# OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2014 With Answer Key Mobile View

Physics

1. If C is the capacity and V is the potential across the condenser, then the dimensional representation of  will be

(a)  [ML2T2A2]

(b)  [ML2T2]

(c)  [ML2T3A2]

(d)  [ML2T2]

2. The vernier of a circular scale is divided into 30 divisions which coincide against 29 main scale divisions. Each main scale division is  The least count of the instrument is

(a)  30ʹ

(b)  10ʹ

(c)  1ʹ

(d)  0.1ʹ

3. The efficiency of a Carnot engine operating with reservoir temperature of 100℃ and −23℃ will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

4. The energy of the ground electronic state of hydrogen atom is −6 eV. The energy of the first excited state will be

(a)  −3.4 eV

(b)  −6.8 eV

(c)  −27.2 eV

(d)  −52.4 eV

5. The kinetic energy o f an electron, which is accelerated in the potential difference of 100 volts is

(a)  1.602 × 1017 J

(b)  1.6 × 104 J

(c)  416.6 Cal

(d)  6.636 Cal

6. The ball whose kinetic energy is E, is thrown at an angle of 450 with horizontal. The kinetic energy at the highest point of its flight will be

(a)  E

(b)  E/2

(c)

(d)  0

7. A ball is thrown up vertically with velocity v0; it reaches a  maximum height h. If one wishes to triple the maximum height of the ball should be thrown with a velocity of

(a)  3v0

(b)  9 v0

(c)  √3v0

(d)  3/2

8. If   denote the sides of a parallelogram whose area is  The angle between  is

(a)  60°

(b)  45°

(c)  30°

(d)  37°

9. A particle is moving towards east with a velocity of 5 ms1. In 10 seconds the velocity changes to 5 ms1 The average acceleration in this time is

(a)

(b)  0

(c)

(d)

10. A force of 200 N is required to push a car of 500 kg slowly at a constant speed on level road. If the applied force is 600 N, the acceleration of the car is

(a)  0.2 ms2

(b)  0.8 ms2

(c)  1 ms2

(d)  0

11. If two bulbs, whose resistances are in the ratio of 1:2 are connected in series, the power dissipated in them was the ratio of

(a)  1 : 1

(b)  1 : 2

(c)  2 : 1

(d)  1 : 4

12. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?

(a)  The current in photocell increases with increasing frequency

(b)  The photo current is proportional to the applied volt age

(c)  The photo current increases with intensity of light

(d)  The stopping potential increases with increase of incident light.

13. Due to earth’s magnetic field, the charged cosmic-ray particles

(a)  require greater kinetic energy to reach the equator than the pole

(b)  require less kinetic energy to each the equator than the pole

(c)  can never reach the pole

(d)  can never reach the equator.

14. The diode used in the circuit shown in the figure has a constant voltage drop at 0.5 at all currents and a maximum power rating of 100 miliwatts. What should be the value of the resistor R, connected in series and with diode and obtaining maximum current?

(a)  5 ohm

(b)  5.6 ohm

(c)  6.76 ohm

(d)  20 ohm

15. The primary winding of a transformer has 500 turns whereas its secondary has 5000 turns. The primary is connected to an A.C. supply 20 V, 50 Hz. The secondary will have an output of

(a)  200 V, 50 Hz

(b)  200 V, 500 Hz

(c)  2V, 50 Hz

(d)  2V, 5 Hz

16. A body moves a distance of 10 m along a straight line under the action of a 5N force. If the work done is 25 J, then the angle between the force and the direction of motion of the body is

(a)  30°

(b)  45°

(c)  60°

(d)  75°

17. An air column in a pipe which is closed at one end will be in resonance with a vibrating tuning fork of frequency 26 Hz. The length of the air column is

(a)  21.25 cm

(b)  62.50 cm

(c)  93.75 cm

(d)  None of these

18. A mass sliding down an inclined plane and reaches the bottom with velocity v. If the same mass is in the form of a disc and rolls down the same inclined plane, what is its velocity at the bottom?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

19. When kinetic energy of the body is increased by 300% the momentum of the body is increased by

(a)  200%

(b)  100%

(c)  50%

(d)  150%

20. A wire of mass M and length l is bent in the form of a circular ring. The moment of inertia about its axis is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

21. Two masses m1 and m2 are initially at rest at infinite distance. They approach each other due to gravitational attraction. What is the speed of approach at a distance r between them? (G = Gravitational constant).

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

22. In an orbital motion, the angular momentum vector is

(b)  Perpendicular to orbital plane

(c)  Parallel to linear momentum

(d)  in the orbital plane

23. A thick rope of density ρ and length L is hung from a rigid support. The increase in length of the rope due to its own weight is (Y = the Young’s modulus)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

24. 8 equal rain drops are falling through air with a steady velocity of 10 cm/s. If the drops coalesce, the new terminal velocity will be

(a)  20 cm/s

(b)  30 cm/s

(c)  40 cm/s

(d)  60 cm/s

25. A real gas behaves like an ideal gas if its

(a)  pressure and temperature are both high

(b)  pressure and temperature are both low

(c)  pressure is high and temperature is low

(d)  pressure is low and temperature is high

26. For a certain gas the ratio of specific heat is 1.5. For this gas

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

27. Work done against friction is

(b)  isothermal process

(c)  an irreversible process

(d)  None of these

28. At 0 K a body emits

(b)  electromagnetic radiation of single wavelength

(c)  electromagnetic radiation of all wavelengths that are emitted by it at room temperature

(d)  electromagnetic radiation of fewer wavelengths than that are emitted by it at room temperature

29. Two stars P and Q observed at night; star P appears reddish white, star Q is white. From this, we conclude

(a)  temperature of Q is higher than that of P

(b)  temperature of Q is lower than that of P

(c)  star Q is at the same distance as that of star P

(d)  star P is further away than star Q

30. In a cyclic process the change in internal energy of a system is

(a)  minimum but not zero

(b)  zero

(c)  maximum but not infinite

(d)  infinite

31. A simple pendulum executing SHM has a period T and amplitude A. Its peed, when at a distance A/4 is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

32. A particle of mass m is the attached to three identical springs A, B and C each of force constant K as shown in figure. If the particle of mass m is pushed slightly against the spring A and released then the time period of oscillations is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

33. A transverse wave is described by the equation  The maximum particle velocity is equal to 4 times the wave velocity if

(a)

(b)

(c)  λ = πy0

(d)  λ = 2πy0

34. Ultrasonics are used for stirring liquid solutions in order to produce

(a)  soundless stirring

(b)  perfectly homogenous solution

(c)  chemical reactions in them

(d)  None of these

35. If the intensity of sound is doubled, the sound level will increase by nearly

(a)  2 dB

(b)  3 dB

(c)  4 dB

(d)  a factor of 2

36. Two equal electric currents are flowing perpendicular to each other as shown in the figure. AB and CD are perpendicular to each other and symmetrically placed with respect to the currents. Where do we expect the resultant magnetic field to be zero?

(a)  On AB

(b)  On CD

(c)  On both AB and CD

(d)  On both OD and BO

37. A body dropped from a height h with initial velocity zero, strikes the ground with a velocity 3 m/s. Another body of same mass dropped from the same height h with an initial velocity of 4 m/s. Find the final velocity of second mass, with which it strikes the ground.

(a)  3 m/s

(b)  4 m/s

(c)  5 m/s

(d)  12 m/s

38. A diatomic gas initially at 18℃ is compressed adiabatically to one-eighth of its original volume. The temperature after compression will be

(a)  18℃

(b)  887.4℃

(c)  395.4℃

(d)  144℃

39. A beaker full of the water is kept in a room. If it cools from 80℃ to 75℃ in t1 minutes, from 75℃ to 70℃ in t2 minutes and from 70℃ to 65℃ in t3 minutes, then

(a)  t1 = t2 =t3

(b)  t1 < t2 = t3

(c)  t1 < t2 < t3

(d)  t1 > t2 > t3

40. A lens is placed between a source of light and a wall. It forms images of area A1 and A2 on the wall for its two different positions. The area o f the source of light is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

41. A hospital uses an ultrasonic scanner to locate tumours in a tissue. The operating frequency of the scanner is 4.2 MHz. The speed of sound in a tissue is 1.7 km/s. The wavelength of sound in the tissue is close to

(a)  4 × 104 m

(b)  8 × 104 m

(c)  4 × 103 m

(d)  8× 103 m

42. The figure represents the observed intensity of X-rays emitted by an X-ray tube as a function of wavelength. The sharp peaks A and B denote

(a)  band spectrum

(b)  continuous spectrum

43. After the emission of one α-particle followed by one β-particle from the atom of 92X238, the number of neutrons in the atom will be

(a)  148

(b)  146

(c)  144

(d)  143

44. The acceleration of a particle is increasing linearly with time t as b.t. The p article starts from the origin with an initial velocity v0. The distance travelled by the particle in time t will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

45. The ABC is a triangular plate of uniform thickness. The sides are in the ratio shown in the figure. IAB, IBC and ICA are the moments of inertia of the plate about AB, BC and CA respectively. Which one of the following relations is CORRECT?

(a)  IAB > IBC

(b)  IBC > IAB

(c)  IAB + IBC = ICA

(d)  ICA is minimum

46. An oscillator is nothing but an amplifier with

(a)  voltage gain

(b)  no feedback

(c)  positive feedback

(d)  negative feedback

47. An an A.C. circuit, the current flowing is i = 5 sin(100t – π/2) amp and the potential difference is V = 200 sin 100t volt. The power consumption is equal to

(a)  1000 W

(b)  40 W

(c)  20 W

(d)  0 W

48. Colours appear on a thin soap film and on soap bubbles due to the phenomenon of

(a)  refraction

(b)  dispersion

(c)  interference

(d)  diffraction

49. The photoelectric work function for a metal surface is 4.125 eV. The cut-off wavelength for this surface is

(a)  4125 Å

(b)  2062.5 Å

(c)  3000 Å

(d)  6000 Å

50. A uniform field having a magnitude E0 exists along positive X-axis. If the potential V = 0 at x = 0, then its value at x = +x will be

(a)  xE0

(b)  −xE0

(c)  x2E0

(d)  −x2E0

51. Eight dipoles of charges of magnitude e are placed inside a cube. The total electric flux coming out of cube is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

52. A capacitor C1 is charged by a potential difference V0 as shown in the figure. This charging battery removed and the capacitor is connected as into an uncharged capacitor C2. The final potential difference V across the combination

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

53. n identical cells are joined in series with two cells A and B with reversed polarities. EMF of each cell is E and internal resistance is r. Potential difference across cell A or B is (n > 4)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

54. If the radius of a copper wire carrying a current is doubled, the drift velocity of the electrons will

(a)  increase four times

(b)  decrease four times

(c)  remain same

(d)  increase first and then decrease

55. In the figure shown, the reading of an ideal voltmeter V is zero. Then the relation between R and r1 and r2 is

(a)  R = r2 – r1

(b)  R = r1 – r2

(c)  R = r1 + r2

(d)

56. If J is the current density then the power transferred per unit volume in joules in a resistor of resistivity ρ is

(a)

(b)  J2ρ

(c)  ρJ

(d)  ρ2J2

57. A moving charge would produce

(a)  electric field only

(b)  magnetic field only

(c)  both electric and magnetic field

(d)  no field

58. Two electrons move parallel to each other with speed v; the a ratio of magnetic and electric force between them is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

59. If a long copper pipe carries a direct current, the magnetic field associated with current will be

(a)  only outside the pipe

(b)  only inside the pipe

(c)  neither inside nor outside

(d)  both inside and outside

60. A magnetic field is measured by

(a)  Avometer

(b)  Pyrometer

(c)  Fluxmeter

(d)  Thermopile

61. The magnetic field of earth is due to

(a)  motion and distribution of some material in and outside the earth

(b)  induction effect of the sun

(c)  interaction of cosmic rays with the current the earth

(d)  a magnetic dipole buried at the centre of the earth

62. If the magnetic flux linked with a coil through which a current of x amp is flowing, is y weber, then the coefficient of self inductance of coil is

(a)  (x – y) Henry

(b)

(c)

(d)  xy Henry

63. When X-rays are scattered by electrons their wavelength increases. This phenomenon is called

(a)  Compton effect

(b)  Thomson effect

(c)  Hall effect

(d)  None of these

64. The de-Broglie wavelength of electron of energy 600 eV is

(a)  4Å

(b)  2 Å

(c)  1 Å

(d)  0.5 Å

65. A certain element disintegrates for an interval of time equal to its mean life. The fraction of the original amount that remains undecayed is

(a)  1/e

(b)  e

(c)  e2

(d)  1/e2

66. The velocity of an electron in the first orbitor H-atom is v. The velocity of an electron in the 2nd orbit of He+ is

(a)  2v

(b)  v

(c)  v/2

(d)  v/4

Chemistry

1. Which of the following has the smallest radius ? N3+, N0, N3

(a)  N0

(b)  N3

(c)  N3+

(d)  All

2. A neutral compound whose molecular formula C7H8O, is found to the reaction of Phenol with CH2N2 and ether. What is the compound?

(a)  m-Cresol

(b)  p-Cresol

(c)  Anisole

(d)  o-Cresol

3. Which of the following compounds is nonpolar?

(a)  CCl4

(b)  CHCl3

(c)  CH3Cl

(d)  CH3OCH3

4. ∆H° values for complete combustion of C(s), H2(g) and CH4(g) are −96, −71, and −218 Kcal per mole respectively. The ∆H° value for the reaction

(s) + 2H2(g) → CH4(g) is

(a)  −17 Kcal

(b)  −81 Kcal

(c)  −20 Kcal

(d)  −34 Kcal

5. In the periodic table which one of the following trends is NOT correct across a period?

(a)  Metallic to non-metallic

(b)  Oxidising to reducing

(c)  Reducing to oxidising

(d)  Base to acid forming

6. A saturated Hydrocarbon of molecular weight 72 gives only one monochloro substitution product. Identify this product.

(a)  Methyl cyclopentene

(b)  2, 2 Dimethylpropane

(c)  2, 3 Dimethyl-2-pentene

(d)  2 Methyl-2-butene

7. The normality of 5 volumes of H2O2 is

(a)  2.78

(b)  5.80

(c)  6.80

(d)  1.78

8. The Vander Wall’s equation explains the behaviour of

(a)  ideal gas

(b)  vapours

(c)  non-real gases

(d)  real gases

9. An optically active alkene with molecular formula C6H12 which upon hydrogenation gives optically inactive alkane is

(a)  2-hexene

(b)  3-methyl-2-pentene

(c)  2-methyl-2-pentene

(d)  3-methyl-1-pentene

10. A pink coloured residue obtained in Cobalt Nitrate Charcoal cavity test is due to

(a)  Mg2+

(b)  Sn2+

(c)  Al3+

(d)  Zn2+

11. If two molecules of A and B having mass 121 Kg and 81 Kg and rate of diffusion of A is 16 × 103, then what will be the rate of diffusion of B?

(a)  20.75 × 103

(b)  20.75 × 104

(c)  19.75 × 103

(d)  20.75× 104

12. Which of the following hydrogen bonds is the strongest?

(a)  O − H —————- F

(b)  O − H ———H

(c)  F − H ———-F

(d)  O − H———O

13. When a pair of one cation and one anion are missing from an ionic crystal lattice, this defect is known as

(a)  Schottky defect

(b)  Frenkel defect

(c)  Substitutional effect

(d)  Interstitial defect

14. What happens when Benzoic acid is treated with concentrated Nitric acid in the presence of concentrated Sulphuric acid?

(a)  p-Nitro benzoic acid

(b)  m-Nitro benzoic acid

(c)  o-Nitro benzoic acid

(d)  None of these

15. Some standard electrode (or reduction) potential in acidic solutions are as follows.

Cu2+/Cu = 0.34 V ; Ag+/Ag = 0.80 V

Will copper (s) reduce Ag+ ion in aqueous solution?

(a)  Yes

(b)  No

(c)  Insufficient data

(d)  Cannot be said

16. Calculate the number of α and β particles which are emitted in the conversion of Thorium (Th232) to Lead (82Pb208)

(a)  4α and 2β

(b)  5α and 4β

(c)  5α and 3β

(d)  6α and 4β

17. Which of the following compound is NOT Chiral?

(a)  DCH2CH2CH­2Cl

(b)  CH3CH­2CHDCl

(c)  CH3CHDCH­2Cl

(d)  CH3CHClCH2D

18. At constant T and P, which one of the following statements is CORRECT for the reaction,

(a)  ∆H is independent of the physical state of the reactants of that compound

(b)  ∆H > ∆E

(c)  ∆H < ∆E

(d)  ∆H = ∆E

19. A salt solution is acidified with dil. HCl and BaCl2 solution is added. A white ppt. is formed. The salt contains which radical?

(a)  Br

(b)  SO42

(c)  S2

(d)  I

20. Which of the following is the buffer solution of strong acid structure?

(a)  HCOOH + HCOO

(b)  CH2COOH + CH3COO

(c)  H2C2O4 + C2O42

(d)  H3BOO3 + BO33

21. 4 g calcium is dissolved in HCl acid at 27℃ in an open vessel at the atmosphere pressure 0.821 atm. The work done is

(a)  −24.94 J

(b)  0.08211 J

(c)  −2.463 J

(d)  0

22. Which of the following Basic radical gives positive test on Borax Bead?

(a)  Ca2+

(b)  NH4+

(c)  Na+

(d)  Cu2+

23. Aldehydes and Ketones form hydrocarbons by

(a)  Rosenmund’s reduction

(b)  Clemmenson reduction

(c)  Cannizzaro’ reduction

(d)  Stephen’s reduction

24. If the wavelength of photon is 4.4 × 1014 m, h = 13.2 × 1034 Js, then momentum of photon is

(a)  3 × 1020 Kgms1

(b)  3× 1020 Kgms1

(c)  0.33 × 1020 Kgms1

(d)  0.33 × 1020 Kgms1

25. 30 ml of a solution of Barium Hydroxide on titration with a 0.2 molar solution of HCl acid gave a liter value of 40 ml. The molarity of Barium Hydroxide solution was

(a)  0.23

(b)  0.32

(c)  0.26

(d)  0.11

26. Which of the following gives a tertiary alcohol when treated with Grignard reagents?

(a)  HCHO

(b)  CH3CHO

(c)  CH3CH2OH

(d)  CH3COCH3

27. 1 ppm is equal to

(a)  1 mg/Lit

(b)  106 mg/Lit

(c)  1 gm/Lit

(d)  106 gm/Lit

28. The conjugate base of H3PO4 is

(a)  PO­43

(b)  P2O5

(c)  H3PO4

(d)  HPO42

29. The number of d-electrons retained in Fe2+ ion is

(a)  4

(b)  5

(c)  6

(d)  None of these

30. The effect of temperature on reaction ratio is given by

(a)  Clausius Clapeyron equation

(b)  Arrhenius reaction

(c)  Gibb’s Helmholtz reaction

(d)  Kirchoff’s equation

31. Diazo-coupling is useful to prepare some

(a)  pesticides

(b)  dyes

(c)  proteins

(d)  vitamins

32. In the flame test on which does radical produce brick red colour flame?

(a)  Mg2+

(b)  K+

(c)  Na+

(d)  Ca2+

33. The stability of the dispersed phase in a lyphobic colloids is due to

(a)  the formation of electrical layer between two phases

(b)  high viscosity of the medium

(c)  high surface tension of solution

(d)  None of these

34. Why in the titration of Mohr’s salt solution with standard K2Cr2O7 solution, dil. H2SO4 is added?

(a)  K2­Cr2O7 acts as reducing agent in acidic medium

(b)  K2Cr2O7 acts as an oxidizing agent in acidic medium

(c)  K2Cr2O7 acts as a reducing agent in acidic medium as well as oxidizing agent in acidic medium

(d)  None of these

35. Of the following outer electronic configuration of atoms, the highest oxidation state is achieved by which one of these?

(a)  (n – 1)d5ns2

(b)  (n – 1)d8ns2

(c)  (n – 1)d5ns1

(d)  (n – 1)d3ns2

36. Which one of the following is NOT correct to prepare Diborane?

(a)  NaBH4 + I2

(b)  BCl3 + H2

(c)  BCl3 + LiH3

(d)  BCl3 + NaH

37. A heat engine absorbs heat Q1 at temperature T1 and heat Q2 at temperature T2. Work done by the engine is J(Q1 – Q2). This data

(a)  violates 1st Law of thermodynamics

(b)  violates 1st Law of thermodynamics if Q1 is negative

(c)  violates 1st Law of thermodynamics if Q2 is negative

(d)  does not violate 1st Law of thermodynamics

38. The bond, present in CuSO4, 5H2O is

(a)  Ionic, Covalent and Co-ordinate

(b)  Ionic & Covalent

(c)  Covalent and Co-ordinate

(d)  Ionic and Co-ordinate

39. For reaction H2(g) + Br2(g) = 2BHr(g) the reaction rate = k[H2][Br2]1/2. Which of the following statements is T RUE in this reaction?

(a)  The reaction is of second order

(b)  The unit of k is sec1

(c)  Molecularity of the reaction is 3/2

(d)  Molecularity of the reaction is 2

40. n-propyl magnesium bromide on treatment with carbon dioxide and further hydrolysis gives which compound?

(a)  Acetic acid

(b)  Acetone

(c)  Propanoic acid

(d)  Butanoic acid

41. Consider t he given equilibrium in a closed container N2O4(g) → 2 NO2(g) at a fixed temperature, the volume of t he reaction container is halved. For this change which of the following holds TRUE regarding the equilibrium constant (KP) and degree of dissociation (α).

(a)  Neither KP nor α changes

(b)  Both KP and α changes

(c)  KP changes but α not change

(d)  KP does not change but α changes

42. Bakelite a ———- polymer

(a)  Plastic

(b)  natural

(c)  synthetic

(d)  Both (A) and (B)

43. Which of the following compounds show(s) Geometrical isomerism?

(a)  2-Butene

(b)  2-Methyl-2-Butene

(c)  2-Pentene

(d)  1, 2-Dichloropropane

44. 02 × 1019 molecules of urea are present in 200 ml of its solution. The concentration of urea solution is (Avogadro constant, NA = 6.02 × 1023 ml1)

(a)  0.0005 M

(b)  0.005 M

(c)  0.0001 M

(d)  0.001 M

45. Which of the following does NOT conduct electricity?

(a)  Molten NaOH

(b)  Molten NaCl

(c)  Molten Sodium

(d)  Molten AlCl3

46. When Conc. H2SO4 and Cu turning are added to Nitrate salt, a coloured gas is evolved. What is the colour of this gas?

(a)  Blue

(b)  Green

(c)  Brown

(d)  Red

47. Calculate the K.E. of a molecule of CO2 at 100C (R = 8.314 J mol−1K, Avogadro’s number = 6.023 × 1023)

(a)  5.65 × 10−21 J Molecule−1

(b)  6.79 × 10−20 J Molecule−1

(c)  8.98 × 10−21 J Molecule−1

(d)  6.21 × 10−20 J Molecule−1

48. Specific conductance does NOT depend on

(a)  dimension of the cell

(b)  electric flow of the cell

(c)  electrolyte in the cell

(d)  None of these

49. What weight of copper will be deposited by passing 2 Faradays of electricity through cupric salt (At. wt. of Cu= 63.5)?

(a)  2.0 gm

(b)  3.175 gm

(c)  127 gm

(d)  None of these

50. With a particular ligand, which one of the following ions will form the least stable complex (Keeping the other factors constant)?

(a)  K+

(b)  Cs+

(c)  Na+

(d)  Rb+

51. According to Bohr’s model, the angular momentum of an electron in the third orbit is

(a)  3h/π

(b)  1.5h/π

(c)  3π/h

(d)  9h /π

52. Ionization of Boric acid in aqueous medium gives

(a)  [B(OH)4]

(b)  [B(OH)2O]

(c)  [B(OH)O2]2

(d)  [BO3]3

53. BaSO4 is insoluble and MgSO4 is soluble in water because

(a)  BaSO4 is more covalent than MgSO4

(b)  lattice energy of MgSO4 is greater than BaSO4

(c)  hydration energy of Mg2+ ions is greater than that Ba2+ ions

(d)  lattice energy of BaSO4 is greater than MgSO4

54. Sodium Nitroprusside solution is used for which radical identification?

(a)  SO32

(b)  S2

(c)  SO42

(d)  PO43

55. When nitrobenzene is treated with bromine in presence of FeBr3, the major product formed is m-bromo nitrobenzene. The statement which is related to obtain m-isomer is

(a)  The intermediate carbonium ion formed after initial attack of Br+ at the meta position is least stabilized

(b)  The electron density of meta carbon is more than that on ortho and para position

(c)  Loss of aromacity when Br+ attacks at the ortho and para positions and not at meta position

(d)  None of these

56. Which of the following will distinguish ethanol from Benzaldehyde?

(a)  [Ag(NH3)2]OH

(b)  2, 4, DNP

(c)  CuSO4 + NaOH + Sodium Potassium Nitrate

(d)  NaHSO3

57. The chemical composition of slag formed during the smelting process in the extraction of copper is

(a)  Cu2O + FeS

(b)  FeSiO3

(c)  CuFeS2

(d)  Cu2S + FeO

58. The relatively lowering of vapour pressure in case of a solution of non-volatile solute is equal to the mole fraction of solute. The statement is based on

(a)  Ostwald Law

(b)  Raoult’s Law

(c)  Henry’s Law

(d)  Frendlich & Langmuir Law

59. An electric current of 1A is passed through acidulate water for 321 minutes 40 seconds. What is the volume of the Oxygen liberated at the anode(as reduced to NTP)?

(a)  1.12 lit

(b)  11.2 lit

(c)  2.24 lit

(d)  22.4 lit

60. Rust is

(a)  FeO + Fe(OH)2

(b)  Fe2O3 + Fe(OH)2

(c)  Fe2O3

(d)  Fe2O3 + Fe(OH)2

61. Four moles of ClCH2SiCl3 react with three moles of LiAlH4 in diethyl ether solution. Which one of the following compounds is obtained?

(a)  ClCH2SiH3

(b)  CH2SiLiH3Cl

(c)  CH2SiH4­Cl

(d)  ClCH2LiAlH2

62. With a particular ligand,, which one of the following ions will form the least stable complex (keeping the other factors constant)?

(a)  K+

(b)  Cs+

(c)  Na+

(d)  Rb+

63. Octahedral hybridization is found on which compound?

(a)  XeF2

(b)  XeF4

(c)  XeF6

(d)  XeOF4

64. An FCC crystal has an atomic radius of 1.41 Å. What are the d200 spacing?

(a)  2 Å

(b)  4 Å

(c)  8 Å

(d)  16 Å

65. Substance used in bringing down the body temperature in high fever is called

(a)  Antiseptics

(b)  Pyretics

(c)  Antibiotics

(d)  Antipyretics

66. Give the number of unpaired electrons in the complex ions : [CoF6]3

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Mathematics

1. If X = {4n – 3n – 1 : n ∈ N} and Y = {9(n – 1) : n ∈ N} then X ∪ Y =

(a)  X

(b)  Y

(c)  N

(d)  None of these

2. Let A be a non-void set of the children in a family. The relation ‘X is a brother of Y’ on Y is

(a)  Reflexive

(b)  Symmetric

(c)  Transitive

(d)  None of these

3. A mapping f : R → R which is defined as f(x) = cos x, x ∈ R is

(a)  One-One only

(b)  Onto only

(c)  One-One Onto

(d)  Neither One-One nor Onto

4. Let α, β be the roots of the equation x2 – tx + r = 0 and  be the roots of their equation x2 – tx + r = 0, then the value of r is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

5. If sin α, cos α are the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, then

(a)  a2 – b2 + 2ac = 0

(b)  a2 + b2 – 2ac = 0

(c)  (a – c)2 = b2 + c2

(d)  (a + c)2 = b2 – c2

6. The product of cube roots of −1 is equal to

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  −1

(d)  None of these

7. The Point in sphere which corresponds to is

(a)  (1, 1, 1)

(b)  (0, 0, 0)

(c)  (3, 3, 1/3)

(d)  (1/3, 1/3, 1/3)

8. The region of the Argand diagram defined by |z – 3| > 0 is

(a)  interior of the ellipse

(b)  exterior of a circle

(c)  interior and boundary of ellipse

(d)  None of these

9. How many numbers between 5000 and 10000 can be formed with the digits if each digit NOT appearing more than once in each  number?

(a)  1080

(b)  1680

(c)  36

(d)  1008

10. The unit digit of 2100 is

(a)  2

(b)  4

(c)  6

(d)  8

11. The minimum value of cos 2θ + cos θ for real values of θ is

(a)  9/8

(b)  −9/8

(c)  0

(d)  −2

12. The number of solutions of the pair of the equations 2sin2 θ – cos 2θ = 0

3cos2 θ – 3 sin θ = 0 in the interval [0, 2π] is

(a)  zero

(b)  one

(c)  two

(d)  four

13. The solution of the differential equation y[x2 + y2 + 1]dy + [2x(x2 + y2) – 1]dx = 0 is

(a)  2x2 + y2 + 3log(x2 + y2 – 2) = C

(b)  2x2 + y2 − 3log(x2 + y2 – 2) = C

(c)  2x2 + y2 + 3log(x2 + y2 + 2) = C

(d)  2x2 – y2 – 3log(x2 + y2 + 2) = C

14. Consider the following differential equations:

The sum of the order of 2nd differential equation and the degree of the 1st differential equation is

(a)  2

(b)  7

(c)  8

(d)  9

15.

(a)  2

(b)  1

(c)  0

(d)  None of these

16. Probability that A speaks truth is 4/5, while this probability for B is 3/4. The probability that they contradict each other when asked to speak on a fact is

(a)  3/20

(b)  1/5

(c)  7/20

(d)  4/5

17. A bag contains unlimited number of black, blue, red and orange balls. The number of ways to select 10 balls so that the selection includes at least one ball of each colour is

(a)  1001

(b)  276

(c)  270

(d)  None of these

18. The number of diagonals of n-sided polygon is

(a)  n(n – 1)/2

(b)  n(n – 1) (n – 2)/6

(c)  n(n – 1)

(d)  n(n – 3)/2

19. The middle term of (1 + x)2n is

(a)

(b)  2n!xn

(c)  n!xn

(d)  None of these

20. The product of the series  is

(a)  e1

(b)  1 – e1

(c)  e – 1

(d)  None of these

21. If a variable line passes through the point of intersection of the lines x + 2y – 1 = 0 and 2x – y – 1 = 0 and meets the co-ordinate axes at A and B, then the locus of mid-point of AB is

(a)  x + 3y = 0

(b)  x + 3y = 10

(c)  x + 3y = 10xy

(d)  None of these

22. If M is 7 × 5 matrix of rank 3 and N is a 5 × 7 matrix of rank 5, then rank of MN is

(a)  5

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  1

23. If A is a 3 × 3 matrix with det A = 5 and if B = A2 then det B – ?

(a)  20

(b)  100

(c)  320

(d)  1600

24. If  then det(A−1) = ?

(a)  2

(b)  −2

(c)  1/2

(d)  −1/2

25. Five horses are in a race. Mr. A selects two of them at random and bets on them. The probability that Mr. A selected the winning horse is

(a)  4/5

(b)  3/5

(c)  1/5

(d)  2/5

26. The relationship between mean, median and mode for a moderately skewed distribution is

(a)  mode = median – 2 mean

(b)  mode = 2median – mean

(c)  mode = 3median – 2 mean

(d)  mode = 2median – 3 mean

27. If two lines of regression are 3x + 12y = 19 and 9x + 3y = 46, the correlation coefficient is

(a)

(b)

(c)  0.52

(d)  −0.52

28.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

29. ∫{xf ʹ(x) + f(x)}dx = ?

(a)  f(x) + C

(b)  xf(x) + C

(c)  xf ʹ(x) + C

(d)  None of these

30. If  then Fʹ(x) = ?

(a)  2 – sin x

(b)  2 +  sin t

(c)  sin x

(d)  None of these

31.

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  0

(d)  −1

32. If x = f(t) cost – f ʹ(t) sin t and y = f(t) sin t + f ʹ(t) cost t then

(a)  [f(t) – f ʹʹ(t)]2

(b)  [f(t) + f ″(t)]2

(c)  [f(t)]2 + [f ″(t)]2

(d)  None of these

33. If f(x) is a differentiable function on [0, 3], and f(3) = 2 then

(a)  5f ʹ(2)

(b)  3f ʹ(2)

(c)  15f ʹ(2)

(d)  None of these

34. log3sinx – log3 cos x – log3(1 – tan x) – log3(1 + tan x) = −1 then tan 2x = ?

(a)  2

(b)  3/2

(c)  2/3

(d)  6

35.  then the value of  is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  2

(d)  3

36. The co-efficient of x99 in the expansion of (x – 1) (x – 2) (x – 3) …. (x – 100) is

(a)  5050

(b)  −5050

(c)  3300

(d)  −3310

37. The number of solutions of the equation 2 sin(ex) = 5x + 5x is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  2

(d)  infinitely many

38. The straight li ne y = mx + c cuts the circle x2 + y2 = a2 in real points if

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

39. If   are two vectors such that  and ,  then

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)  None of these

40. Let P, Q, R, and S be the points on the plane with position vectors  respectively. The quadrilateral PQRS must be a

(a)  parallelogram which is neither a rhombus nor a rectangle

(b)  square

(c)  rectangle but not a square

(d)  rhombus but not a square

41. The value of

(a)  log 2

(b)

(c)

(d)  None of these

42. Let  and  be three vectors. A vector  in the plane  whose projection on  is given by

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

43. Let P = {θ : sin θ – cos θ = √2 cos θ} and Q = {θ : sin θ + cos θ = √2 sin θ} be two sets. Then

(a)  P ⊂ Q and Q – P ≠ ϕ

(b)  Q ⊄ Q

(c)  P ⊄ Q

(d)  P = Q

44. If the cardinality of a set A is 4 and that of a set B is 3, then what is the cardinality of the set A ∆ B?

(a)  1

(b)  5

(c)  7

(d)  Cannot be determined

45. The total number of subsets of a finite set A has 56 more elements than the total number of subsets of another finite set B. What is the number of elements in the set A?

(a)  5

(b)  6

(c)  7

(d)  8

46. The number of continuous functions on R which satisfy (f(x))2 = x2, ∀x ∈ R, is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

47. The value of C of Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem if f(x) = x(x – 1)(x – 2); a = 0, b = 1/2 is

(a)  1/4

(b)  1/3

(c)

(d)

48.

(a)  −1

(b)  1

(c)  π

(d)  sin x

49. Let f(x) = x2 – 5x + 6 and  then f(A) = ?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

50. Multiplication of matrices E and G is F where  and  Then the value of F is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

51. What is the value of following determinant?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

52. The real part of complex number (1 + i)n is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

53. If 1, ω, ω2 are the cube roots of unity, then the roots of the equation (x – 1)3 + 8 = 0 are

(a)  −1, −1, −1

(b)  −1, 1 + 2ω;1 + 2ω2

(c)  1, ω, ω2

(d)  −1, 1 – 2ω, 1 – 2ω2

54. The remainder when 250 is divided by 7 is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

55. Solution of   is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

56. A fair dice is tossed 7 times. The probability that a 5 or a 6 occurs atleast once is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

57. The maximum value of Z = 2x + 3y, subject to constraints x + y ≤ 30, y ≥ 3, 0 ≤ 12, 0 ≤ x ≤ 20 and x – y ≥ 0 is

(a)  11

(b)  72

(c)  33

(d)  36

58. Consider the LP problem : max z = x + y subject x – 2y ≤ 10

y – 2x ≤ 10

x, y ≥ 0

Then the LP problem

(b)  is unbounced

(d)  admits a unique feasible solution

59. Which of the following is the convex set?

(a)  {(x, y) : x2 + y2 ≥ 1}

(b)  {(x, y) : y2 ≤ x}

(c)  {(x, y) : 3x2 + 3y2 ≥ 5}

(d)  {(x, y) : y ≥ 2, y ≤ 4}

60. The reflection of the point A(1, 0, 0) in the line  is

(a)  (3, −4, −2)

(b)  (5, −8, −4)

(c)  (1, −1, −10)

(d)  (2, −3, 8)

61. If α, β are roots of the equation 8x2 – 3x + 27 = 0 then the value of  is

(a)  1/3

(b)  1/4

(c)  1/5

(d)  1/6

62. In decimal system, the number (362)16 is equivalent to

(a)  (962)10

(b)  (862)10

(c)  (864)­10

(d)  (860)10

63. The least value of n for which the sum of the series 3 + 6 + 9 +…to n terms exceeds 1000 is

(a)  25

(b)  26

(c)  27

(d)  28

64. (1 – x)3/2 can be expanded in ascending power of x if

(a)  −1 < x < 1

(b)  x < −1

(c)  x > 1

(d)  None of these

65. The angle made by a double ordinate of length 8a at the vertex of the parabola y2 = 4ax is

(a)  π/3

(b)  π/2

(c)  π/4

(d)  π/6

66.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

67. Let [x] denote the greatest integer less than or equal to x and f(x) = [tan2x] then

(a)

(b)  f(x) is continuous at x = 0

(c)  f(x) does not differentiable at x = 0

(d)  f ʹ(0) = 1

68. If f(x) = (x – p)2 + (x – q)2 + (x – r)2, then f(x) has a minimum at

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Biology

1. Father of ‘Zoology’ is

(a)  Carolus Linnaeus

(b)  Aristotle

(c)  John Ray

(d)  Buffon

2. Which one of the following is NOT eukaryotic?

(a)  Protista

(b)  Monera

(c)  Plantae

(d)  Animalia

3. Prion consists of

(a)  protein

(b)  DNA

(c)  RNA

(d)  Both DNA & RNA

4. In bacteria the respiratory enzymes are located on

(a)  Plasmid

(b)  Episome

(c)  Mesosome

(d)  Nucleoid

5. Spirulina belongs to the kingdom

(a)  Monera

(b)  Protista

(c)  Plantae

(d)  Fungi

6. Signet ring stage of plasmodium represents

(a)  beginning of schizogony in liver cells

(b)  end of schizogony in RBC

(c)  beginning of schizogony in RBC

(d)  beginning of sporogony in humans

7. Yeast and Penicillium producing fungi are included under

(a)  Basidiomycetes

(b)  Zygomycetes

(c)  Ascomycetes

(d)  Phycomycetes

8. The CO2-acceptor in calvin cycle /C3 plants is

(a)  Phospho-enol pyruvate (PEP)

(b)  Ribulose 1, 5-bi- phosphate (RuBP)

(c)  Phosphoglyceric acid (PGA)

(d)  Ribulose mono-phosphate (RuMP)

9. An animal without segmentation is

(a)  Ship Worm

(b)  Earthworm

(c)  Tapeworm

(d)  Glow worm

10. Which is an ectotherm?

(a)  Lizard

(b)  Pigeon

(c)  Rabbit

(d)  Camel

11. Larva of Jelly fish (Aurelia) is

(a)  Plannula

(b)  Medusa

(c)  Polyp

(d)  Blastula

12. Excretory organs of flatworms are

(a)  Malpighian tubules

(b)  Nephridia

(c)  Protonephridia

(d)  Nephrone

13. A feature ABSENT in annelids is

(a)  Clitellum

(b)  Pseudocoelom

(c)  Metameric segmentation

(d)  Nephridia

14. Insects are

(a)  Ammonotelicc

(b)  Ureotelic

(c)  Uricotelic

(d)  Aminotelic

15. The scientific name of National Bird is

(a)  Passer domesticus

(b)  Pavo cristatus

(c)  Archaeoptern lithographica

(d)  Psittacula eupatrica

16. An egg lying mammal is

(a)  Kangaroo

(b)  Platypus

(c)  Koala

(d)  Whale

17. The simplest amino acid is

(a)  Lysine

(b)  Glycine

(c)  Tyrosine

(d)  Aspertic acid

18. Non-membranous organelle is

(a)  Ribosome

(b)  Lysosome

(c)  Chloroplast

(d)  G. B.

19. Nucleolar organizer is

(a)  Primary constriction

(b)  Secondary constriction

(c)  Nuclear matrix

(d)  Nucleolus

20. Mitochondria do NOT occur in

(a)  human liver cell

(b)  human nerve cell

(c)  human erythrocyte

(d)  frog liver cell

21. Which is a component chlorophyll?

(a)  Mg

(b)  Mn

(c)  Zn

(d)  Fe

22. DNA synthesis occurs during

(a)  Interphase-G1 stage

(b)  Interphase-S stage

(c)  Metaphase

(d)  Anaphase

23. Zygotic Meiosis occurs in

(a)  Pinus

(b)  Marchantia

(c)  Chlamydomonus

(d)  Dryopteris

24. Cell division is initiated by

(a)  Cytokinin

(b)  IAA

(c)  Gibberellin (GA)

(d)  ABA

25. Total root parasite is

(a)  Rafflesia

(b)  Cassytha

(c)  Viscum

(d)  Loranthus

26. Hypanthodium inflorescence is found in

(a)  Coriander

(b)  Sunflower

(c)  Cauliflower

(d)  Fig

27. Zig zag development of flowers on inflorescence axis is

(a)  Helicoid cyme

(b)  Umbel

(c)  Scorpioid cyme

(d)  Corymb

28. Fruit of coconut is

(a)  berry

(b)  cypsela

(c)  drupe

(d)  cremocarp

29. The outer layer of ovuam is

(a)  theca externa

(b)  theca interna

(c)  zona pelucida

30. The hormone which is secreted from the Corps Luteum is

(a)  Testosterone

(b)  FSH

(c)  Progesterone

(d)  HCG

31. The weight of the adult male kidney is

(a)  75 gm

(b)  150 gm

(c)  275 gm

(d)  330 gm

32. The name of the 10th cranial nerve is

(a)  Hypoglossal

(b)  Vagus

(c)  Facial

(d)  Abducens

33. The Rolandic fissure of the cerebrum is located in between the

(a)  Frontal-Parietal

(b)  Frontal-Temporal

(c)  Parietal-Occipital

(d)  Temporal-Insula

34. Kranz anatomy is typical of

(a)  C4 plants

(b)  C3 plants

(c)  C2 plants

(d)  CAM plants

35. Xylem is exarch in

(a)  leaf

(b)  petiole

(c)  stem

(d)  root

36. Stomata generally operate in response to

(a)  atmospheric humidity

(b)  soil temperature

(c)  atmospheric temperature

(d)  light

37. Vascular bundles surrounded by sclerenchymatous sheath occur in

(a)  monocot stem

(b)  dicot stem and leaf

(c)  monocot root

(d)  dicot root

38. Largest family of flowering plants is

(a)  Fabaceae

(b)  Liliaceae

(c)  Poaceae

(d)  Asteraceae

39. Oryza sativa belongs to family

(a)  Asteracceae

(b)  Malvaceae

(c)  Fabaceae

(d)  Poaceae

40. What is TRUE of cardiac muscles?

(a)  Voluntary

(b)  Striated

(c)  Unstriated

(d)  Antagonastic

41. Which is NOT a Micronutrient?

(a)  P

(b)  Cu

(c)  Zn

(d)  Mo

42. Haversian canals are found in

(a)  muscle

(b)  nerve

(c)  cartilage

(d)  bone

43. Lymph differs from blood is possessing

(a)  only WBC

(b)  more ABC and WBC

(c)  more ABC and few WBC

(d)  more WBC and few ABC

44. Heparin is formed by

(a)  liver cells

(b)  plasma cells

(c)  blood cells

(d)  spleen cells

45. Which is NOT phagocytic?

(a)  Monocyte

(b)  Lymphocyte

(c)  Neutrophil

(d)  Histiocyte

46. Open circulatory system occurs in

(a)  Pheretima

(b)  Rana

(c)  Periplaneta

(d)  Cavia

47. Collagen is

(a)  protein

(b)  fat

(c)  Sugar

(d)  starch

48. Pacemaker causes

(a)  heart beat

(b)  hunger felling

(c)  muscular pain

(d)  heart failure

49. R.S.T. is related to

(a)  Ventricular contraction

(b)  Auricular contraction

(c)  Cardiac cycle

(d)  Auricular relaxation

50. In an kidney is

(a)  pronephros

(b)  mesonephros

(c)  metanephros

(d)  None of these

51. Anaemia is due to deficiency of

(a)  leucocytes

(b)  blood

(c)  haemoglobin

(d)  thrombocytes

52. Knee joint is

(a)  gomphosis

(b)  cartilaginous joint

(c)  suture

(d)  synovial joint

53. Pelvic girdle consists of

(a)  ilium.

(b)  ilium and ischium

(c)  ilium, ischium and pubis

(d)  ischium and pubis

54. Sympathetic nervous system is also called

(a)  Visceral

(b)  Thoracico-lumbar

(c)  Cranio-sacral

(d)  Mesenteric

55. Common neutrotransmitter of peripheral nervous system is

(a)  colchicine

(b)  epinephrine

(c)  GABA

(d)  acetylcholine

56. In human eye, the blind spot contains

(a)  rods

(b)  cones

(c)  both rods and cones

(d)  neither rods and cones

57. Organ of corti is connected with the sense of

(a)  taste

(b)  smell

(c)  hearing

(d)  equilibrium

58. The metabolic rate is controlled by

(a)  pancreas

(b)  liver

(c)  thyroid

(d)  pituitary

59. Addison’s disease is due to under secretion of

(b)  corticoids

(c)  ACTH

(d)  Insulin

60. Length of one coil of B-DNA helix is

(a)  0.34 nm

(b)  3.4 nm

(c)  10 nm

(d)  20 nm

61. DNA molecule has small units called

(a)  purines

(c)  cistron, muton and recon

62. The condition of sickle cell anaemia is due to

(a)  chromosomal mutation

(b)  silent mutation

(c)  point mutation

(d)  fame-shift mutation

63. Which one causes mutations?

(a)  Crossing over

(b)  Colchicine

(c)  X-rays

(d)  Hybridization

64. Golden age of Dinosaurs’/Age of Reptiles was

(a)  Mesozoic

(b)  Coenozoic

(c)  Palaeozoic

(d)  Psychozoic

65. Cranial capacity of Neanderthal Man was

(a)  1450 cc

(b)  1300 cc

(c)  1200 cc

(d)  1100 cc

66. Human population shows

(a)  J-shaped growth curve

(b)  Z-shaped growth curve

(c)  S-shaped growth curve

(d)  All of these

67. Plants, living partly inside water and partly above it, are

(a)  Xerophytes

(b)  Thallophytes

(c)  Hydrophytes

(d)  Halophytes

68. An incomplete ecosystem is

(a)  grassland

(b)  river

(c)  wetland

(d)  Cave

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