## AIIMS MBBS Entrance Examination Previous Year Question Paper 2009 With Answer Key

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2009

Physics

1. The equation y = 4 + 2 sin(6t – 3x) represents a wave motion. Then wave speed and amplitude, respectively are

(a)  wave speed 1 unit, amplitude 6 unit

(b)  wave speed 2 unit, amplitude 2 unit

(c)  wave speed 4 unit, amplitude 1/2 unit

(d)  wave speed 1/2 unit, amplitude 5 unit

2. A closed organ pipe of length 1.2 m vibrates in its first overtone mode. The pressure variation is maximum at

(a)  0.4 m from the open end

(b)  0.4 m from the closed end

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

(d)  0.8 m from the open end

3. The ratio of intensities between two coherent sound sources is 4 : 1. The difference of loudness in decibels between maximum and minimum intensities, when they interfere in space, is

(a)  10 log 2

(b)  20 log 3

(c)  10 log 3

(d)  20 log 2

4. A conducting rod of length l and mass m is moving down a smooth inclined plane of inclination θ with constant velocity v. A current i is flowing in the conductor in a direction perpendicular to paper inwards. A vertically upwards magnetic field  exists in space. Then magnitude of magnetic field  is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

5. A bar of magnetic substance is placed in a magnetic field with its length making an angle of 30° with direction of the magnetic field. How will the bar behave?

(a)  It will align itself perpendicular to t he magnetic field

(b)  It will remain as before

(c)  It will align itself parallel to the magnetic field

(d)  Its behaviour cannot be predicted

6. A neutron breaks into a proton, an electron (β-particle) and antineutrino  The energy released in the process in MeV is

(a)  731 MeV

(b)  7.31 MeV

(c)  0.731 MeV

(d)  1.17 MeV

7. Let K1 be the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted by light of wavelength λ1 and K2 corresponding to wavelength λ2. If λ1 = 2λ2, then

(a)  2K1 = K2

(b)  K1 = 2K2

(c)  K1 < K2/2

(d)  K1 > 2K2

8. In the Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, the centripetal force is furnished by the Coulomb attraction between the proton and the electron. If a0 is the radius of the ground state orbit, m is the mass, e is the charge on electron and ε0 is the perimittivity of free space, the speed of the electron is

(a)

(b)  zero

(c)

(d)

9. In an experiment of Wheatstone bridge, a null point is obtained at the centre of the bridge wire. When a resistance of 10 Ω is connected in one gap, the value of resistance in other gap is

(a)  10 Ω

(b)  5 Ω

(c)

(d)  500 Ω

10. Seven resistances are connected as shown in the given figure. The equivalent resistance between A and B is

(a)  3 Ω

(b)  4 Ω

(c)  4.5 Ω

(d)  15 Ω

11. The curve drawn between velocity and frequency of photon in vacuum will be a

(a)  straight line parallel to frequency axis

(b)  straight line parallel to velocity axis

(c)  straight line passing through origin and making an angle of 45° with frequency axis

(d)  hyperbola

12. A monkey of mass m kg slides down a light rope attached to a fixed spring balance, with an acceleration a. The reading of the balance is w kg [g = acceleration due to gravity]

(a)

(b)

(c)  the force of friction exerted by the rope on the monkey is m(g – a)N

(d)  the tension in the rope is wg N

13. The displacement of a particle, starting from rest (at t = 0) is given by s = 6t2 – t3

The time in seconds at which the particle will attain zero velocity again is

(a)  2

(b)  4

(c)  6

(d)  8

14. An alternating current i in an inductance coil varies with time according to the graph given below. Which one of the following graphs gives the variation of voltage with time ?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

15. Two bar magnets having same geometry with magnetic moments M and 2M, are placed in such a way that their similar poles are on the same side, then its time period of oscillation is T1. Now, if the polarity of one of the magnets is reversed, then time period of oscillation is T2, then

(a)  T1 < T2

(b)  T1 > T2

(c)  T1 = T2

(d)  T2 = ∞, T1 = 0

16. A galvanometer has a resistance of 100 Ω. A potential difference of 100 mV between its terminals gives a full scale deflection. The shunt resistance required to convert it into an ammeter reading upto 5 A is

(a)  0.01 Ω

(b)  0.02 Ω

(c)  0.03 Ω

(d)  0.04 Ω

17. A steady current is set up in a metallic wire of non-uniform cross-section. How is the rate of flow K of electrons related to the area of cross-section A?

(a)  K is independent of A

(b)  K ∝ A1

(c)  K ∝ A

(d)  K ∝ A2

18. A hydrogen atom is in excited state of principal quantum number n. It emits a photon of wavelength λ when returns to ground state. The value of n is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

19. By what percentage should the pressure of a given mass of a gas be increased, so as to decrease its volume by 10% at a constant temperature?

(a)  5%

(b)  7.2%

(c)  12.5%

(d)  11.1%

20. Two inductors L1 and L2 are connected in parallel and a time varying current flows as shown in figure. Then the ratio of currents i1/i23 at any time is

(a)  L1/L2

(b)  L2/L1

(c)

(d)

21. Two equal and opposite forces at on a body at a certain distance. Then the body

(a)  is in equilibrium

(b)  will rotate about its centre of mass

(c)  may rotate about any point other than its centre of mass

(d)  cannot rotate about its centre of mass

22. The curve between charge density (ρ) and distances near p –n junction, will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

23. Equal masses of two liquids A and B contained in vessels of negligible heat capacity are supplied heat at the same rate. The temperature-time graphs for the two liquids are shown.

If S represents specific heat and L represents latent heat of liquid, then

(a)  SA > SB, LA < LB

(b)  SA > SB, LA < L­B

(c)  SA < SB, LA < LB

(d)  SA < SB, LA > LB

24. Two electric bulbs rated 50 W and 100 V are glowing at full power, when used in parallel with a battery of emf 120 V and internal resistance 10 Ω. The maximum number of bulbs that can be connected in the circuit when glowing at full power, is

(a)  6

(b)  4

(c)  2

(d)  8

25. If nearly 105 C charge liberates 1 g equivalent of aluminium then the amount of aluminium (equivalent weight = 9) deposited through electrolysis in 20 min by a current of 50 A will be

(a)  0.6 g

(b)  0.09 g

(c)  5.4 g

(d)  10.8 g

26. At what height above the surface of earth the value of acceleration due to gravity would be half of its value on the surface of earth?

(a)  2561 km

(b)  2650 km

(c)  3200 km

(d)  9800 km

27. The period of revolution of an earth’s satellite close to surface of earth is 90 min. The time period of another satellite in an orbit at a distance of four times the radius of earth from its surface will be

(a)  90√9 min

(b)  270 min

(c)  720 min

(d)  360 min

28. The graph shows the variation of velocity of a rocket with time. The time of burning of fuel from the graph is

(a)  10 s

(b)  110 s

(c)  120 s

(d)  Data insufficient

29. There are N coplanar vectors each of magnitude V. Each vector is inclined to the preceding vector at angle 2π/n. What is the magnitude of their resultant?

(a)  V/N

(b)  V

(c)  Zero

(d)  N/V

30. A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue colours is incident on a right angled prism as shown in figure. The refractive indices of the material of prism for red, green and blue colours, respectively are 1.33, 1.44, 1.47. The prism will be

(a)  separate part of blue colour from red and green colour

(b)  separate all the three colours from one another

(c)  separate part of the red colour from green and blue colours

(d)  not separate even partially any colour from the other two colours

31. Two particles of equal mass go round a circle of radius R under the action of their mutual gravitational attraction. The speed v of each particle is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

32. Percentage error in the measurement of mass and speed are 2% and 3% respectively. The error in the estimation of kinetic energy obtained by measuring mass and speed will be

(a)  12%

(b)  10%

(c)  2%

(d)  8%

33. A nucleus at rest breaks into two nuclear parts which have their velocities ratio equal to 2 : 1. What will be the ratio of their radii of the nuclei?

(a)  21/3 : 1

(b)  1 : 21/3

(c)  23/2 : 1

(d)  1 : 23/2

34. The energy of hydrogen atom in ground state is 13.6 eV. The ionization energy of singly ionized helium He2+ will be

(a)  13.6 eV

(b)  3.4 eV

(c)  27.2 eV

(d)  54.4 eV

35. The oscillating electric and magnetic vectors of an electromagnetic wave are oriented along

(a)  the same direction but have a phase difference of 90°

(b)  the same direction and are in same phase

(c)  mutually perpendicular directions and are in same phase

(d)  mutually perpendicular directions but has a phase difference of 90°

36. If a player catches a ball of mass 200 g moving with the velocity 40 ms1, then he experiences a force of (time taken to catch the ball is 0.1s)

(a)  20 N

(b)  40 N

(c)  80 N

(d)  100 N

37. A perfect gas goes from state A to state B by absorbing 8 × 105 J of heat and doing 6.5 105 J of external work. It is now transferred between the same two states in another process in which it absorbs 105 J of heat. In the second process

(a)  work done on gas is 105 J

(b)  work done on gas is 0.5 × 105 J

(c)  work done by gas is 105 J

(d)  work done by gas is 0.5 × 105 J

38. A resonance in an air column of length 40 cm resonates with a tuning fork of frequency 450 Hz. Ignoring end correction, the velocity of sound in air is

(a)  1020 ms1

(b)  720 ms1

(c)  620 ms1

(d)  820 ms1

39. Let Ea be the electric field due to dipole in its axial plane at distance l and let Eeq be the field in the equatorial plane at a distance l, then the relation between Ea and Eeq will be

(a)  Ea = 4Eeq

(b)  Eeq = 2Ea

(c)  Ea = 2Eeq

(d)  Ea = Eeq/3

40. A vehicle with a horn of frequency n, is moving with a velocity of 30 ms1 in a direction perpendicular to the straight line joining the observer and the vehicle. The observer receives the sound to have a frequency n + n1. Then (if the sound velocity in air is 30 ms1)

(a)  n1 = 10 n

(b)  n1 = 0

(c)  n1 = 0.1 n

(d)  n1 = −0.1 n

Directions for Q. No. 41 to 60 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as :

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

41. Assertion The formula connecting u, v an f for a spherical mirror is valid only for mirrors whose sizes are very small compared to their radii of curvature.

Reason  Laws of reflection are s trictly valid for plane surfaces, but n ot for large spherical surface.

42. Assertion Endoscopy involves use of optical fibres to study internal organs.

Reason Optical fibres are based on phenomenon of total internal reflection.

43. Assertion A ship floats higher in the water on a high pressure day than on a low pressure day.

Reason Floating of ship in the water is not possible because of buoyancy force which is present due to pressure difference.

44. Assertion A proton and an alpha particle having the same kinetic energy are moving in circular paths in a uniform magnetic field. The radii of their circular paths will be equal.

Reason Any two charged particles having equal kinetic energies and entering a region of uniform magnetic field  in a direction perpendicular to  , will describe circular trajectories of equal radii.

45. Assertion The power delivered to a light bulb is more just after it is switched ON and the glow of the filament is increasing, as compared to when the bulb is glowing steadily, ie, after sometime of switching ON.

Reason As temperature decreases, resistance of conductor increases.

46. Assertion The thick film shows no interference pattern. Take thickness of the order of few cms.

Reason For interference pattern to observe, path difference between two waves is of the order of few wavelengths.

47. Assertion The clouds in sky generally appear to be whitish.

Reason Diffraction due to clouds is efficient in equal measure at all wavelengths.

48. Assertion Electron capture occurs more than positron emission in a heavy nucleus.

Reason In a heavy nucleus, electrons are relatively close to nucleus.

49. Assertion Transducer in communication system converts electrical signal in to a physical quantity.

Reason For information signal to be transmitted directly to long distances, modulation is not a necessary process.

50. Assertion It is impossible for a ship to use the internal energy of sea water to operate its engine.

Reason A heat engine is different from a refrigerator.

51. Assertion A tennis ball bounces higher on hills than in plains.

Reason Acceleration due to gravity on the hill is greater than that on the surface of earth.

52. Assertion A cloth covers a table. Some dishes are kept on it. The cloth can be pulled out without dislodging the dishes from the table.

Reason For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

53. Assertion A and B are two conducting spheres of same radius. A being solid and B hollow. Both are charged to the same potential. Then, charge on A = charge on B.

Reason Potentials on both are same.

54. Assertion Water at the foot of the water fall is always at different temperature from that at the top.

Reason The potential energy of water at t he top is converted into heat energy during falling.

55. Assertion Generally the path of a projectile from the earth is parabolic but it is elliptical for projectiles going to a very large height.

Reason The path of a projectile is independent of the gravitational force of earth.

56. Assertion Railway tracks are laid on small sized wooden sleepers.

Reason Small sized wooden sleepers are used so that rails exert more pressure on the railway track. Due to which rail does not leave the track.

57. Assertion The periodic time on a hard spring is less as compared to that of a soft spring.

Reason The periodic time depends upon the spring constant, and psring constant is large for hard spring.

58. Assertion To heart distinct beats, difference in frequencies of two sources should be less than 10.

Reason More the number of beats per second more difficult to hear them.

59. Assertion Circuit containing capacitors should be handled cautiously even when there is no current.

Reason The capacitors are very delicate and so quickly break down.

60. Assertion It is essential that all the lines available in the emission spectrum will also be available in the absorption spectrum.

Reason The spectrum of hydrogen atom is only absorption spectrum.

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2009

CHEMISTRY

61. Two moles of each reactant A and B are taken in a reaction flask. The react in the following manner,

A(g) + B(g) ⇌ C(g) + D(g)

At equilibrium, it was found that the concentration of C is triple to that of B. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is

(a)  4.5

(b)  6

(c)  9

(d)  1/6

62. If the dissociation constant of 5 × 104 M aqueous solution of diethylamine is 2.5 × 105, its pH value i s

(a)  8

(b)  3.95

(c)  10.05

(d)  2

63. The lead of the lead pencils melts at

(a)  2000°C

(b)  350°C

(c)  3170°C

(d)  75°C

64. The compound which is obtained by treating chloropropane with alcoholic KOH, when reacts with BH3/ THF followed by acetic acid gives

(a)  CH3CH2CH2OH

(b)  CH3CH2CH3

(c)  CH3CH(OH)CH3

(d)  CH3CH2CHOHCH3

65. The increasing order of hydrolysis of the following compounds is

(a)  (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv)

(b)  (i) < (iv) < (iii) < (ii)

(c)  (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i)

(d)  (i) < (iii) < (iv) < (ii)

66. The rubber, used for manufacturing tyres, is vulcanized with

(a)  3% S

(b)  7% S

(c)  1% S

(d)  All of the above can be used

67. Which of the following coordination entities should be expected to absorb light of lowest frequency?

(a)  [Cr(en)3­]3+

(b)  [CrCl6]3

(c)  [Cr(NH­3)6]3+

(d)  [Cr(CN)6]3

68. A sample of 0.42 mg 233UF6 shows an activity of 9.88 × 104 count per second. Its t1/2 is

(a)  5.13 × 1012 yr

(b)  1.628 × 105 yr

(c)  2.94 × 109 yr

(d)  2.35 × 108 yr

69. The correct set of reagents for the following conversion is

(a)  P4/I2, Na, Conc. H2SO4

(b)  P2O5, LiAlH4

(c)  P2O5/∆, H2O, P4/I2, Na

(d)  P4/I­2, Na, P2O5/∆

70. Sodium crystallizes in bcc arrangement with the interfacial separation between the atoms at the edge 53 pm. The density of the solid s

(a)  1.23 g/cc

(b)  485 g/cc

(c)  4.85 g/cc

(d)  123 g/cc

71. When nitric acid reacts with nitric oxide,, a gas is released, which converts H2S ­into

(a)

(b)  S2

(c)  S

(d)

72. For which of the following pairs, magnetic moment is same ?

(a)  MnCl2, CuSO4

(b)  CuCl2, TiCl3

(c)  TiO2, CuSO4

(d)  TiCl3, NiCl2

73. Select the incorrect statement, among the following.

(a)  Haemogolobin is soluble in water

(b)  α-keratin is soluble in water

(c)  Cellulose is a polymer of glucose

(d)  Chlorophyll is responsible for the synthesis of carbohydrates in plants

74. Which of the following azeotropic solutions has the boiling point less than boiling point of the constituents A and B?

(a)  CHCl3 and CH3COCH3

(b)  CS2 and CH3COCH3

(c)  CH3CH2OH and CH3COCH3

(d)  CH3CHO and CS2

75.

the correct relation between k1, k2 and k3 is

(a)  3k1 = k2 = 2k3

(b)  k1 = 3k2 = 1.5k3

(c)  k1 = k2 = k3

(d)  2k1 = 3k2 = k3

76. Which will not show geometrical isomerism?

(a)  CH3CH = NOH

(b)

(c)  HO – N = N – OH

(d)  (CH3)2C = NOH

77. A compound with molecular formula, C6H14 has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is

(a)  n-hexane

(b)  2-methyl pentane

(c)  2, 3-dimethyl butane

(d)  2, 3-dimethyl pentane

78. The hybridization scheme for the central atom includes as d-orbital contribution in

(a)

(b)  PCl3

(c)

(d)  H2Se

79. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a)  Zeolites have a more closed structure than feldspar.

(b)  H4As2O­7 is an ‘ortho’acid.

(c)  Pseudo-alum does not  have Na+ and K+.

(d)  Superphosphate of lime is 4Ca(H2PO4)2.

80. The number of hydroxyl ions in 100 mL of a solution having pH 10 is

(a)  1 × 104

(b)  3.012 × 104

(c)  6.02 × 1018

(d)  6.023 × 1019

81. Enthalpy of combustion of methane and ethane are −210 kcal/mol and −368 kcal/mol respectively. The enthalpy of combustion of decane is

(a)  −158 kcal

(b)  −1632 kcal

(c)  −1700 kcal

(d)  Data is incomplete

82. The de-Broglie wavelength of helium atom at room temperature is

(a)  6. 6 × 1034 m

(b)  4.39 × 1010 m

(c)  7.34 × 1011 m

(d)  2.335 × 1020 m

83. The solubility product of a salt having formula M2X3 is 2.2 × 1020. If the solubility of an another salt having formula M2X is twice the molar solubility of M2X2, the solubility product of M2X is

(a)  3 × 1012

(b)  9.16 × 105

(c)  4.58 × 105

(d)  2.76 × 1018

84. The product of which of the following reactions has the highest east to undergo electrophilic substitution?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

85. Formation of alcohol by oxymercuration-demercuration of alkenes

(a)  involves carbocations and rearrangement

(b)  involves carbanions and rearrangement

(c)  is stereospecific

(d)  does not involve rearrangement and carbocation.

86. The hormone that controls the processes like burning of fats, proteins and carbohydrates to liberate energy in the body, i s

(a)  cortisone

(b)  thyroxine

(d)  insulin

87. The reproduction potential at pH = 14 for the Cu2+/Cu couples is

(a)  0.34 V

(b)  −0.34 V

(c)  0.22 V

(d)  −0.22 V

88. x moles of potassium dichromate oxidizes 1 mole of ferrous oxalate, in acidic medium. Here x is

(a)  3

(b)  1.5

(c)  0.5

(d)  1.0

89. In the following redox equation,

the values of coefficients x, y and z are, respectively

(a)  3, 8, 2

(b)  3, 8, 7

(c)  3, 2, 4

(d)  3, 1, 8

90. If heavy water is taken as solvent instead of normal water while performing Cannizaro reaction, the products of the reaction are

(a)  RCOO + RCH2OH

(b)  RCOO + RCH2OD

(c)  RCOOD + RCD2OD

(d)  RCOO + RCD2OD

91. The most unlikely representation of resonance structure of p –nitrophenoxide is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

92. The correct order of electron affinities of N, O, S and Cl is

(a)  N < O < S < Cl

(b)  O < N < Cl < S

(c)  O ≈ Cl < N ≈ S

(d)  O < S < Cl < N

93. Which of the following pairs has almost same atomic radii?

(a)  Al, Ga

(b)  Be, Mg

(c)  Mg, Al

(d)  B, Be

94. The product ‘Y’ in the following reaction sequence is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

95. n and l for some electrons are given. Which of the following is expected to have least energy?

(a)  n = 3, l = 2

(b)  n = 3, l = 0

(c)  n = 2, l = 1

(d)  n = 4, l = 0

96. The order of boiling points of four equimolar aqueous solutions is C < B < A < D. The correct order of their freezing points is

(a)  D < C < B < A

(b)  D > C < B < A

(c)  D < B > A < C

(d)  D > A > B > C

97. In zone refining method, the molten zone

(a)  contains impurities

(b)  contains purified metal only

(c)  contains more impurity than the original metal

(d)  moves to either side

98. The minimum voltage required to electrolyze alumina in the Hall-Heroult process is :

(Given, ∆Gf° (Al2O3) = −1520 kJ mol1 ;

(a)  1.575 V

(b)  1.60 V

(c)  1.312 V

(d)  −2.62 V

99. The sweetest artificial sugar among the following is

(a)  aspartame

(b)  sucralose

(c)  alitame

(d)  sucrose

100. Select the incorrect statement.

(a)  Physical adsorption is reversible while chemical is irreversible.

(b)  High pressure favours physical adsorption while low pressure favours chemical adsorption

(c)  Physical adsorption is not specific while chemical is highly specific.

(d)  High activation energy is involved in chemical adsorption.

Directions for Q. No. 101 to 120 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as :

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

101. Assertion Sodium-2-dodecyl benzenesulphon ate is a biodegradable detergent.

Reason Detergents having highly branched chains are biodegradable.

102. Assertion On dilution, the equivalent as well as molar conductivity of solution increases.

Reason With dilution, the number of current carrying particles per cm3 increases.

103. Assertion 2-butenal lacks enolisable H-atom, α to carbonyl group, still it has sufficient acidic character.

Reason The conjugate base of 2-butenal is stabilized by resonance.

104. Assertion When NO reacts with FeSO4, a brown coloured complex is formed.

Reason In the complex, the coordination number of Fe is +6.

105. Assertion In Lyman series of H-spectra, the maximum wavelength of lines is 121.65 nm.

Reason Wavelength is maximum if there is transition from the very next level.

106. Assertion  gives red colour in Lassaigne’s test.

Reason Compounds having N along with C gives red colour with Lassaigne’s test.

107. Assertion Coloured cations can be identified by borax bead test.

Reason Transparent bead (NaBO2 + B2O3) forms coloured bead with coloured cation.

108. Assertion 575 g H2C2O4­ ∙ 2H2O in 250 mL solution makes it 0.1 N.

Reason H2C2O4 ∙ 2H2 is a dehydrate organic acid.

109. Assertion If β4 for [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is 2.1 × 1013, its instability constant is 4.76 × 1014.

Reason Overall dissociation equilibrium constant varies inversely with formation constant.

110. Assertion For the reaction,

2NO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g)

increase in pressure favours the formation of NO2.

Reason The reaction is exothermic.

111. Assertion CO and CN are referred as π acid ligands.

Reason In CO and CN vacant π type orbitals are present.

112. Assertion In benzinidazole,

both the nitrogens (N and N) are basic.

Reason Long pair of electrons present on  are involved in delocalization.

113. Assertion Among the alkali metals, lithium salts exhibits the least electrical conductance in aqueous solutions.

Reason Smaller the radius of the hydrated cation, lower is the electrical conductance in aqueous solutions.

114. Assertion The value of van der Waal’s constant ‘a’ for ammonia is larger than that of nitrogen gas.

Reason Molecular weight of ammonia is smaller than nitrogen gas.

115. Assertion A compound with delocalized electrons is more stable than that compound would be if all its electrons were localized.

Reason The extra stability, a compound gains as a result of having delocalized electrons, is called delocalization energy.

116. Assertion The enthalpy of formation of gaseous oxygen molecules at 298 K and under a pressure of one atmosphere is zero.

Reason The entropy of formation of gaseous oxygen molecule under the same conditions is zero.

117. Assertion Bleaching powder is a mixed salt.

Reason In the presence of COCl2, bleaching powder decomposes to give CaCl2 and O2.

118. Assertion K4­[Fe(CN)6] is diamagnetic and [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3 is paramagnetic.

Reason Hybridization of central metal in K4[Fe(CN)6] is sp3d2, while in [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3 is d2sp3.

119. Assertion London smog is oxidizing in nature.

Reason London smog contains O3, NO2 and hydrocarbons.

120. Assertion Alkynes are more reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction as compared to alkenes.

Reason Alkynes contain two pi bonds, while alkenes have only one bond.

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2009

BIOLOGY

121. These organisms are fungus like in one phase of their life cycle and Amoeba like in another phase of their life cycle

(a)  diatoms

(b)  slime molds

(c)  dinoflagellates

(d)  water molds

122. Among the following stem cells, which are found in the umbilical cord?

(a)  Embryonic stem cells

(b)  Adult stem cells

(c)  Cord blood stem cells

(d)  All of the above

123. Which of the following rain forest is home to more than 40,000 species of plants, 3,000 of fishes, 1,300 of birds, 427 of mammals, 427 of amphibians, 378 of reptiles and more than 1,25,000 invertebrates?

(a)  Amazonian

(b)  Tropical

(c)  Arctic tundra

(d)  Temperate

124. During an allergic reaction, the binding of antigens to IgE antibodies initiates a response, in which chemicals cause the dilation of blood vessels and a host of other physiological changes. Such chemicals are

(a)  interferons

(b)  hormones

(c)  histamines

(d)  acetylamine

125. Which of the following four cell structures is correctly matched with the accompanying description?

(a)  Plasma membrane – Outer layer of cellulose or chitin, or absent

(b)  Mitochondria – Bacteria like elements with inner membrane forming sacs containing chlorophyll, found in plant cells and algae

(c)  Chloroplasts – Bacteria like elements with inner membrane highly folded.

(d)  Golgi apparatus – Stacks of flattened vesicles

126. Lipids, which can be found in oil based salad dressings and ice cream, during digestion are splitted into

(a)  fatty acid and glycerol

(b)  glycerol and amino acids

(c)  glucose and fatty acids

(d)  glucose and amino acids

127. The process by which ATP is produced in the inner membrane of a mitochondrion. The electron transport system transfers protons from the inner compartment of the outer; as the protons flow back to the inner compartment, the energy of their movement is used to add phosphate to ADP, forming ATP.

(a)  Chemiosmosis

(b)  Phosporylation

(c)  Glycolysis

(d)  Fermentation

128. Enzyme often have additional parts in their structures that are made up of molecules other than proteins. When this additional chemical part is an organic molecule, it is called

(a)  cofactor

(b)  coenzyme

(c)  substrates

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

129. Animals posses nerve networks or nervous systems to respond to their environment. But the single called Amoeba does not possesses any nerve cell, so, how it come to known whether a particle it encounters is a grain of sand and not its dinner?

(a)  By chemotaxis

(b)  By skin

(c)  By hormones

(d)  All of these

130. Genetically engineered bovine (bST), sometimes called rbST (recombinant bovine somatotropin) or rbGH (recombinant bovine growth hormone)are used in the

(a)  therapeutic drugs

(b)  agriculture

(c)  dairy industry

(d)  DNA fingerprinting

131. This method of finding a gene is used when researchers known very little about the gene they are trying to find. This process results in a complete gene library : a collection of copies of DNA fragments that represent the entire genome of an organism.

(a)  Cloning

(b)  Shotgun cloning

(c)  Gene synthesis cloning

(d)  PCR

132. Which one of the following disorders and characteristic is correctly matched?

(a)  Cystic fibrosis – Production of thick mucous that clogs airways

(b)  Sickle cell anemia – Brain deterioration beginning at months of age

(c)  Achondroplasia – Extra fingers or toes

(d)  Huntington’s disease – Skeletal, eye and cardiovascular defects

133. Which of the following hormones is secreted by implanted blastocyst, that acts on the corpus luteum in the ovary, stimulating the body to produce estrogens and progesterone to maintain the uterine lining?

(a)  Estrogen

(b)  HCG

(c)  Progesterone

(d)  Oxytocin

134. Phythons possess tiny leg bones that serve no purpose in locomotion. Such organs are

(a)  homologous organs

(b)  analogous organs

(c)  vestigial organs

(d)  Both (a) and (c)

135. The two critical steps in the evolution of humans were the

(a)  evolution of bipedalism and the enlargement of the brain

(b)  making and using tools

(c)  using fire and making shelters

(d)  exhibiting culture and  having sophisticated tools

136. In which of the following patterns of viral replication, viruses enter a cell, replicate and then cause the cell to burst, releasing new viruses?

(a)  Lytic

(b)  Lysogenic

(c)  Repreogenic

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

137. Cell A has osmotic potential of – 18 bars and pressure potential of 8 bars, whereas, cell B has osmotic potential of – 14 bars and pressure potential 2 bars. The direction of flow of water will be

(a)  from cell B to cell A

(b)  from cell A to cell B

(c)  no flow of water

(d)  in both the directions

138. The posterior part of the retina, which is just opposite to the lens is

(a)  cornea

(b)  yellow spot

(c)  are centralis

(d)  Both (b) and (c)

139. Tay-Sachs disease results due to lack of enzyme

(a)  glucokinase

(b)  hexosaminidase A

(c)  pyruvate kinase

(d)  Na – K+ ATPase

140. A woman is married for the second time. Her first husband was ABO blood type A, and her child by that marriage was type O. Her new husband is type B and their child is type AB.

What is the woman’s ABO genotype and blood type ?

(a)  IAIO; Blood type A

(b)  IA­IB; Blood type AB

(c)  IBIO; Blood type B

(d)  IOIO; blood type O

141. This pedigree is of a rare trait, in which children have extra fingers and toes. Which one of the following patterns of inheritance is consistent with this pedigree?

(a)  Autosomal recessive

(b)  Autosomal dominant

(d)  Sex linked recessive

142. What is t he correct sequence of the steps given here ? Also work out the process depicted in the steps.

(i) Homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles of the cell; chromatids do  not separate

(ii) Chromosomes gather together at the two poles of the cell and the nuclear membranes reform

(iii) Homologous chromosomes pair and exchange segments

(iv) Homologous chromosomes align on a central plate

(v) The haploid cells separate completely

(a)  The correct sequence is III → IV → I → II → V and the process is meiosis-I

(b)  The correct sequence is II → I → V → IV → III and the process is mitosis

(c)  The correct sequence is IV → I → III → II → V and the process is meiosis-I

(d)  the correct sequence is II → V → IV → I → II and the process is mitosis

143. Which of the following matches correctly?

(a)  Factor II – Thromboplastin

(b)  Factor III – Prothrombin

(c)  Factor VIII – Antihaemophilic globulin

(d)  Factor XII – Haemophilic

144. Pick out the correct match

(a)  Sternum – 14

(b)  Pelvis – 3

(c)  Ribs – 20

(d)  Face – 5

145. The pH of the digestive juices within the human small intestine is between 7.5 and 8.5. This environment is slightly

(a)  basic

(b)  acidic

(c)  neutral

(d)  None of these

146. Who is known as father of physiological genetics or father of biochemical genetics?

(a)  Slatyer

(b)  Charles Elton

(c)  Taylor

(d)  Archibald Garrod

147. Which of the following matches correctly?

(a)  Inferior vena cava – Receives deoxygenated blood from the head and body

(b)  Superior vena cava – Receives deoxygenated blood from the lower body and organs

(c)  Pulmonary artery – Carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs

(d)  Hepatic artery – Carries deoxygenated blood to the gut

148. The thread like tendons of papillary muscles inserted upon the flaps of tricuspid and bicuspid valves are

(a)  chordate tendinae

(b)  yellow elastin fibres

(c)  reticulate fibres

(d)  collagen fibres

149. In the central nervous system myelinated fibres form the …………., while the non-myelinated fibre cells form the …………

(a)  grey matter’ white matter

(b)  white matter; grey matter

(c)  ependymal cells; neurosecretory cells

(d)  neurosecretory cells; ependymal cells

150. In prokaryotes, the process of replication is catalyzed by the following enzymes. Identify which of the enzymes is best coordinate with the role.

(a)  Helicase – Joins the ends of DNA segments

(b)  DNA polymerase-I – Synthesises DNA

(c)  DNA polymerase-II – Erases primer and fills gaps

(d)  Primase – Synthesises RNA primers

151. Which of the following is correct matched ?

(a)  Central Rice Research Institute – Shimla

(b)  National Botanical Research Institute – Delhi

(c)  Central Drug Research Institute – Cuttack

(d)  Central Food Technology Research Institute – Mysore

152. Wonder wheat is new wheat variety developed by

(a)  Mexico’s international Wheat and Maize Improvement Centre

(b)  Indian National Botanical Research Institute

(c)  Australian Crop Improvement Centre

(d)  African Crop Improvement Centre

153. Thiamine (B1) deficiency results in

(a)  Wernickes’ syndromes

(b)  Korsakoffs’ syndromes

(c)  osteonecrosis

(d)  tunnel vission

154. The government of India in 1980s has introduced a concept to work closely with the local communities for protecting and managing forests. The concept is

(a)  Forest Research Institutes

(b)  Panel of focal communities for forest management

(c)  Join Forest Management

(d)  Jhum Cultivation

155. The thickness of the ozone is measured in terms of

(a)  P

(b)  DU

(c)  μ

(d)  RA

156. hn-RNA undergoes two additional processing. Out of which, in one of t hem an unusual nucleotide (methyl guanosine triphosphate) is added to the 5′-end of hn This is known as

(a)  capping

(b)  tailing

(c)  splicing

(d)  termination

157. In some seeds, reminants of nucellus are also persistent. This residual, persistent nucellus i s the

(a)  pericarp

(b)  perisperm

(c)  chalazosperm

(d)  mesosperm

158. The potential difference across the membrane of nerve fibre when it does not shown any physiological activity is called resting potential. It is about

(a)  −60 mv

(b)  −80 mv

(c)  +60 mv

(d)  +90 mv

159. FAD is a coenzyme derived from

(a)  riboflavin

(b)  vitamin-B12

(c)  thiamine

(d)  niacin

160. Echidna and Ornithorhynchus are the connecting links between

(a)  amphibians and aves

(b)  mammals and amphibians

(c)  reptiles and mammals

(d)  reptiles and amphibians

Directions for Q. No. 161 to 180 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as :

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

161. Assertion With few exceptions tropics harbou more species than temperate or polar areas.

Reason Species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles.

162. Assertion Reduction division occurs in anaphase-I. So there is no need of meiosis.

Reason Meiosis-II occurs to separate homologous chromosomes.

163. Assertion Allelopathy is a form of ammensalism that occurs in plants.

Reason Association of rooting plants with fungal hyphae, is an important example of ammensalism.

164. Assertion Generally, a woman do not conceive during lactation period.

Reason The hormone prolactin initiates and maintain lactation in a woman.

165. Assertion The imbalance in concentration of sodium and potassium ions and proteins generates the resting potential.

Reason To maintain unequal distribution of sodium and potassium, neurons use electrical energy.

166. Assertion The regulation of RBC production is accompanied by the kidneys.

Reason Erythropoietin hormone circulates to the red bone marrow, where it increases stem cell mitosis and speeds up the development of RBCs.

167. Assertion There is no chance of transmission of malaria to a man on the bite of a male Anopheles

Reason It carries a non virulent strain of Plasmodium.

168. Assertion Minerals are not biologically active substances.

Reason Some individuals suffer anaemia due to deficiency of copper.

169. Assertion Chimpanzee is the closest relative of present day humans.

Reason The banding pattern in the autosome number 3 and 6 are remarkably similar.

170. Assertion The honey bee queen copulates only once in life.

Reason It can lay both fertilized and unfertilized eggs.

171. Assertion King cobra is adaptive to oriental realm.

Reason Wallace line prevents interaction of king cobra and kangaroo.

172. Assertion Leaf butterfly and stick insect show mimicry to dodge their enemies.

Reason Mimicry is a method of acquire body colour blending with the surroundings.

173. Assertion Charcoal has equal heating power than wood.

Reason Charcoal burns without producing flame or smoke.

174. Assertion Recoginition site should be preferably sing and responsive to commonly used restriction enzyme.

Reason In pBR 322 alien DNA is ligated generally in the area of Bam-HI site of tetracycline resistance gene.

175. Assertion Recently, the government of India instituted the Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award.

Reason We can speed up the reforestation by planting trees.

176. Assertion DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence.

Reason In repetitive DNA sequences, a small stretch of DNA is repeated many times.

177. Assertion Chlorella could serve as a potential source of food and energy.

Reason When dried, Chlorella has 15% protein, 45% fat, 10% carbohydrate, 20% fibre, and 10% minerals and vitamins.

178. Assertion Oil will form a film on the top of the water, affecting the amount of light entering the water.

Reason Oil is a polar molecule,, and forms hydrogen bonds.

179. Assertion Bacteria and other particles pass down the wind pipe and enter the lungs, causing damage to the tissue.

Reason Smoking reduces ciliary effectiveness.

180. Assertion Most evolutionary trees place unformation about the pattern of relationships among organisms on the vertical axis and information about time on the horizontal axis.

Reason An evolutionary tree depicts the pattern of relationships among  parents and their offsprings.

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2009

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

181. Santosh Trophy is related to

(a)  Cricket

(c)  Golf

(d)  Football

182. The Barrah dacoity was the first major venture of the revolutionary terrorists of the Freedom Movement in

(a)  The Madras Presidency

(b)  Punjab

(c)  Bombay-Karnataka

(d)  East Bengal

183. Michael Ferreira is associated with which of the following games ?

(a)  Chess

(b)  Snooker

(c)  Golf

(d)  None of the above

184. Moorish traveler, Ibn Batutah, came to India during the time of

(a)  Ala-ud-din Khalji

(b)  Firuz Shah Tughlaq

(c)  Balban

(d)  Mohammed-bin-Tughlaq

185. Red Cross was founded by

(a)  J.H. Durant

(c)  Trygve Lie

(d)  Fredrick Passey

186. Where is the H.Q. of the Amnesty International?

(a)  Geneva

(b)  London

(c)  Paris

(d)  New York

187. Who were the three statements who formulated NAM?

(a)  Tito, Nasser and Bhutto

(b)  Nehru, Nasser and Gandhi

(c)  Nasser, Tito and Nehru

(d)  Nehru, Chouen-Lai and Bhutto

188. Who is known as ‘Little Corporal’?

(b)  Napolean Bonaparte

(c)  William E. Cladstone

(d)  None of the above

189. Who wrote As You Like It ?

(a)  Bernard Shaw

(b)  William Shakespeare

(c)  Leo. Tolstoy

(d)  Mulk Raj Anand

190. Ain-i-Akbari is written by

(a)  Firdausi

(b)  Ghalib

(c)  Abul Fazal

(d)  None of the above

191. When was the Border Security Force (BSF) raised?

(a)  1947

(b)  1950

(c)  1960

(d)  1965

192. MODVAT relates to

(a)  sales tax

(b)  wealth tax

(c)  income tax

(d)  excise duty

193. The one rupee note bears the signature of

(a)  Secretary, Ministry of Finance

(b)  Governor, Reserve Bank of India

(c)  Finance Minister

(d)  None of the above

194. Which among the following is the feature film produced in India by Dada Saheb Phalke?

(a)  Alam Ara

(b)  Raja Harishchandra

(c)  Shakuntala

(d)  None of the above