# OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2018 With Answer Key

 Go to all OUAT Previous Year Question Papers 2022, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012,2011, 2010, 2009, 2008, 2007

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year-2018

MENTAL APTITUDE

Directions for questions 1 – 10 :

In the problem Figures, the first two figures bear a definite relationship with each other, and the third figure bears the same relation with one of the four figures given as Answer Figures, marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Indicate the correct answer.

Questions:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. If + means ÷, × means −, ÷ means × and – means +, then 8 + 6 × 4 ÷ 3 – 4 = ?

(A) −12

(B) −20/3

(C) 12

(D) 20/3

Direction for questions 12 – 14 :

In each of the following questions, four groups of letters are given; three of them are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the ODD one.

Questions:

12.

(A) FIL

(B) RUX

(C) ILO

(D) LOQ

13.

(A) AZBY

(B) PTQS

(C) CWDW

(D) PTQS

14.

(A) NEXFL

(B) LANCP

(C) FRGSP

(D) ZGPKU

15. In a row of 60, A is standing at 10th from the right end, how many places should A move left ward to become 23rd from the left end?

(A) 25

(B) 26

(C) 27

(D) 28

Directions for questions 16 – 19 :

Each question is followed by two statements (A) and (B)

Indicate

(1) If statement (A) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (B) alone is not sufficient.

(2) If statement (B) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (A) alone is not sufficient.

(3) If BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

(4) If statements (A) and (B) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

Questions:

16. If is x < 0 ?

(A) x < y

(B) z < 0

17. If p is the perimeter of rectangle Q, what is the value of p?

(A) Each diagonal of rectangle Q has length 10.

(B) The area of rectangle Q is 48.

18. In a school, 300 students study Hindi or Urdu or both. If 100 of these students do not study Hindi, how many of these students study both Hindi and Urdu?

(A) Of the 300 students, 200 study Hindi or both languages.

(B) A total of 240 of the students study Urdu.

19. If m is an integar, is m odd?

(A) m/2 is NOT an even integer.

(B) m – 3 is an even integer.

20. Pointing to a photograph, a woman says, “This man’s son’s sister is my mother-in-law”. How is the woman’s husband related to the man in the photograph?

(A) Grandson

(B) Son

(C) Son-in-law

(D) Nephew

Direction for questions 21 – 24 :

In each of the following questions, a pair of words is given. You are to study the relation existing between them and then find out from the given alternatives, the pair of words that bears the same relation between them and indicate that on the answer sheet.

Questions :

21. Fatigue : Resting

(A) Overweight : Dieting

(B) Ward : Comfortable

(D) Elevated : Exalted

(A) Cube : Trifold

(B) Square : Rectangle

(C) Trident : Trapezium

(D) Pentagon : Hexagon

23. Numismatist : Coins

(A) Philatelist : Stamps

(B) Jeweller : Jewels

(C) Cartographer : Maps

(D) Geneticist : Chromosomes

24. Textile : Mill

(A) Eggs : Hen

(B) Coal : Mine

(C) Food : Agriculture

(D) Brick : Kiln

25. Rahim moves 20 metres in East direction and then turns to his left and then moves 15 metres and then he turns to his right and moves 25 metres. After this he turns to his right and moves 15 metres. Now how far is he from his starting point?

(A) 0 metre

(B) 40 metres

(C) 45 metres

(D) 50 metres

Directions for questions 26 – 28:

The numbers in each series proceed according to a certain rule. Your task is to find out the rule according to which the numbers are arranged and find out the number which can fill in the LAST blank with the ‘?’ mark from among the suggested answers.

Questions :

26. 301 291   282  274   ?

(A) 265

(B) 268

(C) 270

(D) 267

27. 3 2  9  4  81  16  6561  ?

(A) 64

(B) 243

(C) 256

(D) None of these

28. 4 6  10  18  34  66  ?

(A) 100

(B) 130

(C) 88

(D) 99

29. If the first day of the year (other than the leap year) was Friday, then which will be the last day of that year?

(A) Monday

(B) Friday

(C) Saturday

(D) Sunday

Direction for questions 30 – 39:

In each of the following questions there are figures. Three of them are similar in some respect while one is different. Select the figure which is DIFFERENT.

Questions :

30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. If ‘man’ is called ‘girl’, ‘girl’ is called ‘boy’, ‘boy’ is called ‘lady’, ‘lady’ is called ‘butler’ and ‘butler’ is called ‘player’, who will serve in restaurant?

(A) Player

(B) Butler

(C) Boy

Direction for questions 41 – 43 :

All the 30 students of a class took a test on Mathematics and a test on English. The following table shows the result : Two students failed both in Mathematics and English.

41. How many students failed in only one subject?

(A) 28

(B) 25

(C) 22

(D) 9

42. How many students passed in at least one subject?

(A) 28

(B) 25

(C) 22

(D) 9

43. How many students passed in both the subjects?

(A) 28

(B) 25

(C) 22

(D) 19

44. If in a certain language, TIGER is coded as RIGET, how is ‘CROWN’ coded in that code ?

(A) NROWC

(B) NOWRC

(C) RRWCO

(D) NOWCR

Directions for questions 45 – 49 :

(i) There is a group of five persons A, B, C, D and E.

(ii) One of them is a horticulturist, one is a physicist, one is a journalist, one is a industrialist and one is an advocate.

(iii) Three of them – A, C and advocate prefer tea to coffee and two of them – B and the journalist prefer coffee to tea.

(iv) The industrialist and D and A are friend of one another but two of these prefer coffee to tea.

Questions :

45. Who is a horticulturist ?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

46. Who is an industrialist?

(A) E

(B) C

(C) B

(D) D

47. Which of the following groups includes a person who likes tea but is not an advocate?

(A) ACE

(B) DE

(C) BD

(D) BCD

48. Who is physicist?

(A) A

(B) C

(C) D

(D) E

49. Which of the statements above is superfluous in order to answer the above questions ?

(A) Nil

(B) (iii)

(C) (ii)

(D) (v)

50. If BAT = 40, AT = 20 then CAT will be equal to ?

(A) 70

(B) 50

(C) 60

(D) 30

PHYSICS

51. The rate of change of current of 10 A s1 in a coil produces an emf of 5 V. Then the self-inductance of the coil in henry is :

(A) 0.5

(B) 0.25

(C) 1.0

(D) 1.25

52. The phase difference between the alternating current and emf is π/2. Which of the following CANNOT be the constituent of the circuit?

(A) L, C

(B) L alone

(C) C alone

(D) R, L

53. An electric motor operating on 15 V supply draws a current of 5 A and yields mechanical powers of 60 W. The energy lost as heat in one hour (in kJ) is :

(A) 0.54

(B) 5.4

(C) 54

(D) 540

54. The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the amplitude of electric field for an electromagnetic wave propagating in vacuum is equal to:

(A) the speed of light in vacuum

(B) reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum

(C) the ratio of magnetic permeability to the electric susceptibility of vacuum

(D) unity

55. The ratio of the speed of an object to the speed of its real image of magnification m in the case of a convex mirror is :

(A) −1/m2

(B) m2

(C) −m

(D) 1/m

56. An air bubble is contained inside water. It behaves as a :

(A) concave lens

(B) convex lens

(C) neither concave nor convex

(D) None of these

57. An eye specialist prescribes spectacles having a combination of a convex lens of focal length 40 cm in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. The power of this lens combination will be :

(A) +1.5 D

(B) −1.5 D

(C) +6.67

(D) −6/67

58. Two monochromatic light waves of amplitudes A and 2A interfering at a point have a phase difference of 600. The intensity at that point will be proportional to :

(A) 3 A2

(B) 5 A2

(C) 7 A2

(D) 9 A2

59. Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain minimum :

(A) power

(B) wavelength

(C) intensity

(D) frequency

60. If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, its de Broglie wavelength changes by the factor

(A) 1/√2

(B) √2

(C) 1/2

(D) 2

61. The decimal equivalent of the binary number (1 1 0 1 0. 1 0 1)2 is :

(A) 9.625

(B) 25.265

(C) 26.625

(D) 26.265

62. Application of a forward bias to a p-n junction :

(A) widens the depletion zone

(B) increases the potential difference across the depletion zone

(C) increases the number of donors on the n-side

(D) increases the electric field in the depletion zone

63. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are :

(A) FV1T1

(B) FVT1

(C) FV1T

(D) FVT2

64. If the error in measurement of radius of a sphere is 2%, then the error in the determination of volume of the sphere will be :

(A) 2%

(B) 4%

(C) 6%

(D) 8%

65. A particle is travelling along a straight line OX. The distance x(in meters) of the particle from O at a time t is given by x = 37 + 27t – t3, where t is in seconds. The distance of the particle from O when it comes to rest is :

(A) 81 m

(B) 91 m

(C) 101 m

(D) 111 m

66. Value of ratio between cross product and dot product of two vectors is 1/3. The angle between two vectors is:

(A) 30°

(B) 45°

(C) 60°

(D) 120°

67. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V and bounces back with the same velocity. The impulse experienced by the body is :

(A) MV

(B) 1.5 MV

(C) 2 MV

(D) Zero

68. For an object sliding on a plane, the force of friction is less if the plane is inclined, instead of being horizontal

(A) because, effective mass decreases

(B) because, normal force decreases

(C) because, co-efficient of friction decreases

(D) for an angle of inclination θ, friction is inversely proportional to tan θ

69. If a body travels along a circular path with uniform speed then its acceleration

(A) is zero

(B) acts along its circumference

(C) acts along its tangent

70. A force is acting on a mass of 6 kg. Displacement x of the mass is related with time t as x = t2/4 meter. Work done by the force in 2 sec. is :

(A) 3 J

(B) 6 J

(C) 9 J

(D) 12 J

71. A particle is projected from the ground with kinetic energy E at an angle of 60° with the horizontal. Its kinetic energy at the highest point of its motion will be :

(A) F/√2

(B) E/2

(C) E/4

(D) E/8

72. Power required to raise a mass of 120 kg vertically upwards at a velocity of 4.5 m.s1 is :

(A) 5 kW

(B) 5.3 kW

(C) 8 kW

(D) 11.2 kW

73. A body falling vertically downwards under gravity breaks in two parts of unequal masses. The centre of mass of the two parts taken together shifts horizontally towards

(A) lighter piece

(B) heavier piece

(C) depends on the vertical velocity at the time of breaking

(D) does not shift horizontally

74. Angular momentum of a moving body remains constant if

(A)a pressure acts on the body

(B) an external force acts on the body

(C) an external torque acts on the body

(D) no external torque acts on the body

75. Moment of inertia of circular wire of mass m and radius r about its diameter is

(A) 1/2mr2

(B) 1/4 mr2

(C) mr2

(D) 2mr2

76. If the diurnal motion of the earth ceases al on a sudden, then the value of the acceleration due to gravity of a body at the equator will

(A) remains same

(B) be zero

(C) increase

(D) decrease

77. Two satellites of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are revolving around the earth in orbits of radii r1 and r2 (r1 > r2) with velocities v1 and v2 In this case

(A) v1 = v2

(B) v1 < v2

(C) v1 > v2

(D) v1/r­1 = v2/r2

78. A wire of initial length L and area of cross-section A has Young’s modulus Y of its material. The wire is stretched by a stress S within its elastic limit. The stored energy density in the wire will be

(A) S/2Y

(B) 2Y/S2

(C) S2/2Y

(D) S2/Y

79. Which of the following works on Pascal’s law?

(A) Sprayer

(B) Hydraulic lift

(C) Barometer

(D) Venturimeter

80. Surface energy of a water drop of radius r will be directly proportional to

(A) r

(B) r2

(C) r3

(D) 1/r

81. A spherical ball is falling with a uniform velocity v through a viscous medium of coefficient of viscosity n. If the viscous force acting on the spherical ball is F then

(A) F ∝ η and F ∝ 1/v

(B) F ∝ η and F ∝ v

(C) F ∝ 1/n and F ∝ 1/v

(D) F ∝ 1/n and F ∝ v

82. Apparent weight of a body immersed in water at 20°C is W1. When temperature is increased to 40°C, the apparent weight becomes W2. In this case

(A) for different solids W2 may be greater than or less than W1

(B) W2 is always equal to W1

(C) W2 is always less than W1

(D) W2 is always greater than W1

83. An ideal gas is expanding such that pT2 = constant. The coefficient of volume expansion of the gas is

(A) 1/T

(B) 2/T

(C) 3/T

(D) 4/T

84. During boiling water at 100°C, what will be its specific heat?

(A) zero

(B) 0.5

(C) 1

(D) infinite

85. If the temperature of a black body raises from T to 2T, how many times will its rate of radiation be ?

(A) 16

(B) 8

(C) 4

(D) 2

86. In a given process of an ideal gas, dW = 0 and dQ < 0. Then for the gas

(A) the temperature will decrease

(B) the volume will increase

(C) the pressure will remain constant

(D) the temperature will increase

87. Even Carnot engine CANNOT give 100% efficiency, because we CANNOT

(A) eliminate friction

(C) reach absolute zero temperature

(D) find ideal sources

88. 3 mol of a monatomic gas (υ = 5/3) is mixed with 1 mol of a diatomic gas (υ = 7/3). The value of υ for the mixture will be

(A) 9/11

(B) 11/7

(C) 12/7

(D) 15/7

89. Time period of a simple pendulum on the surface of the earth is T1 and at a height R above the surface of the earth is T2, here R is the radius of the earth. The ratio T1/T2 :

(A) 1

(B) √2

(C) 4

(D) 2

90. When a force F1 acts on a particle, frequency is 6 Hz and when a force F2 acts, frequency is 8 Hz. Now if both the forces act simultaneously in same direction, then its frequency becomes

(A) 20 Hz

(B) 14 Hz

(C) 10 Hz

(D) 2 Hz

91. When a fundamental tone is produced from pipe of length l, open at both ends, the wavelength of the stationary wave is

(A) l

(B) 2l

(C) l/2

(D) 4l

92. A source of sound with frequency 256 Hz is moving with a velocity υ towards a wall and an observer is stationary between the source and wall. When the observer is between the source and the wall, he will

(A) hear beats

(B) hear no beats

(C) not get any sound

(D) get the sound of same frequency

93. If a charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges Q such that the system is in equilibrium, then the value of q is

(A) Q/2

(B) −Q/2

(C) −Q/4

(D) Q/4

94. If a linear isotropic dielectric is placed in an electric field of strength E, then the polarization P is

(A) independent of E

(B) inversely proportional to E

(C) directly proportional to √E

(D) directly proportional to E

95. Three resistances P, Q, R each of 2 ohm and an unknown resistance S form the four arms of a Wheatstone’s bridge circuit. When a resistance of 6 ohm is connected in parallel to S the bridge gets balanced. What is the value of S?

(A) 2Ω

(B) 3Ω

(C) 6Ω

(D) 1Ω

96. A heater coil is a cut into two equal parts and only one part is now used in the heater. The heat generated will now be

(A) one fourth

(B) halved

(C) doubled

(D) four times

97. An electric bulb marked as 50 W-200 V is connected across a 100 V supply. The present power of the bulb is

(A) 37.5 W

(B) 25 W

(C) 12.5 W

(D) 10 W

98. A circular coil carrying a certain current produces a magnetic field B0 at its centre. The coil is now rewound so as to have 3 turns and the same current is passed through it. The new magnetic field at the centre is

(A) B0/9

(B) 9B0

(C) B0/3

(D) 3B0

99. A straight wire of length 2 m carries a current of 10 A. If this wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.15 T making an angle of 45° with the magnetic field, the applied force on the wire will be

(A) 1.5 N

(B) 3√2 N

(C) 3 N

(D) 3/√2

100. Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room temperature. If the temperature is increased beyond Curie temperature, then it will show

(A) anti-ferromagnetism

(B) paramagnetism

(C) diamagnetism

(D) no magnetic property

CHEMISTRY

101. At 250°C, the correct order of molar ionic conductances of the ions H+, Li+, Na+ and K+ in infinite dilute aqueous solution is

(A) H+ < Li+ < Na+ < K+

(B) K+ < Na+ < Li+ < H+

(C) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < H+

(D) Li+ < K+ < H+ < Na+

102. The activation energy of a reaction depends on

(A) temperature

(B) initial concentration of the reactant

(C) effective collisions among the reactant molecules

(D) nature of the reactants

103. The bottle of liquor ammonia is cooled before opening the cork because it

(A) is a mild explosive

(B) is a corrosive liquid

(C) is harmful to lung

(D) exerts high vapour pressure

104. Which of the following substances form a colloidal solution in water?

(A) Glucose

(B) Urea

(C) BaSO4

(D) Starch

105. Adsorption of a gas on a solid surface is an exothermic process, because

(A) change in free energy of the system increases

(B) enthalpy of the system increases

(C) entropy of the system increases

(D) enthalpy of the system decreases

106. In the manufacture of steel, the process in which O2 is used instead of air is

(A) Open-hearth process

(B) Acidic Bessemer’s process

(C) Alkaline Bessemer’s process

(D) LD process

107. The ore that does NOT contain aluminium is

(A) fluorspar

(B) Feldspar

(C) Cryolite

(D) Mica

108. Which of the following nitrogen oxides is ionic ?

(A) Nitrogen trioxide

(B) Nitrogen pentoxide

(C) Dinitrogen tetroxide

(D) Nitric oxide

109. Which one of the following is used as the photosensitive substance in Xerox machines

(A) Hg

(B) Black P

(C) Se

(D) Te

110. Fe2+ can be differentiated from Fe3+ with the help of

(A) BaCl2

(B) AgNO3

(C) NH4SCN

(D) None of these

111. The salt of the d-block element that is used as a catalyst in the dissociation of the bleaching powder is

(A) Ni

(B) CO

(C) V

(D) Cr

112. The reagent used for identifying Nickel ion is

(A) Potassium ferrocyanide

(B) Phenolphthalein

(C) Dimethylglyoxime

(D) EDTA

113. When 800g of a 40% solution by weight was cooled, 100 g of solute was precipitated. The percentage composition of the remaining solution is

(A) 20.0%

(B) 25.0%

(C) 31.4%

(D) 50.0%

114. A sample of Na2CO3. H2O weighing 0.62 g is added to 100 ml of 0.1 NH2SO4. The resulting solution will be

(A) Basic

(B) Neutral

(C) Acidic

(D) Amphoteric

115. An anion X3 has 36 electrons and 45 neutrons. What is the mass number of the element X?

(A) 81

(B) 84

(C) 78

(D) 88

116. If two particles are associated with same kinetic energy, then the de-Broglie’s wavelength (λ) of these particles is

(A) directly proportional to the velocity

(B) inversely proportional to the velocity

(C) independent of mass and velocity

(D) cannot be predicted

117. The increasing order of the first ionization enthalpies of the elements B, P S and F is

(A) F < S < P < B

(B) P < S < B < F

(C) B < P < S < F

(D) B < S < P < F

118. In the relation, Electronegativity = , r is

119. The species in which the central atom uses sp2 hybrid orbitals in its bonding is

(A) NH3

(B) PH3

(C) CH3+

(D) SbH3

120. The molecule with the highest dipole moment is

(A) CH2Cl2

(B) CH3Cl

(C) CHCl3

(D) CCl4

121. The dimension of coefficient of viscosity

(A) MLT

(B) ML1T1

(C) MLT1

(D) MLT2

122. At STP, O2 gas present in a flask was replaced by SO2 under similar conditions. The mass of SO2 present in the flask will be

(A) half that of O2

(B) equal to that of O2

(C) twice that of O2

(D) one-third of O2

123. In a reversible process, if the changes in entropy of the system and its surroundings are ∆S1 & ∆S2 respectively, then

(A) ∆S1 + ∆S2 > 0

(B) ∆S1 + ∆S2 < 0

(C) ∆S1 + ∆S2 = 0

(D) ∆S1 + ∆S2 ≥ 0

124. The volume of a gas is reduced to half from its original volume. The specific heat will

(A) double

(B) remain constant

(C) reduce to half

(D) increase four times

125. The reaction, A(g) + 2B(g) ⇌ 2C(g) + D(g) was studied using an initial concentration of B which was 1.5 times that of A. The equilibrium concentration of A and C were found to be equal. SO, Kc for the equilibrium is

(A) 0.32

(B) 2.73

(C) 4.0

(D) 8.17

126. A mixture containing N2 and H2 in a mole ratio 1 : 3 is allowed to attain equilibrium when 50% of the mixture has reacted. If P is the pressure at equilibrium, then the partial pressure of NH3 formed is

(A) P/2

(B) P/3

(C) P/5

(D) P/9

127. Oxidation number of P in pyrophosphoric acid is

(A) +1

(B) +3

(C) +4

(D) +5

128. The amount of H2O2 required for decolourising 1mol of KMnO4 in an acid solution is

(A) 1.5 mol

(B) 2.0 mol

(C) 2.5 mol

(D) 3.0 mol

129. The process by which hydrogen is prepared by the reaction of silicon, iron alloy and NaOH, is

(A) Haber’s process

(B) Silicon process

(C) Wood process

(D) Bosch process

130. Which of the followings does NOT get reduced by H2 in its aqueous solution?

(A) Cu2+

(B) Fe3+

(C) Zn2+

(D) Ag+

131. The compound which is used to extinguish fire caused by combustion of alkali metals is

(A) CCl4

(B) Sand

(C) Water

(D) Kerosene

132. The compound whose aqueous solution is called ‘baryta water’ is

(A) BaSO4

(B) BaO

(C) BaCO3

(D) Ba(OH)2

133. The optically active alkane of lowest molecular mass which is also chiral is

(A) 3-methylhexane

(B) 2,3-dimethylpentane

(C) 2-methylhexane

(D) 2, 5-dimethylhexane

134. Bond lengths C – H, C – O, C – C and C = C follow the sequence

(A) C – H < C – O < C – C < C = C

(B) C – H < C = C < C – O < C – C

(C) C – C < C = C < C – O < C – H

(D) C – O < C – H < C – C < C = C

135. Nitrobenzene is prepared from benzene by using conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4. In the nitrating mixture, nitric acid acts as a/an

(A) Base

(B) Acid

(C) Reducing agent

(D) Catalyst

136. In strong acidic and alkaline medium, p-aminophenol exists in (X) and (Y) forms respectively Thus, in acidic and alkaline medium, electrophilic substitution occurs at

(A) a, c

(B) a, d

(C) b, c

(D) b, d

137. Incomplete combustion of gasoline produces

(A) CO2

(B) CO

(C) SO2

(D) NO2

138. Cause of byssinosis diseases

(A) fly-ash

(B) cement particles

(C) cotton fibre

139. Which one is NOT favourable for SN1 reaction

(A) Polar solvent

(B) Strong nucleophile

(C) Low concentration

(D) 3° alkyl halide

140. Consider the following reaction : The product Z is

(A) Benzaldehyde

(B) Benzene

(C) Benzoic acid

(D) Toluene

141. Which converts carboxylic acids directly into alcohols?

(A) LiAlH4

(B) Na + C2H5OH

(C) NaBH4

(D) All of these

142. In the reaction of acetaldehyde with aniline, the product formed is

(A) Schiff’s base

(B) Carbylamine

(C) Imine

(D) None of these

143. Complete hydrolysis of cellulose yields

(A) D-fructose

(B) D-ribose

(C) D-glucose

(D) L-glucose

144. Monomers of Buna-S are

(D) Vinyl chloride and Sulphur

145. Chemical name of aspirin is

(A) Methyl Benzoate

(B) Ethyl Salicylate

(C) Acetylsalicyclic acid

(D) Hydroxybenzoic acid

146. Which of the following crystal systems does NOT have body-centered lattice?

(A) Orthorhombic

(B) Tetragonal

(C) Monoclinic

(D) Cubic

147. NaCl has face-centered unit cell. In its crystal, the number of Clions present in contact with a Na+ ion is

(A) 4

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 10

148. Which of the following concentration units does NOT depend on temperature?

(A) Molarity

(B) Normality

(C) Mole fraction

(D) Formality

149. At a given temperature, which one of the following solutions would have the highest vapour pressure?

(A) 0.1 m glucose solution

(B) 0.1 m NaCl solution

(C) 0.1 m CaCl2 solution

(D) 0.1 m Al2 (SO4)3 solution

150. Which one of the following does NOT give precipitate on reaction with lead acetate?

(A) HI

(B) HBr

(C) HCl

(D) HF

MATHEMATICS

151. The largest interval for which x12 – x9 + x4 – x + 1 > 0 is

(A) −4 < x ≤ 0

(B) 0 < x < 1

(C) −100 < x < 100

(D) 0 < x < ∝

152. The smallest positive integer n for which holds is

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

153. The number of integral solutions of x2 + y2 = x2y2 is

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) infinite

(D) None of these

154. How many ways are there to arrange the letters in the word GARDEN with the vowels in alphabetical order ?

(A) 120

(B) 240

(C) 360

(D) 480

155. The sum of the series upto ∞ is equal to

(A) 2 loge2

(B) loge2 – 1

(C) loge2

(D) loge (4/e)

156. Let a1, a2, a3 ……. cannot be terms of an A.P. If (A) 7/2

(B) 2/7

(C) 11/41

(D) 41/11

157. If the slope of the line joining the points A(x, 2) and B(6, −8) is −5/4, then x = ?

(A) −2

(B) 2

(C) −3

(D) 3

158. The equation of the perpendicular bisector of the line joining the points A(2, 3) and B(6, −9) is

(A) x + 2y – 6 = 0

(B) x – 2y – 6 = 0

(C) x + 2y + 6 = 0

(D) x – 2y + 6 = 0

159. If A(−1, 3) and B(α, β) be the extremities of the diameter of the circle x2 + y2 – 6x + 5y – 7 = 0, then

(A) α = −7, β = 8

(B) α = 7, β = −8

(C) α = −6, β = 7

(D) α = 6, β = −7

160. If the parabola y2 = 4ax passes through the point P(3, 2), then the length of its latus rectum is

(A) 1/3

(B) 2/3

(C) 4/3

(D) 4

161. One focus of hyperbola is at(0, 4) and the length of its transverse axis is 6. The equation of the hyperbola is

(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these

162. The foci of an ellipse are (0, ±6) and the length of its minor axis is 16. The equation of the ellipse is

(A) (B) (C) (D) 163. State which of the following is total number of relations from set A = {1, 2, 3, 4} to set B = {d, e} is –

(A) 24

(B) 26

(C) 28

(D) 215

164. Let A = {a, b, c, d} and f : A → A be defined by, f(a) = d, f(b) = a, f(c) = b and f(d) = c. State which of the following is equal to f1 (b) ?

(A) {a}

(B) {b}

(C) {c)

(D) {d}

165. If the binary operation on Z is defined by a*b = a2 – b2 + ab + 4, then the value of (2*3)*4 is

(A) 233

(B) 33

(C) 55

(D) −55

166. If sin1 x − cos1 x = π/6, state which of the following is the value of x ?

(A) 1

(B) 1/2

(C) 1/√2

(D) √3/2

167. Given the LPP, min. Z = 3x – y, subject to the constraints

2x + 3y ≥ 1 and x, y ≥ 0

The optimum solution of the LPP is

(A) x = 0, y = 1/2

(B) x = 0, y = 1/3

(C) x = 1/3, y = 0

(D) x = 1/2, y = 0

168. In a linear programming problem, the equation 2x + 3y = 12 in two unknowns has number of solutions equal to

(A) maximum value of an minimum value of

(B) a particular value of and

(C) infinite

(D) None of these

169. Let A be a square matrix of order 3 × 3, then |KA|

(A) K |A|

(B) K2 |A|

(C) K3 |A|

(D) 3K |A|

170. The system of equations

αx + y + z = α −1

x + αy + z = α −1

x + y + αz = α −1

has no solution, if α is

(A) 1

(B) not −2

(C) either −2 or 1

(D) −2

171. Matrix is invetible for

(A) k = 1

(B) k = −1

(C) all real k

(D) None of these

172. If matrix then k is

(A) 7

(B) −7

(C) 1/7

(D) 11

173. The mean and the variance of a binomial distribution are 4 and 2 respectively. Then the probability of 2 successes is

(A) 37/256

(B) 219/256

(C) 128/256

(D) 28/256

174. If P(A ∪ B) = 0.8 and P (A ∩ B) = 03, then P(Aʹ) + P(Bʹ) equals to

(A) 0.9

(B) 0.7

(C) 0.5

(D) 0.3

175. The value of f at x = 0 so that function is continuous at x = 0, is

(A) 0

(B) log 2

(C) log 4

(D) e4

176. The rate of change of the function y = f(x) w.r.t x at the point x is

(A) (B) 2f ‘(x)

(C) (D) None of these

177. The slope of the tangent to the ellipse at the point (a cos θ, b sin θ) is

(A) (B) (C) (D) 178. A function f(x) is defined in a < x < b and a ≤ x1 ≤ x2 < b; then f(x) is strictly monotonic decreasing in a ≤ x ≤ b when

(A) f(x2) > f(x1) when x2 > x1

(B) f(x2) < f(x1) when x2 > x1

(C) f(x2) > f(x1) when x2 < x1

(D) f(x2) < f(x1) when x2 < x1

179. If 0 ≤x ≤ 2π, the function f(x) = sin x is minimum at

(A) x = 3π/2

(B) x = π

(C) 3π/4

(D) x = 2π

180. The value of ∫(cosec 2x cot 2x) is

(A) (B) 2 cot 2x + c

(C) −2 cosec 2x + c

(D) 181. If then A is equal to

(A) 0

(B) π

(C) π/4

(D) 2π

182. The order and degree of the differential equation are

(A) 1, 2/3

(B) 3, 1

(C) 3, 3

(D) 1, 2

183. The solution of the differential equation y dx + (x + x2y) dy = 0 is

(A) (B) (C) (D) log y = cx

184. If then the value of m is

(A) (B) (C) (D) 185. If the position vectors of the points P and Q are respectively, then vector is

(A) (B) (C) (D) 186. If a line whose direction ratios are proportional to 0, 1, −1 then the inclination of the line with z-axis is

(A) π/2

(B) π

(C) 3π/2

(D) 3π/4

187. If the line is parallel to z-axis then

(A) a= c = 0 and b ≠ 0

(B) a = b = c and c ≠ 0

(C) b = c = 0 and a ≠ 0

(D) a = b = c = 0

188. The lines are

(A) coincident

(B) skew

(C) intersecting

(D) parallel

189. The intercept made by the plane on the x-axis is

(A) (B) (C) (D) 190. Value of λ such that the line is perpendicular to normal t the plane is

(A) −13/4

(B) −17/4

(C) 4

(D) −11/4

191. In the expansion of (1 + x)n, the binomial co-efficients of three consecutive terms are respectively 220, 495 and 792. The value of n is

(A) 10

(B) 11

(C) 12

(D) 13

192. The function of is

(A) an even function

(B) an odd function

(C) a periodic function

(D) neither an even nor an odd function

193. If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 ≤ n ≤ 5}, then the number of subsets of A is

(A) 16

(B) 15

(C) 4

(D) None of these

194. If f : R → R satisfies f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) for all x, y, ∈ R and f(1) = 7, then is

(A) 7n/2

(B) (C) 7n(n + 1)

(D) 195. If |Z2 – 1| = |Z2| + 1 then Z lies on

(A) the real axis

(B) the imaginary axis

(C) a circle

(D) an ellipse

196. The value of is

(A) (B) (C) (D) 197. The value of is

(A) 1

(B) −1

(C) −i

(D) i

198. If the roots of the quadratic equation x2 + px + q = 0 are tan 30° and tan 15° respectively, then the value of 2 + q – p is

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 3

(D) 2

199. If (1 – p) is a root of quadratic equation x2 + px + (1 – p) = , then the roots are

(A) 0, 1

(B) −1, 1

(C) 0, −1

(D) −1, 2

200. Solution of the inequation 4x+0.5 – 7.2x < 4, x ∈ R is

(A) (−2, ∝)

(B) (2, ∝)

(C) (2, 7/2)

(D) None of these

BIOLOGY

151. Neo-Darwinism believes that new species develop through

(A) mutations with natural selection

(B) continuous variations with natural selection

(C) hybridisation

(D)mutations

152. Genetic drift operates in ………….. population

(A) small

(B) large

(C) island

(D) Mendelian

153. Which of the following is quartan in periodicity?

(A) P. ovale

(B) P. vivax

(C) P. falciparum

(D) P. malariae

154. B.C.G is vaccine against?

(A) Typhoid

(B) Tuberculosis

(C) German measles

(D) Chicken pox

155. In tissue culture variations appeared are

(A) Somatic variation

(B) Clonal variation

(C) Somaclonal variation

(D) Tissue culture variation

156. A common bio control agent for the control of plant diseases is

(A) Bacillus

(B) Trichoderma

(C) Baculovirus

(D) Glomus

157. The technique for breakage of DNA fragment and inserting it into another DNA molecule, is related to

(A) Gene cloning

(B) Gene typing

(C) Gene splicing

(D) DNA fingerprinting

158. Which type of restriction enzymes are used in recombinant DNA technology?

(A) Type – I

(B) Type – II

(C) Type – III

(D) All of these

159. Which of the following bacteria has found extensive use in genetic engineering work in plants/best genetic vector used in plants?

(A) Bacillus thuringiensis

(B) Xanthomonas citri

(C) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(D) E. coli

160. Animals with built in thermostat are

(A) poikilothermic

(B) oligothermic

(C) homeothermic

(D) biothermic

161. The lowest category in taxonomic hierarchy is

(A) class

(B) kingdom

(C) species

(D) phylum

162. Most primitive number in which roots are NOT present is

(A) Rhynia

(B) Psilotum

(C) Lycopodium

(D) Selaginella

163. Angiosperms differ from gymnosperms in having

(A) seeds

(B) large leaves

(C) tap roots

(D) covered seeds

164. Green glands are the excretory organs of

(A) Insecta

(B) Myriapoda

(C) Arachnida

(D) Crustaceans

165. Which tissue give mechanical strength to plant organs ?

(A) Accessory cells

(B) Collenchyma

(C) Parenchyma

(D) Stomata

166. In which flower epipetalous stamen is found ?

(A) Calotropis

(B) Sesbania

(C) Datura

(D) Acalypha

167. Which of the following is uperficial of calf muscle?

(A) Trapezius

(B) Latissimus

(C) Gluteus

(D) Gastrocnemius

168. During inspiration in cockroach the respiratory passage is

(A) Stigmata

(B) Air chamber

(C) Spiracle and trachea

(D) Longitudinal respiratory tube

169. The function of the collaterial gland in cockroach is to

(A) store eggs

(B) store sperms

(C) keep vagina moist

(D) secretate the egg case

170. Golgi apparatus takes part in

(A) Carbohydrate synthesis

(B) Lipid synthesis

(C) Protein synthesis

(D) Oxydative photophosphorylation

171. The longest living cells amongst the following are

(A) T-cells

(B) B-cells

(C) Memory cells

(D) RB

172. Mitochondria increases in the cells of

(A) dry seed

(B) dormant seed

(C) germinating seed

(D) Ripening fruits

173. What holds the ribosomes together in a polyribosome?

(A) mRNA

(B) rRNA

(C) tRNA

(D) mRNA, rRNA, & tRNA

174. Some inorganic ions are required for enzyme activity. These inorganic substance are

(A) enzyme

(B) co-factor

(C) prosthetic group

(D) activator

175. Diploid chromosome number being 8, what shall be the number of chromatids in each daughter after Meiosis-I?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 8

(D) 16

176. Potassium ion exchange hypothesis of opening and closing of stomata was proposed by

(A) Sayre

(B) Stewart

(C) Levitt

(D) Bose

177. If a cell ‘X’ has op = 6 and TP = 5 and is surrounded by the cell with op = 4 and TP = 2, then what will be the direction of water movement?

(A) From other cell to cell ‘X’

(B) From cell ‘X’ to other cell

(C) Water absorption is not affected by temperature

(D) Water will move freely

178. Bidirectional translocation of minerals takes place through

(A) xylem

(B) phloem

(C) parenchyma

(D) cambium

179. The intermediate between Glycolysis and TCA cycle is

(A) Oxaloacetate

(B) Glucose-1-6 diphosphate

(C) Pyruvic acid

(D) Acetyl Co-A

180. Out of 38 ATP molecules produced per glucose, 22 ATP molecules are formed from NADH/FASH2 in

(A) Respiratory chain

(B) Kreb’s cycle

(C) Oxidative decarboxylation

(D) EMP

181. The maximum growth rate occurs in

(A) exponential phase

(B) lag phase

(C) stationary phase

(D) senescent phase

182. Mobilisation of stored food in germinating seed is triggered by

(A) Auxin

(B) Cytokinin

(C) Gibberellin

(D) Ethylene

183. Digestive enzymes are released by pancreas and bile is released by liver in response to the hormone

(A) Zymogen

(B) Cholecystokinin

(C) Insulin

(D) Secretin

184. After O2 diffusion into pulmonary capillaries, it diffused into ……….. and binds with ……….

(A) RBC, haemoglobin

(B) RBC, CO2

(C) Interstitial fluid, CO2

(D) Interstitial fluid, RBC

185. If vagus/parasympathetic nerve to heart is cut, the heart beat will

(A) stop

(B) remain normal

(C) increase

(D) decrease

186. Which of the following hormones causes reabsorption of Na+ and excretion of K+, H+ and H2O ?

(A) LH

(B) FSH

(C) TSH

(D) Aldosterone

187. Which of the following animals having longitudinal binary fission?

(A) Hydra

(B) Plasmodium

(C) Paramoecim

(D) Euglena

188. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by

(A) Offset

(B) Runner

(C) Sucker

(D) Rhizome

189. Formation of an organism from a single, male gamete without fusion with egg is an example of

(A) Apogamy

(B) Parthenogenesis

(C) Parthenocarpy

(D) Apospory

190. Decrease in levels of which of the following causes menstrual flow ?

(A) Progesterone

(B) Vasopressin

(C) FSH

(D) Oxytocin

191. Spermatozoa are nourished during development by

(A) Leydig cell

(B) Sertoli cell

(C) Germinal epithelium

(D) Mitochondria

192. Genital warts STD is a viral disease and is caused by

(A) Trichomonas vaginalis

(B) Treponema pallidum

(C) Human papilloma virus

(D) Chlamydia trachomatis

193. The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females

(A) who cannot retain foetus inside uterus

(B) who cannot produce ovum

(C) who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilization

(D) whose cervical canal is too narrow, to allow passage for sperms

194. A method of birth control is

(A) IUDs

(B) HJF

(C) IVF-ET

195. The linked characters would always inherit together till they are

(A) mutated

(C) separated due to crossing over

196. Down’s syndrome is a typical case of

(A) Nullisomy

(B) Monosomy

(C) Gene mutation

(D) Trisomy

197. Leading strand during DNA replication is formed

(A) is short segment

(B) continuously

(C) first

198. An abnormal gene is replaced by normal gene. It is called

(A) Gene therapy

(B) Cloning

(C) Mutation

(D) None of these

199. Geographic limit within which a population exists is called

(A) Biome

(B) Habitat

(C) Niche

(D) Ecosystem

200. (A) Natality

(B) Growth rate

(C) Mortality

(D) All of these