

(d)  normal heart rate

25. Ultrafiltration occurs through

(a)  capsular wall

(b)  basement membrane

(c)  interpodocytic space

(d)  glomerular membrane

26. Secretion of androgens by testis is regulated by

(a)  LTH

(b)  FSH

(c)  ICSH

(d)  Oxytocin

27. Which blood group has NO antibody?

(a)  O

(b)  A

(c)  B

(d)  AB

28. During expiration the diaphragm becomes

(a)  oblique

(b)  normal

(c)  flattened

(d)  dome-shaped

29. Which is the correct sequence of the air passage in man?

(a)  Nosal cavity → Parynx → Pharynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli

(b)  Nosal cavity → Pharynx → Trachea → Parynx → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli

(c)  Nosal cavity → Pharynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Parynx → Bronchioles → Alveoli

(d)  Nosal cavity → Pharynx → Parynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli

30. Our most abundant antibody is

(a)  IgA

(b)  IgG

(c)  IgM

(d)  None of these

31. Tissue fluid is produced from

(a)  plasma

(b)  lymph

(c)  cell sap

(d)  heart beat stops

32. When vagus nerve is cut,

(a)  heart beat reduces

(b)  heart contraction increases

(c)  heart beat increases

(d)  heart beat stops

33. Interferon is one type of

(a)  glycolipid

(b)  glycoside

(c)  phospholipid

(d)  glycoprotein

34. Respiration is controlled by which part of the brain?

(a)  Cerebrum

(b)  Cerebellum

(c)  Pons

(d)  Medulla oblongata

35. The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is

(a)  Z-band

(b)  Myofibril

(c)  Sarcomere

(d)  Cross bridges

36. The main product of ornithin cycle is

(a)  urea

(b)  NH3

(c)  uric acid

(d)  CO2

37. Which hormone possesses anti-insulin effect

(a)  Cortisol

(b)  Calcitonin

(c)  Oxytocin

(d)  Aldosteron

38. The ketone bodies of our blood are

(a)  pyruvic acid, acetone, β hydroxyl buturic acid

(b)  acetone, Acetoacetic acid, β hydroxyl buturic acid

(c)  pyruvic acid, acetoacetic acid, acetic acid

(d)  acetic acid, acetone, pyruvic acid

39. Which nervous system constitute total spinal nerve ?

(a)  Sympathetic

(b)  Parasympathetic

(c)  P.N.S.

(d)  All of these

40. The main cause of Rigor Mortis is

(a)  lack of Ca++ in  muscles

(b)  change of pH in muscles

(c)  lack of ATP

(d)  lack of nerve impulses

41. The term ecological pyramid was proposed by

(a)  Odum

(b)  Elton

(c)  Tansley

(d)  Haeckel

42. In tissue culture, which of the following shows totipotency?

(a)  Collenchyma

(b)  Sive tube

(c)  Merstem

(d)  Xylem vessels

43. The natural parthenogenesis is found in

(a)  Shark

(b)  Cockroach

(c)  House fly

(d)  Honey bee

44. Which one contains four pyrimidine bases?

(a)  GATCAATGC

(b)  UAGCGGUAA

(c)  GCUAGACAA

(d)  TGCCTAACG

45. A segment of DNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases; the total number of nucleotides present in the segment is

(a)  120

(b)  240

(c)  60

(d)  480

46. It double helix, one nucleotide is at an angle with the neighbouring nucleotide. The angle is

(a)  60°

(b)  90°

(c)  45°

(d)  36°

(a)  chloroplast

(b)  mitochondria

(c)  nucleolus

(d)  golgi complex

48. Which one is dinucleotide?

(c)  RNA

(d)  DNA

49. A prokaryotic cell lacks

(a)  cell wall

(b)  ribosomes

(c)  DNA

(d)  histone and nucleolus

50. The number of pairs of hydrogen bonds in DNA molecules of 150 base pairs having 60 A-T pairs would be

(a)  300

(b)  150

(c)  390

(d)  490

51. If two pairs of chromosomes can recombine in four possible ways, then five pairs of chromosome would combine in

(a)  32 ways

(b)  16 ways

(c)  10 ways

(d)  8 ways

52. Whittaker’s five kingdom classification is based on

(a)  life style

(b)  Source of nutrition

(c)  complexity of body organization

(d)  All of these

53. Roots are absent in

(a)  Wolffia

(b)  Podostemon

(c)  Pistia

(d)  Lemna

54. A fibrous root system is excellent for

(a)  food storage

(b)  nitrogen fixation

(c)  absorbing water from deeper layer of soil

(d)  providing good anchorage for the plant

55. Which of the following plant parts can respire even in absence of oxygen?

(a)  Seeds

(b)  Roots

(c)  Stems

(d)  Leaves

56. A horizontal underground stem is a

(a)  corn

(c)  rhizome

(d)  rhizoid

57. Stem is modified into cladode in

(a)  Casuarina

(b)  Asparagus

(c)  Opuntia

(d)  Euphorbia

58. Modification of petiole into leaf-like structure is called

(c)  phyllode

(d)  pistillode

59. The reticulate venation is commonly found in the leaves of

(a)  monocot plant

(b)  dicot plant

(c)  bryophytes

(d)  thallophytes

60. In china rose, the inflorescence is

(a)  cymose

(b)  capitulum

(c)  racemose

(d)  solitary axillary

61. When light strikes a chlorophyll molecule in pigment system-II, how many chlorophyll electron move to a higher energy state?

(a)  One

(b)  Two

(c)  Four

(d)  Six

62. The first step in photosynthesis is

(a)  ionization of water

(b)  formation of ATP

(c)  attachment of CO2 to a 5℃ sugar

(d)  excitement of an electron of chlorophyll by a photon of light

63. During photosynthesis when PGA is changed into phos-phoglyceraldehyde, which of the following reactions occurs?

(a)  Oxidation

(b)  Reduction

(c)  Hydrolysis

(d)  Electrolysis

64. Kranz type of anatomy is found in the leaves of

(a)  C3 plants

(b)  C4 plants

(c)  Both C3 and C4 plants

(d)  None of these

65. Which one of the following is represented by Calvin cycle?

(a)  Oxidative carboxylation

(b)  Oxidative phosphorylation

(c)  Reductive carboxylation

(d)  Photophosphorylation

66. The organelle associated with photorespiration is

(a)  mesosome

(b)  lysosome

(c)  ribosome

(d)  peroxisome

67. Algae often float on the surface of water during the day but sink during night due to

(a)  release of absorbed air by warming of water

(b)  warming action of the Sun during the day

(c)  evolution and trapping of O2 during the day in their photosynthesis

(d)  None of these

68. Endosperm cell and angiosperm has 24 chromosomes. The number of chromosomes in the gametes would be

(a)  8

(b)  16

(c)  24

(d)  48