# OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2015 With Answer Key Mobile View

 Go to all OUAT Previous Year Question Papers 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017. 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012,2011, 2010, 2009, 2008, 2007

Physics

1. A gaseous mixture consists of 16 g helium and 16g of oxygen, The ration Cp/Cv of the mixture is

(a)  1.62

(b)  1.59

(c)  1.54

(d)  1.4

2. A vessel contains a mixture of one mole of oxygen and two moles of nitrogen at 300 K. The ratio of the average rotational KE per O2 to per N2 molecule

(a)  is 1 : 1

(b)  is 1 : 2

(c)  is 2 : 1

(d)  depends on the moment of inertia of two molecules

3. A given quantity of an ideal gas is at pressure P and absolute temperature T. The isothermal bulk modulus of the gas is

(a)

(b)  P

(c)

(d)  2P

4. A parallel plate capacitor is made by stacking in equally speed plates connected alternatively. If the capacitance between any two adjacent states is ‘C’, then the resultant capacitance is

(a)  (n + 1)C

(b)  (n – 1)C

(c)  nC

(d)  C

5. A circuit has a resistance of 12 ohm and an impendance of 15 ohm. The power factor of the circuit will be

(a)  0.4

(b)  0.8

(c)  0.125

(d)  1.25

6. In an LCR series a.c. circuit, the voltage across each of the components L,C and R is 50 V. The voltage across LC combination is

(a)  50 V

(b)  50√2V

(c)  100V

(d)  zero

7.  Two thin long parallel wires separated by a distance ‘b’ are carrying a current ‘I’ ampere each. The magnitude of force per unit length exerted by one wire on the other is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

8. A spherical ball falls on a table about its diameter without slipping. Then the fraction of the total energy associated with its rotation is

(a)  2/5

(b)  2/7

(c)  3/7

(d)  3/5

9. A solid cylinder first rolls without sliding and then slides without rolling down the same inclined plane. The ratio of velocities in the two cases, at the bottom of the plane, is

(a)  1 : 2

(b)  1 : 3

(c)  √6 : 3

(d)  √3 : 1

10. The displacement of a wave is given by the equation  The frequency of the wave is

(a)  30 Hz

(b)  25 Hz

(c)  20 Hz

(d)  15 Hz

11. If the temperature of the Sun is to increase from T to 2T and is radius from R to 2R, then the ratio of the radiant energy received on the earth to what it was previously, is

(a)  4

(b)  16

(c)  32

(d)  64

12. The temperature of a piece of metal is raised from 27℃ to 51℃. The rate at which metal radiates energy increases nearly

(a)  2 times

(b)  1.36 times

(c)  2.72 times

(d)  4 times

13. To get three image of a single object, one should have two plane mirrors at an angle of

(a)  30°

(b)  60°

(c)  90°

(d)  120°

14. A person having the nearest distinct of distance vision of 32 cm uses a reading lens of 8 cm focal length. The magnification of his reading lens is

(a)  5

(b)  4

(c)  3

(d)  2

15. A heater coil is cut into two equal parts and only one part is now used in the heater. The heat generation will be

(a)  4 times

(b)  doubled

(c)  half

(d)  1/4

16. 220 volt, 1000 watt bulb is connected across 110 volt main supply. The power consumed will be

(a)  1000 watt

(b)  750 watt

(c)  500 watt

(d)  250 watt

17. Two bodies each of mass 66.7 kg are at a distance of 2 m. The escape velocity of a body midway between them is

(a)  13.34 m/s

(b)  6.67 m/s

(c)  33.35 m/s

(d)  zero

18. Radio carbon is produced in the atmosphere as a result of

(a)  collision between fast neutrons and nitrogen nuclei present in the atmosphere

(b)  action of ultraviolet light from the Sun of atmospheric oxygen

(c)  action of solar radiations particularly cosmic rays on CO2 present in the atmosphere

(d)  lighting discharge in atmosphere

19. The absorption of ink by blotting paper involves

(a)  viscosity of ink

(b)  capillary action

(c)  diffusion of ink

(d)  siphon action

20. What will be the maximum velocity for the overturn of a car moving on a circular track of radius 100 m? The coefficient of friction between the road & tyre is 0.2.

(a)  0.14 m/s

(b)  140 m/s

(c)  1.4 km/s

(d)  14 m/s

21. Sound of frequency below 20 Hz is called

(a)  audio sounds

(b)  infrasonic

(c)  ultrasonic

(d)  supersonic

22. One thousand micron means

(a)  103 m

(b)  106 m

(c)  109 m

(d)  1012 m

23. A bar magnet is equivalent to

(a)  solenoid carrying current

(b)  circular coil carrying current

(c)  toroid carrying current

(d)  None of these

24. A body weighs 50 grams in air and 40 grams in water. How much would it weight in liquid of specific gravity 1.5?

(a)  30 grams

(b)  35 grams

(c)  65 grams

(d)  45 grams

25. The total energy, stored in the condenser system, shown in the figure below, is

(a)  2 mJ

(b)  4 mJ

(c)  8 mJ

(d)  16 mJ

26. Which is the value of emf E in the figure below?

VL = 40 V, VR = 80 V, VC = 100 V, EI = 50 Hz

(a)  200 V

(b)  140 V

(c)  100 V

(d)  20 V

27. An unpolarised beam of intensity I­0 falls on a Polaroid. The intensity of the emergent light is

(a)  I0/2

(b)  I0

(c)  I0/4

(d)  zero

28. Hydrogen atom does NOT emit X-rays because

(a)  it contains only a single electron.

(b)  energy levels in it are far apart.

(c)  its size is very small

(d)  energy levels in it are very close to each other

29. If power dissipated in 9 Ω resistor in the circuit shown is 36 Watt, the potential difference across 2 Ω resistor is

(a)  2 volt

(b)  4 volt

(c)  8 volt

(d)  10 volt

30. Solar spectrum is an example for

(a)  line emission spectrum

(b)  continuous mission spectrum

(c)  band absorption spectrum

(d)  line absorption spectrum

31. The most stable particle in Baryon group is

(a)  neutron

(b)  omega-particle

(c)  proton

(d)  lamda-particle

32. The ratio of minimum wavelength of Lyman and Balmer series will be

(a)  1.25

(b)  0.25

(c)  5

(d)  10

33. Which of the following is a dichoric crystal?

(a)  Quartz

(b)  Tourmaline

(c)  Mica

(d)  Selenite

34. A missile is fired for maximum range, with an initial velocity of 20 m/s; if g = 10 m/s2, the range of the missile is

(a)  20 m

(b)  40 m

(c)  60 m

(d)  70 m

35. Which instrument is used to measure the altitudes in aircrafts?

(a)  Audiometer

(b)  Ammeter

(c)  Altimeter

(d)  Anemometer

36. p-n junction when reverse biased acts as a/an

(a)  capacitor

(b)  inductor

(c)  on switch

(d)  off switch

37. The device or circuit used for conversion of AC into DC is called

(a)  an amplifier

(b)  a rectifier

(c)  filtering circuit

(d)  converter

38. For long distance transmission, the transformer used, is

(a)  step down

(b)  step up

(c)  Both (A) & (B)

(d)  None of these

39. A 5F capacitor has potential difference across its plates of 200 volt. The charge on the capacitor is

(a)  2.5 × 108 C

(b)  10 to 5 C

(c)  103C

(d)  4 × 103 C

40. The blue colour of sky is due to

(a)  diffraction

(b)  reflection

(c)  polarization

(d)  scattering

41. Crystals of a material can behave as

(a)  convex lens

(b)  interferometer

(c)  diffraction grating

(d)  concave

42. A man is in a car is moving with velocity 36 km/hr. His speed with speed respect to the car is

(a)  10 m/s

(b)  36 m/s

(c)  zero

(d)  infinite

(a)  10 s

(b)  10 to 8 s

(c)  10 to 6 s

(d)  10 to 9 s

44. When a body moves in a circle, the angle between its linear velocity & angular velocity is always

(a)  180°

(b)  0°

(c)  90°

(d)  40°

45. The critical speed of an artificial satellite is

(a)  8 km/s

(b)  8.1 km/s

(c)  7.9 km/s

(d)  8 m/s

46. Which phenomenon can be applied to estimate the velocity of star with respect to earth

(a)  Doppler’s effect

(b)  Interference of waves

(c)  beats phenomenon

(d)  All of these

47. What is the value of the current in a wire of 10 cm long at the right angle to uniform magnetic field of 0.5 Weber/m2, when the force acting on toe wire is 5 N?

(a)  1 A

(b)  10 A

(c)  100 A

(d)  1000 A

48. Heating a magnet will

(a)  weaken it

(b)  strengthen it

(c)  reverse its polarity

(d)  All of these

49. A ferromagnet will get fully magnetized at

(a)  high voltage AC

(b)  low voltage AC

(c)  AC at its peak value

(d)  None of these

50. The distance covered by a body in one complete vibration is 20 cm. The amplitude of

(a)  10 cm

(b)  5 cm

(c)  15 cm

(d)  7.5 cm

51. A photon of wavelength 900 ohm behaves like a particle of mass

(a)  5.53 × 1036 kg

(b)  0 kg

(c)  2.46 × 1036 kg

(d)  1.84 × 1044 kg

52. A camera uses a …….. to form an image on a piece of film at the back.

(a)  convex lens.

(b)  concave lens

(c)  diverging lens

(d)  None of these

53. When white light passes through a prism it splits into …….. colours.

(a)  5

(b)  6

(c)  7

(d)  8

54. Short sight defect should be correct

(a)  convex lens

(b)  concave lens

(c)  converging lens

(d)  None of these

55. Ozone layer protects the Earth form

(a)  microwaves

(c)  X-rays

(d)  U V

56. Which of the following is NOT renewable energy?

(a)  Geothermal

(b)  Solar

(c)  Nuclear

(d)  Bio fuels

57. Large angle produces

(a)  high trajectory

(b)  curve trajectory

(c)  straight trajectory

(d)  None of these

58. If a projectile is launched at 45° with velocity 100 m/s, it hits the target. It will have double the range if its velocity is

(a)  200 m/s

(b)  141.4 m/s

(c)  173.2 m/s

(d)  400 m/s

59. Effective capacitance between A and B in the figure shown below, is (capacitances are in μF)

(a)  21 μF

(b)  23 μF

(c)

(d)

60. A body of mass M starts siding down on the inclined plane where the critical angle is

∠ACB = 30° as shown in the figure. The coefficient of kinetic friction will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

61. Force F on a particle moving in a straight line varies with distance ‘d’ as shown in the figure. The work done on the particle during the displacement of 12 m is

(a)  13 J

(b)  18 J

(c)  21 J

(d)  26 J

62. Identify the logic operation performed by the circuit given below:

(a)  NOT

(b)  NAND

(c)  OR

(d)  NOR

63. In the circuit below, the points A, B and C are 70 V, zero, 10 V respectively. Then

(a)  current in the paths AD, DB and DC are ratio of 1 : 2 : 3

(b)  current in the paths AD, DB and DCC are in ratio of 3 : 2 : 1

(c)  the point D will be at a potential of 60 V

(d)  the point D will be at a potential of 20 V

64. The resultant force on the current loop PQRS due to a long current carrying conductor will be

(a)  104 N

(b)  3.6 × 104 N

(c)  1.8 × 104 N

(d)  5 × 104 N

65. A satellite is moving round the Earth in a circular orbit with a velocity V. If the gravitational force of the Earth were suddenly disappear, then satellite would

(a)  spirally move away from Earth

(b)  move radially outward with a velocity V

(c)  fall towards the surface of the Earth

(d)  move with a velocity V, tangentially to its circular orbit

66. When a mass is attached to a spring, its length is increased by 20 cm. It is further lowered and released. The time period of its S.H.M. is.

(a)

(b)  2π sec

(c)  4π

(d)  Data is not enough

Chemistry

1. The bond length of HCl molecule is 1.275 Å and its dipole moment is 1.03 D. The ionic character of the molecule (in percent) (charge of electron 4.8 × 1010 esu) is

(a)  100

(b)  67.3

(c)  33.6

(d)  16.83

2. Which is NOT tetrahedral?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

3. The velocity constant of a reaction at 290 K was found to be 3.2 × 103 s1. When the temperature is raised to 310 K, it will be about

(a)  9.6 × 103

(b)  1.28 × 102

(c)  6.4 × 103

(d)  None of these

4. Which of the following compound shows optical isomerism?

(a)  [CuNH3)4]2+

(b)  [ZnCl4]2+

(c)  [Cr(C2O4)3]3

(d)  None of these

5. The radical  is aromatic because it has

(a)  6 p-orbitals & 6 unpaired electrons

(b)  7 p-orbitals & 6 unpaired electrons

(c)  7 p-orbitas

(d)  6 p-orbitals

6. The coal tar fraction which contains phenol is

(a)  heavy oil

(b)  light oil

(c)  middle oil

(d)  green oil

7. pH of saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12. The value of solubility product (Ksp) of Ba(OH)2 is

(a)  4.0 × 10−6

(b)  5× 10−6

(c)  3.3 × 10−7

(d)  5.0 × 10−7

8. 023 g of sodium metal is reacted with 100 cm3 of water. The pH of the resulting solution is

(a)  10

(b)  8

(c)  9

(d)  12

9. An acid HA ionizes as

HA ⇔ H+ + A

The pH of 1.0 M solution is 5. Its dissociation constant would be

(a)  1 × 10−5

(b)  1 × 10−10

(c)  5

(d)  5 × 10−8

10. Aluminium oxide may be electrolyzed at 1000℃ to furnish aluminium metal. (Atomic mass = 27 amul Faraday = 96,500 coulombs). The cathode reaction is Al2+ + 3e → Al what will be the charges?

(a)  1.83 × 107 of electricity

(b)  5.49 × 107C of electricity

(c)  Both (A) & (B)

(d)  None of these

11. The Gibbs energy for decomposition Al2O3 at 500℃ is as follows:

The potential difference needed for electrolytic reduction of Al2O3 at 500℃ is at least

(a)  5V

(b)  4.5V

(c)  3V

(d)  2.5V

12. For one mole, which one h as highest entropy?

(a)  Liquid nitrogen

(b)  Hydrogen gas

(c)  Mercury

(d)  Diamond

13. The RMS velocity of an ideal gas at 300 K is 12240 cm. sec1. What is the most probable velocity (in cm. sec1) at the same temperature?

(a)  10000

(b)  11280

(c)  1000

(d)  12240

14. Solution A contains 7g/L, of MgCl2 and solution B contains 7g/L of NaCl. At room temperature the osmotic pressure of

(a)  solution B is greater than A

(b)  Both have same osmotic pressure

(c)  solution A is greater

(d)  None of these

15. Volume of water needed to mix with 10 mL NHCl to get 0.1 NHCl is

(a)  90 mL

(b)  9 mL

(c)  900 mL

(d)  1000 mL

16. The crystal with metal deficiency defect is

(a)  NaCl

(b)  FeO

(c)  KCl

(d)  ZnO

17. The monomer of polystyrene, is

(a)  C2H5-CH = CH2

(b)  CH2 = CHCl

(c)  CH2 = CH2Cl

(d)  None of these

18. The pKa of a weak acid, HA is 4.80. The pKb of a weak base BOH is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous solution of the corresponding salt, BA will be

(a)  7.01

(b)  9.22

(c)  9.58

(d)  4.79

19. The hydrocarbon which can react with sodium in liquid ammonia is

(a)  CH3CH = CHCH3

(b)  CH3CH3C = CCH3CH3

(c)  CH3CH3C = CCH3CH3CH3

(d)  CHCH3C = CH

20. If the radius of 13Al27 nucleus is estimated to be 3.6 fermi, then the radius of 52Te125 nucleus will nearly.

(a)  8 fermi

(b)  6 fermi

(c)  5 fermi

(d)  4 fermi

21. The halflife of radioactive radon is 3.8 days. The time at the end of which 1/20th of the radon sample will remain undecayed is

(given log10e = 0.4343)

(a)  3.8 days

(b)  16.5 days

(c)  33 days

(d)  76 days

22. An alpha particle of energy 6 MeV is scattered through 180° by a fixed uranium nucleus. The distance of closest approach is of the order of

(a)  1A°

(b)  1010 m

(c)  1012 m

(d)  1015 m

23. The metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained in fused state is called

(a)  smelting

(b)  roasting

(c)  calcinations

(d)  None of these

24. The spectrum produced by while light is

(a)  emission spectrum

(b)  continuous spectrum

(c)  absorption spectrum

(d)  Both (A) & (B)

25. Among the alkenes which one produces tertiary butyl alcohol on acid hydration?

(a)  (CH3)2C = CH2

(b)  CH3–CH=CH–CH3

(c)  CH3–CH2–CH = CH2

(d)  CH3 – CH = CH2

26. An organic compound A(C4H9Cl) on reaction with Na/diethyl ether gives a hydrocarbon which on monochlorisation gives one chloro derivative, then A is

(a)  iso – butyl chloride

(b)  secondary butyl chloride

(c)  t-butyl chloride

(d)  n-butyl chloride

27. Anisole can be prepared by the action of methyl iodide on sodium phenate. The reaction is called.

(a)  Fittig reaction

(b)  Williamson reaction

(c)  Wurtz reaction

(d)  Etard reaction

28. The IUPAC name of   is

(a)  2-methyl-3-bromohexan

(b)  2-methyl-3-bromobutanal

(c)  3-bromo-2-methylbutanal

(d)  3-bromo-2-methylpentanal

29. Which of the following is acidic hydrogen?

(a)  2-Hexanone

(b)  2, 4-Hexanedione

(c)  2, 5-Hexanedione

(d)  2, 3-Hexanedione

30. The species having pyramidal shape is

(a)  SO3

(b)  BrF3

(c)

(d)  OSF3

31. IUPAC name for the following compound is

(a)  1, 3-pentamethyl propane

(b)  1, 1, 3, 3-tetramethyl butane

(c)  2, 4, 4-trimethyl pentane

(d)  2, 2, 4-trimethyl pentane

32. Which of the following nuclei will have a magnetic moment?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

33. What is the best name for the following compound?

(a)  2-methylcyclohexene

(b)  3-methylhexene

(c)  1-methyl cyclohex-2-ene

(d)  3-methyl cyclohexene

34. Which of the following alkenes would have the largest Imax?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

35. What is Imax for

(a)  229 nm

(b)  249 nm

(c)  254 nm

(d)  259 nm

36. What is major product expected from the following reaction?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

37. Which of the following bonds would show the strongest absorption in IR?

(a)  Carbon-Hydrogen

(b)  Oxygen-Hydrogen

(c)  Nitrogen-Hydrogen

(d)  Sulfur-Hydrogen

38. Which of the following would NOT be reasonable nucelophile in reaction?

(a)  NH3

(b)  NC

(c)  H2O

(d)  HO

39. What is the major product obtained from the following reaction?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

40. What is the major product obtained from the following reaction?

H2N – CH2 – CH2 – OH + CH3Na (one mole) →

(a)  CH­3 – NH – CH2 – CH2 – OH

(b)  H2N – CH2 – CH2 – O – CH3

(c)  CH4 + NaNH – CH2 – CH2 – OH

(d)  CH4 + H2N – CH2 – CH2 – ONa

41. What is the major product

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

42. What is the best reagent to convert isopropyl alcohol to isopropyl bromide?

(a)  HBr

(b)  SOBr2

(c)  Br2

(d)  CH3MgBr

43. Which of the functional groups on the following molecule are susceptible to nucleophilic attack?

(a)  ‘a’ & ‘b’

(b)  ‘a’ & ‘c’

(c)  ‘b’ & ‘c’

(d)  ‘a’, ‘b’ & ‘c’

44.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

45. How many moles of CO2 are present in 220 mg ?

(a)  5 moles

(b)  0.005 mole

(c)  5000 moles

(d)  10 moles

46. One mole of (NH4)2 HPO4 contains ——- moles of hydrogen atoms.

(a)  1

(b)  5

(c)  6

(d)  9

47. If 2.68 g of hydrated sodium sulphate N2SO4 + nH2O, on heating produces 1.26 g of water, what is the empirical formula of this compound?

(a)  Na2SO4 + H2O

(b)  2Na2SO4 + H2O

(c)  Na2SO4 + 7H2O

(d)  9NaSO4 + 8H2O

48. The following reaction balanced properly, when the value of O2 will be

C2H8 + O2 → CO2 + H2O

(a)  1.5 moles

(b)  13 moles

(c)  19 moles

(d)  38 moles

49. What is the formal charge of the oxygen atom of the following compound?

(a)  +3

(b)  +1

(c)  −2

(d)  −3

50. The common isotopes of carbon 12C and 13 The average mass of carbon is

12.01115 amu. What is the abundance of 13C isotope?

(a)  1.115%

(b)  98.885%

(c)  0.480%

(d)  99.52%

51. How many grams of carbon are needed to completely react with 75.2 g of SiO2?

SiO2(g) + 3 C(g) → SiC (s) + 2CO(g).

(a)  3.76 g

(b)  15.1 g

(c)  36 g

(d)  45.1 g

52.Calculate the standard heat of reaction for Zn(s) + Cu2+ (aq) → Zn2+ (aq) + Cu(s)

(a)  −217 KJ/mole

(b)  +217 KJ/mole

(c)  −88 J/mole

(d)  +88 KJ/mole

53. In allene (C3H4), the types of hybridization of carbon atoms are

(a)  Sp & Sp3

(b)  Sp & Sp2

(c)  only Sp2

(d)  Sp2 & Sp3

54. Among the following the maximum covalent character is shown by the compound

(a)  MgCl2

(b)  FeCl2

(c)  SnCl2

(d)  AlCl3

55. The hybridization of orbits of N atom in  are respectively

(a)  Sp2, Sp3, Sp

(b)  Sp, Sp2, Sp3

(c)  Sp2, Sp, Sp3

(d)  None of these

56. Calculate KE of 3 molecules of nitrogen at 100℃.

(a)  553 × 1012 cal

(b)  5573 × 1024 cal

(c)  53 × 1012 cal

(d)  None of these

57. Which of the following atoms has the lowest ionization potential?

(a)  8O16

(b)  7N14

(c)  55Cs123

(d)  18Ar14

58. If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, the energy required to remove the electron from the first excited state of Li++ is

(a)  122.4 eV

(b)  30.6 eV

(c)  13.6 eV

(d)  3.4 eV

59. If the atom 100Fm257 follows the Bohr model and the radius of 100Fm257 is ‘n’ times the Bohr radius, then find ‘n’.

(a)  100

(b)  200

(c)  4

(d)  1/4

60. If elements with principal quantum number n > 4 were NOT allowed in nature, the number of possible elements would be

(a)  60

(b)  32

(c)  4

(d)  64

61. Williamson’s synthesis is used for preparation of

(a)  alcohols

(b)  ketones

(c)  ethers

(d)  aldehydes

62. Phenol is heated with a solution of mixture of KBr and KBrO3. The major product obtained in the above reaction is

(a)  2, 4, 6-Tribromophenol

(b)  3-Bromophenol

(c)  2-Bromophenol

(d)  None of these

63. Trichloro acetaldehyde, CCl3CHO reacts with chlorobenzene in the presence of sulphuric acid and produces

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

64. Number of lone pairs in XeOF4 is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  2

(d)  3

65. RCH2CH2OH can be converted to RCH2CH2COOH by the following sequence of steps

(a)  KNC, H3O+

(b)  PBr3, KNC, H2/P+

(c)  PBr3, KNC, H3O+

(d)  None of these

66. If the bond length and dipole moment of a diatomic molecule are 1.25 A and 1.0 D respectively, what is the percent ionic character of the bond?

(a)  10.66

(b)  12.33

(c)  16.66

(d)  19.33

Biology

1. Chromosomes can be counted best at the stage of

(a)  metaphase

(b)  late anaphase

(c)  telophase

(d)  None of these

2. The stage is which daughter chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle is

(a)  Anaphase

(b)  Metaphase

(c)  Prophase

(d)  None of these

3. Chiasmata are first seen in

(a)  Pachytene

(b)  Zygotene

(c)  Leptotene

(d)  Diplotene

4. Protein subunit found within microtubules is

(a)  collagen

(b)  tubulin

(c)  myosin

(d)  None of these

5. Balbiani rings occur in

(a)  Autosome

(b)  Heterosome

(c)  Lampbrush chromosome

(d)  Polytene chromosome

6. Cell plate grows from

(a)  one wall to another

(b)  centre to wall

(c)  wall to centre

(d)  simultaneously

7. Which of the following cellular structure always disappear during mitosis and meiosis?

(a)  Plasma membrane

(b)  Nucleolus & nuclear envelope

(c)  Plastids

(d)  None of these

8. Centromere is a constituent of

(a)  Ribosome

(b)  ER

(c)  Chromosome

(d)  None of these

9. Chiasma forma occurs in

(a)  Pachytene

(b)  Zygotene

(c)  Lepotene

(d)  Diplotene

10. Crossing-over results in

(b)  dominance of alleles

(c)  segregation of alleles

11. Cytoplasmic division of a cell is called

(a)  cell plate formation

(b)  cytokinesis

(c)  mitosis

(d)  synapsis

12. Purines possess nitrogen at

(a)  1, 2, 4 & 6 position

(b)  1, 3, 5 & 7 position

(c)  1, 3, 7 & 9 position

(d)  1, 3, 6 & 8 position

(a)  Enzyme activator

(b)  Ion carrier

(c)  Hydrogen acceptor

(d)  None of these

14. Km value of enzyme is substrate concentration at

(a)  1/2Vmax

(b)  2 Vmax

(c)  1/4 Vmax

(d)  4 Vmax

15. Which one of is the most abundant protein in the animal world?

(a)  Collagen

(b)  Insulin

(c)  Trypsin

(d)  Haemoglobin

16. The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be compared by

(a)  molecule size of the enzyme

(b)  pH optimum value

(c)  Km value

(d)  None of these

17. Which one of the following amino acids was NOT found to be synthesized on Miller’s experiment?

(a)  Glutamic

(b)  Aspartic acid

(c)  Glycine

(d)  Alanine

18. In man which organisms cause abscesses on the skin of arms or legs?

(a)  Abcaris

(b)  Bacteria

(c)  Suinea worm

(d)  Ring worm

19. Scolidon or dog fish belongs to the group of fishes, called

(a)  cartilaginous fishes

(b)  bony fishes

(c)  running fishes

(d)  jawless fishes

20. Potyploid, derived from two different species, is called

(a)  autopolyploid

(b)  triploid

(c)  allopolyploid

(d)  monoploid

21. Pieces of plant tissue, used in tissue culture, is called

(a)  explant

(b)  somaclone

(c)  inoculant

(d)  clone

22. Ovule integument gets transformed into

(a)  seed

(b)  fruit wall

(c)  seed coat

(d)  cotyledons

23. Osteomalacia i s a deficiency disease of

(a)  infants due to protein energy malnutrition

(b)  adults due to protein energy malnutrition

(c)  adults due to vitamin D deficiency

(d)  vitamin K deficiency

24. Name the following having oxygen storage capacity.

(a)  Myoglobin

(b)  Prophase II

(c)  Anaphase I

(d)  Metaphase II

25. Movement of tongue muscle is controlled by

(a)  facial nerve

(b)  trigeminal nerve

(c)  hypoglossal nerve

(d)  vagus nerve

26. Pick the mammal with true placenta.

(a)  Kangaroo

(b)  Echidna

(c)  Platypus

(d)  Mongoose

27. Which one is NOT the method of soil conservation?

(a)  Overgazing

(b)  Mulching

(c)  Crop rotation

(d)  None of these

28. Which of the following is NOT an antitranspirant?

(a)  PMA

(b)  BAP

(c)  Silicon oil

(d)  None of these

29. Which one of the following is NOT a second messenger in hormone action?

(a)  Calcium

(b)  Sodium

(c)  Al

(d)  None of these

30. Which one of the following human cells do NOT contain mitochondria?

(a)  Nerve cell

(b)  Red blood cell

(c)  Liver cell

(d)  None of these

31. Which of the following is related to humoral immunity?

(a)  T-lymphocyte

(b)  B-lymphocyte

(c)  I-lymphocyte

(d)  None of these

32. Which hormones are essential for induced breeding of fishes?

(a)  TSH & ACTH

(b)  Ostrogen & Progesterone

(c)  FSH & LH

(d)  Vasopressin

33. Which is NOT matched correctly?

(a)  Sycon-Canal system

(b)  Ascaris-Flame cell

(c)  Star fish – Radial symmetry

(d)  Prawn – Haemocoel

34. Spawning of fishes is induced by injecting females with

(a)  Progesterone

(b)  Prostaglandin

(c)  FSH & LH

(d)  Estrogen

35. The most common method for fish preservation is

(a)  Chilling

(b)  Sun drying

(c)  Smoking

(d)  None of these

36. Which of the following is NOT marine fish?

(a)  Bombay Duck

(b)  Pomfret

(c)  Labeo

(d)  Mackerei

37. Which one is an edible fungus?

(a)  Aspergillus

(b)  Ustilago

(c)  Polyporus

(d)  Morchella

38. Which one is bacteria fertilizer?

(a)  Anabaena

(b)  Nostoc

(c)  Rhizobium

(d)  Phycomyces

39. Tumor enclosed in a capsule is

(a)  Malignant

(b)  Benign

(c)  Metastasis

(d)  Basophils

40. Which of the following is a structural changes in cancer cells?

(a)  Hypoplasia

(b)  Metastasis

(c)  Both (a) & (b)

(d)  None of these

41. Iodine deficiency causes ______ disease

(a)  Goiter

(b)  Kwashiorkor

(c)  Scurvy

(d)  Anaemia

42. The structural and functional unit of striated muscle fibre is called

(a)  Z-band

(b)  Myofibrill

(c)  Sarcoplasm

(d)  Sarcomere

43. The monocotyledonous seed, consists of one large and shield shaped cotyledon, is known as

(a)  Coleptile

(b)  Scutellum

(c)  Aleurone layer

(d)  Coleorhiza

44. Inter fascicular cambium develops from the cells of

(a)  Medullary rays

(b)  Xylem parenchyma

(c)  Endodermis

(d)  Pericycle

45. How much frequency of ultrasound, can be beamed in human body for sonography?

(a)  15-30 MHz

(b)  30-45 MHz

(c)  45-70 MHz

(d)  1-15 MHz

46. Hybridomas are the fusion product of

(a)  abnormal antibody producing cell with myeloma

(b)  normal antibody producing cell with myeloma

(c)  sex cells with myeloma

(d)  bone cells with myeloma

47. Electron beam therapy is a kind of radiation therapy to treat

(a)  certain types of cancer

(b)  gall bladder stones by breaking them

(c)  enlarged prostate gland

(d)  None of these

48. The antibody dependent cytotoxicity is seen in

(a)  non-compatible blood  transfusion

(b)  local anaphylaxis

(c)  generalized anaphylaxis

(d)  None of these

49. Vernalization stimulates flower in

(a)  carrot

(b)  turmeric

(c)  elephant yam

(d)  ginger

50. Ornithophily refers to the pollination by which of the following?

(a)  Snails

(b)  Birds

(c)  Insects

(d)  Air

51. Hormone related with cell divisions is

(a)  NAA

(b)  IAA

(c)  Cytokinin

(d)  GA3

52. In C3 path way, the first stable compound is

(a)  PGAL

(b)  OAA

(c)  PGA

(d)  RUDP

53. In the synthesis of which of the following, DNA molecule is NOT directly involved?

(a)  mRNA molecule

(b)  protein molecule

(c)  tRNA molecule

(d)  None of these

54. A polygenic trait is controlled by 3 genes A, B and C. In a cross Aa BbCc, phenotypic ratio of the a offsprings was observed as 1 : 6 : x : 20 : x : 6 : 1. What is the value of x?

(a)  3

(b)  9

(c)  15

(d)  25

55. Total number of water molecule produced per molecule of glucose during aerobic respiration is

(a)  10

(b)  6

(c)  12

(d)  8

56. Both B-cells and T-cells of Immune system are produced in

(a)  spleen

(b)  lymphoid nodes

(c)  Bone narrow

(d)  None of these

57. Hb value for a: healthy adult male is

(a)  100 g/100 ml

(b)  11 g/100 ml

(c)  12 g/100 ml

(d)  14-15 g/100 ml

58. Deoxygenated blood from wall of heart is carried by

(a)  coronary sinus

(b)  inferior vena cava

(c)  superior vena cava

(d)  None of these

59. First and louder sound of heart during ventricular systole is

(a)  Lubb

(b)  Dubb

(c)  Murmur

(d)  Hissing

60. Accumulation of urea and other waste substance in the blood is called

(a)  Hemodialysis

(b)  Cystitis

(c)  Uremia

(d)  Urethritis

61. Motor neurons electrically stimulate nearby muscle fibres at

(a)  creatine phosphate

(b)  actin filament

(c)  neuromuscular junction

(d)  None of these

62. In an ecosystem Biotic factors affect the survival of an organism in that ecosystem. They include

(a)  competition for water

(b)  competition for shelter

(c)  co-operation to help find food

(d)  All of these

63. Cell division CANNOT be stopped in which phase of the cell cycle?

(a)  G1 phase

(b)  G2 phase

(c)  S-phase

(d)  Prophase

64. What type of plant is formed when colchicines is used in the process of development of Raphanobrassica?

(a)  Autotetraploid

(b)  Haploid

(c)  Triploid

(d)  Allotetraploid

65. The n on-sister chromatids twist around and exchange segments with each other during

(a)  Leptotene

(b)  Diakinesis

(c)  Diplotene

(d)  Pachytene

66. Cells in Go phase of cell cycle

(a)  exit cell cycle

(b)  enter cell cycle

(c)  suspend cell cycle

(d)  terminate cell cycle

67. During oogenesis the cell that is fertilized by a sperm to become an egg is

(a)  primary spermatocyte

(b)  secondary oocyte

(c)  primary oocyte

(d)  None of these

68. A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in the egg will affect

(a)  fertilization

(b)  formation of zygote

(c)  pattern of cleavage

(d)  None of these

Mathematics

1. A natural number is selected from first 20 natural numbers. The probability that  is

(a)  1/5

(b)  2/5

(c)  3/5

(d)  4/5

2. A and B are two events such that P(A)>0 and P(B) ≠ 1 then  is equal to

(a)  1 – P(A|B)

(b)

(c)

(d)

3. The range of the function f(x) = 7 – xPx – 3 is

(a)  {1, 2, 3}

(b)  {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}

(c)  {1, 2, 3, 4}

(d)  None of these

4. Let f(x) = |x – 1|, then

(a)  f(x2) = [f(x)]2

(b)  f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y)

(c)  f(|x|) = |f(x)|

(d)  None of these

5. If X and Y are two sets, then X ∩ (X ∪ Y)C equals

(a)  X

(b)  Y

(c)  ϕ

(d)  None of these

6. The area of the region bounded by the curves y = |x – 2|; x = 1, x = 3 and x-axis is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

7.

(a)  3/2

(b)  5/2

(c)  3

(d)  5

8. What is the last digit in the expansion of (2457)754?

(a)  3

(b)  7

(c)  8

(d)  9

9. If 3x + 27(3x) = 12, then x = ?

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  1 or 2

(d)  0 or 1

10. If x = 1 + √2, then x4 + 4x3 + 4x2 = ?

(a)  −1

(b)  0

(c)  1

(d)  2

11. The sum of the series  is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

12. The sum of any ten positive real numbers multiplied by the sum of their reciprocals is

(a)  ≥ 10

(b)  ≥ 50

(c)  ≥ 100

(d)  ≥ 200

13. If Sn denotes the sum of integer n terms of an A.P. and S2n = 3 Sn then the ratio S3n/Sn = ?

(a)  4

(b)  6

(c)  8

(d)  10

14. The value of cos2 α + cos2(α + 1200) + cos2(α – 1200) is

(a)  3/2

(b)  1/2

(c)  1

(d)  0

15. If A = sin2 θ + cos4 θ, the for all real values at θ

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

16. The principal value of  is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

17. The smallest positive root of the equation tan x = x lies in

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

18. The sum of the series  is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

19. Suppose f(x) is differential at x = 1 and  then f ʹ(1) =

(a)  3

(b)  4

(c)  5

(d)  6

20. If and  |W| = 1, then Z lies on

(a)  an ellipse

(b)  a circle

(c)  a straight line

(d)  a parabola

21. If ω is an imaginary cube root of unity, then (1 + ω – ω2)7 =

(a)  128ω

(b)  −128ω

(c)  128ω2

(d)  −128ω2

22. If n+1C3 = 2 nC2, then the value of n =

(a)  3

(b)  4

(c)  5

(d)  6

23. If f : R → S, defined by f(x) = sin x – √3 cos x + 1 is onto, then the interval of S is

(a)  [0.3]

(b)  [−1, 1]

(c)  [0, 1]

(d)  [−1, 3]

24. Area of the greatest rectangle that can be inscribe in an ellipse  is

(a)  2ba

(b)  ab

(c)  √ab

(d)  a/b

25. The points (−a, −b), (0, 0), (a, b) and (a2, ab) are

(a)  collinear

(b)  vertices of parallelogram

(c)  vertices of rectangle

(d)  None of these

26. The area enclosed between the curve y = loge(x + e) and the coordinate axes is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

27. If the roots of the equation x2 – bx + c = 0 be two consecutive integers, then b2 – 4c =

(a)  −2

(b)  3

(c)  2

(d)  1

28. If the angle θ between the line  and the plane  , is that  then the value of λ is

(a)  5/3

(b)  −3/5

(c)  3/4

(d)  −4/3

29. A line through the point P(0, 6, 8) intersects the sphere x2 + y2 + z2 = 36 in points A and B, then PA × PB = ?

(a)  36

(b)  24

(c)  100

(d)  64

30. The third term of a geometric progression is 4. The product of first five terms is

(a)  43

(b)  45

(c)  44

(d)  None of these

31. If the first term minus third term of G.P. = 768 and the third term minus seventh term of the same G.P. = 240, then the product of first 21 terms is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

32. If x, y, z are pth, qth and rth term respectively of an A.P. and also of a G.P. then xy – z yz – xzx – y = ?

(a)  xyz

(b)  0

(c)  1

(d)  ∞

33. If 2a + 3b + 6c = 0, then at least one root of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, lies in the interval of

(a)  (0, 1)

(b)  (1, 2)

(c)  (2, 3)

(d)  (1, 3)

34. If x + |y| = 2y, then y as a function of x is

(a)  defined for all real x

(b)  continuous at x  = 0

(c)

(d)  All of these

35. If  then   is

(a)  0

(b)  ∞

(c)  1

(d)  None of these

36. If y = aInx + bx2 + x has extreme values at x = −1 and x = 2, then

(a)  a = 2, b = −1

(b)  a = 2, b = −1/2

(c)  a = −2, b = 1/2

(d)  None of these

37. There are 8 players from which four teams each of two players are formed. What is the probability that two specific players are in one team?

(a)  1/4

(b)  15/28

(c)  1/8

(d)  1/7

38. The number of ways of putting 10 different things in 2 boxes, such that there are not less than 2 things in any of the two boxes is

(a)  1024

(b)  1023

(c)  1013

(d)  1002

39. Four dice are rolled. The number of possible outcomes in which altleast two dice show 6 is

(a)  216

(b)  900

(c)  150

(d)  171

40. The domain of definition of the function y(x) has given by the equation 2x + 2y = 2 is

(a)  0 < x ≤ 1

(b)  0 ≤ x ≤ 1

(c)  −∞ < x ≤ 0

(d)  −∞ < x < 1

41. The number log2 7 is

(a)  an integer

(b)  a rational number

(c)  an irrational number

(d)  a prime number

42. If two circles (x – 1)2 + (y – 3)2 = r2 and x2 + y2 – 8x + 2y + 8 = 0 intersect in two distinct points, then

(a)  2 < r < 8

(b)  r < 2

(c)  r = 2

(d)  r > 2

43. If f(x) = cos (lnx), then  has the value

(a)  −1

(b)  1/2

(c)  −2

(d)  None of these

44. For any integer n, the integer  has the value

(a)  x

(b)  1

(c)  0

(d)  None of these

45. In triangle PQR,  if   are the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, a ≠ 0, then

(a)  a = b + c

(b)  c = a + b

(c)  b = c

(d)  b = a + c

46. If  then the value of x is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

47. For which value of x, sin[cot1(x + 1)] = cos(tan1x) ?

(a)  1/2

(b)  0

(c)  1

(d)  −1/2

48. If α and β are roots of x2 + px + q = 0 and α4 and β4 are the roots of r2 – rx + s = 0, then the equation x2 – 4qx + 2q2 – r = 0 ha always

(a)  two real roots

(b)  two positive roots

(c)  two negative roots

(d)  one positive and one negative root

49. For real value of x, the function  will assume all real values provided

(a)  a > b > c

(b)  b > a > c

(c)  a > c > b

(d)  None of these

50. The number of real solutions of the equation |x|2 – 3|x| + 2 = 0 is

(a)  4

(b)  1

(c)  3

(d)  2

51. Both the roots of the equation (x – b) (x – c) + (x – a) (x – c) + (x – a) (x – b) = 0 are always

(a)  positive

(b)  negative

(c)  real

(d)  None of these

52. The value of  is

(a)  6/17

(b)  7/16

(c)  16/7

(d)  None of these

53. The value of the definite integral is

(a)  −1

(b)  2

(c)  1 + e1

(d)  None of these

54. The value of  is

(a)  0

(b)  π

(c)  π/2

(d)  π/4

55. The value of the integral

(a)  π/4

(b)  π/2

(c)  π

(d)  None of these

56.

(a)  2

(b)  −2

(c)  1/2

(d)  −1/2

57. The complex number sin x + i cos 2x and cos x – i sin 2x are conjugate to each other for

(a)  x = πn

(b)  x = 0

(c)

(d)  no value of x

58. The inequality |z – 4| < |z – 2| represents the region given by

(a)  Re(z) > 0

(b)  Re(z) < 0

(c)  Re(z) > 2

(d)  None of these

59. The points Z1, Z2, Z3, Z4 in the complex plane are the vertices of a parallelogram taken in order if and only if

(a)  Z1 + Z4 = Z2 + Z3

(b)  Z1 + Z3 = Z2 + Z4

(c)  Z1 + Z2 = Z3 + Z4

(d)  None of these

60. If  are non-coplanar unit vectors such that  then the angle between  is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

61. The number of vectors of unit length perpendicular to  is

(a)  one

(b)  two

(c)  three

(d)  infinite

62. The points with position vectors 60i + 3j, ai – 52 are collinear, if

(a)  a = −40

(b)  a = 40

(c)  a = 20

(d)  None of these

63. The value of

(a)  0

(b)  1/4

(c)  1/5

(d)  1/30

64. The function  has local minimum at x = ?

(a)  0

(b)  1, 2

(c)  2, 4

(d)  3, 1

65. Which of the following functions is differentiable at x = 0 ?

(a)  cos (|x|) + |x|

(b)  cos(|x|) − |x|

(c)  sin(|x|) + |x|

(d)  sin(|x|) − |x|

66. The events A, B, C are mutually exclusive events such that

The set of possible values of x are in the intervals

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

67. If and  then P(B ∩ C) =

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Latest Govt Job & Exam Updates:

# View Full List ...

© Copyright Entrance India - Engineering and Medical Entrance Exams in India | Website Maintained by Firewall Firm - IT Monteur