## GATE Exam 2023 Life Sciences (XL) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE-2023

XL: Life Sciences

General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. The village was nestled in a green spot, _______ the ocean and the hills.

(A)   through

(B)   in

(C)   at

(D)   between

2. Disagree : Protest : : Agree : _______

(By word meaning)

(A)   Refuse

(B)   Pretext

(C)   Recommend

(D)   Refute

3. A ‘frabjous’ number is defined as a 3 digit number with all digits odd, and no two adjacent digits being the same. For example, 137 is a frabjous number, while 133 is not. How many such frabjous numbers exist?

(A)   125

(B)   720

(C)   60

(D)   80

4. Which one among the following statements must be TRUE about the mean and the median of the scores of all candidates appearing for GATE 2023?

(A)   The median is at least as large as the mean.

(B)   The mean is at least as large as the median.

(C)   At most half the candidates have a score that is larger than the median.

(D)   At most half the candidates have a score that is larger than the mean.

5. In the given diagram, ovals are marked at different heights (h) of a hill. Which one of the following options P, Q, R, and S depicts the top view of the hill?

(A)   P

(B)   Q

(C)   R

(D)   S

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

6. Residency is a famous housing complex with many well-established individuals among its residents. A recent survey conducted among the residents of the complex revealed that all of those residents who are well established in their respective fields happen to be academicians. The survey also revealed that most of these academicians are authors of some best-selling books.

Based only on the information provided above, which one of the following statements can be logically inferred with certainty?

(A)   Some residents of the complex who are well established in their fields are also authors of some best-selling books.

(B)   All academicians residing in the complex are well established in their fields.

(C)   Some authors of best-selling books are residents of the complex who are well established in their fields.

(D)   Some academicians residing in the complex are well established in their fields.

7. Ankita has to climb 5 stairs starting at the ground, while respecting the following rules:

(1) At any stage, Ankita can move either one or two stairs up.

(2) At any stage, Ankita cannot move to a lower step.

Let F(N) denote the number of possible ways in which Ankita can reach the 𝑁𝑡ℎ stair. For example, F(1) = 1, F(2) = 2, F(3) = 3.

The value of F(5) is _______.

(A)   8

(B)   7

(C)   6

(D)   5

8. The information contained in DNA is used to synthesize proteins that are necessary for the functioning of life. DNA is composed of four nucleotides: Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Cytosine (C), and Guanine (G). The information contained in DNA can then be thought of as a sequence of these four nucleotides: A, T, C, and G. DNA has coding and non-coding regions. Coding regions—where the sequence of these nucleotides are read in groups of three to produce individual amino acids—constitute only about 2% of human DNA. For example, the triplet of nucleotides CCG codes for the amino acid glycine, while the triplet GGA codes for the amino acid proline. Multiple amino acids are then assembled to form a protein.

Based only on the information provided above, which of the following statements can be logically inferred with certainty?

(i) The majority of human DNA has no role in the synthesis of proteins.

(ii) The function of about 98% of human DNA is not understood.

(A)   only (i)

(B)   only (ii)

(C)   both (i) and (ii)

(D)   neither (i) nor (ii)

9. Which one of the given figures P, Q, R and S represents the graph of the following function?

f(x) = | |x + 2| − |x – 1| |

(A)   P

(B)   Q

(C)   R

(D)   S

10. An opaque cylinder (shown below) is suspended in the path of a parallel beam of light, such that its shadow is cast on a screen oriented perpendicular to the direction of the light beam. The cylinder can be reoriented in any direction within the light beam. Under these conditions, which one of the shadows P, Q, R, and S is NOT possible?

(A)   P

(B)   Q

(C)   R

(D)   S

Chemistry – P (Compulsory)

XL-P: Q.11 – Q.19 Carry ONE mark Each

11. Which one among the following mixtures gives a buffer solution in water?

(A) CH3COOH + CH3COONa

(B) CH3COOH + NaCl

(C) NaOH + NaCl

(D) NaOH + CH3COONa

12. What is the major product formed in the given reaction?

13. The CORRECT order of stability of the given metal oxides is

(A) LiO2 > NaO2 > KO2 > RbO2

(B) LiO2 < NaO2 < KO2 < RbO2

(C) LiO2 < NaO2 > KO2 > RbO2

(D) LiO2 > NaO2 < KO2 < RbO2

14. Which of the following is/are CORRECT when two single complementary strands of DNA come together to form a double helix at a given temperature?

(ΔS and ΔH are changes in entropy and enthalpy of the process, respectively.)

(A) ΔS > 0

(B) ΔS < 0

(C) ΔH > 0

(D) ΔH < 0

15. Suitable reagent(s) to bring about the conversion of P to Q in good yield is/are

16. Choose the CORRECT trend(s) of the first ionization energies among the following.

(Given: Atomic numbers C: 6; N: 7; O: 8; F: 9; Si: 14; P: 15; S: 16; Cl: 17)

(A) C < N > O < F

(B) Si < P > S < Cl

(C) C < N < O < F

(D) Si < P < S < Cl

17. The depression of freezing point of water (in K) for 0.1 molal solutions of NaCl and Na2SO4 are ΔT1 and ΔT2, respectively. Assuming the solutions to be ideal, the ratio ΔT1⁄ΔT2 is _____________ (rounded off to two decimal places).

18. Considering cyclobutane to be planar, the number of planes of symmetry in the following compound is ___________ (in integer).

19. The dipole moment (μ) of BrF is 1.42 D and the bond length is 176 pm. The atomic charge distribution (q) in the molecule is _____ (rounded off to two decimal places). (Given: 1 D = 3.34 × 1030 C m; the factor e (electronic charge) = 1.60 × 1019 C)

XL-P: Q.20 – Q.27 Carry TWO marks Each

20. Consider two different paths in which the volume of an ideal gas doubles isothermally:

(i) Reversible expansion (work done = wrev)

(ii) Irreversible expansion, with the external pressure equal to the final pressure of the gas (work done = wirrev)

21. A mixture of four peptides, PKKRK, RGERV, RYRGV and LVVYP, is loaded onto an ion-exchange column at pH = 7.2. If carboxymethyl (CM) cellulose is used as the stationary phase of this column, then which peptide elutes first?

(A) PKKRK

(B) RGERV

(C) RYRGV

(D) LVVYP

22. Match the coordination complexes given in Column I with the most appropriate properties in Column II.

(Given: Atomic numbers of Mn: 25; Co: 27; Ni: 28)

(A) E-1, F-2, G-3, H-4

(B) E-2, F-1, G-4, H-3

(C) E-4, F-2, G-1, H-3

(D) E-1, F-4, G-3, H-2

23. Compounds P and Q undergo E2 elimination with reaction rate constants of k1 and k2, respectively, as shown below. Which is/are the CORRECT option(s)?

(A) k1 > k2

(B) k2 > k1

(C) Most stable conformer of P gives the product

(D) Most stable conformer of Q gives the product

24. According to Hard-Soft Acid-Base (HSAB) principle, the CORRECT option(s) for the solubility trend in water is/are

(A) AgF > AgCl > AgBr > AgI

(B) LiBr > LiCl > LiF

(C) AgF < AgCl < AgBr < AgI

(D) LiBr < LiCl < LiF

25. Compound X gives alcohol P as the major product for the reaction shown below. Suitable option(s) for X is/are

26. The number of radial node(s) for the valence orbital of U(III) ion is _____ (in integer).

(Given: Atomic number of U is 92)

27. Eº = 1.10 V for the following cell reaction:

Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) ⇌ Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)

For this reaction, the equilibrium constant is y × 1037 at 298 K. The value of y is _____ (rounded off to two decimal places).

(Given : F = 96485 C mol1, R = 8.314 J K1 mol1)

Biochemistry (XL-Q)

XL-Q: Q.28 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each

28. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].

Assertion [a]: On a per carbon basis, palmitic acid yields more ATP than glucose.

Reason [r]: Carbons in palmitic acid are more reduced than those in glucose.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(C) [a] is true but [r] is false

(D) [a] is false but [r] is true

29. When cell components are fractionated by sedimentation, the correct order (from lower to higher gravitational force, g) in which the components get separated is _______.

(A) nuclei, mitochondria, microsomes, and ribosomes

(B) microsomes, mitochondria, ribosomes, and nuclei

(C) nuclei, ribosomes, mitochondria, and microsomes

(D) ribosomes, microsomes, mitochondria, and nuclei

30. In a population, the probability of a susceptible individual getting infected with SARS-CoV-2 is low when a majority of individuals in the population becomes immune to this virus. This phenomenon is known as _______.

(A) innate immunity

(C) active immunity

(D) herd immunity

31. Given below are four reactions of the glycolytic pathway catalyzed by the enzymes E1, E2, E3, and E4, as indicated. Which of these enzymes is/are NOT part of the gluconeogenesis pathway?

(A) E1

(B) E2

(C) E3

(D) E4

32. Which of the following molecules is/are second messenger(s) produced by the phosphoinositide signaling cascade?

(A) Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate

(B) Inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate

(C) Inositol 1,3,5-triphosphate

(D) Diacylglycerol

33. A protein has seven cysteine residues. The maximum number of disulfide bonds of different combinations that can possibly be formed by these seven cysteine residues is _______ (in integer).

34. A lyophilized sample of 20 nanomoles of an oligonucleotide is dissolved in water and the volume of the solution is made up to 200 μ The concentration (in μM) of the oligonucleotide in this solution is ______ (in integer).

35. DNA in a 1 cm long chromatin contains 5 × 109 base pairs. The fold compaction of this DNA within the chromatin is _______ (in integer).

XL-Q: Q.36 – Q.46 Carry TWO marks Each

36. Intracellular concentrations of ATP, ADP, and inorganic phosphate in four cell types are given below. Which one of these cell types has the most negative ΔG for ATP hydrolysis?

(A) L

(B) K

(C) B

(D) M

37. Which one of the following amino acids has more than two acid-base groups?

(A) Alanine

(B) Leucine

(C) Phenylalamine

(D) Tyrosine

38. Enzyme activity profiles as a function of time in the absence or presence of different types of feedback mechanisms are shown in the figure below. Match the following feedback mechanisms with the corresponding profiles in the figure.

(p) No feedback mechanism

(q) Negative feedback mechanism with short delay

(r) Negative feedback mechanism with long delay

(s) Positive feedback mechanism

(A) (p) – (i); (q) – (ii); (r) – (iii); (s) – (iv)

(B) (p) – (iv); (q) – (iii); (r) – (ii); (s) – (i)

(C) (p) – (iv); (q) – (ii); (r) – (iii); (s) – (i)

(D) (p) – (i); (q) – (iii); (r) – (ii); (s) – (iv)

39. A linear DNA fragment of 5 kilobase (kb) when completely digested with EcoRI produces 2.5 kb, 1.5 kb, and 1 kb fragments. Complete digestion of the same 5 kb fragment with XbaI produces 3.5 kb and 1.5 kb fragments. Which one of the following sets of fragments will be obtained if the 5 kb fragment is fully digested with EcoRI and XbaI simultaneously?

(A) 3 kb and 2 kb

(B) 2 kb and 1 kb

(C) 2 kb, 1.5 kb, 1 kb, and 0.5 kb

(D) 2.5 kb, 1.5 kb, 0.75 kb, and 0.25 kb

40. Match the cell types listed in Group I with associated processes listed in Group II.

(A) (p) – (ii); (q) – (i); (r) – (iii); (s) – (iv)

(B) (p) – (ii); (q) – (i); (r) – (iv); (s) – (iii)

(C) (p) – (iii); (q) – (i); (r) – (iv); (s) – (ii)

(D) (p) – (iii); (q) – (ii); (r) – (i); (s) – (iv)

41. Four statements about lipids are given below as options. Choose the statement(s) which is/are CORRECT.

(A) Cholesterol is amphipathic

(B) Self-assembly of phospholipids in water is due to hydrophobic effect

(C) The temperature at which the gel phase changes to liquid crystalline phase increases with an increase in the degree of unsaturation of fatty acyl tails

(D) The choline head group of lipids is positively charged

42. Which of the following technique(s) can be used to separate proteins according to their molecular weights from a mixture of proteins?

(A) Ion exchange chromatography

(B) Size exclusion chromatography

(C) Sodium dodecylsulfate – polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (SDS-PAGE)

43. B cells produce two forms of an immunoglobulin: (i) membrane-bound form, known as B cell receptor (BCR) and (ii) soluble form, known as antibody. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT about BCR and antibody produced by the same B cell?

(A)  BCR and antibody have identical antigen binding site

(B) BCR and antibody recognize different epitopes

(C) BCR and antibody are encoded by the same gene

(D) BCR and antibody are formed by differential splicing

44. A 100 ml solution of pH 10 was well-mixed with a 100 ml solution of pH 4. The pH of the resultant 200 ml solution is ___________ (rounded off to two decimal places).

45. An organism uses only the glycerophosphate shunt pathway to transport cytosolic NADH to mitochondria. For every two electrons transported, complex I, complex III, and complex IV of the electron transport chain in this organism transport 2.5, 1.5, and 2.0 protons (H+), respectively. The H+ to ATP ratio of FOF1-ATPase of this organism is 4.0. Terminal electron acceptor is oxygen.

The number of ATP molecules synthesized by oxidizing NADH from glycolysis is __________ (rounded off to two decimal places).

46. If the extracellular concentration of sodium ion (Na+) is ten times more than its intracellular concentration, then the sodium equilibrium potential at 20 ºC in mV is ________________ (rounded off to two decimal places). Assume that the membrane is permeable only to Na+ [Use R = 1.987 cal deg−1 mol−1 and F = 23062 cal mol−1 V−1]

Botany (XL-R)

XL-R: Q.47 – Q.54 Carry ONE mark Each

47. Which one of the following statements on Casparian strips is correct?

(A) Casparian strips are specific to vascular plants found in epidermal cells.

(B)  Casparian strips are modifications mostly found in shoot tissue.

(C) Casparian strips act as a cellular barrier to allow selective nutrient uptake and exclusion of pathogens.

(D) Casparian strips are common in root endodermal cells of non-vascular plants.

48. Rotenone is a chemical often used to kill insect pests on crop plants and fishes in lakes. Rotenone acts by inhibiting electron transport from the NADH dehydrogenase enzyme in Complex I to ubiquinone in the mitochondrial electron transport chain. Which one of the following explains why plants can tolerate rotenone application?

(A) The Complex I in plants is resistant to rotenone.

(B) Plants inactivate rotenone by enzymatic degradation.

(C) Plants have specific channels that efflux rotenone out of the cell.

49. Although Pseudomonas syringae infection in plants is actively inhibited by the endogenous salicylic acid (SA) of host origin, a successful infection is still established because the bacterium secretes coronatine, an effector molecule. Which one of the following best describes the mode of action of coronatine?

(A) Coronatine inhibits SA biosynthesis.

(B) Coronatine promotes the biosynthesis of jasmonic acid (JA), and JA signaling in turn inhibits SA response.

(C) Coronatine is a structural analogue of SA, which binds to the SA receptor and inhibits its function.

(D) Coronatine is a structural analogue of jasmonic acid (JA), which activates JA signaling to inhibit SA response.

50. The schematic depicts an unexpanded plant cell within a hypocotyl with the arrangement of cellulose microfibrils marked on its cell wall.

Which one of the following shapes would most likely result from the expansion of this cell if the pattern of the cellulose fibrils does not change?

51. Which one or more of the following statements is/are NOT CORRECT with respect to pollen development in angiosperm?

(A) Tapetal cell wall in all angiosperms breaks down to release the cytoplasmic content.

(B) Tapetal cell wall in all angiosperms remains intact.

(C) Tapetal cell wall breaks down in some angiosperm species, whereas it remains intact in others.

(D) Within an angiosperm species, the tapetal cell wall breaks down in some individuals and not in others.

52. Regulation of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase (PEPCase) governs CO2 fixation in both C4 and CAM (crassulacean acid metabolism) plants. Which one or more of the following statements with respect to PEPCase activity is/are CORRECT?

(A) PEPCase in C4 plants is inactivated by dephosphorylation during the day.

(B) PEPCase in CAM plants is inactivated by dephosphorylation during the day.

(C) PEPCase in C4 plants is inactivated by dephosphorylation at night.

(D) PEPCase in CAM plants is inactivated by dephosphorylation at night.

53. Which one or more processes listed below DOES NOT/DO NOT produce carbon dioxide during fermentation?

(A) Brewing wine using yeast.

(C) Making yogurt using lactobacillus.

(D) Making cheese using fungus.

54. The ovule of a diploid species with 2n = 8 undergoes double fertilization. If the pollen is contributed by an individual with meiotic nondisjunction, the chromosome number of the zygote will be _________.

XL-R: Q.55 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

55. Match the tasks given in Group I with the associated techniques conventionally used as listed in Group II.

(A) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4; T-5

(B) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2; T-5

(C) P-5; Q-4; R-1; S-2; T-3

(D) P-3; Q-5; R-1; S-2; T-4

56. Periderm is a protective tissue found in stems and roots of gymnosperm and woody dicotyledons. It contributes to the increased thickness by secondary growth. Match the peridermal components given in Group I with the cell/tissue types given in Group II.

(A) P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2

(B) P-3; Q-2; R-4; S-1

(C) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4

(D) P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2

57. Match the following rice diseases in Group I with their causal agents in Group II.

(A) P-5; Q-3; R-2; S-1

(B) P-4; Q-2; R-5; S-3

(C) P-4; Q-5; R-3; S-1

(D) P-5; Q-4; R-1; S-2

58. Central vascular cylinder or stele consists of the primary vascular system (xylem and phloem) and the associate fundamental tissue. Match the schematics of stele in Group I (xylem shown in green, and phloem shown as  ) with their respective types in Group II.

(A) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3

(B) P-5; Q-1; R-4; S-2

(C) P-5; Q-3; R-1; S-2

(D) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-5

59. Consider the following four experimental observations (i, ii, iii, iv) on the effect of the FT gene on flowering transition in the shoot apical meristem (SAM) of Arabidopsis thaliana.

(i) The FT promoter is active in leaves alone.

(ii) The ft null mutation causes delayed flowering transition of the SAM.

(iii) Expressing a recombinant FT protein fused to nuclear localization signal sequence under the endogenous promoter does not rescue the delayed-flowering phenotype of the ft null mutant.

(iv) Downregulation of FT transcript in the SAM by RNA interference in the wild-type background does not alter flowering transition.

Which one of the following conclusions best explains the above observations?

(A) FT protein resident in leaves causes flowering transition of the SAM.

(B) FT transcript moves from leaves to the meristem and promotes flowering.

(C) FT protein moves from leaves to the SAM and promotes flowering.

(D) Both FT transcript and FT protein are required in the SAM to promote flowering.

60. Which one of the options given correctly matches the alkaloids in Group I with their source plants in Group II?

(A) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2

(B) P-1; Q-3; R-4; S-2

(C) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4

(D) P-4; Q-2; R-1; S-3

61. A drought tolerant rice genotype was found to be associated with a missense mutation in the gene A. Which one or more of the following experiments is/are appropriate to validate whether the mutation in A is the causal factor for drought tolerance?

(A)  Introduce the same mutation in a drought sensitive rice genotype and test if it becomes drought tolerant.

(B)  Delete the wild-type A in drought sensitive plant and test if it becomes drought tolerant.

(C) Determine the stability of the protein encoded by the wild-type and the mutant forms of A.

(D) Repair the mutation in the drought tolerant rice genotype and test if it becomes drought sensitive.

62. Blue light can directly induce opening of stomata. Blue light also triggers photosynthesis in the guard cells, which indirectly induces stomatal opening. Which one or more of the following experimental approaches would test the direct effect of blue light on stomatal opening?

(A) Application of low photon fluxes of red light followed by high fluence rate of blue light.

(B) Application of high fluence rates of red light followed by low photon fluxes of blue light.

(C) Application of high fluence rates of blue light followed by high photon fluxes of red light.

(D)  Inhibition of photosynthetic electron transport by dichlorophenyldimethylurea (DCMU).

63. In a diploid angiosperm species, flower colour is regulated by the R gene. RR and Rr genotypes produce red flowers, whereas the rr genotype produces white flowers. If two individual plants are randomly selected from a large segregating population of a genetic cross between RR and rr parents, the probability of both the plants producing red flowers is _______.

(Rounded off to two decimal places)

64. A cytoplasmic male-sterile female plant with the restorer (nuclear) genotype rr is crossed to a male-fertile male plant with the genotype RR. Both RR and Rr can restore the fertility, whereas rr cannot. When an F1 female plant with Rr genotype was test-crossed to a male-fertile male plant with the rr genotype, the percentage of the population that is male fertile would be _______ %. (Answer in integer)

65. The frequencies for autosomal alleles A and a are p = 0.5 and q = 0.5, respectively, where A is dominant over a. Under the assumption of random mating, the mating frequency among dominant parents is _________. (Rounded off to two decimal places)

Microbiology (XL-S)

XL-S: Q.66 – Q.73 Carry ONE mark each

66. Monkey pox is caused by a

(A) double-stranded DNA virus

(B) single-stranded DNA virus

(C) double-stranded RNA virus

(D) single-stranded RNA virus

67. Which one of the following converts sulfate to hydrogen sulfide?

(A) Beggiatoa

(B) Desulfovibrio

(C) Thiobacillus

(D) Thiothrix

68. Which one of the statements about bacterial flagella is correct?

(A) Flagella varies in length ranging from 0.5 to 2 μm.

(B) Flagella are adjacent fibrils with regular patterns.

(C) Flagella helps in conjugation.

(D) Flagella originates from basal body.

69. Microbial plastics are made from

(A) polyhydroxyalkanoates

(B) polystyrene

(C) polyurethane

(D) polyvinyl chloride

70. The correct sequence of metabolic intermediates in Krebs cycle is

(A) α-ketoglutarate → fumarate → succinate → malate

(B) fumarate → malate → succinate → α-ketoglutarate

(C) α-ketoglutarate → succinate → fumarate → malate

(D) succinate → α-ketoglutarate → malate → fumarate

71. Catabolite repression in bacteria is regulated by the concentration of

(A) amino acids

(B) glucose

(C) messenger RNA

(D) lactose

72. Phagocytosis was first described by

(A) Elie Metchnikoff

(B) Robert Hooke

(C) Robert Koch

(D) Paul Ehrlich

73. Which one of the following statements about batch culture of microbes is NOT correct?

(A) Cells from stationary phase will show longer lag phase when inoculated in fresh growth medium compared to those collected from exponential phase.

(B)  Death phase of culture is often exponential in nature.

(C) Stationary phase is the cryptic growth phase.

(D) The rate of generation of new cells during exponential growth phase is constant.

XL-S: Q.74 – Q.84 Carry TWO marks each

74. Match the test in Group I with its application in Group II

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

75. Which one of the following is NOT correct about antibiotic resistance mechanism in microbes?

(A)  Mycoplasma is naturally resistant to penicillins due to presence of R plasmid.

(B) Gram-negative bacteria are impermeable to penicillin G.

(C) β-lactamases of bacteria can cleave penicillins.

(D) Selective microbes can efflux penicillins entering the cell and develop resistance.

76. A suspension of photosynthetic green algae was illuminated in the presence of 14CO2 for few seconds. The first metabolite in the Calvin cycle to be radiolabeled will be

(A) glyceraldehyde

(B) 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate

(C) 3-phosphoglycerate

(D) ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate

77. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].

Assertion [a]: Endospore can survive heat that would rapidly kill vegetative cells of the same species.

Reason [r]: In endospore, the protoplasm is reduced to minimum volume as a result of the accumulation of calcium-dipicolinic acid complexes and small acid-soluble spore proteins, which forms a cytoplasmic gel and a thick cortex.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(B) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(C) Both [a] and [r] are false

(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

78. Which one of the following conjugations will result in formation of merodiploids?

(A) F+ donor × F recipient

(B) Hfr donor × F recipient

(C) F’ donor × F recipient

(D) F+ donor × Hfr recipient

79. Which of the following genus is/are a spirochete(s)?

(A) Borrelia

(B) Leptospira

(C) Spirulina

(D) Treponema

80. Which of the following is/are non-membrane bound inclusion bodies?

(A) Carboxysomes

(B) Cyanophycin granules

(C) Poly-β-hydroxybutyrate granules

(D) Polyphosphate granules

81. Which of the following antibiotics is/are isolated from Streptomyces spp.?

(A) Gentamicin

(B) Nystatin

(C) Polymyxins

(D) Tetracyclines

82. Which of the following statements about the primary and secondary adaptive immune responses to an antigen is/are correct?

(A) IgM antibodies appear first in response to the initial exposure of the antigen.

(B) Majority of the antibodies produced in response to the second exposure of the same antigen are IgM isotype.

(C) Second exposure of the same antigen stimulates production of memory cells.

(D) Primary antibody response has shorter lag phase than secondary antibody response.

83. The spontaneous, and induced mutations in bacteria can be distinguished by

(A) fluctuation test

(B) replica plating

(C) disc diffusion test

(D) use-dilution test

84. During the exponential growth, it took 6 hours for the population of bacterial cells to increase from 2.5 × 106 to 5 × 108. The generation time of the bacterium, rounded off to the nearest integer, is ________ minutes.

Zoology (XL-T)

XL-T: Q.85 – Q.92 Carry ONE mark Each

85. Which one of the following animals has “Book Lungs” as a respiratory organ?

(A) Earthworm

(B) Scorpion

(C) Octopus

(D) Starfish

86. Which one of the following describes the “innate behavior” of an animal?

(A) A behavior that is triggered due to the change in environment.

(B) A behavior that is trained by the parents.

(C)  A behavior that is determined by heredity.

(D) A behavior that is learnt by “hit and trial” approach.

87. Which one of the following represents a true “Ecological population” ?

(A) A pitcher plant and a trapped fly in it

(B) All animals that live near each other in a national park

(C) The leeches and the flatworms that live in a forest

(D) All the lions in a reserve forest

88. Which of the following animals show “Bottle cells” during the gastrulation stage of development?

(A) Snails

(B) Amphibians

(C) Birds

(D) Mammals

89. The organisms that obtain energy from inorganic compounds are known as

(A) Autotrophs

(B) Organotrophs

(C) Lithotrophs

(D) Phototrophs

90. Which of the following is/are the causative agent(s) of Filariasis?

(A) Wuchereria bancrofti

(B) Leishmania donovani

(C) Brugia malayi

(D) Trypanosoma gambiense

91. In a population of 1000 wild dogs in a grassland, 360 and 480 dogs had black body colour with genotypes BB and Bb, respectively. In the same population, remaining dogs were white in colour with a genotype of bb. Based on this data, the frequency of allele “b” in the population is ______ (round off to one decimal place).

92. A mature rat sperm cell has 2.5 μg of genomic DNA that is equivalent of a haploid genome. Compared to this sperm cell, the amount of genomic DNA (in μg) in a somatic cell, which is in the G2 phase of cell cycle, will be _____ (in integer).

XL-T: Q.93 – Q.103 Carry TWO marks Each

93. In an experiment, excess amount of bicod mRNA (more than wild-type expression level) was injected into the posterior pole of a wild-type Drosophila embryo at pre-blastodermal stage. Out of the following options, which one represents the best expected phenotype in the resulted developing embryo?

(A) Normal embryo with head structure at anterior and tail structure at posterior pole

(B) Head structure only at posterior pole of the embryo

(C) Tail structure at anterior and head structure at posterior poles of the embryo

(D) Head structure at both anterior and posterior poles of the embryo

94. Match the hormones/precursors listed in Column I with their chemical type in Column II and the tissue of origin listed in Column III

(A) P – (ii) – d ; Q – (iii) – c ; R – (iv) – a ; S – (i) – b

(B) P – (ii) – d ; Q – (iv) – a ; R – (i) – c ; S – (iii) – b

(C) P – (i) – c ; Q – (ii) – b ; R – (iv) – d ; S – (iii) – a

(D) P – (iv) – a ; Q – (i) – d ; R – (ii) – b ; S – (iii) – c

95. Match the syndromes listed in Column I with the cause/symptoms listed in Column II

(A) P – (ii) ; Q – (v) ; R – (iv) ; S – (iii) ; T – (i)

(B) P – (iv) ; Q – (iii) ; R – (i) ; S – (ii) ; T – (v)

(C) P – (iii) ; Q – (iv) ; R – (i) ; S – (v) ; T – (ii)

(D) P – (v) ; Q – (iv) ; R – (ii) ; S – (i) ; T – (iii)

96. Match the immunological statements in Column I with the appropriate descriptions from Column II

(A) P – (ii) ; Q – (iii) ; R – (iv) ; S – (i)

(B) P – (iv) ; Q – (iii) ; R – (i) ; S – (ii)

(C) P – (iv) ; Q – (ii) ; R – (iii) ; S – (i)

(D) P – (i) ; Q – (iv) ; R – (iii) ; S – (ii)

97. Match the standard/stated cofactors in Column I with their respective enzymes in Column II

(A) P – (v) ; Q – (ii) ; R – (iv) ; S – (i) ; T– (iii)

(B) P – (ii) ; Q – (iv) ; R – (v) ; S – (iii) ; T – (i)

(C) P – (iv) ; Q – (ii) ; R – (iii) ; S – (i) ; T – (v)

(D) P – (ii) ; Q – (i) ; R – (iii) ; S – (iv) ; T – (v)

98. The presence of excess glucose has been known to prevent the induction of lac operon as well as other operon controlling enzymes involved in carbohydrate metabolism in E. coli. Which of the following processes define(s) the phenomenon?

(A) Catabolite repression

(B) Attenuation

(C) Glucose effect

(D) Feedback inhibition

99. Which of the following techniques is/are used for determining the three-dimensional structure of proteins?

(A) Cryo-electron Microscopy

(B) Circular Dichroism

(C)  Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy

(D) X-ray Diffraction

100. Among the following statements, which is/are TRUE regarding the replication of DNA?

(A)  Replication is bidirectional and conservative in nature.

(B) Replication in eukaryotes takes place at multiple Ori sites simultaneously.

(C)  Both the strands replicate in discontinuous manner.

(D)  One strand replicates in continuous while the other replicates in discontinuous manner.

101. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE for Colchicine?

(A) It binds to tubulin molecule and disrupts the assembly/polymerization of microtubule.

(B) It inhibits crossover of chromosomes during meiosis.

(C) It inhibits chromosome condensation during Prophase.

(D) It blocks mitotic cells in Metaphase.

102. Wild-type Drosophila females having three linked genes (AABBCC) were crossed with triple recessive mutant (aabbcc) males. The F1 female progenies (AaBbCc) were back crossed with the triple negative mutant (aabbcc) males. The cross resulted in following number of progenies in F2 :

The order of genes as determined from the above data was found to be “ABC” (note that the order is equivalent to “CBA” and the order outside the markers are arbitrary).

The recombination map distance (in centi Morgan) between “A to C” is ______ (round off to one decimal place).

103. The length of a double helical DNA molecule is 13.6 km. If the DNA double helix weighs 1 × 10−18 g per 1000 nucleotide pairs and rise per base pair is 3.4 Å, then weight of the double helical DNA molecule (in nanogram) will be ______ (in integer).

Food Technology (XL-U)

XL-U: Q.104 – Q.111 Carry ONE mark Each

104. Choose the correct group of fat soluble vitamins

(B) Thiamine, Cholecalciferol, α-Tocopherol

(D) Biotin, Thiamin, Niacin

105. The synthesis of thyroxine T4 in human body requires

(A) Selenium

(B) Iodine

(C) Iron

(D) Zinc

106. Which among the followings is NOT an essential amino acid?

(A) L-Phenylalanine

(B) L-Valine

(C) L-Lysine

(D) L-Arginine

107. The time required for stipulated destruction of a microbial population at a given temperature is

(A) D-value

(B) F-value

(C) z-value

(D) Q10 value

108. Which among the following statements is NOT correct?

(A) Cod fish is a major source of ω-3 fatty acids.

(B) Beetroot is a good source of β-carotene.

(C) Apple is a good source of vitamin B12.

(D) Fresh sugarcane juice is a good source of polyphenol oxidase.

109. Calculate the efficiency in percent (rounded off to 1 decimal place) of an oil expeller which yields 37 kg oil containing 5% solid impurities from 100 kg mustard seeds. The oil content of the mustard seed is 38%.

110. Orange juice is packaged aseptically and stored under ambient conditions. The degradation of vitamin C in the juice occurs during storage and it follows first order reaction kinetics. The degradation rate constant is 5.2 × 103 day1. The half-life of vitamin C in days is ____________ (in integer).

111. The weight of 10 kg dried cauliflower containing 5% moisture (wet basis) after rehydration is 60 kg. If the fresh cauliflower contained 87% moisture (wet basis), calculate the coefficient of rehydration (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

XL-U: Q.112 – Q.122 Carry TWO marks Each

112. Some of the industrial products are produced by fermentation processes. Identify the correct pair of product and fermentative microorganism.

(A) Vinegar – Acetobacter aceti

(B) Citric acid – Enterbacter aerogenes

(C) Ethanol – Saccharomyces cerevisiae

(D) L-Lysine – Aspergillus niger

113. Choose the correct statement(s) about the enzyme and its application in food processing reaction.

(A)  Chymosin is widely used in cheese manufacturing.

(B) Thermolysin is used in the synthesis of Aspartame.

(C) β-Galactosidase catalyzes the hydrolysis of galactose.

(D) Lipase is used for restructuring of acyl glycerol.

114. Identify the Gram +ve bacteria responsible for causing food borne diseases among the followings

(A) Campylobacter jejuni

(B) Clostridium botulinum

(C) Vibrio cholerae

(D) Salmonella typhi

115. Extrusion cooking is accomplished in four different stages, which are indicated as I, II, III and IV in the figure given below. Choose the correct option representing the name of each stage.

(A) I – Feeding, II – Cooking, III – Kneading, IV – Expansion

(B) I – Kneading, II – Feeding, III – Cooking, IV – Expansion

(C) I – Feeding, II – Kneading, III – Cooking, IV – Expansion

(D) I – Cooking, II – Kneading, III – Feeding, IV – Expansion

116. Match the method/ value used for measuring lipid characteristics in Column I with the corresponding properties indicated by them, in Column II.

(A) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(B) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2

(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

117. Match the peeling technique in Column I with the vegetable, for which it is used in industry, given in Column II.

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(B) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2

(C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

118. Match the process in Column I with the related food component in Column II.

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(C) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4

(D) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

119. Identify the correct statement(s) related to grain polysaccharides among the followings.

(A) Dextrin are a group of low molecular weight polysaccharides produced by dry hydrolysis of starch.

(B) Amylose is a linear polymer of D-glucose units joined by α (1→6) glycoside linkages.

(C)  Amylopectin is a branched chain polymer of D-galactose monomer units.

(D)  Retrogradation is a process of reassociation of amylose and formation of crystalline structure by gelatinized starch upon cooling.

120. A sample of glucose isomerase enzyme converts 15 μmoles of substrate glucose into product fructose min1 mL1 under standard assay conditions. The enzyme activity of the glucose isomerase in International Unit (IU) is _______ (in integer).

121. If D10 for Salmonella in egg yolk is 0.75 kGy, calculate the radiation dose in kGy (rounded off to 2 decimal places) required for reducing the Salmonella count in egg yolk by 8 log cycles.

122. The average moisture binding energy of a textured protein product (TPP) at 8% moisture content (dry basis) is 3200 cal.mol-1. If the water activity of the TPP at the above moisture content is 0.30 at 30℃, the water activity of the sample at 45℃ is __________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places). The value of Gas constant R = 1.987 cal.mol1.K1.

## GATE Exam 2023 Humanities & Social Sciences (XH) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE-2023

XH : Humanities & Social Sciences

General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. Rafi told Mary, “I am thinking of watching a film this weekend.”

The following reports the above statement in indirect speech:

Rafi told Mary that he _______ of watching a film that weekend.

(A)  thought

(B)  is thinking

(C)  am thinking

(D)  was thinking

2. Permit : _______ : : Enforce : Relax

(By word meaning)

(A)  Allow

(B)  Forbid

(D)  Reinforce

3. Given a fair six-faced dice where the faces are labelled ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’, ‘4’, ‘5’, and ‘6’, what is the probability of getting a ‘1’ on the first roll of the dice and a ‘4’ on the second roll?

(A)  1/36

(B)  1/6

(C)  5/6

(D)  1/3

4. A recent survey shows that 65% of tobacco users were advised to stop consuming tobacco. The survey also shows that 3 out of 10 tobacco users attempted to stop using tobacco.

Based only on the information in the above passage, which one of the following options can be logically inferred with certainty?

(A)  A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco made an attempt to do so.

(B)  A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco did not attempt to do so.

(C)  Approximately 30% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.

(D)  Approximately 65% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.

5. How many triangles are present in the given figure?

(A)  12

(B)  16

(C)  20

(D)  24

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

6. Students of all the departments of a college who have successfully completed the registration process are eligible to vote in the upcoming college elections. However, by the time the due date for registration was over, it was found that suprisingly none of the students from the Department of Human Sciences had completed the registration process.

Based only on the information provided above, which one of the following sets of statement(s) can be logically inferred with certainty?

(i) All those students who would not be eligible to vote in the college elections would certainly belong to the Department of Human Sciences.

(ii) None of the students from departments other than Human Sciences failed to complete the registration process within the due time.

(iii) All the eligible voters would certainly be students who are not from the Department of Human Sciences.

(A)  (i) and (ii)

(B)  (i) and (iii)

(C)  only (i)

(D)  only (iii)

7. Which one of the following options represents the given graph?

(A)  f(x) = x22|x|

(B)  f(x) = x 2|x|

(C)  f(x) = |x|2x

(D)  f(x) = x2x

8. Which one of the options does NOT describe the passage below or follow from it?

We tend to think of cancer as a ‘modern’ illness because its metaphors are so modern. It is a disease of overproduction, of sudden growth, a growth that is unstoppable, tipped into the abyss of no control. Modern cell biology encourages us to imagine the cell as a molecular machine. Cancer is that machine unable to quench its intial command (to grow) and thus transform into an indestructible, self-propelled automaton.

(A)  It is a reflection of why cancer seems so modern to most of us.

(B)  It tells us that modern cell biology uses and promotes metaphors of machinery.

(C)  Modern cell biology encourages metaphors of machinery, and cancer is often imagined as a machine.

(D)  Modern cell biology never uses figurative language, such as metaphors, to describe or explain anything.

9. The digit in the unit’s place of the product 3999 × 71000 is ________.

(A)  7

(B)  1

(C)  3

(D)  9

10. A square with sides of length 6 cm is given. The boundary of the shaded region is defined by two semi-circles whose diameters are the sides of the square, as shown.

The area of the shaded region is _______ cm2.

(A)  6π

(B)  18

(C)  20

(D)  9π

Reasoning and Comprehension (XH-B1)

XH-B1: Q.11 – Q.17 Carry ONE mark Each

11. Which word below best describes the idea of being both Spineless and Cowardly?

(A)  Pusillanimous

(B)  Unctuous

(C)  Obsequious

(D)  Reticent

12. Choose the right preposition to fill up the blank:

The whole family got together ___ Diwali

(A)  of

(B)  at

(C)  in

(D)  till

13. Select the correct option to fill in all the blanks to complete the passage:

The (i) _______ factor amid this turbulence has been the (ii) ________ of high-octane, action-oriented films such as RRR, K.G.F: Chapter 2 and Pushpa from film industries in the south of the country. Traditionally, films made in the south have done well in their own (iii) _________. But increasingly, their dubbed versions have performed well in the Hindi heartland, with collections (iv) ________ those of their Bollywood counterparts.

(A)  (i) disheartening (ii) failure (iii) channels (iv) matching

(B)  (i) redeeming (ii) outperformance (iii) geographies (iv) eclipsing

(C)  (i) shocking (ii) underperformance (iii) cinemas (iv) below

(D)  (i) humbling (ii) bombing (iii) theatres (iv) falling behind

14. The following passage consists of 6 sentences. The first and sixth sentences of the passage are at their correct positions, while the middle four sentences (represented by 2, 3, 4, and 5) are jumbled up.

Choose the correct sequence of the sentences so that they form a coherent paragraph:

(1) Most obviously, mobility is taken to be a geographical as well as a social phenomenon.

(2) Much of the social mobility literature regarded society as a uniform surface and failed to register the geographical intersections of region, city and place, with the social categories of class, gender and ethnicity.

(3) The existing sociology of migration is incidentally far too limited in its concerns to be very useful here.

(4) Further, I am concerned with the flows of people within, but especially beyond, the territory of each society, and how these flows may relate to many different desires, for work, housing, leisure, religion, family relationships, criminal gain, asylum seeking and so on.

(5) Moreover, not only people are mobile but so too are many ‘objects’.

(6) I show that sociology’s recent development of a ‘sociology of objects’ needs to be taken further and that the diverse flows of objects across societal borders and their intersections with the multiple flows of people are hugely significant.

(A)  3, 2, 5, 4

(B)  2, 3, 4, 5

(C)  5, 4, 3, 2

(D)  4, 2, 5, 3

15. The population of a country increased by 5% from 2020 to 2021. Then, the population decreased by 5% from 2021 to 2022. By what percentage did the population change from 2020 to 2022?

(A)  -0.25%

(B)  0%

(C)  2.5%

(D)  10.25%

16. The words Thin: Slim: Slender are related in some way. Identify the correct option(s) that reflect(s) the same relationship:

(A)  Fat: Plump: Voluptuous

(B)  Short: Small: Petite

(C)  Tall: Taller: Tallest

(D)  Fair: Dark: Wheatish

17. A pandemic like situation hit the country last year, resulting in loss of human life and economic depression. To improve the condition of its citizens, the government made a series of emergency medical interventions and increased spending to revive the economy. In both these efforts, district administration authorities were actively involved.

Which of the following action(s) are plausible?

(A)  In future, the government can make district administration authorities responsible for protecting health of citizens and reviving the economy.

(B)  The government may set up a task force to review the post pandemic situation and ascertain the effectiveness of the measures taken.

(C)  The government may set up a committee to formulate a pandemic management program to minimize losses to life and economy in future.

(D)  The government may take population control measures to minimize pandemic related losses in future.

XH-B1: Q.18 – Q.26 Carry TWO marks Each

18. Six students, Arif, Balwinder, Chintu, David, Emon and Fulmoni appeared in the GATE-XH exam in 2022. Balwinder scores less than Chintu in XH-B1, but more than Arif in XH-C1. David scores more than Balwinder in XH-C1, and more than Chintu in XH-B1. Emon scores less than David, but more than Fulmoni in XH-B1. Fulmoni scores more than David in XH-C1. Arif scores less than Emon, but more than Fulmoni in XH-B1. Who scores highest in XH-B1?

(A)  Fulmoni

(B)  Emon

(C)  David

(D)  Chintu

19. Select the correct relation between E and F.

(A)  E > F

(B)  E < F

(C)  E = F

(D)  E < -F

20. A code language is formulated thus:

Vowels in the original word are replaced by the next vowel from the list of vowels, A-E-I-O-U (For example, E is replaced by I and U is replaced by A). Consonants in the original word are replaced by previous consonant (For example, T is replaced by S and V is replaced by T).

Then how does the word, GOODMORNING appear in the coded language?

(A)  HUUFNUSPOPH

(B)  FIICLIQMEMF

(C)  FUUCLUQMOMF

(D)  HEEDATTACRH

21. The stranger is by nature no “owner of soil” — soil not only in the physical, but also in the figurative sense of a life-substance, which is fixed, if not in a point in space, at least in an ideal point of the social environment. Although in more intimate relations, he may develop all kinds of charm and significance, as long as he is considered a stranger in the eyes of the other, he is not an “owner of soil.” Restriction to intermediary trade, and often (as though sublimated from it) to pure finance, gives him the specific character of mobility. If mobility takes place within a closed group, it embodies that synthesis of nearness and distance which constitutes the formal position of the stranger. For, the fundamentally mobile person comes in contact, at one time or another, with every individual, but is not organically connected, through established ties of kinship, locality, and occupation, with any single one.

What assumptions can be made about the stranger from the passage above?

(A)  The stranger can become an owner of soil through developing all kinds of charm in more intimate relations.

(B)  The stranger cannot become an owner of soil either in the physical or psychological sense.

(C)  The stranger can become an owner of soil through establishing ties of kinship and so on.

(D)  The stranger might become an owner of soil in the physical sense but not in the psychological

22. L is the only son of A and S. S has one sibling, B, who is married to L’s aunt, K. B is the only son of D. How are L and D related?

Select the possible option(s):

(A)  Grandchild and Paternal Grandfather

(B)  Grandchild and Maternal Grandfather

(C)  Grandchild and Paternal Grandmother

(D)  Grandchild and Maternal Grandmother

23. Five segments of a sentence are given below. The first and fifth segments are at their correct positions, while the middle three segments (represented by 2, 3, and 4) are jumbled up. Choose the correct order of the segments so that they form a coherent sentence:

(1) Consumed multitudes are jostling and shoving inside me

(2) and guided only by the memory of a large white bedsheet with a roughly circular hole some seven inches in diameter cut into the center,

(3) clutching at the dream of that holey, mutilated square of linen, which is my talisman, my open-sesame,

(4) I must commence the business of remaking my life from the point at which it really began,

(5) some thirty-two years before anything as obvious, as present, as my clock-ridden, crime-stained birth.

(A)  2 – 3 – 4

(B)  3 – 2– 4

(C)  4 – 2– 3

(D)  4 – 3 – 2

24. “I told you the truth,” I say yet again, “Memory’s truth, because memory has its own special kind. It selects, eliminates, alters, exaggerates, minimizes, glorifies, and vilifies also; but in the end it creates its own reality, its heterogeneous but usually coherent versions of events; and no sane human being ever trusts someone else’s version more than his own.”

What are the different ways in which ‘truth’ can be understood from the passage?

(A)  Truth is what can be verified by hard empirical evidence.

(B)  Truth is based on what can be perceived by the senses.

(C)  Truth is the product of memory that is fallible, selective and slanted.

(D)  Truth is contingent on the observer and can only be partial.

25. A firm needs both skilled labour and unskilled labour for the production of cloth. The wage of skilled labour is Rs. 40,000 per month, and that of unskilled labour is Rs. 15,000 per month. The total wage bill of the firm for the production of cloth is Rs. 23,75,000 in a month for 100 labour. How many skilled labour are employed by the firm (in Integer)?

26. Select the odd word and write the option number as answer:

(1) Lek (2) Zloty (3) Diner (4) Drachma (5) Real

Economics – C1

XH-C1: Q.27 – Q.44 Carry ONE mark Each

27. An individual is endowed with income of Rs. 142 and has the utility function U(x1, x2) = x2(x1 + 1), where x1 ≥ 0, x2 ≥ 0. The unit price of x1 is Rs. 2 and the unit price of x2 is Rs. 3. The utility maximizing bundle is

(A)  x1 = 35, x2 = 20

(B)  x1 = 30, x2 = 24

(C)  x1 = 35, x2 = 24

(D)  x1 = 30, x2 = 20

28. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) began operations in the year

(A)  1942

(B)  1947

(C)  1945

(D)  1940

29. According to the Working Group on Money Supply: Analytics and Methodology of Compilation (1998) constituted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), which of the following is NOT a component of the new monetary aggregate NM1 ?

(A)  Currency with the public

(B)  Demand deposits with the banking system

(C)  Short-term time deposits of residents

(D)  ‘Other’ deposits with the RBI

30. Stagflation is a situation when

(A)  both unemployment and inflation are low

(B)  both unemployment and inflation are high

(C)  unemployment is high but inflation is low

(D)  unemployment is low but inflation is high

31. Consider the Keynesian consumption function C = α + βY, where C is the aggregate consumption, Y is the aggregate income, α is a constant (α > 0), and β is the marginal propensity to consume (0 < β < 1). Then, the average propensity to consume is

(A)  α

(B)

(C)  αY + βY2

(D)

32. An analyst regressed Y on X1 and X2. If she later noticed that X1 = 5X2, then which of the following assumptions of the classical linear regression model was violated?

(A)  Homoscedasticity

(B)  No Perfect Multicollinearity

(C)  No Autocorrelation

(D)  Linearity in parameters

33. Which of the following is NOT an example of non-tariff barriers?

(A)  Voluntary export restraint

(B)  A procurement law directing a government to buy domestically made products unless comparable foreign made products are substantially cheaper.

(C)  Imposition of sanitary and phytosanitary measures on agricultural produce.

(D)  An antidumping law

34. Among the following, who first proposed that internal government debt does not create a burden for the future generation?

(A)  N. Gregory Mankiw

(B)  Martin Feldstein

(C)  Harvey S. Rosen

(D)  A. P. Lerner

35. Which of the following is an example of direct tax?

(A)  Sales tax

(B)  Customs duty

(C)  Individual income tax

(D)  Excise tax

36. In the context of endogenous growth theory, the Nobel laureate Paul Romer emphasized that “ideas” are

(A)  non-rival

(B)  rival with medium degree of excludability

(C)  rival with high degree of excludability

(D)  rival with low degree of excludability

37. In the Human Development Index (HDI), the longevity is measured by

(A)  child survival rate

(B)  healthy life expectancy

(D)  life expectancy at birth

38. Which of the following statements is correct about the Fourteenth Finance Commission?

(A)  The Commission was chaired by Dr. C. Rangarajan.

(B)  The Commission recommended achieving 90 percent metering of electricity by the end of the year 2012.

(C)  The Commission recommended an increase in the share of tax devolution to states to 42 percent of the divisible pool.

(D)  The Commission was mandated to make recommendations for the period 2010-2015.

39. Many scholars consider the study conducted by Dandekar and Rath in the 1960s as the first systematic assessment of poverty in independent India. Which option from the following is NOT correct about the study?

(A)  The study used the data on monthly per capita consumption expenditure (MPCE) from the 1960-61 round of the National Sample Surveys.

(B)  The study used the identical calorie norm for rural and urban areas.

(C)  The poverty head count ratio estimated by the study was higher for rural areas than that for urban areas.

(D)  The study used the same poverty line for all states.

40. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)?

(A)  It has been a flagship scheme of the Ministry of Education.

(B)  It was launched in the year 2010.

(C)  The National Skill Development Corporation has been responsible for its implementation.

(D)  One of the objectives of PMKVY has been to enable a large number of Indian youth to take up industry-relevant skill training.

41. Which of the following is/are used for testing the assumption of normality?

(A)  Shapiro-Wilk test

(B)  Breusch-Godfrey test

(C)  Jarque-Bera test

(D)  Park test

42. Suppose Amar borrows Rs. 1000 from Ujala. After one year, Ujala wants Rs. 1100 back from Amar. The yield to maturity in percent (%) on this borrowing is _______ (round off to one decimal place).

43. A 250 ml bottle of mango juice costs USD 4 in the United States. If the exchange rate is 0.02 USD per Rupee, then the cost of the same bottle of mango juice in Rupees would be _______ (in integer).

44. The following table provides population information for different age groups in 2010 and 2017.

The percentage change in old-age dependency ratio from 2010 to 2017 is _______ (round off to two decimal places).

XH-C1: Q.45– Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

45. A firm in a market with perfect competition has the following total cost (TC) function: TC(Q) = a + b(Q)

where Q is the quantity produced by the firm, 𝑎 is the fixed cost and b(Q) is the variable cost. What will happen if the fixed cost increases?

(A)  In the short-run, the firm’s Average Variable Cost (AVC) curve will shift upwards.

(B)  In the short-run, the firm’s Average Total Cost (ATC) curve will shift upwards.

(C)  The firm will earn higher profits.

(D)  In the short-run, the firm’s Marginal Cost (MC) curve will shift upwards.

46. The emission of greenhouse gases is an example of “bads” that are

(A)  rival and excludable

(B)  non-rival and excludable

(C)  rival and non-excludable

(D)  non-rival and non-excludable

47. Consider a closed-economy IS-LM model. The IS and LM equations are

where Y is the output, C is the consumption (C′ > 0), I is the investment (I′ < 0), z ≡ i – πe, i is the nominal interest rate, πe is the expected inflation,  is the government purchases,  is the fixed real money balances, and k and l are positive constants.

Suppose everyone in the economy suddenly expects the inflation to rise in the future. Assuming that the LM curve remains unchanged, what will happen in the short-run?

(A)  Equilibrium Y increases.

(B)  Aggregate demand remains unchanged.

(C)  Equilibrium Y remains unchanged.

(D)  Aggregate demand shifts down.

48. Consider the following simultaneous equations model:

Yt = β1 + β2Xt + β3Xt – 1 + β4Zt + μ1t        (1)

Zt = δ1 + δ2Yt + δ3Wt + μ2t                       (2)

Before estimating the above model, a researcher performed the test of identification using order and rank conditions, and found that equation (2) is over identified. Then, which of the following methods is appropriate to estimate equation (2) ?

(A)  Two-Stage Least Squares

(B)  Indirect Least Squares

(C)  Weighted Least Squares

(D)  Ordinary Least Squares

49. An income tax system is considered as progressive if the average tax rate rises with income. Consider an income tax schedule: T = p + t Y, where T denotes the tax liability, p is a constant, 𝑡 is the constant marginal tax rate, and Y is the income. For this tax schedule to be progressive, the value of p

(A)  must be positive

(B)  must be negative

(C)  must be zero

(D)  can be any value except zero

50. Match the following:

(A)  I → P ; II → Q ; III → R ; IV → S

(B)  I → P ; II → S ; III → Q ; IV → R

(C)  I → R ; II → S ; III → Q ; IV → P

(D)  I → S ; II → P ; III → R ; IV → Q

51. Consider two countries, India and Bangladesh, and two goods, Glass Bottle and Ceramic Plate, with labour requirements of production for a unit of each good given below:

Which of the following options is/are correct?

(A)  India has an absolute advantage in Glass Bottle production and a comparative disadvantage in Glass Bottle production.

(B)  India has an absolute advantage in Ceramic Plate production and a comparative disadvantage in Ceramic Plate production.

(C)  India has an absolute advantage in Ceramic Plate production and a comparative disadvantage in Glass Bottle production.

(D)  India has an absolute advantage in Glass Bottle production and a comparative disadvantage in Ceramic Plate production.

52. Suppose the own price elasticity of demand and income elasticity of demand are given by ep and eI, respectively. The subscript p represents own price of a good and the subscript I represents the income of the consumer. Identify the correct statement(s) from the following.

(A)  If 1 < ep < ∞, the demand is price inelastic.

(B)  Luxury goods are more price inelastic and the necessities are price elastic.

(C)  Luxury goods have eI > 1.

(D)  If 0 < ep < 1, the demand is price elastic.

53. Let πe be the expected inflation rate, 𝑖 be the nominal interest rate and r be the real interest rate. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(A)  For small values of r and πe, r ≈ i – πe

(B)  When real interest rate is low, there are greater incentives to borrow and fewer incentives to lend.

(C)  Real interest rate reflects the real cost of borrowing.

(D)  If i = 8% and πe = 10%, then r is approximately (+) 2%.

54. Which of the following models explain(s) the upward-sloping aggregate supply curve in the short-run?

(A)  Sticky-wage model

(B)  Worker-misperception model

(C)  Imperfect-information model

(D)  Solow model

55. Consider a Mundell-Fleming model for a small open economy with perfect capital mobility. The goods market equation is

Y = C(Y) +  I(r*) + G + NX(e)

where 𝑌 is the output, 𝐶 is the consumption (C′ > 0), I is the investment (I′ < 0), G is the government purchases, and NX is the net exports (NX′ < 0), r∗ is the fixed world interest rate, and e is the exchange rate.

The money market equation is

where M is the money supply, is the fixed price level, and k and l are positive constants.

Which of the following policies is/are ineffective (i.e., have no impact on income) in the short-run?

(A)  Expansionary fiscal policy under floating exchange rate

(B)  Expansionary monetary policy under floating exchange rate

(C)  Expansionary fiscal policy under fixed exchange rate

(D)  Expansionary monetary policy under fixed exchange rate

56. In the context of Balance of Payments accounting, which of the following transactions is/are NOT recorded under the Current Account?

(B)  Unilateral transfer payments

(C)  Purchase of international financial assets

(D)  Purchase of foreign currency by the central bank

57. The demand and supply functions for a commodity are given by:

D(p) = 10 – 2p and S(p) = −2 + p

where D(p) and S(p) are the quantity demanded and supplied, respectively, and p (in USD) is the unit price of the good.

If the government sets a price ceiling of USD 3 per unit, then the increase in consumer surplus (in USD) is _______ (round off to two decimal places).

58. A duopoly faces the inverse market demand function p = 120 − Q, where p is the unit price (in Rs.) of the good being sold by firms A and B, and Q is the total output. Firm A has a constant marginal cost of Rs. 20, which is exactly half of firm B’s constant marginal cost. There is no fixed cost for both the firms. If there exists a Cournot-Nash equilibrium, Q is _______ (in integer).

59. Consider the following short-run cost function:

C(q) = 10q3 – 80q2 + 300q + 50

At the minimum average variable cost (AVC), the value of marginal cost (MC) is ______ (in integer).

60. Consider the Keynesian Cross Model with a linear consumption function and a zero tax, where the government purchase is Rs. 100 and the equilibrium income is Rs. 1300. If the government purchase is increased to Rs. 125, the equilibrium income increases to Rs. 1400. Using the given information, the marginal propensity to consume is _______ (round off to two decimal places).

61. Using the Ordinary Least Squares (OLS) method, a researcher estimated the relationship between initial salary (S) of MBA graduates and their cumulative grade point average (CGPA) as

where  The standard errors of  are 921.79 and 70.01, respectively.

The t-statistic for testing the null hypothesis β1 = 0 is ______ (round off to two decimal places).

62. Let X be a random variable with the probability density function f(x) such that

Then, the variance of X is _______ (in integer).

63. Suppose from the estimation of a linear regression model

Yi = β0 + β1Xi + ei

the residual sum of squares and the total sum of squares are obtained as 44 and 80, respectively. The value of coefficient of determination is _______ (round off to two decimal places).

64. A labour-augmenting production function is

Y = K0.33(AL)0.67

where Y = output, K = capital, L = labour, and A = technology.

Assume that the growth rate of L is 1.2 percent per annum, the growth rate of K is 3 percent per annum, and the growth rate of A is 1.5 percent per annum. Using the growth-accounting approach, the growth rate of Y in percent per annum is _______ (round off to two decimal places).

65. A monopolist is facing the demand function  where Q is the quantity demanded and P is the price per unit of the good (P > 1). The average variable cost for the monopolist is 4/√Q and the fixed cost is 10. The profit maximizing price is _______ (in integer).

XH : Humanities & Social Sciences

General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. Rafi told Mary, “I am thinking of watching a film this weekend.”

The following reports the above statement in indirect speech:

Rafi told Mary that he _______ of watching a film that weekend.

(A)  thought

(B)  is thinking

(C)  am thinking

(D)  was thinking

2. Permit : _______ : : Enforce : Relax

(By word meaning)

(A)  Allow

(B)  Forbid

(D)  Reinforce

3. Given a fair six-faced dice where the faces are labelled ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’, ‘4’, ‘5’, and ‘6’, what is the probability of getting a ‘1’ on the first roll of the dice and a ‘4’ on the second roll?

(A)  1/36

(B)  1/6

(C)  5/6

(D)  1/3

4. A recent survey shows that 65% of tobacco users were advised to stop consuming tobacco. The survey also shows that 3 out of 10 tobacco users attempted to stop using tobacco.

Based only on the information in the above passage, which one of the following options can be logically inferred with certainty?

(A)  A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco made an attempt to do so.

(B)  A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco did not attempt to do so.

(C)  Approximately 30% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.

(D)  Approximately 65% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.

5. How many triangles are present in the given figure?

(A)  12

(B)  16

(C)  20

(D)  24

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

6. Students of all the departments of a college who have successfully completed the registration process are eligible to vote in the upcoming college elections. However, by the time the due date for registration was over, it was found that suprisingly none of the students from the Department of Human Sciences had completed the registration process.

Based only on the information provided above, which one of the following sets of statement(s) can be logically inferred with certainty?

(i) All those students who would not be eligible to vote in the college elections would certainly belong to the Department of Human Sciences.

(ii) None of the students from departments other than Human Sciences failed to complete the registration process within the due time.

(iii) All the eligible voters would certainly be students who are not from the Department of Human Sciences.

(A)  (i) and (ii)

(B)  (i) and (iii)

(C)  only (i)

(D)  only (iii)

7. Which one of the following options represents the given graph?

(A)  f(x) = x22|x|

(B)  f(x) = x 2|x|

(C)  f(x) = |x|2x

(D)  f(x) = x2x

8. Which one of the options does NOT describe the passage below or follow from it?

We tend to think of cancer as a ‘modern’ illness because its metaphors are so modern. It is a disease of overproduction, of sudden growth, a growth that is unstoppable, tipped into the abyss of no control. Modern cell biology encourages us to imagine the cell as a molecular machine. Cancer is that machine unable to quench its intial command (to grow) and thus transform into an indestructible, self-propelled automaton.

(A)  It is a reflection of why cancer seems so modern to most of us.

(B)  It tells us that modern cell biology uses and promotes metaphors of machinery.

(C)  Modern cell biology encourages metaphors of machinery, and cancer is often imagined as a machine.

(D)  Modern cell biology never uses figurative language, such as metaphors, to describe or explain anything.

9. The digit in the unit’s place of the product 3999 × 71000 is ________.

(A)  7

(B)  1

(C)  3

(D)  9

10. A square with sides of length 6 cm is given. The boundary of the shaded region is defined by two semi-circles whose diameters are the sides of the square, as shown.

The area of the shaded region is _______ cm2.

(A)  6π

(B)  18

(C)  20

(D)  9π

Reasoning and Comprehension (XH-B1)

XH-B1: Q.11 – Q.17 Carry ONE mark Each

11. Which word below best describes the idea of being both Spineless and Cowardly?

(A)  Pusillanimous

(B)  Unctuous

(C)  Obsequious

(D)  Reticent

12. Choose the right preposition to fill up the blank:

The whole family got together ___ Diwali

(A)  of

(B)  at

(C)  in

(D)  till

13. Select the correct option to fill in all the blanks to complete the passage:

The (i) _______ factor amid this turbulence has been the (ii) ________ of high-octane, action-oriented films such as RRR, K.G.F: Chapter 2 and Pushpa from film industries in the south of the country. Traditionally, films made in the south have done well in their own (iii) _________. But increasingly, their dubbed versions have performed well in the Hindi heartland, with collections (iv) ________ those of their Bollywood counterparts.

(A)  (i) disheartening (ii) failure (iii) channels (iv) matching

(B)  (i) redeeming (ii) outperformance (iii) geographies (iv) eclipsing

(C)  (i) shocking (ii) underperformance (iii) cinemas (iv) below

(D)  (i) humbling (ii) bombing (iii) theatres (iv) falling behind

14. The following passage consists of 6 sentences. The first and sixth sentences of the passage are at their correct positions, while the middle four sentences (represented by 2, 3, 4, and 5) are jumbled up.

Choose the correct sequence of the sentences so that they form a coherent paragraph:

(1) Most obviously, mobility is taken to be a geographical as well as a social phenomenon.

(2) Much of the social mobility literature regarded society as a uniform surface and failed to register the geographical intersections of region, city and place, with the social categories of class, gender and ethnicity.

(3) The existing sociology of migration is incidentally far too limited in its concerns to be very useful here.

(4) Further, I am concerned with the flows of people within, but especially beyond, the territory of each society, and how these flows may relate to many different desires, for work, housing, leisure, religion, family relationships, criminal gain, asylum seeking and so on.

(5) Moreover, not only people are mobile but so too are many ‘objects’.

(6) I show that sociology’s recent development of a ‘sociology of objects’ needs to be taken further and that the diverse flows of objects across societal borders and their intersections with the multiple flows of people are hugely significant.

(A)  3, 2, 5, 4

(B)  2, 3, 4, 5

(C)  5, 4, 3, 2

(D)  4, 2, 5, 3

15. The population of a country increased by 5% from 2020 to 2021. Then, the population decreased by 5% from 2021 to 2022. By what percentage did the population change from 2020 to 2022?

(A)  -0.25%

(B)  0%

(C)  2.5%

(D)  10.25%

16. The words Thin: Slim: Slender are related in some way. Identify the correct option(s) that reflect(s) the same relationship:

(A)  Fat: Plump: Voluptuous

(B)  Short: Small: Petite

(C)  Tall: Taller: Tallest

(D)  Fair: Dark: Wheatish

17. A pandemic like situation hit the country last year, resulting in loss of human life and economic depression. To improve the condition of its citizens, the government made a series of emergency medical interventions and increased spending to revive the economy. In both these efforts, district administration authorities were actively involved.

Which of the following action(s) are plausible?

(A)  In future, the government can make district administration authorities responsible for protecting health of citizens and reviving the economy.

(B)  The government may set up a task force to review the post pandemic situation and ascertain the effectiveness of the measures taken.

(C)  The government may set up a committee to formulate a pandemic management program to minimize losses to life and economy in future.

(D)  The government may take population control measures to minimize pandemic related losses in future.

XH-B1: Q.18 – Q.26 Carry TWO marks Each

18. Six students, Arif, Balwinder, Chintu, David, Emon and Fulmoni appeared in the GATE-XH exam in 2022. Balwinder scores less than Chintu in XH-B1, but more than Arif in XH-C1. David scores more than Balwinder in XH-C1, and more than Chintu in XH-B1. Emon scores less than David, but more than Fulmoni in XH-B1. Fulmoni scores more than David in XH-C1. Arif scores less than Emon, but more than Fulmoni in XH-B1. Who scores highest in XH-B1?

(A)  Fulmoni

(B)  Emon

(C)  David

(D)  Chintu

19. Select the correct relation between E and F.

(A)  E > F

(B)  E < F

(C)  E = F

(D)  E < -F

20. A code language is formulated thus:

Vowels in the original word are replaced by the next vowel from the list of vowels, A-E-I-O-U (For example, E is replaced by I and U is replaced by A). Consonants in the original word are replaced by previous consonant (For example, T is replaced by S and V is replaced by T).

Then how does the word, GOODMORNING appear in the coded language?

(A)  HUUFNUSPOPH

(B)  FIICLIQMEMF

(C)  FUUCLUQMOMF

(D)  HEEDATTACRH

21. The stranger is by nature no “owner of soil” — soil not only in the physical, but also in the figurative sense of a life-substance, which is fixed, if not in a point in space, at least in an ideal point of the social environment. Although in more intimate relations, he may develop all kinds of charm and significance, as long as he is considered a stranger in the eyes of the other, he is not an “owner of soil.” Restriction to intermediary trade, and often (as though sublimated from it) to pure finance, gives him the specific character of mobility. If mobility takes place within a closed group, it embodies that synthesis of nearness and distance which constitutes the formal position of the stranger. For, the fundamentally mobile person comes in contact, at one time or another, with every individual, but is not organically connected, through established ties of kinship, locality, and occupation, with any single one.

What assumptions can be made about the stranger from the passage above?

(A)  The stranger can become an owner of soil through developing all kinds of charm in more intimate relations.

(B)  The stranger cannot become an owner of soil either in the physical or psychological sense.

(C)  The stranger can become an owner of soil through establishing ties of kinship and so on.

(D)  The stranger might become an owner of soil in the physical sense but not in the psychological

22. L is the only son of A and S. S has one sibling, B, who is married to L’s aunt, K. B is the only son of D. How are L and D related?

Select the possible option(s):

(A)  Grandchild and Paternal Grandfather

(B)  Grandchild and Maternal Grandfather

(C)  Grandchild and Paternal Grandmother

(D)  Grandchild and Maternal Grandmother

23. Five segments of a sentence are given below. The first and fifth segments are at their correct positions, while the middle three segments (represented by 2, 3, and 4) are jumbled up. Choose the correct order of the segments so that they form a coherent sentence:

(1) Consumed multitudes are jostling and shoving inside me

(2) and guided only by the memory of a large white bedsheet with a roughly circular hole some seven inches in diameter cut into the center,

(3) clutching at the dream of that holey, mutilated square of linen, which is my talisman, my open-sesame,

(4) I must commence the business of remaking my life from the point at which it really began,

(5) some thirty-two years before anything as obvious, as present, as my clock-ridden, crime-stained birth.

(A)  2 – 3 – 4

(B)  3 – 2– 4

(C)  4 – 2– 3

(D)  4 – 3 – 2

24. “I told you the truth,” I say yet again, “Memory’s truth, because memory has its own special kind. It selects, eliminates, alters, exaggerates, minimizes, glorifies, and vilifies also; but in the end it creates its own reality, its heterogeneous but usually coherent versions of events; and no sane human being ever trusts someone else’s version more than his own.”

What are the different ways in which ‘truth’ can be understood from the passage?

(A)  Truth is what can be verified by hard empirical evidence.

(B)  Truth is based on what can be perceived by the senses.

(C)  Truth is the product of memory that is fallible, selective and slanted.

(D)  Truth is contingent on the observer and can only be partial.

25. A firm needs both skilled labour and unskilled labour for the production of cloth. The wage of skilled labour is Rs. 40,000 per month, and that of unskilled labour is Rs. 15,000 per month. The total wage bill of the firm for the production of cloth is Rs. 23,75,000 in a month for 100 labour. How many skilled labour are employed by the firm (in Integer)?

26. Select the odd word and write the option number as answer:

(1) Lek (2) Zloty (3) Diner (4) Drachma (5) Real

English – C2

XH-C2: Q.27 – Q.44 Carry ONE mark Each

27. Who published the novel The Bell Jar under the pseudonym Victoria Lucas?

(A)  Dorothy Richardson

(B)  Virginia Woolf

(C)  Sylvia Plath

(D)  Alice Walker

28. In which collection did Walt Whitman’s poem “Song of Myself” first appear?

(A)  Two Rivulets

(B)  November Boughs

(C)  The Golden Bough

(D)  Leaves of Grass

29. Who wrote the introduction to Rabindranath Tagore’s Gitanjali?

(A)  T. S. Eliot

(B)  Ezra Pound

(C)  W. H. Auden

(D)  W. B. Yeats

30. Identify the title of the poem in which the following lines appear:

“He was found by the Bureau of Statistics to be

One against whom there was no official complaint,

And all the reports on his conduct agree

That, in the modern sense of an old-fashioned word, he was a saint

For in everything he did he served the greater community.”

(A)  “In Memory of W. B. Yeats”

(B)  “The Unknown Citizen”

(C)  “In Praise of Limestone”

(D)  “On this Island”

31. Identify the point of view used in the following passage:

“You are not the kind of guy who would be at a place like this at this time of the morning. But here you are, and you cannot say that the terrain is entirely unfamiliar, though the details are fuzzy.”

(A)  Third-person point of view

(B)  The limited point of view

(C)  Second-person point of view

(D)  First-person point of view

32. Which of the following is a novel by Charles Dickens?

(A)  The Old Curiosity Shop

(B)  The Old Wives’ Tale

(C)  The Old Bachelor

(D)  One Hundred Years of Solitude

33. Which linguistic process can be seen in the formation of the following words?

(i) smog, (ii) brunch, (iii) motel (iv) telecast

(A)  Borrowing

(B)  Compounding

(C)  Blending

(D)  Backformation

34. Which writer is credited with the ‘chutneyfication’ of Indian English?

(A)  Raja Rao

(B)  Salman Rushdie

(C)  Amitav Ghosh

(D)  Arundhati Roy

35. Whom would you associate the term ‘simulacra’ with?

(A)  Noam Chomsky

(B)  Jean Baudrillard

(C)  Felix Guattari

(D)  Michel Foucault

36. In Plato’s idea of the Republic there is no place for the ___________.

(A)  Lawyer

(B)  Magistrate

(C)  Politician

(D)  Poet

37. What was Aristotle’s definition of hubris?

(A)  Tragic flaw in a character

(B)  A false sense of pride which eventually causes the character’s downfall

(C)  An ability to imagine the future

(D)  A humble, ascetic quality

38. Stephen Dedalus is a recurring character in the works of _________.

(A)  James Joyce

(B)  H. G. Wells

(C)  P. G. Wodehouse

(D)  D. H. Lawrence

39. Which of the following novels opens with the sentence, “It is a truth universally acknowledged that a single man in possession of a good fortune must be in want of a wife.”?

(A)  Sense and Sensibility

(B)  Pride and Prejudice

(C)  Mansfield Park

(D)  Emma

40. Which of the following novels by Chinua Achebe derives its title from W. B. Yeats’s poem “The Second Coming”?

(A)  Arrow of God

(B)  No Longer at Ease

(C)  A Man of the People

(D)  Things Fall Apart

41. Identify the novels that deal with the trauma of Partition:

(A)  Shauna Singh Baldwin’s What the Body Remembers

(B)  Amitav Ghosh’s The Shadow Lines

(C)  Anita Desai’s Cry, the Peacock

(D)  Kamala Markandaya’s Nectar in a Sieve

42. Which of the following writers are associated with the Theatre of the Absurd?

(A)  Harold Pinter

(B)  Edward Albee

(C)  John Osborne

(D)  Eugene O’Neill

43. Identify the writers who are referred to as ‘metaphysical poets’:

(A)  John Donne

(B)  Andrew Marvell

(C)  Philip Larkin

(D)  T. S. Eliot

(A)  Thomas Mann’s The Transported Heads

(B)  Valmiki’s Ramayana

(D)  Franz Kafka’s The Metamorphosis

XH-C2: Q.45– Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

45. Which of the following terms are used by Samuel Taylor Coleridge in his theory of imagination?

(A)  Primary imagination, secondary imagination, and fancy

(B)  Negative capability, Hellenism, and impersonality

(C)  Egotistical sublime, oversoul, and pantheism

(D)  Unacknowledged legislation, atheism, and anarchy

46. Which of the following is the forerunner of the autobiography?

(A)  St. Augustine’s Confessions

(B)  James Joyce’s Portrait of the Artist as a Young Man

(C)  William Wordsworth’s The Prelude

(D)  Izaak Walton’s Lives

47. Which of the following poems did Robert Browning intend to write as a play?

(A)  “Men and Women”

(B)  “Dramatis Personae”

(C)  “The Inn Album”

(D)  “The Ring and the Book”

48. The ‘Age of Reason’ in English literary history is popularly known as:

(A)  The Medieval Period

(B)  The Neo-classical Age

(C)  The Romantic Age

(D)  The Victorian Age

49. Who first translated Jacques Derrida’s work into English?

(A)  Gayatri C. Spivak

(B)  Edward Said

(C)  Harold Bloom

(D)  Paul de Man

50. Identify the ‘Lake Poets’:

(A)  Byron, Shelley, Keats

(B)  Wordsworth, Coleridge, Byron

(C)  Byron, Southey, Wordsworth

(D)  Wordsworth, Coleridge, Southey

51. Choose from the following options the type of drama that is intended by the author to be read rather than to be performed:

(A)  Kitchen Sink Drama

(B)  Closet Drama

(C)  Poetic Drama

(D)  Folk Drama

52. Identify the commonality shared by the authors of Mansfield Park and Middle March:

(A)  Both the novels were authored by men who were sent on exile.

(B)  Both the novels were authored by political prisoners.

(C)  Both the novels were written by children who were not allowed to publish their works.

(D)  Both the novels were written by women who wrote under pseudonyms.

53. Who said, “Poetry makes nothing happen”?

(A)  Marianne Moore

(B)  Ezra Pound

(C)  Wallace Stevens

(D)  W. H. Auden

54. Which literary device does the following line employ?

“A timorous foe, and a suspicious friend.”

(A)  Antithesis

(B)  Antistrophe

(C)  Oxymoron

(D)  Apostrophe

55. Match the following excerpts with their authors:

(A)  (P)-(iii), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(i), (S)-(ii)

(B)  (P)-(iv), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(ii), (S)-(i)

(C)  (P)-(iii), (Q)-(ii), (R)-(i), (S)-(iv)

(D)  (P)-(i), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(ii), (S)-(iii)

56. The 1667 edition of Paradise Lost had 10 books. How many more were added to the 1674 edition?

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  6

(D)  12

57. Read the following poem and identify the appropriate options:

And search

for certain thin –

stemmed, bubble-eyed water bugs.

See them perch

on dry capillary legs

weightless

on the ripple skin

of a stream.

No, not only prophets

walk on water. This bug sits

on a landslide of lights

and drowns eye –

deep

into its tiny strip

of sky.

(A)  It uses free verse form.

(B)  It employs imagery.

(C)  It uses the iambic pentameter.

(D)  It juxtaposes the non-human with the human.

58. Which of the following employ ‘Interior Monologue’?

(A)  Alfred Lord Tennyson’s “In Memoriam”

(B)  The final chapter of James Joyce’s Ulysses

(C)  T. S. Eliot’s “The Love Song of J. Alfred Prufrock”

(D)  Robert Browning’s “My Last Duchess”

59. Which of the following works may be described as novels in verse?

(A)  Aurora Leigh by Elizabeth Barrett Browning

(B)  The Golden Gate by Vikram Seth

(C)  Pamela by Samuel Richardson

(D)  Old Possum’s Book of Practical Cats by T. S. Eliot

60. Which of the following critics belong to the deconstructionist school?

(A)  Jacques Derrida

(B)  Paul de Man

(C)  J. Hillis Miller

(D)  Kate Soper

61. Cleanth Brooks’s definition of ‘paradox’ in poetry foregrounds the following qualities:

(A)  Wonder and irony

(C)  Piety and plurality

(D)  Omniscience and death of the author

62. Two examples of magic realist fiction include:

(A)  Midnight’s Children

(B)  The Tin Drum

(C)  The English Teacher

(D)  Tom Jones

63. Ferdinand de Saussure differentiates language in terms of:

(A)  langue

(B)  metaphor

(C)  metonymy

(D)  parole

64. Which of the following are considered to be typical postmodern narratives?

(A)  Italo Calvino’s If on a Winter’s Night a Traveller

(B)  John Barth’s Lost in the Funhouse

(C)  Thomas Pynchon’s V.

(D)  Iris Murdoch’s The Bell

65. What does a green reading of a text aim at?

(A)  Analyzing the implications of a text for environmental concerns

(B)  Deconstructing human exceptionalism

(C)  Studying connections between humans, society and the non-human world

(D)  Marginalizing differently abled people

XH : Humanities & Social Sciences

General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. Rafi told Mary, “I am thinking of watching a film this weekend.”

The following reports the above statement in indirect speech:

Rafi told Mary that he _______ of watching a film that weekend.

(A)  thought

(B)  is thinking

(C)  am thinking

(D)  was thinking

2. Permit : _______ : : Enforce : Relax

(By word meaning)

(A)  Allow

(B)  Forbid

(D)  Reinforce

3. Given a fair six-faced dice where the faces are labelled ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’, ‘4’, ‘5’, and ‘6’, what is the probability of getting a ‘1’ on the first roll of the dice and a ‘4’ on the second roll?

(A)  1/36

(B)  1/6

(C)  5/6

(D)  1/3

4. A recent survey shows that 65% of tobacco users were advised to stop consuming tobacco. The survey also shows that 3 out of 10 tobacco users attempted to stop using tobacco.

Based only on the information in the above passage, which one of the following options can be logically inferred with certainty?

(A)  A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco made an attempt to do so.

(B)  A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco did not attempt to do so.

(C)  Approximately 30% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.

(D)  Approximately 65% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.

5. How many triangles are present in the given figure?

(A)  12

(B)  16

(C)  20

(D)  24

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

6. Students of all the departments of a college who have successfully completed the registration process are eligible to vote in the upcoming college elections. However, by the time the due date for registration was over, it was found that suprisingly none of the students from the Department of Human Sciences had completed the registration process.

Based only on the information provided above, which one of the following sets of statement(s) can be logically inferred with certainty?

(i) All those students who would not be eligible to vote in the college elections would certainly belong to the Department of Human Sciences.

(ii) None of the students from departments other than Human Sciences failed to complete the registration process within the due time.

(iii) All the eligible voters would certainly be students who are not from the Department of Human Sciences.

(A)  (i) and (ii)

(B)  (i) and (iii)

(C)  only (i)

(D)  only (iii)

7. Which one of the following options represents the given graph?

(A)  f(x) = x22|x|

(B)  f(x) = x 2|x|

(C)  f(x) = |x|2x

(D)  f(x) = x2x

8. Which one of the options does NOT describe the passage below or follow from it?

We tend to think of cancer as a ‘modern’ illness because its metaphors are so modern. It is a disease of overproduction, of sudden growth, a growth that is unstoppable, tipped into the abyss of no control. Modern cell biology encourages us to imagine the cell as a molecular machine. Cancer is that machine unable to quench its intial command (to grow) and thus transform into an indestructible, self-propelled automaton.

(A)  It is a reflection of why cancer seems so modern to most of us.

(B)  It tells us that modern cell biology uses and promotes metaphors of machinery.

(C)  Modern cell biology encourages metaphors of machinery, and cancer is often imagined as a machine.

(D)  Modern cell biology never uses figurative language, such as metaphors, to describe or explain anything.

9. The digit in the unit’s place of the product 3999 × 71000 is ________.

(A)  7

(B)  1

(C)  3

(D)  9

10. A square with sides of length 6 cm is given. The boundary of the shaded region is defined by two semi-circles whose diameters are the sides of the square, as shown.

The area of the shaded region is _______ cm2.

(A)  6π

(B)  18

(C)  20

(D)  9π

Reasoning and Comprehension (XH-B1)

XH-B1: Q.11 – Q.17 Carry ONE mark Each

11. Which word below best describes the idea of being both Spineless and Cowardly?

(A)  Pusillanimous

(B)  Unctuous

(C)  Obsequious

(D)  Reticent

12. Choose the right preposition to fill up the blank:

The whole family got together ___ Diwali

(A)  of

(B)  at

(C)  in

(D)  till

13. Select the correct option to fill in all the blanks to complete the passage:

The (i) _______ factor amid this turbulence has been the (ii) ________ of high-octane, action-oriented films such as RRR, K.G.F: Chapter 2 and Pushpa from film industries in the south of the country. Traditionally, films made in the south have done well in their own (iii) _________. But increasingly, their dubbed versions have performed well in the Hindi heartland, with collections (iv) ________ those of their Bollywood counterparts.

(A)  (i) disheartening (ii) failure (iii) channels (iv) matching

(B)  (i) redeeming (ii) outperformance (iii) geographies (iv) eclipsing

(C)  (i) shocking (ii) underperformance (iii) cinemas (iv) below

(D)  (i) humbling (ii) bombing (iii) theatres (iv) falling behind

14. The following passage consists of 6 sentences. The first and sixth sentences of the passage are at their correct positions, while the middle four sentences (represented by 2, 3, 4, and 5) are jumbled up.

Choose the correct sequence of the sentences so that they form a coherent paragraph:

(1) Most obviously, mobility is taken to be a geographical as well as a social phenomenon.

(2) Much of the social mobility literature regarded society as a uniform surface and failed to register the geographical intersections of region, city and place, with the social categories of class, gender and ethnicity.

(3) The existing sociology of migration is incidentally far too limited in its concerns to be very useful here.

(4) Further, I am concerned with the flows of people within, but especially beyond, the territory of each society, and how these flows may relate to many different desires, for work, housing, leisure, religion, family relationships, criminal gain, asylum seeking and so on.

(5) Moreover, not only people are mobile but so too are many ‘objects’.

(6) I show that sociology’s recent development of a ‘sociology of objects’ needs to be taken further and that the diverse flows of objects across societal borders and their intersections with the multiple flows of people are hugely significant.

(A)  3, 2, 5, 4

(B)  2, 3, 4, 5

(C)  5, 4, 3, 2

(D)  4, 2, 5, 3

15. The population of a country increased by 5% from 2020 to 2021. Then, the population decreased by 5% from 2021 to 2022. By what percentage did the population change from 2020 to 2022?

(A)  -0.25%

(B)  0%

(C)  2.5%

(D)  10.25%

16. The words Thin: Slim: Slender are related in some way. Identify the correct option(s) that reflect(s) the same relationship:

(A)  Fat: Plump: Voluptuous

(B)  Short: Small: Petite

(C)  Tall: Taller: Tallest

(D)  Fair: Dark: Wheatish

17. A pandemic like situation hit the country last year, resulting in loss of human life and economic depression. To improve the condition of its citizens, the government made a series of emergency medical interventions and increased spending to revive the economy. In both these efforts, district administration authorities were actively involved.

Which of the following action(s) are plausible?

(A)  In future, the government can make district administration authorities responsible for protecting health of citizens and reviving the economy.

(B)  The government may set up a task force to review the post pandemic situation and ascertain the effectiveness of the measures taken.

(C)  The government may set up a committee to formulate a pandemic management program to minimize losses to life and economy in future.

(D)  The government may take population control measures to minimize pandemic related losses in future.

XH-B1: Q.18 – Q.26 Carry TWO marks Each

18. Six students, Arif, Balwinder, Chintu, David, Emon and Fulmoni appeared in the GATE-XH exam in 2022. Balwinder scores less than Chintu in XH-B1, but more than Arif in XH-C1. David scores more than Balwinder in XH-C1, and more than Chintu in XH-B1. Emon scores less than David, but more than Fulmoni in XH-B1. Fulmoni scores more than David in XH-C1. Arif scores less than Emon, but more than Fulmoni in XH-B1. Who scores highest in XH-B1?

(A)  Fulmoni

(B)  Emon

(C)  David

(D)  Chintu

19. Select the correct relation between E and F.

(A)  E > F

(B)  E < F

(C)  E = F

(D)  E < -F

20. A code language is formulated thus:

Vowels in the original word are replaced by the next vowel from the list of vowels, A-E-I-O-U (For example, E is replaced by I and U is replaced by A). Consonants in the original word are replaced by previous consonant (For example, T is replaced by S and V is replaced by T).

Then how does the word, GOODMORNING appear in the coded language?

(A)  HUUFNUSPOPH

(B)  FIICLIQMEMF

(C)  FUUCLUQMOMF

(D)  HEEDATTACRH

21. The stranger is by nature no “owner of soil” — soil not only in the physical, but also in the figurative sense of a life-substance, which is fixed, if not in a point in space, at least in an ideal point of the social environment. Although in more intimate relations, he may develop all kinds of charm and significance, as long as he is considered a stranger in the eyes of the other, he is not an “owner of soil.” Restriction to intermediary trade, and often (as though sublimated from it) to pure finance, gives him the specific character of mobility. If mobility takes place within a closed group, it embodies that synthesis of nearness and distance which constitutes the formal position of the stranger. For, the fundamentally mobile person comes in contact, at one time or another, with every individual, but is not organically connected, through established ties of kinship, locality, and occupation, with any single one.

What assumptions can be made about the stranger from the passage above?

(A)  The stranger can become an owner of soil through developing all kinds of charm in more intimate relations.

(B)  The stranger cannot become an owner of soil either in the physical or psychological sense.

(C)  The stranger can become an owner of soil through establishing ties of kinship and so on.

(D)  The stranger might become an owner of soil in the physical sense but not in the psychological

22. L is the only son of A and S. S has one sibling, B, who is married to L’s aunt, K. B is the only son of D. How are L and D related?

Select the possible option(s):

(A)  Grandchild and Paternal Grandfather

(B)  Grandchild and Maternal Grandfather

(C)  Grandchild and Paternal Grandmother

(D)  Grandchild and Maternal Grandmother

23. Five segments of a sentence are given below. The first and fifth segments are at their correct positions, while the middle three segments (represented by 2, 3, and 4) are jumbled up. Choose the correct order of the segments so that they form a coherent sentence:

(1) Consumed multitudes are jostling and shoving inside me

(2) and guided only by the memory of a large white bedsheet with a roughly circular hole some seven inches in diameter cut into the center,

(3) clutching at the dream of that holey, mutilated square of linen, which is my talisman, my open-sesame,

(4) I must commence the business of remaking my life from the point at which it really began,

(5) some thirty-two years before anything as obvious, as present, as my clock-ridden, crime-stained birth.

(A)  2 – 3 – 4

(B)  3 – 2– 4

(C)  4 – 2– 3

(D)  4 – 3 – 2

24. “I told you the truth,” I say yet again, “Memory’s truth, because memory has its own special kind. It selects, eliminates, alters, exaggerates, minimizes, glorifies, and vilifies also; but in the end it creates its own reality, its heterogeneous but usually coherent versions of events; and no sane human being ever trusts someone else’s version more than his own.”

What are the different ways in which ‘truth’ can be understood from the passage?

(A)  Truth is what can be verified by hard empirical evidence.

(B)  Truth is based on what can be perceived by the senses.

(C)  Truth is the product of memory that is fallible, selective and slanted.

(D)  Truth is contingent on the observer and can only be partial.

25. A firm needs both skilled labour and unskilled labour for the production of cloth. The wage of skilled labour is Rs. 40,000 per month, and that of unskilled labour is Rs. 15,000 per month. The total wage bill of the firm for the production of cloth is Rs. 23,75,000 in a month for 100 labour. How many skilled labour are employed by the firm (in Integer)?

26. Select the odd word and write the option number as answer:

(1) Lek (2) Zloty (3) Diner (4) Drachma (5) Real

Linguistics – C3

XH-C3: Q.27 – Q.44 Carry ONE mark Each

27. In a writing system, if each unique grapheme represents a unique morpheme/word, the writing system is known as _____________.

(A)  Logographic

(B)  Syllabic

(C)  Abugida

(D)  Moraic

28. If an SOV language allows movement to OSV and VSO word orders, the resulting word order will be known as:

(A)  Unmarked

(B)  Marked

(C)  Ungrammatical

(D)  Default

29. The phenomenon where ‘missed hotel’ is pronounced as ‘hissed motel’ is known as _____________.

(A)  Agrammatism

(B)  Wernicke’s aphasia

(C)  Spoonerism

(D)  Malapropism

30. When new information is introduced in a communication, such information is classified as __________.

(A)  Focus

(B)  Topic

(C)  Presupposition

(D)  Theme

31. What type of morphological process is involved in the expression ‘English-vinglish’

(A)  Complete reduplication

(B)  Partial reduplication

(C)  Prefixation

(D)  Suffixation

32. Which one of the following is a language isolate?

(A)  Burushashki

(B)  Mundari

(C)  Angami

(D)  Kalasha

33. Which of the following Dravidian language is spoken in Pakistan?

(A)  Konda

(B)  Kuvi

(C)  Toda

(D)  Brahui

34. Which word-order pair is the most common in world’s languages?

(A)  SVO-SOV

(B)  SOV-VSO

(C)  VSO-VOS

(D)  SOV-VOS

35. Which type of morphological process is involved in creating catty from cat?

(A)  Inflection

(B)  Derivation

(C)  Suppletion

(D)  Reduplication

36. Devanagari organizes the consonant graphemes as shown in the image. What is the parameter by which the following two rows differ?

(A)  Voicing

(B)  Manner of articulation

(C)  Place of articulation

(D)  Aspiration

37. Which option is related to Neo-Whorfism?

(A)  Language, thought, worldview

(B)  Innateness, deep-structure, surface-structure

(C)  Language, methods, analysis

(D)  Signifier, signified, sign

38. Which of the following is/are involved in the comparative method for establishing language families and genetic relationship among languages?

(A)  Reconstruction of the proto language

(B)  Assembling a list of cognates

(C)  Strictly using basic vocabulary lists

(D)  Setting up sound correspondences

39. Aphasia can be caused by

(A)  Open or closed head trauma

(B)  Attention deficit

(D)  Lack of motivation

40. In sociolinguistics, the term ‘anti-language’ refers to the language used for

(A)  Academic purposes by professional criminologists

(B)  Legal proceedings in the court of law

(C)  Communication by small non-mainstream groups

(D)  Communication between caregivers and infants

41. In language policy making, which of the following steps is/are necessary for an erstwhile minority language, spoken by a sizeable population, to be introduced as a medium of instruction in schools?

(A)  Language revival

(B)  Corpus planning

(C)  Status planning

(D)  Language preservation

42. Which of the following research methods involve Reaction Time?

(A)  Behavioral methods

(B)  Experimental methods

(C)  Non-behavioral methods

(D)  Qualitative methods

43. If [p] and [ph] are allophones of the same phoneme /p/, which of the following statements is/are true?

(A)  [p] and [ph] are in contrastive distribution

(B)  [p] and [ph] are in complementary distribution

(C)  [ph] has more restrictive occurrence than [p]

(D)  [p] and [ph] can be used interchangeably

44. Which of the following show(s) dissociation between cognitive disorder and language abilities?

(A)  Autism spectrum disorder

(B)  Williams syndrome

(C)  Dyslexia

(D)  Specific Language Impairment (SLI)

XH-C3: Q.45 – Q.65 Carry TWO mark Each

45. Which of the following sound pairs differ from each other in exactly two articulatory parameters?

(A)  [p] vs. [b]

(B)  [t] vs. [s]

(C)  [v] vs. [θ]

(D)  [n] vs. [d]

46. The cover term determiner refers to:

(A)  Articles, demonstratives, and possessors

(B)  Possessors, prepositions, and demonstratives

(C)  Postpositions, articles, and prepositions

(D)  Articles, prepositions, and possessors

47. In ‘John seems to have left’, the subject John has undergone:

(A)  Subject-to-Subject lowering

(B)  Object-to-Subject raising

(C)  Subject-to-Subject raising

(D)  Object-to-Object lowering

48. The comparative and superlative forms of the adjective ‘good’ are examples of:

(A)  Alternation

(B)  Syncope

(C)  Ablaut

(D)  Suppletion

49. Consider the following question and determine where was is moved finally, in accordance with the minimalist assumptions:

Was John, who wrote the book, angry?

(A)  T to C

(B)  C to T

(C)  V to T

(D)  T to V

50. Match the following historical sound changes in Column X with the processes in Column Y

(A)  P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(B)  P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3

(C)  P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(D)  P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1

51. Consider the following morphological break-up of pfeifing produced by a simultaneous bilingual child. What phenomenon does this example indicate?

(A)  Code-mixing arising out of social bilingualism

(B)  Code-switching based on context of the conversation

(C)  Understanding both languages as part of a single ‘system’

(D)  Mixed language arising out of pedagogical preferences

52. Which one of the following is compounding of compounded words?

(A)  Lighthouse tower

(B)  Skating board

(C)  Boyfriend

(D)  Walkman

53. What sociolinguistic phenomenon does the following sentence exemplify?

(A)  Code switching

(B)  Bilingualism

(C)  Pidgin

(D)  Mixed language

54. Identify the labels for X and Y in the following tree.

(D)  X: Verb, Y: Verb

55. From the following, which is the correct order of animacy hierarchy?

(A)  1st/2nd Person > 3rd Person > Proper Name > Human Noun

(B)  3rd Person > 1st/2nd Person > Proper Name > Human Noun

(C)  3rd Person > 1st/2nd Person > Human Noun > Proper Name

(D)  1st/2nd Person > 3rd Person > Human Noun > Proper Name

56. Look at the adjectives in Column X and match with the types of adjectives in Column Y. Choose the correct option.

(A)  P-2, Q-3, R-1

(B)  P-2, Q-1, R-3

(C)  P-1, Q-2, R-3

(D)  P-1, Q-3, R-2

57. In a given constraint ranking of *COMPLEX, DEP-IO >> MAX-IO for the input /spun/, which of the following candidates is/are optimal?

(A)  [su.pun]

(B)  [pun]

(C)  [sun]

(D)  [is.pun]

58. Consider the pattern of stress assignment shown below. Which of the given statements is/are true?

(A)  Stress assignment is from left to right

(B)  There are/is extrametrical syllable(s)

(C)  Feet are binary

(D)  Stress system is iambic

59. In word processing studies, visual word recognition is affected by:

(A)  Proficiency, word length, neighborhood effect

(B)  Frequency, age of acquisition (AoA), familiarity

(C)  McGurk effect, place and manner of articulation (PoA and MoA)

(D)  Language family, areal features, phoneme inventory size

60. Identify the language(s) that belong(s) to the Balkan Sprachbund.

(A)  Romanian

(B)  Bulgarian

(C)  Norwegian

(D)  Swedish

61. Consider the following tree structure, where A and C are co-referential. Similarly, E and H are co-referential. Identify the incorrect statement(s).

(A)  A binds C

(B)  C binds E

(C)  E binds D

(D)  A binds H

62. Which of the following statements is/are true for the pair – bird : cuckoo

(A)  Cuckoo is the hyponym of bird

(B)  Bird is the hypernym of cuckoo

(C)  Cuckoo is the hypernym of bird

(D)  Bird is the hyponym of cuckoo

63. In the sentences 1 through 4, in which one(s) a) entails b)?

(A)  1 a) entails 1 b)

(B)  2 a) entails 2 b)

(C)  3 a) entails 3 b)

(D)  4 a) entails 4 b)

64. The following figure depicts a spectrum of a vowel (dashed line), where F0 = 150 Hz and F0 = H1. The harmonics are indicated from H1 to H11. From the figure, the frequency (in Hz) of the second formant (F2) of this vowel is _______.

65. The number of core arguments associated with the ditransitive verb ‘give’ is _______.

XH : Humanities & Social Sciences

General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. Rafi told Mary, “I am thinking of watching a film this weekend.”

The following reports the above statement in indirect speech:

Rafi told Mary that he _______ of watching a film that weekend.

(A)  thought

(B)  is thinking

(C)  am thinking

(D)  was thinking

2. Permit : _______ : : Enforce : Relax

(By word meaning)

(A)  Allow

(B)  Forbid

(D)  Reinforce

3. Given a fair six-faced dice where the faces are labelled ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’, ‘4’, ‘5’, and ‘6’, what is the probability of getting a ‘1’ on the first roll of the dice and a ‘4’ on the second roll?

(A)  1/36

(B)  1/6

(C)  5/6

(D)  1/3

4. A recent survey shows that 65% of tobacco users were advised to stop consuming tobacco. The survey also shows that 3 out of 10 tobacco users attempted to stop using tobacco.

Based only on the information in the above passage, which one of the following options can be logically inferred with certainty?

(A)  A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco made an attempt to do so.

(B)  A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco did not attempt to do so.

(C)  Approximately 30% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.

(D)  Approximately 65% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.

5. How many triangles are present in the given figure?

(A)  12

(B)  16

(C)  20

(D)  24

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

6. Students of all the departments of a college who have successfully completed the registration process are eligible to vote in the upcoming college elections. However, by the time the due date for registration was over, it was found that suprisingly none of the students from the Department of Human Sciences had completed the registration process.

Based only on the information provided above, which one of the following sets of statement(s) can be logically inferred with certainty?

(i) All those students who would not be eligible to vote in the college elections would certainly belong to the Department of Human Sciences.

(ii) None of the students from departments other than Human Sciences failed to complete the registration process within the due time.

(iii) All the eligible voters would certainly be students who are not from the Department of Human Sciences.

(A)  (i) and (ii)

(B)  (i) and (iii)

(C)  only (i)

(D)  only (iii)

7. Which one of the following options represents the given graph?

(A)  f(x) = x22|x|

(B)  f(x) = x 2|x|

(C)  f(x) = |x|2x

(D)  f(x) = x2x

8. Which one of the options does NOT describe the passage below or follow from it?

We tend to think of cancer as a ‘modern’ illness because its metaphors are so modern. It is a disease of overproduction, of sudden growth, a growth that is unstoppable, tipped into the abyss of no control. Modern cell biology encourages us to imagine the cell as a molecular machine. Cancer is that machine unable to quench its intial command (to grow) and thus transform into an indestructible, self-propelled automaton.

(A)  It is a reflection of why cancer seems so modern to most of us.

(B)  It tells us that modern cell biology uses and promotes metaphors of machinery.

(C)  Modern cell biology encourages metaphors of machinery, and cancer is often imagined as a machine.

(D)  Modern cell biology never uses figurative language, such as metaphors, to describe or explain anything.

9. The digit in the unit’s place of the product 3999 × 71000 is ________.

(A)  7

(B)  1

(C)  3

(D)  9

10. A square with sides of length 6 cm is given. The boundary of the shaded region is defined by two semi-circles whose diameters are the sides of the square, as shown.

The area of the shaded region is _______ cm2.

(A)  6π

(B)  18

(C)  20

(D)  9π

Reasoning and Comprehension (XH-B1)

XH-B1: Q.11 – Q.17 Carry ONE mark Each

11. Which word below best describes the idea of being both Spineless and Cowardly?

(A)  Pusillanimous

(B)  Unctuous

(C)  Obsequious

(D)  Reticent

12. Choose the right preposition to fill up the blank:

The whole family got together ___ Diwali

(A)  of

(B)  at

(C)  in

(D)  till

13. Select the correct option to fill in all the blanks to complete the passage:

The (i) _______ factor amid this turbulence has been the (ii) ________ of high-octane, action-oriented films such as RRR, K.G.F: Chapter 2 and Pushpa from film industries in the south of the country. Traditionally, films made in the south have done well in their own (iii) _________. But increasingly, their dubbed versions have performed well in the Hindi heartland, with collections (iv) ________ those of their Bollywood counterparts.

(A)  (i) disheartening (ii) failure (iii) channels (iv) matching

(B)  (i) redeeming (ii) outperformance (iii) geographies (iv) eclipsing

(C)  (i) shocking (ii) underperformance (iii) cinemas (iv) below

(D)  (i) humbling (ii) bombing (iii) theatres (iv) falling behind

14. The following passage consists of 6 sentences. The first and sixth sentences of the passage are at their correct positions, while the middle four sentences (represented by 2, 3, 4, and 5) are jumbled up.

Choose the correct sequence of the sentences so that they form a coherent paragraph:

(1) Most obviously, mobility is taken to be a geographical as well as a social phenomenon.

(2) Much of the social mobility literature regarded society as a uniform surface and failed to register the geographical intersections of region, city and place, with the social categories of class, gender and ethnicity.

(3) The existing sociology of migration is incidentally far too limited in its concerns to be very useful here.

(4) Further, I am concerned with the flows of people within, but especially beyond, the territory of each society, and how these flows may relate to many different desires, for work, housing, leisure, religion, family relationships, criminal gain, asylum seeking and so on.

(5) Moreover, not only people are mobile but so too are many ‘objects’.

(6) I show that sociology’s recent development of a ‘sociology of objects’ needs to be taken further and that the diverse flows of objects across societal borders and their intersections with the multiple flows of people are hugely significant.

(A)  3, 2, 5, 4

(B)  2, 3, 4, 5

(C)  5, 4, 3, 2

(D)  4, 2, 5, 3

15. The population of a country increased by 5% from 2020 to 2021. Then, the population decreased by 5% from 2021 to 2022. By what percentage did the population change from 2020 to 2022?

(A)  -0.25%

(B)  0%

(C)  2.5%

(D)  10.25%

16. The words Thin: Slim: Slender are related in some way. Identify the correct option(s) that reflect(s) the same relationship:

(A)  Fat: Plump: Voluptuous

(B)  Short: Small: Petite

(C)  Tall: Taller: Tallest

(D)  Fair: Dark: Wheatish

17. A pandemic like situation hit the country last year, resulting in loss of human life and economic depression. To improve the condition of its citizens, the government made a series of emergency medical interventions and increased spending to revive the economy. In both these efforts, district administration authorities were actively involved.

Which of the following action(s) are plausible?

(A)  In future, the government can make district administration authorities responsible for protecting health of citizens and reviving the economy.

(B)  The government may set up a task force to review the post pandemic situation and ascertain the effectiveness of the measures taken.

(C)  The government may set up a committee to formulate a pandemic management program to minimize losses to life and economy in future.

(D)  The government may take population control measures to minimize pandemic related losses in future.

XH-B1: Q.18 – Q.26 Carry TWO marks Each

18. Six students, Arif, Balwinder, Chintu, David, Emon and Fulmoni appeared in the GATE-XH exam in 2022. Balwinder scores less than Chintu in XH-B1, but more than Arif in XH-C1. David scores more than Balwinder in XH-C1, and more than Chintu in XH-B1. Emon scores less than David, but more than Fulmoni in XH-B1. Fulmoni scores more than David in XH-C1. Arif scores less than Emon, but more than Fulmoni in XH-B1. Who scores highest in XH-B1?

(A)  Fulmoni

(B)  Emon

(C)  David

(D)  Chintu

19. Select the correct relation between E and F.

(A)  E > F

(B)  E < F

(C)  E = F

(D)  E < -F

20. A code language is formulated thus:

Vowels in the original word are replaced by the next vowel from the list of vowels, A-E-I-O-U (For example, E is replaced by I and U is replaced by A). Consonants in the original word are replaced by previous consonant (For example, T is replaced by S and V is replaced by T).

Then how does the word, GOODMORNING appear in the coded language?

(A)  HUUFNUSPOPH

(B)  FIICLIQMEMF

(C)  FUUCLUQMOMF

(D)  HEEDATTACRH

21. The stranger is by nature no “owner of soil” — soil not only in the physical, but also in the figurative sense of a life-substance, which is fixed, if not in a point in space, at least in an ideal point of the social environment. Although in more intimate relations, he may develop all kinds of charm and significance, as long as he is considered a stranger in the eyes of the other, he is not an “owner of soil.” Restriction to intermediary trade, and often (as though sublimated from it) to pure finance, gives him the specific character of mobility. If mobility takes place within a closed group, it embodies that synthesis of nearness and distance which constitutes the formal position of the stranger. For, the fundamentally mobile person comes in contact, at one time or another, with every individual, but is not organically connected, through established ties of kinship, locality, and occupation, with any single one.

What assumptions can be made about the stranger from the passage above?

(A)  The stranger can become an owner of soil through developing all kinds of charm in more intimate relations.

(B)  The stranger cannot become an owner of soil either in the physical or psychological sense.

(C)  The stranger can become an owner of soil through establishing ties of kinship and so on.

(D)  The stranger might become an owner of soil in the physical sense but not in the psychological

22. L is the only son of A and S. S has one sibling, B, who is married to L’s aunt, K. B is the only son of D. How are L and D related?

Select the possible option(s):

(A)  Grandchild and Paternal Grandfather

(B)  Grandchild and Maternal Grandfather

(C)  Grandchild and Paternal Grandmother

(D)  Grandchild and Maternal Grandmother

23. Five segments of a sentence are given below. The first and fifth segments are at their correct positions, while the middle three segments (represented by 2, 3, and 4) are jumbled up. Choose the correct order of the segments so that they form a coherent sentence:

(1) Consumed multitudes are jostling and shoving inside me

(2) and guided only by the memory of a large white bedsheet with a roughly circular hole some seven inches in diameter cut into the center,

(3) clutching at the dream of that holey, mutilated square of linen, which is my talisman, my open-sesame,

(4) I must commence the business of remaking my life from the point at which it really began,

(5) some thirty-two years before anything as obvious, as present, as my clock-ridden, crime-stained birth.

(A)  2 – 3 – 4

(B)  3 – 2– 4

(C)  4 – 2– 3

(D)  4 – 3 – 2

24. “I told you the truth,” I say yet again, “Memory’s truth, because memory has its own special kind. It selects, eliminates, alters, exaggerates, minimizes, glorifies, and vilifies also; but in the end it creates its own reality, its heterogeneous but usually coherent versions of events; and no sane human being ever trusts someone else’s version more than his own.”

What are the different ways in which ‘truth’ can be understood from the passage?

(A)  Truth is what can be verified by hard empirical evidence.

(B)  Truth is based on what can be perceived by the senses.

(C)  Truth is the product of memory that is fallible, selective and slanted.

(D)  Truth is contingent on the observer and can only be partial.

25. A firm needs both skilled labour and unskilled labour for the production of cloth. The wage of skilled labour is Rs. 40,000 per month, and that of unskilled labour is Rs. 15,000 per month. The total wage bill of the firm for the production of cloth is Rs. 23,75,000 in a month for 100 labour. How many skilled labour are employed by the firm (in Integer)?

26. Select the odd word and write the option number as answer:

(1) Lek (2) Zloty (3) Diner (4) Drachma (5) Real

Philosophy – C4

XH-C4: Q.27 – Q.44 Carry ONE mark Each

27. In Sāṅkhya philosophy ‘mind’ (manas) is an evolute of ______.

(A)  Prakṛti

(B)  Puruṣa

(C)  Three guṇas

(D)  Puruṣa and Prakṛti

28. Which one of the following is the manifestation of the Absolute Spirit in Hegel’s Phenomenology of Spirit?

(A)  The devotion of a church congregation

(B)  The knowledge of a natural scientist

(C)  The self-transparency of a society of free individuals

(D)  The mystical insight of an enlightened sage

29. The Cārvāka system accepts the following puruṣārthas:

(A)  Artha and Kāma

(B)  Dharma, Kāma and Mokṣa

(C)  Mokṣa and Dharma

(D)  Artha, Kāma and Mokṣa

30. In Taittirīya Upaniṣad there is a discussion of five sheaths (pañca-koṣa) in which the individual self is encased. Which one of the following is the sheath (koṣa) of knowledge and intelligence?

(A)  Vijñānamaya-koṣa

(B)  Prāṇamaya-koṣa

(C)  Manomaya-koṣa

(D)  Ᾱnandamaya-koṣa

31. According to Swami Vivekananda, ‘Universal Religion’ would consist in recognising that there are different ways of approaching the religious object. The watch-word for universal religion is ___________.

(A)  Tolerance

(B)  Acceptance

(C)  Submission

32. In his ‘The Concept of the Absolute and Its Alternative Forms’, K. C. Bhattacharyya says, “… consciousness is of three kinds – knowing, feeling and willing…” Which one of the following is the ‘absolute’ of ‘knowing’?

(A)  Truth

(B)  Beauty

(C)  Goodness

(D)  Bliss

33. Which one of the following is NOT considered a pramāṇa by the Prābhākara Mīmāṃsaka?

(A)  Anupalabdhi (Non-apprehension)

(B)  Anumāna (Inference)

(C)  Arthāpatti (Postulation/ Presumption)

(D)  Upamāna (Comparison/ Analogy)

34. Marx introduces the concept of ‘commodity fetishism’ in Capital. Which one of the following is a correct description of the concept?

(A)  The reflection of human spiritual capacities in the material product

(B)  The reflection of human needs in the material product

(C)  The reflection of the social character of human labour in the material product

(D)  The reflection of the dignity of human labour in the material product

35. W.V. O. Quine famously writes in ‘Two Dogmas of Empiricism’:

(A)  No statement is immune to revision

(B)  Only analytic statements are immune to revision

(C)  Only synthetic statements are immune to revision

(D)  Only the statements of empirical sciences are immune to revision

36. Comparing the thoughts of Heraclitus and Parmenides, we can say that:

(A)  Both assert that only the soul (psuche) truly exists

(B)  Heraclitus asserts the unity underlying the plurality of things, whereas Parmenides denies the plurality of things altogether

(C)  Heraclitus asserts the infinity of the cosmos, whereas Parmenides asserts its finitude

(D)  Heraclitus asserts the incomprehensibility of the plurality of nature, while Parmenides asserts the fundamental comprehensibility of the plurality of nature

37. According to Heidegger’s Being and Time, the ontological difference is:

(A)  The distinction between Being (Sein) and beings (Seiende)

(B)  The distinction between Being (Sein) and Being-there (Dasein)

(C)  The distinction between beings (Seiende) and Being-there (Dasein)

(D)  The difference between Being (Sein) and Non-Being (Nichtsein)

38. In Plato’s Republic, the virtue of moderation is present:

(A)  Only in the guardians

(B)  In the auxiliaries and guardians

(C)  Only in the money makers

(D)  Throughout the republic

39. In Kāśmīra Śaivism, Śiva is the only reality, the one without a second. Which among the following is/are the other name[s] for Kāśmīra Śaivism?

(A)  Pratyabhijñā

(B)  Trika

(C)  Spanda

(D)  Vīra-śaivism

40. In ‘Democracy’, B. R. Ambedkar lays out certain fundamental assumptions about his conception of democracy. They include:

(A)  Adult suffrage and frequent elections are no bar against the governing class reaching places of power and authority

(B)  Servile classes volunteering to elect members of the governing class as their rulers is a sign of a thriving democracy

(C)  Servile classes in some countries may need other safeguards beside adult suffrage to oust the governing class from the seat of authority

(D)  Existence of the governing class is consistent with democracy and self-government

My uniform experience has convinced me that there is no other God than Truth…That is why my devotion to Truth has drawn me into the field of politics; and I can say without the slightest hesitation, yet in all humility, that those who say that religion has nothing to do with politics do not know what religion means. Identification with everything that lives is impossible without self-purification; without self-purification the observance of the law of Ahimsa must remain an empty dream; God can never be realized by one who is not pure of heart.

– M. K. Gandhi, An Autobiography or the Story of my Experiments with Truth, p. 615

Which among the following are NOT in conformity with the above passage?

(A)  God is Truth

(B)  Devotion to God, which is Truth, prompted Gandhi to enter politics

(C)  Religion and politics should be separated

(D)  Ahimsa and politics do not go hand in hand

42. Soli likes either logic or biology. If Soli likes logic, then he is not a happy person. Neither Soli nor Rupinder likes biology.

Which among the following can be concluded from the premises given here?

(A)  Soli is not a happy person.

(B)  Rupinder is not a happy person.

(C)  Rupinder is a happy person.

(D)  Soli likes logic.

43. On the basis of Aristotle’s Nicomachean Ethics, we can say the following about virtue:

(A)  We can know the virtue of something only if we understand the function (ergon) of that thing

(B)  Virtue entails deliberation

(C)  We become virtuous by simply knowing what virtue is

(D)  Virtue has the nature of a mean between two extremes in most cases

44. According to Hume’s An Inquiry Concerning Human Understanding, the following is/are the principle[s] governing the connection of ideas:

(A)  Resemblance

(B)  Contiguity in space and time

(C)  Juxtaposition

(D)  Cause and Effect

XH-C4: Q.45– Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

45. In his Yogasūtra, Patañjali mentions five kinds of afflictions (kleśas). Which one of the following is NOT among the five afflictions?

(A)  Mātsarya (competition/ rivalry)

(B)  Avidyā (false knowledge)

(C)  Rāga (attachment)

(D)  Asmitā (egoism)

46. According to Jaina philosophy, all substances (dravya) but one have extension in space (astikāya). That one substance which has no extension in space (anastikāya) is ___.

(A)  Time (kāla)

(B)  Space (ākāśa)

(D)  Motion (dharma)

47. Husserl’s fifth Cartesian Meditation is founded upon the realization that the reduction to my transcendental sphere of ownness:

(A)  Does not fundamentally cut me off from the other

(B)  Fatefully cuts me off from the other

(C)  Can never be completely achieved

(D)  Is not necessary to understand the constitution of the objective world

48. According to the Nyāya system, the argument “A sparrow is a bird, since it has wings” would have an inferential defect (hetvābhāsa) called _______.

(A)  Svarūpāsiddhi (unestablished in respect of itself)

(B)  Āśrayāsiddhi (unestablished in respect of abode)

(C)  Sādhāraṇa-anaikāntika (common strayer)

(D)  Asādhāraṇa-anaikāntika (uncommon strayer)

49. Consider the following sentence: ‘Dhavala is a white cow.’ For the Vaiśeṣika, the meaning (artha) of the sentence consists of the following padārthas:

(A)  Action (karma), Substance (dravya) and Unique particular (viśeṣa) only

(B)  Substance (dravya), Universal (sāmānya) and Quality (guṇa) only

(C)  Substance (dravya), Universal (sāmānya), Inherence (samavāya) and Quality (guṇa) only

(D)  Action (karma), Substance (dravya), Unique particular (viśeṣa) and Absence (abhāva) only

50. According to the theory advocated by G. Frege in his ‘On Sense and Reference’, the expression ‘the largest prime number’ would have ___________.

(A)  Both a sense and a reference

(B)  Only sense, and no reference

(C)  Only reference, and no sense

(D)  Neither sense, nor reference

51. In the Phaedo, Plato’s Socrates develops a novel way of understanding the beauty of things. He tells us:

(A)  The beauty of things is caused by nothing other than a combination of the colour, the shape and the size of a thing

(B)  The beauty of things is simply the effect of that thing on the eyes of the observer

(C)  If things are beautiful then it is due to the presence (parousia) of the beautiful in itself

(D)  The beauty of things is simply an illusion; only the beautiful exists in itself by itself (auto kath’ auto)

52. Descartes postulates the evil genius in his Meditations to deny the certainty of which statements?

(I) There is a table lamp to the left of the desk at which I am sitting.

(II) The sum of the angles of a triangle is 180 degrees.

(III) Sodium has only one electron in its outermost shell.

(IV) Plants absorb nourishment from the soil by means of their roots.

(V) I wish you were here.

(VI) I can see my friend in the 10th floor window of that building from where I stand on the road here below.

(VII) I am thinking of my dear mother.

(VIII) 2+2=4.

(A)  IV, III and V

(B)  I, II and III

(C)  V and VI

(D)  II and VIII

53. Which of the following statement[s] is/are NOT true in relation to Kant’s concept of the will?

(A)  Every will, even the divine will is subject to imperatives

(B)  Only the human will is subject to imperatives

(C)  The human will is subject to the hypothetical imperative, whereas the divine will is subject to the categorical imperative

(D)  The human will is subject to the categorical imperative which comes from God

54. We see a bronze statue of Poseidon in the National Archaeological Museum of Athens. Which of the following would be [a] cause[s] of the statue for Aristotle if we read his Physics?

(A)  Bronze

(B)  The sculptor who produced it

(C)  The plan to have a bronze statue of Poseidon installed in a temple

(D)  The space in the temple in which the statue is installed

55. In the Buddhist theory of elements (dharmas), dharmas are the ultimate momentary elements of existence. The number of elements varies in different schools of Buddhism. Of the following alternatives, which pair[s] does/do NOT give us the respective number of dharmas accepted in Sautrāntika and Sarvāstivāda (Vaibhāṣika) schools?

(A)  75 and 43

(B)  43 and 75

(C)  43 and 0

(D)  0 and 43

56. According to the Advaita of Śaṅkara, the individual self (jīva) is:

(A)  Not ontologically different from Brahman

(B)  Empirically different from Brahman due to the limiting adjuncts of body, mind, senses etc.

(C)  Ontologically real and one with Brahman

(D)  A part of Brahman

57. Mohammad Iqbal’s views on the nature of ‘intuition’ would state:

(A)  Intuition is immediate knowledge of the Reality (God)

(B)  Intuitive experience is not only subjective but also objective

(C)  Intuition is a property of the heart

(D)  Intuition is the property of the mind and the intellect

58. Sandra Harding’s Standpoint Epistemology involves:

(A)  Adopting a feminist empiricist point of view that critiques the masculine underpinnings of western sciences

(B)  Recognizing that science is value free

(C)  Negating the value of objectivity in scientific research

(D)  Grounding distinctive feminist science in strongly objective accounts of the world

59. In J. S. Mill’s articulation of utilitarianism which of the following statements about justice are valid?

(A)  Standards of justice stand higher in the scale of social utility

(B)  The just and the expedient are divided by an imaginary distinction

(C)  Social duty can become so important as to overrule any one of general maxims of justice

(D)  Utilitarianism prioritises expediency over justice

60. According to Russell’s ‘On Denoting’, the proposition, ‘The prime number between 7 and 11 is NOT larger than 12’ would be true, if _______.

(A)  The proposition, ‘The prime number between 7 and 11 is larger than 12’ is false

(B)  The expression ‘the prime number between 7 and 11’ has a primary occurrence in the proposition

(C)  The expression ‘the prime number between 7 and 11’ has a secondary occurrence in the proposition

(D)  There were only one prime number between 7 and 11

61. (i) p ⊃ (q ∙ r)

(ii) ~(p ⊃ s)

Taking (i) and (ii) as premises, which of the following can be deduced?

(A)  q

(B)  r

(C)  s

(D)  ~p

62. ~q can be deduced from ~(p ⊃ (q ∨ r)) by using rules of propositional logic in the following sequence[s]:

(A)  Material Implication> De Morgan’s Theorem> Commutation> Simplification> De Morgan’s Theorem> Simplification

(B)  Conjunction> Addition> Modus Ponens> De Morgan’s Theorem

(C)  Transposition> Material Implication> Double Negation> De Morgan’s Theorem> Simplification> De Morgan’s Theorem> Simplification

(D)  Modus Tollens> Conjunction> Hypothetical Syllogism> Simplification

63. Read the passage below from Wittgenstein’s Philosophical Investigations carefully and answer the question.

I can think of no better expression to characterize these similarities than “family resemblances”; for the various resemblances between members of a family – build, features, colour of eyes, gait, temperament, and so on and so forth – overlap and crisscross in the same way. – And I shall say: ‘games’ form a family.

And likewise the kinds of number, for example, form a family. Why do we call something a “number”? Well, perhaps because it has a – direct – affinity with several things that have hitherto been called “number”; and this can be said to give it an indirect affinity with other things that we also call “numbers.” And we extend our concept of number, as in spinning a thread we twist fibre on fibre. And the strength of the thread resides not in the fact that some one fibre runs through its whole length but in the overlapping of many fibres.

But if someone wanted to say, “So there is something common to all these constructions – namely, the disjunction of all their common properties” – I’d reply: Now you are only playing with a word. One might as well say, “There is a Something that runs through the whole thread – namely, the continuous overlapping of these “fibres.”

– Ludwig Wittgenstein, Philosophical Investigations, Investigation No. 67

Which of the following statement[s] does Wittgenstein imply in the above passage?

(A)  The one fibre supposed to run through the length of the thread corresponds to what is supposed to be common to all numbers

(B)  The overlapping of the fibres corresponds to the family resemblance Wittgenstein is trying to explicate

(C)  It is absurd to insist that there is one thing common to all the members of the family

(D)  To describe a family resemblance is another way to describe the common property shared by all the family members

64. In Kant’s Critique of Pure Reason, the equation 7 + 5 = 12 is synthetic a priori and not simply analytic for the following reason[s].

(A)  A simple analysis of the concept of 5, the concept of 7 and the concept of addition does not give us the sum 12

(B)  With 7 as the starting point, we require an intuition such as 5 fingers or 5 marks on a page to reach upto 12

(C)  If 7 + 5 = 12 were an analytic proposition it would not need any intuition to know it

(D)  We arrive at the knowledge of 7 + 5 = 12 by imitating others adding 7 and 5

65. According to Sartre’s Being and Nothingness, which of following statement[s] is/ are true?

(A)  Bad faith is human beings’ denial of their own freedom

(B)  To assert the existence of nothingness is to deny the existence of human freedom

(C)  To assert the existence of nothingness is to assert the existence of human freedom

(D)  Being and nothingness self-evidently exclude each other

XH : Humanities & Social Sciences

General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. Rafi told Mary, “I am thinking of watching a film this weekend.”

The following reports the above statement in indirect speech:

Rafi told Mary that he _______ of watching a film that weekend.

(A)  thought

(B)  is thinking

(C)  am thinking

(D)  was thinking

2. Permit : _______ : : Enforce : Relax

(By word meaning)

(A)  Allow

(B)  Forbid

(D)  Reinforce

3. Given a fair six-faced dice where the faces are labelled ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’, ‘4’, ‘5’, and ‘6’, what is the probability of getting a ‘1’ on the first roll of the dice and a ‘4’ on the second roll?

(A)  1/36

(B)  1/6

(C)  5/6

(D)  1/3

4. A recent survey shows that 65% of tobacco users were advised to stop consuming tobacco. The survey also shows that 3 out of 10 tobacco users attempted to stop using tobacco.

Based only on the information in the above passage, which one of the following options can be logically inferred with certainty?

(A)  A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco made an attempt to do so.

(B)  A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco did not attempt to do so.

(C)  Approximately 30% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.

(D)  Approximately 65% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.

5. How many triangles are present in the given figure?

(A)  12

(B)  16

(C)  20

(D)  24

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

6. Students of all the departments of a college who have successfully completed the registration process are eligible to vote in the upcoming college elections. However, by the time the due date for registration was over, it was found that suprisingly none of the students from the Department of Human Sciences had completed the registration process.

Based only on the information provided above, which one of the following sets of statement(s) can be logically inferred with certainty?

(i) All those students who would not be eligible to vote in the college elections would certainly belong to the Department of Human Sciences.

(ii) None of the students from departments other than Human Sciences failed to complete the registration process within the due time.

(iii) All the eligible voters would certainly be students who are not from the Department of Human Sciences.

(A)  (i) and (ii)

(B)  (i) and (iii)

(C)  only (i)

(D)  only (iii)

7. Which one of the following options represents the given graph?

(A)  f(x) = x22|x|

(B)  f(x) = x 2|x|

(C)  f(x) = |x|2x

(D)  f(x) = x2x

8. Which one of the options does NOT describe the passage below or follow from it?

We tend to think of cancer as a ‘modern’ illness because its metaphors are so modern. It is a disease of overproduction, of sudden growth, a growth that is unstoppable, tipped into the abyss of no control. Modern cell biology encourages us to imagine the cell as a molecular machine. Cancer is that machine unable to quench its intial command (to grow) and thus transform into an indestructible, self-propelled automaton.

(A)  It is a reflection of why cancer seems so modern to most of us.

(B)  It tells us that modern cell biology uses and promotes metaphors of machinery.

(C)  Modern cell biology encourages metaphors of machinery, and cancer is often imagined as a machine.

(D)  Modern cell biology never uses figurative language, such as metaphors, to describe or explain anything.

9. The digit in the unit’s place of the product 3999 × 71000 is ________.

(A)  7

(B)  1

(C)  3

(D)  9

10. A square with sides of length 6 cm is given. The boundary of the shaded region is defined by two semi-circles whose diameters are the sides of the square, as shown.

The area of the shaded region is _______ cm2.

(A)  6π

(B)  18

(C)  20

(D)  9π

Reasoning and Comprehension (XH-B1)

XH-B1: Q.11 – Q.17 Carry ONE mark Each

11. Which word below best describes the idea of being both Spineless and Cowardly?

(A)  Pusillanimous

(B)  Unctuous

(C)  Obsequious

(D)  Reticent

12. Choose the right preposition to fill up the blank:

The whole family got together ___ Diwali

(A)  of

(B)  at

(C)  in

(D)  till

13. Select the correct option to fill in all the blanks to complete the passage:

The (i) _______ factor amid this turbulence has been the (ii) ________ of high-octane, action-oriented films such as RRR, K.G.F: Chapter 2 and Pushpa from film industries in the south of the country. Traditionally, films made in the south have done well in their own (iii) _________. But increasingly, their dubbed versions have performed well in the Hindi heartland, with collections (iv) ________ those of their Bollywood counterparts.

(A)  (i) disheartening (ii) failure (iii) channels (iv) matching

(B)  (i) redeeming (ii) outperformance (iii) geographies (iv) eclipsing

(C)  (i) shocking (ii) underperformance (iii) cinemas (iv) below

(D)  (i) humbling (ii) bombing (iii) theatres (iv) falling behind

14. The following passage consists of 6 sentences. The first and sixth sentences of the passage are at their correct positions, while the middle four sentences (represented by 2, 3, 4, and 5) are jumbled up.

Choose the correct sequence of the sentences so that they form a coherent paragraph:

(1) Most obviously, mobility is taken to be a geographical as well as a social phenomenon.

(2) Much of the social mobility literature regarded society as a uniform surface and failed to register the geographical intersections of region, city and place, with the social categories of class, gender and ethnicity.

(3) The existing sociology of migration is incidentally far too limited in its concerns to be very useful here.

(4) Further, I am concerned with the flows of people within, but especially beyond, the territory of each society, and how these flows may relate to many different desires, for work, housing, leisure, religion, family relationships, criminal gain, asylum seeking and so on.

(5) Moreover, not only people are mobile but so too are many ‘objects’.

(6) I show that sociology’s recent development of a ‘sociology of objects’ needs to be taken further and that the diverse flows of objects across societal borders and their intersections with the multiple flows of people are hugely significant.

(A)  3, 2, 5, 4

(B)  2, 3, 4, 5

(C)  5, 4, 3, 2

(D)  4, 2, 5, 3

15. The population of a country increased by 5% from 2020 to 2021. Then, the population decreased by 5% from 2021 to 2022. By what percentage did the population change from 2020 to 2022?

(A)  -0.25%

(B)  0%

(C)  2.5%

(D)  10.25%

16. The words Thin: Slim: Slender are related in some way. Identify the correct option(s) that reflect(s) the same relationship:

(A)  Fat: Plump: Voluptuous

(B)  Short: Small: Petite

(C)  Tall: Taller: Tallest

(D)  Fair: Dark: Wheatish

17. A pandemic like situation hit the country last year, resulting in loss of human life and economic depression. To improve the condition of its citizens, the government made a series of emergency medical interventions and increased spending to revive the economy. In both these efforts, district administration authorities were actively involved.

Which of the following action(s) are plausible?

(A)  In future, the government can make district administration authorities responsible for protecting health of citizens and reviving the economy.

(B)  The government may set up a task force to review the post pandemic situation and ascertain the effectiveness of the measures taken.

(C)  The government may set up a committee to formulate a pandemic management program to minimize losses to life and economy in future.

(D)  The government may take population control measures to minimize pandemic related losses in future.

XH-B1: Q.18 – Q.26 Carry TWO marks Each

18. Six students, Arif, Balwinder, Chintu, David, Emon and Fulmoni appeared in the GATE-XH exam in 2022. Balwinder scores less than Chintu in XH-B1, but more than Arif in XH-C1. David scores more than Balwinder in XH-C1, and more than Chintu in XH-B1. Emon scores less than David, but more than Fulmoni in XH-B1. Fulmoni scores more than David in XH-C1. Arif scores less than Emon, but more than Fulmoni in XH-B1. Who scores highest in XH-B1?

(A)  Fulmoni

(B)  Emon

(C)  David

(D)  Chintu

19. Select the correct relation between E and F.

(A)  E > F

(B)  E < F

(C)  E = F

(D)  E < -F

20. A code language is formulated thus:

Vowels in the original word are replaced by the next vowel from the list of vowels, A-E-I-O-U (For example, E is replaced by I and U is replaced by A). Consonants in the original word are replaced by previous consonant (For example, T is replaced by S and V is replaced by T).

Then how does the word, GOODMORNING appear in the coded language?

(A)  HUUFNUSPOPH

(B)  FIICLIQMEMF

(C)  FUUCLUQMOMF

(D)  HEEDATTACRH

21. The stranger is by nature no “owner of soil” — soil not only in the physical, but also in the figurative sense of a life-substance, which is fixed, if not in a point in space, at least in an ideal point of the social environment. Although in more intimate relations, he may develop all kinds of charm and significance, as long as he is considered a stranger in the eyes of the other, he is not an “owner of soil.” Restriction to intermediary trade, and often (as though sublimated from it) to pure finance, gives him the specific character of mobility. If mobility takes place within a closed group, it embodies that synthesis of nearness and distance which constitutes the formal position of the stranger. For, the fundamentally mobile person comes in contact, at one time or another, with every individual, but is not organically connected, through established ties of kinship, locality, and occupation, with any single one.

What assumptions can be made about the stranger from the passage above?

(A)  The stranger can become an owner of soil through developing all kinds of charm in more intimate relations.

(B)  The stranger cannot become an owner of soil either in the physical or psychological sense.

(C)  The stranger can become an owner of soil through establishing ties of kinship and so on.

(D)  The stranger might become an owner of soil in the physical sense but not in the psychological

22. L is the only son of A and S. S has one sibling, B, who is married to L’s aunt, K. B is the only son of D. How are L and D related?

Select the possible option(s):

(A)  Grandchild and Paternal Grandfather

(B)  Grandchild and Maternal Grandfather

(C)  Grandchild and Paternal Grandmother

(D)  Grandchild and Maternal Grandmother

23. Five segments of a sentence are given below. The first and fifth segments are at their correct positions, while the middle three segments (represented by 2, 3, and 4) are jumbled up. Choose the correct order of the segments so that they form a coherent sentence:

(1) Consumed multitudes are jostling and shoving inside me

(2) and guided only by the memory of a large white bedsheet with a roughly circular hole some seven inches in diameter cut into the center,

(3) clutching at the dream of that holey, mutilated square of linen, which is my talisman, my open-sesame,

(4) I must commence the business of remaking my life from the point at which it really began,

(5) some thirty-two years before anything as obvious, as present, as my clock-ridden, crime-stained birth.

(A)  2 – 3 – 4

(B)  3 – 2– 4

(C)  4 – 2– 3

(D)  4 – 3 – 2

24. “I told you the truth,” I say yet again, “Memory’s truth, because memory has its own special kind. It selects, eliminates, alters, exaggerates, minimizes, glorifies, and vilifies also; but in the end it creates its own reality, its heterogeneous but usually coherent versions of events; and no sane human being ever trusts someone else’s version more than his own.”

What are the different ways in which ‘truth’ can be understood from the passage?

(A)  Truth is what can be verified by hard empirical evidence.

(B)  Truth is based on what can be perceived by the senses.

(C)  Truth is the product of memory that is fallible, selective and slanted.

(D)  Truth is contingent on the observer and can only be partial.

25. A firm needs both skilled labour and unskilled labour for the production of cloth. The wage of skilled labour is Rs. 40,000 per month, and that of unskilled labour is Rs. 15,000 per month. The total wage bill of the firm for the production of cloth is Rs. 23,75,000 in a month for 100 labour. How many skilled labour are employed by the firm (in Integer)?

26. Select the odd word and write the option number as answer:

(1) Lek (2) Zloty (3) Diner (4) Drachma (5) Real

Psychology – C5

XH-C5: Q.27 – Q.44 Carry ONE mark Each

27. Blind spot in the retina contains _________.

(A)  only rod cells

(B)  only cone cells

(C)  both rod and cone cells

(D)  neither rod nor cone cells

28. Taking painkillers eliminates pain, increasing the likelihood that the person will take painkillers again. This is an example of __________.

(A)  negative punishment

(B)  positive reinforcement

(C)  negative reinforcement

(D)  positive punishment

29. When learning something new impairs the ability to retrieve information learnt earlier, it is known as ____________.

(A)  retroactive interference

(B)  proactive interference

(C)  tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon

(D)  recency effect

30. Iconic memory is a type of _________.

(A)  short term memory

(B)  sensory memory

(C)  semantic memory

(D)  working memory

31. Which one of the following components of language has to do with the practical or social aspects of communication with others?

(A)  Phonemes

(B)  Morphemes

(C)  Pragmatics

(D)  Syntax

32. The Yerkes-Dodson law states that _____________.

(A)  performance is affected by the level of arousal

(C)  self-concept helps us organize and remember information

(D)  changes in behaviour are a result of experiences that have happened frequently or recently

33. Transduction of mechanical energy into nerve impulses in the auditory system takes place in reponse to bending of the ____________.

(A)  pinna

(B)  hair cells

(C)  incus

(D)  malleus

34. Which one of the following theories states that emotion occurs as a result of physical arousal and labeling of the arousal based on cues from the surrounding environment?

(A)  Ekman-Friesen theory

(B)  Schachter-Singer theory

(C)  James-Lange theory

(D)  Cannon-Bard theory

35. Which one of the following is TRUE for the Pain-Gate control theory?

(A)  Gate is a physical structure

(B)  Activity of gate cannot be closed by non-pain signals

(C)  Substance P released into spinal cord does not activate other neurons that send messages through spinal gates

(D)  Pain signals must pass through a gate located in the spinal cord

36. Being treated with warmth and consideration by others only when one behaves as expected, is called as ___________.

(A)  openness to experience

(B)  conditional positive regard

(C)  unconditional positive regard

(D)  zone of proximal development

37. Which of the following is/are NOT the factor(s) of the Big Five Personality model?

(A)  Conscientiousness

(B)  Optimism

(C)  Humility

(D)  Extraversion

38. Which of the following is/are TRUE for creative individuals?

(A)  They are not very good at mental imagery

(B)  They are not afraid to be different

(C)  They do not value their independence

(D)  They are unconventional in their work

39. Which of the following is/are included under behavioural genetics studies in humans?

(A)  Selective breeding studies

(B)  Family studies

(C)  Twin studies

40. Which of the following statements regarding locus of control is/are CORRECT?

(A)  It can be internal and/or external

(B)  It is associated with self-esteem

(C)  Internal locus of control is positively correlated with success

(D)  Regret has no association with locus of control

41. Which of the following is/are TRUE for nonparametric statistics?

(A)  It is often called distribution free statitstics

(B)  It is used to analyze interval data

(C)  It is used to analyze ordinal data

(D)  It compares groups in terms of means

42. According to the review of research on stress and immune system, which of the following statement(s) has/have substantial evidence?

(A)  There is a negative relationship between stress and functional immune measures

(B)  There is no measurable impact of stress on functional immune measures

(C)  Loneliness impacts the relationship between stress and functional immune measures

(D)  There is a positive relationship between long term stressors and functional immune measures

43. Which of the following influence(s) gender dysphoria?

(A)  Prenatal factors

(B)  Early childhood experiences

(C)  Socialization

(D)  Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder

44. If the variance of a set of scores is 100, the standard deviation is ________ (in integer).

XH-C5: Q.45– Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

45. Match the structures of the brain in the first column with their respective functions in the second column of the table given below.

(A)  P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(ii)

(B)  P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(iii)

(C)  P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i)

(D)  P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)

46. Which one of the following is established by the replication of research studies?

(A)  Validity of the results

(B)  Reliability of the results

(C)  Interaction effect

(D)  Mediation effect

47. Match the theory/law in the first column with the corresponding explanation in the second column of the table given below.

(A)  P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii)

(B)  P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i)

(C)  P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(iii)

(D)  P-(iii), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(i)

48. Match the sleep disorders in the first column with the symptoms in the second column of the table given below.

(A)  P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii)

(B)  P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(iii)

(C)  P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iii), S-(iv)

(D)  P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)

49. __________ explains aging as a process of mutual withdrawal of individual and society, whereas _________ assumes positive correlation between activity and successful aging.

(A)  Decay theory, Engagement theory

(B)  Balance theory, Engagement theory

(C)  Disengagement theory, Activity theory

(D)  Withdrawal theory, Activity theory

50. Match the biases/effects in the first column with the descriptions in the second column of the table given below.

(A)  P-(i), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(iv)

(B)  P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(ii)

(C)  P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i)

(D)  P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(iii)

51. Match the theories in the first column with the central themes in the second column of the table given below.

(A)  P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(iii)

(B)  P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(iii), S-(ii)

(C)  P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(iii)

(D)  P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(iv)

52. Which one of the following would resolve the basic dilemma of the social psychologist?

(A)  Conducting carefully designed experiments with high internal validity

(B)  By replicating experiments and conducting some new experiments that have internal validity and others that have external validity

(C)  Conducting research exclusively in the field

(D)  Conducting applied rather than basic research

53. Match the research methods in the first column with their purposes in the second column of the table given below.

(A)  P-(i), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(iv)

(B)  P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(iv), S-(i)

(C)  P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(iii)

(D)  P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii)

54. Which one of the following statements is TRUE according to Brehm’s reactance theory?

(A)  A mild sign prohibitting spitting would be more effective in preventing spitting than a strong sign

(B)  A strong sign would be more effective in preventing spitting than a mild one

(C)  Absence of any sign would be most effective in preventing spitting

(D)  Signs are irrelevant to spitting behaviour

55. According to the overjustifcation effect, which one of the following consequences would be TRUE for students who freely choose to study psychology, if marks are given for attendance?

(A)  Increased interest of students in the subject

(B)  Decreased interest of students in the subject

(C)  No effect on the interest of students in the subject

(D)  Increased interest in other social science subjects

56. Large rewards and severe punishments are examples of __________ justification for behaviour and result in _________ changes in attitude.

(A)  internal; big

(B)  external; big

(C)  internal; small

(D)  external; small

57. Which of the following therapies is/are based on classical conditioning?

(A)  Systematic desensitization

(B)  Aversion therapy

(C)  Cognitive behaviour therapy

(D)  Rational emotive behaviour therapy

58. Which of the following characterize(s) Wernicke’s aphasia?

(A)  Inability to comprehend spoken words

(B)  Inability to understand the meaning of words

(C)  Inability to speak grammatically correct language

(D)  Inability to write and understand the symbols that represent speech sounds

59. Which of the following is/are the component(s) of Theory of Mind?

(A)  Understanding that people can have false beliefs

(B)  Distinguishing faces and smells

(C)  Recognizing that others have mental states

(D)  Having a vast vocabulary to express one’s thoughts

60. Which of the following would NOT be effective in minimizing groupthink?

(A)  The leader being impartial to all ideas no matter what they are

(B)  The leader reminding the team that everyone will be held responsible for the decision of the group

(C)  The leader taking all decisions on behalf of the group

(D)  The leader arriving at a consensus quickly

61. Which of the following describe(s) the standard error of the mean?

(A)  It is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of the mean

(B)  It reflects the accuracy with which sample means estimate the population mean

(C)  It is the difference between mean and standard deviation of a distribution

(D)  It is the standard deviation of a stratified sample

62. Which of the following describe(s) organizational commitment?

(A)  A strong desire to remain a member of the organization

(B)  Willingness to exert high level of effort on behalf of the organization

(C)  A definite belief in and acceptance of values and goals of the organization

(D)  High turnover intention of the employees of the organization

63. Prejudice is supported by the human tendency to categorize into in-groups and out-groups. Prejudice is supported by which of the following processes?

(A)  The way we think about others

(B)  The way we assign meaning to others behaviour

(C)  By following intellectual pursuits

(D)  By working towards a common goal

64. Which of the following is/are feature(s) of clinical phobia?

(A)  The fear must be persistent

(B)  The fear must be a source of significant distress

(C)  The fear is rational

(D)  The fear is usually perceived as unwarranted

65. The value of F calculated from the data given in the table below is ________ (rounded off to one decimal place).

XH : Humanities & Social Sciences

General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. Rafi told Mary, “I am thinking of watching a film this weekend.”

The following reports the above statement in indirect speech:

Rafi told Mary that he _______ of watching a film that weekend.

(A)  thought

(B)  is thinking

(C)  am thinking

(D)  was thinking

2. Permit : _______ : : Enforce : Relax

(By word meaning)

(A)  Allow

(B)  Forbid

(D)  Reinforce

3. Given a fair six-faced dice where the faces are labelled ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’, ‘4’, ‘5’, and ‘6’, what is the probability of getting a ‘1’ on the first roll of the dice and a ‘4’ on the second roll?

(A)  1/36

(B)  1/6

(C)  5/6

(D)  1/3

4. A recent survey shows that 65% of tobacco users were advised to stop consuming tobacco. The survey also shows that 3 out of 10 tobacco users attempted to stop using tobacco.

Based only on the information in the above passage, which one of the following options can be logically inferred with certainty?

(A)  A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco made an attempt to do so.

(B)  A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco did not attempt to do so.

(C)  Approximately 30% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.

(D)  Approximately 65% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.

5. How many triangles are present in the given figure?

(A)  12

(B)  16

(C)  20

(D)  24

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

6. Students of all the departments of a college who have successfully completed the registration process are eligible to vote in the upcoming college elections. However, by the time the due date for registration was over, it was found that suprisingly none of the students from the Department of Human Sciences had completed the registration process.

Based only on the information provided above, which one of the following sets of statement(s) can be logically inferred with certainty?

(i) All those students who would not be eligible to vote in the college elections would certainly belong to the Department of Human Sciences.

(ii) None of the students from departments other than Human Sciences failed to complete the registration process within the due time.

(iii) All the eligible voters would certainly be students who are not from the Department of Human Sciences.

(A)  (i) and (ii)

(B)  (i) and (iii)

(C)  only (i)

(D)  only (iii)

7. Which one of the following options represents the given graph?

(A)  f(x) = x22|x|

(B)  f(x) = x 2|x|

(C)  f(x) = |x|2x

(D)  f(x) = x2x

8. Which one of the options does NOT describe the passage below or follow from it?

We tend to think of cancer as a ‘modern’ illness because its metaphors are so modern. It is a disease of overproduction, of sudden growth, a growth that is unstoppable, tipped into the abyss of no control. Modern cell biology encourages us to imagine the cell as a molecular machine. Cancer is that machine unable to quench its intial command (to grow) and thus transform into an indestructible, self-propelled automaton.

(A)  It is a reflection of why cancer seems so modern to most of us.

(B)  It tells us that modern cell biology uses and promotes metaphors of machinery.

(C)  Modern cell biology encourages metaphors of machinery, and cancer is often imagined as a machine.

(D)  Modern cell biology never uses figurative language, such as metaphors, to describe or explain anything.

9. The digit in the unit’s place of the product 3999 × 71000 is ________.

(A)  7

(B)  1

(C)  3

(D)  9

10. A square with sides of length 6 cm is given. The boundary of the shaded region is defined by two semi-circles whose diameters are the sides of the square, as shown.

The area of the shaded region is _______ cm2.

(A)  6π

(B)  18

(C)  20

(D)  9π

Reasoning and Comprehension (XH-B1)

XH-B1: Q.11 – Q.17 Carry ONE mark Each

11. Which word below best describes the idea of being both Spineless and Cowardly?

(A)  Pusillanimous

(B)  Unctuous

(C)  Obsequious

(D)  Reticent

12. Choose the right preposition to fill up the blank:

The whole family got together ___ Diwali

(A)  of

(B)  at

(C)  in

(D)  till

13. Select the correct option to fill in all the blanks to complete the passage:

The (i) _______ factor amid this turbulence has been the (ii) ________ of high-octane, action-oriented films such as RRR, K.G.F: Chapter 2 and Pushpa from film industries in the south of the country. Traditionally, films made in the south have done well in their own (iii) _________. But increasingly, their dubbed versions have performed well in the Hindi heartland, with collections (iv) ________ those of their Bollywood counterparts.

(A)  (i) disheartening (ii) failure (iii) channels (iv) matching

(B)  (i) redeeming (ii) outperformance (iii) geographies (iv) eclipsing

(C)  (i) shocking (ii) underperformance (iii) cinemas (iv) below

(D)  (i) humbling (ii) bombing (iii) theatres (iv) falling behind

14. The following passage consists of 6 sentences. The first and sixth sentences of the passage are at their correct positions, while the middle four sentences (represented by 2, 3, 4, and 5) are jumbled up.

Choose the correct sequence of the sentences so that they form a coherent paragraph:

(1) Most obviously, mobility is taken to be a geographical as well as a social phenomenon.

(2) Much of the social mobility literature regarded society as a uniform surface and failed to register the geographical intersections of region, city and place, with the social categories of class, gender and ethnicity.

(3) The existing sociology of migration is incidentally far too limited in its concerns to be very useful here.

(4) Further, I am concerned with the flows of people within, but especially beyond, the territory of each society, and how these flows may relate to many different desires, for work, housing, leisure, religion, family relationships, criminal gain, asylum seeking and so on.

(5) Moreover, not only people are mobile but so too are many ‘objects’.

(6) I show that sociology’s recent development of a ‘sociology of objects’ needs to be taken further and that the diverse flows of objects across societal borders and their intersections with the multiple flows of people are hugely significant.

(A)  3, 2, 5, 4

(B)  2, 3, 4, 5

(C)  5, 4, 3, 2

(D)  4, 2, 5, 3

15. The population of a country increased by 5% from 2020 to 2021. Then, the population decreased by 5% from 2021 to 2022. By what percentage did the population change from 2020 to 2022?

(A)  -0.25%

(B)  0%

(C)  2.5%

(D)  10.25%

16. The words Thin: Slim: Slender are related in some way. Identify the correct option(s) that reflect(s) the same relationship:

(A)  Fat: Plump: Voluptuous

(B)  Short: Small: Petite

(C)  Tall: Taller: Tallest

(D)  Fair: Dark: Wheatish

17. A pandemic like situation hit the country last year, resulting in loss of human life and economic depression. To improve the condition of its citizens, the government made a series of emergency medical interventions and increased spending to revive the economy. In both these efforts, district administration authorities were actively involved.

Which of the following action(s) are plausible?

(A)  In future, the government can make district administration authorities responsible for protecting health of citizens and reviving the economy.

(B)  The government may set up a task force to review the post pandemic situation and ascertain the effectiveness of the measures taken.

(C)  The government may set up a committee to formulate a pandemic management program to minimize losses to life and economy in future.

(D)  The government may take population control measures to minimize pandemic related losses in future.

XH-B1: Q.18 – Q.26 Carry TWO marks Each

18. Six students, Arif, Balwinder, Chintu, David, Emon and Fulmoni appeared in the GATE-XH exam in 2022. Balwinder scores less than Chintu in XH-B1, but more than Arif in XH-C1. David scores more than Balwinder in XH-C1, and more than Chintu in XH-B1. Emon scores less than David, but more than Fulmoni in XH-B1. Fulmoni scores more than David in XH-C1. Arif scores less than Emon, but more than Fulmoni in XH-B1. Who scores highest in XH-B1?

(A)  Fulmoni

(B)  Emon

(C)  David

(D)  Chintu

19. Select the correct relation between E and F.

(A)  E > F

(B)  E < F

(C)  E = F

(D)  E < -F

20. A code language is formulated thus:

Vowels in the original word are replaced by the next vowel from the list of vowels, A-E-I-O-U (For example, E is replaced by I and U is replaced by A). Consonants in the original word are replaced by previous consonant (For example, T is replaced by S and V is replaced by T).

Then how does the word, GOODMORNING appear in the coded language?

(A)  HUUFNUSPOPH

(B)  FIICLIQMEMF

(C)  FUUCLUQMOMF

(D)  HEEDATTACRH

21. The stranger is by nature no “owner of soil” — soil not only in the physical, but also in the figurative sense of a life-substance, which is fixed, if not in a point in space, at least in an ideal point of the social environment. Although in more intimate relations, he may develop all kinds of charm and significance, as long as he is considered a stranger in the eyes of the other, he is not an “owner of soil.” Restriction to intermediary trade, and often (as though sublimated from it) to pure finance, gives him the specific character of mobility. If mobility takes place within a closed group, it embodies that synthesis of nearness and distance which constitutes the formal position of the stranger. For, the fundamentally mobile person comes in contact, at one time or another, with every individual, but is not organically connected, through established ties of kinship, locality, and occupation, with any single one.

What assumptions can be made about the stranger from the passage above?

(A)  The stranger can become an owner of soil through developing all kinds of charm in more intimate relations.

(B)  The stranger cannot become an owner of soil either in the physical or psychological sense.

(C)  The stranger can become an owner of soil through establishing ties of kinship and so on.

(D)  The stranger might become an owner of soil in the physical sense but not in the psychological

22. L is the only son of A and S. S has one sibling, B, who is married to L’s aunt, K. B is the only son of D. How are L and D related?

Select the possible option(s):

(A)  Grandchild and Paternal Grandfather

(B)  Grandchild and Maternal Grandfather

(C)  Grandchild and Paternal Grandmother

(D)  Grandchild and Maternal Grandmother

23. Five segments of a sentence are given below. The first and fifth segments are at their correct positions, while the middle three segments (represented by 2, 3, and 4) are jumbled up. Choose the correct order of the segments so that they form a coherent sentence:

(1) Consumed multitudes are jostling and shoving inside me

(2) and guided only by the memory of a large white bedsheet with a roughly circular hole some seven inches in diameter cut into the center,

(3) clutching at the dream of that holey, mutilated square of linen, which is my talisman, my open-sesame,

(4) I must commence the business of remaking my life from the point at which it really began,

(5) some thirty-two years before anything as obvious, as present, as my clock-ridden, crime-stained birth.

(A)  2 – 3 – 4

(B)  3 – 2– 4

(C)  4 – 2– 3

(D)  4 – 3 – 2

24. “I told you the truth,” I say yet again, “Memory’s truth, because memory has its own special kind. It selects, eliminates, alters, exaggerates, minimizes, glorifies, and vilifies also; but in the end it creates its own reality, its heterogeneous but usually coherent versions of events; and no sane human being ever trusts someone else’s version more than his own.”

What are the different ways in which ‘truth’ can be understood from the passage?

(A)  Truth is what can be verified by hard empirical evidence.

(B)  Truth is based on what can be perceived by the senses.

(C)  Truth is the product of memory that is fallible, selective and slanted.

(D)  Truth is contingent on the observer and can only be partial.

25. A firm needs both skilled labour and unskilled labour for the production of cloth. The wage of skilled labour is Rs. 40,000 per month, and that of unskilled labour is Rs. 15,000 per month. The total wage bill of the firm for the production of cloth is Rs. 23,75,000 in a month for 100 labour. How many skilled labour are employed by the firm (in Integer)?

26. Select the odd word and write the option number as answer:

(1) Lek (2) Zloty (3) Diner (4) Drachma (5) Real

Sociology – C6

XH-C6: Q.27 – Q.44 Carry ONE mark Each

27. ___________ has given the concept of ‘thick description’.

(A)  Emile Durkheim

(B)  Clifford Geertz

(C)  Louis Dumont

(D)  Talcott Parsons

28. Objectivity in social science research as a matter of transpersonal replicability entails ____________.

(A)  Merciless elimination of personal biases

(B)  Allocation of costs and benefits to parties be made on normative standards

(C)  Basic honesty in application of professional norms of research

(D)  Reproducibility of findings of research under similar conditions and methods

29. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of hypothesis?

(A)  A shrewd hunch suggestive of a possible solution to a problem

(B)  A causal relationship between two/more variables

(C)  An empirical conclusion foregone

(D)  A theoretically derived statement that denies refutability

30. ___________ theory most appropriately describes a hierarchy of wealthy ‘core’ nations, poor ‘periphery’ nations, and a middle group of ‘semi-periphery’ nations.

(A)  Globalization

(B)  Stages of growth

(C)  World systems

(D)  Limits to growth

31. In Hindu society, marriage of a widow to the husband’s brother is referred to as __________.

(A)  Polygyny

(B)  Endogamy

(C)  Levirate

(D)  Polyandry

32. Because of Covid-19 lockdown, a large number of working-class people lost their jobs. Rising price of commodities has also worsened their economic conditions. ___________ concept of Karl Marx most appropriately describes this ‘increasing impoverishment’ of the poor in contemporary times.

(A)  Alienation

(B)  Commodity fetishism

(C)  Pauperization

(D)  Embourgeoisement

33. ___________ coined the term, ‘ethnocentrism’.

(B)  Bronislaw Malinowski

(C)  W.G. Sumner

(D)  Harold Garfinkel

34. Supremacy of science over non-sciences is attributed to ___________.

(A)  Postcolonialism

(B)  Neo-Kantianism

(C)  Positivism

(D)  Verstehen

35. Communism, universalism, disinterestedness and ______________ constitute Mertonian ethos of science.

(A)  Organized skepticism

(B)  Organized dogmatism

(C)  Objectivity

(D)  Neutrality

36. ____________theory postulates that developing economies would eventually catch up with the developed economies if they follow the social and economic models of Western capitalism.

(A)  Postmodern

(B)  Subaltern

(C)  Marxist

(D)  Modernization

37. ____________ approach was NOT propounded by B.S. Cohn as one of the approaches to study Indian civilization.

(B)  Missionary

(C)  Orientalist

(D)  Historiographical

38. If standard deviation is 0.3, then its corresponding variance would be _________.

(A)  0.9

(B)  0.03

(C)  0.09

(D)  0.3

39. Under __________ land tenurial system during the British rule in India, the individual cultivator/peasant had some ownership right over land holding.

(A)  Zamindari

(B)  Ryotwari

(C)  Mahalwari

(D)  Talukdari

40. ____________ introduced the concept of ‘reconstructive science’.

(A)  J. Habermas

(B)  A. Giddens

(C)  P. Bourdieu

(D)  M. Foucault

41. _____________ theory lies between minor working hypotheses and master conceptual schemes.

(A)  Middle-range

(B)  Social action

(C)  Conflict

(D)  Symbolic interactionist

42. __________ is NOT a characteristic feature of M.N. Srinivas’s concept of ‘dominant caste’.

(A)  Numerical strength

(B)  Economic power through possession of land

(C)  Political power

(D)  Membership in militant organizations

43. Max Weber’s instrumental rationality refers to ___________.

(B)  Emotive action

(C)  Goal-rational action

(D)  Value-rational action

44. The stable pattern of ‘modern men’ formulated by Alex Inkeles does not include __________.

(A)  Openness to new experiences

(C)  Rejection of activities in civil politics

(D)  Belief in science and technology

XH-C6: Q.45 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

45. _____________ refers to the careful consideration of the ways in which researchers’ past experiences, points of view, and roles impact these same researchers’ interactions with, and interpretations of, the research scene.

(A)  Self-reflexivity

(B)  Social interactionism

(C)  Objectivity

(D)  Participant action research

46. __________ introduced the concept of __________ to refer to situations in which people accept, consent to, internalize, and are complicit in reproducing values and norms that are not in their own best interests.

(A)  K. Marx, alienation

(B)  M. Foucault, governmentality

(C)  A. Gramsci, hegemony

(D)  R. Putnam, social capital

47. ___________ is the process by which researchers begin by identifying several participants who fit the study’s criteria and then ask these people to suggest a colleague, a friend, or a family member who also fits the study’s criteria.

(A)  Random sampling

(B)  Stratified random sampling

(C)  Purposive sampling

(D)  Snowball sampling

48. Match the following sociologists as given in Column P with their views on religion as given in Column Q.

(A)  A-I, B-II, C-V, D-III

(B)  A-I, B-III, C-V, D-II

(C)  A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-V

(D)  A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

49. There are four forms of triangulation, namely data triangulation, __________, theory triangulation and _____________.

(A)  Field triangulation, methodological triangulation

(B)  Investigator triangulation, methodological triangulation

(C)  Investigator triangulation, interviewee triangulation

(D)  Investigator triangulation, epistemological triangulation

50. ____________ is the process by which groups seek to preserve some advantage by monopolizing resources and restricting access to the group.

(A)  Social action

(B)  Social construction

(C)  Social closure

(D)  Social conflict

51. Correlation coefficient lies between __________ and __________, and probability lies between _________ and __________.

(A)  – 1 and 1, 0 and 1

(B)  0 and 1, – 1 and 1

(C)  – 0.5 and 1.5, 0 and 1

(D)  – 1 and 1, – 0.5 and 1.5

52. Match the following concepts as given in Column P with the Sociologists as given in Column Q:

(A)  A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(B)  A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(C)  A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

(D)  A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

53. Match the following approaches and village study as given in Column P with Sociologists as given in Column Q:

(A)  A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(B)  A-II, B-IV, C-III D-I

(C)  A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(D)  A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

54. According to the World Commission on Environment and Development, ‘sustainable development’ refers to ______________.

(A)  Development that meets the needs of the present

(B)  Development that meets the needs of the future

(C)  Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs

(D)  Development that meets the needs of the past

55. According to David Pocock, the Indian Jajmani system reflects ___________.

(A)  Hierarchical collectivity

(B)  Regulated individuality

(C)  Egalitarian collectivity

(D)  Anarchic individuality

56. Which of the following is/are NOT characteristic(s) of class system?

(A)  Class systems are fluid and the boundaries between classes are never clear-cut.

(B)  Class is a form of stratification in which one’s social position is given for a lifetime.

(C)  Class is economically based.

(D)  Class divisions are organized around the purity and pollution.

57. Which of the following concept(s) is/are NOT propounded by Emile Durkheim?

(A)  Collective bargaining

(B)  Collective effervescence

(C)  Cult of the individual

(D)  Charismatic authority

58. The example(s) of relations of production is/are ___________.

(A)  Labour

(B)  Division of labour

(C)  Property relations

(D)  Capitalism

59. While __________ emerges around a charismatic figure, idea or vision, __________ emerges as a breakaway group from a preexisting body of belief, rituals, or believers.

(A)  Cult, Sect

(B)  Sect, Cult

(C)  Totem, Cult

(D)  Religion, Sect

60. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for the Forest Rights Act (2006) of India?

(A)  Forest dwellers’ right of conserving and protecting community forest resources

(B)  Forest dwellers’ right to rehabilitation

(C)  Forest dwellers’ right to settlement from forest villages into revenue villages

(D)  Forest dwellers’ absolute right over all the natural resources within the given forest area

61. The Ethnographic Survey of India as part of the Census 1901 was conducted to __________.

(A)  Mitigate the racial and cultural issues faced by the British

(B)  Make suitable legislations for Indian subjects

(C)  Protect the primitive beliefs and usages of Indians

(D)  Take executive action (welfare and development)

62. ____________ and ___________ propounded conflict theory.

(A)  Talcott Parsons

(B)  Ralf Dahrendorf

(C)  Lewis A. Coser

(D)  Jeffrey C. Alexander

63. Which of the following is/are NOT aspect(s) of secularization process?

(A)  Privatization of religion

(B)  Rising level of membership of religious organizations

(C)  Loss of social and political influence of religious organizations

(D)  Belief in magic and supernatural forces

64. Which of the following pair(s) is/are correct?

M1: Michel Foucault M2: Pierre Bourdieu M3: John Urry

X1: Archaeology of Knowledge X2: Sociological Imagination X3: Practice Theory

(A)  M1 – X1

(B)  M2 – X2

(C)  M3 – X2

(D)  M2 – X3

65. Which of the following statement(s) is/are INCORRECT?

(A)  Hypergamy is a form of marriage where bride’s family is of superior status to the groom’s family

(B)  Hypogamy is a form of marriage where groom’s family is of superior status to the bride’s family

(C)  Exogamy refers to marriage outside the caste or sub-caste group

(D)  Polygynandry refers to marriage of several men to several women at the same time

## GATE Exam 2023 Engineering Sciences (XE) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE-2023

XE: Engineering Science

General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. The village was nestled in a green spot, _______ the ocean and the hills.

(A)   through

(B)   in

(C)   at

(D)   between

2. Disagree : Protest : : Agree : _______

(By word meaning)

(A)   Refuse

(B)   Pretext

(C)   Recommend

(D)   Refute

3. A ‘frabjous’ number is defined as a 3 digit number with all digits odd, and no two adjacent digits being the same. For example, 137 is a frabjous number, while 133 is not. How many such frabjous numbers exist?

(A)   125

(B)   720

(C)   60

(D)   80

4. Which one among the following statements must be TRUE about the mean and the median of the scores of all candidates appearing for GATE 2023?

(A)   The median is at least as large as the mean.

(B)   The mean is at least as large as the median.

(C)   At most half the candidates have a score that is larger than the median.

(D)   At most half the candidates have a score that is larger than the mean.

5. In the given diagram, ovals are marked at different heights (h) of a hill. Which one of the following options P, Q, R, and S depicts the top view of the hill?

(A)   P

(B)   Q

(C)   R

(D)   S

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

6. Residency is a famous housing complex with many well-established individuals among its residents. A recent survey conducted among the residents of the complex revealed that all of those residents who are well established in their respective fields happen to be academicians. The survey also revealed that most of these academicians are authors of some best-selling books.

Based only on the information provided above, which one of the following statements can be logically inferred with certainty?

(A)   Some residents of the complex who are well established in their fields are also authors of some best-selling books.

(B)   All academicians residing in the complex are well established in their fields.

(C)   Some authors of best-selling books are residents of the complex who are well established in their fields.

(D)   Some academicians residing in the complex are well established in their fields.

7. Ankita has to climb 5 stairs starting at the ground, while respecting the following rules:

(1) At any stage, Ankita can move either one or two stairs up.

(2) At any stage, Ankita cannot move to a lower step.

Let F(N) denote the number of possible ways in which Ankita can reach the 𝑁𝑡ℎ stair. For example, F(1) = 1, F(2) = 2, F(3) = 3.

The value of F(5) is _______.

(A)   8

(B)   7

(C)   6

(D)   5

8. The information contained in DNA is used to synthesize proteins that are necessary for the functioning of life. DNA is composed of four nucleotides: Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Cytosine (C), and Guanine (G). The information contained in DNA can then be thought of as a sequence of these four nucleotides: A, T, C, and G. DNA has coding and non-coding regions. Coding regions—where the sequence of these nucleotides are read in groups of three to produce individual amino acids—constitute only about 2% of human DNA. For example, the triplet of nucleotides CCG codes for the amino acid glycine, while the triplet GGA codes for the amino acid proline. Multiple amino acids are then assembled to form a protein.

Based only on the information provided above, which of the following statements can be logically inferred with certainty?

(i) The majority of human DNA has no role in the synthesis of proteins.

(ii) The function of about 98% of human DNA is not understood.

(A)   only (i)

(B)   only (ii)

(C)   both (i) and (ii)

(D)   neither (i) nor (ii)

9. Which one of the given figures P, Q, R and S represents the graph of the following function?

f(x) = | |x + 2| − |x – 1| |

(A)   P

(B)   Q

(C)   R

(D)   S

10. An opaque cylinder (shown below) is suspended in the path of a parallel beam of light, such that its shadow is cast on a screen oriented perpendicular to the direction of the light beam. The cylinder can be reoriented in any direction within the light beam. Under these conditions, which one of the shadows P, Q, R, and S is NOT possible?

(A)   P

(B)   Q

(C)   R

(D)   S

XE: Engineering Science

Engineering Mathematics: XE-A (Compulsory)

XE-A: Q.11 – Q.17 Carry ONE mark Each

11. Let A be a 3 × 3 real matrix having eigenvalues 1,2, and 3. If B = A2 + 2A + I, where I is the 3 × 3 identity matrix, then the eigenvalues of B are

(A)   4, 9, 16

(B)   1, 2, 3

(C)   1, 4, 9

(D)   4, 16, 25

12. Let f : ℝ2 → ℝ be a function defined by

Then which one of the following statement is TRUE?

(A)   f is NOT continuous at (0, 0)

(B)

(C)

(D)

is exact for all polynomials of degree less than or equal to 2, then

14. The second smallest eigenvalue of the eigenvalue problem  y(0) = y(π) = 0, is

(A)   4

(B)   3

(C)   7

(D)   9

15. Which one of the following functions is differentiable at 𝑧=0 but NOT differentiable at any other point in the complex plane ℂ?

(A)   f(z) = z|z|, z ∈ ℂ

(B)   f(z) = sin(z), z ∈ ℂ

(C)   for z ∈ ℂ

(D)

16. If the polynomial

P(x) = a0 + a1x + a2x(x – 1) + a3x(x – 1) (x – 2)

interpolates the points (0, 2), (1, 3), (2, 2), and (3,5), then the value of P(5/2) is ______ (round off to 2 decimal places).

17. The value of m for which the vector field

is a conservative vector field, is ___________ (in integer).

XE-A: Q.18 – Q.21 Carry TWO marks Each

18. Let  and

The eigenvalues of both P and Q are 1,1, and 2. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

(A)   Both P and Q are diagonalizable

(B)   P is diagonalizable but Q is NOT diagonalizable

(C)   P is NOT diagonalizable but Q is diagonalizable

(D)   Both P and Q are NOT diagonalizable

19. The surface area of the portion of the paraboloid

z = x2 + y2

that lies between the planes z = 0 and z = 1/4 is

20. The probability of a person telling the truth is 4/6. An unbiased die is thrown by the same person twice and the person reports that the numbers appeared in both the throws are same. Then the probability that actually the numbers appeared in both the throws are same is __________ (round off to 2 decimal places).

21. Let u (x, t) be the solution of the initial boundary value problem

u(x, 0) = sin (πx), x ∈ (0, 2)

u(0, t) = u(2, t) = 0.

Then the value of  is ________ (in integer).

Fluid Mechanics (XE-B)

XE-B: Q.22 – Q.30 Carry ONE mark Each

22. Match the following measuring instruments with the appropriate figures.

I – Pitot probe

II – Pitot-static probe

III – Piezometer

(A)   I – P; II – Q; III – R

(B)   I – R; II – Q; III – P

(C)   I – R; II – P; III – Q

(D)   I – Q; II – P; III – R

23. Among the following non-dimensional numbers, which one characterizes periodicity present in a transient flow?

(A)   Froude number

(B)   Strouhal number

(C)   Peclet number

(D)   Lewis number

24. For an incompressible boundary layer flow over a flat plate shown in the figure, the momentum thickness is expressed as

25. Among the shear stress versus shear strain rate curves shown in the figure, which one corresponds to a shear thinning fluid?

(A)   P

(B)   Q

(C)   R

(D)   S

26. Consider steady incompressible flow over a flat plate, where the dashed line represents the edge of the boundary layer, as shown in the figure. Which one among the following statements is true?

(A)   Bernoulli’s equation can be applied in Region I between any two arbitrary points.

(B)   Bernoulli’s equation can be applied in Region I only along a streamline.

(C)   Bernoulli’s equation cannot be applied in Region II.

(D)   Bernoulli’s equation cannot be applied in Region I.

27. An inviscid steady incompressible flow is formed by combining a uniform flow with velocity U and a clockwise vortex of strength K at the origin, as shown in the figure. Velocity potential (ϕ) for the combined flow in polar coordinate (r, θ) is

(A)

(B)

(C)   ϕ = K ln r + Ur cos θ

(D)   ϕ = −K ln r + Ur sin θ

28. Which of the following statements are true?

(i) Conservation of mass for an unsteady incompressible flow can be represented as   denotes velocity vector.

(ii) Circulation is defined as the line integral of vorticity about a closed curve.

(iii) For some fluids, shear stress can be a nonlinear function of the shear strain rate.

(iv) Integration of the Bernoulli’s equation along a streamline under steady-state leads to the Euler’s equation.

(A)   (i), (ii) and (iv) only

(B)   (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(C)   (i) and (iii) only

(D)   (ii) and (iv) only

29. For a two-dimensional flow field given as  a streamline passes through points (2, 1) and (5, p). The value of p is

(A)   5

(B)   5/2

(C)   2/5

(D)   2

30. A stationary object is fully submerged in a static fluid, as shown in the figure. Here, CG and CB stand for center of gravity and center of buoyancy, respectively. Which one(s) among the following statements is/are true?

(A)   The object is in stable equilibrium if yCG > yCB.

(B)   The object is in stable equilibrium if yCG < yCB.

(C)   The object is in neutral equilibrium if yCG = yCB.

(D)   The object is in unstable equilibrium if yCG > yCB.

XE-B: Q.31 – Q.43 Carry TWO marks Each

31. Consider steady fully-developed incompressible flow of a Newtonian fluid between two infinite parallel flat plates. The plates move in the opposite directions, as shown in the figure. In the absence of body force and pressure gradient, the ratio of shear stress at the top surface (y = H) to that at the bottom surface (y = 0) is

(A)   1

(B)   U1/U2

(C)   U1 – U2/U2

(D)   U1 + U2­/U2

32. A two-dimensional incompressible flow field is defined as,

where, A and B are constants. The dynamic viscosity of the Newtonian fluid is μ. In the absence of body force, which among the following expressions represents the pressure gradient at the location (5, 0) in the concerned flow field?

33. For a potential flow, the fluid velocity is given by  The slope of t he potential line at (x, y) is

(A)   u/v

(B)   v/u

(C)   −u/v

(D)   −v/u

34. Consider steady incompressible flow of a Newtonian fluid over a horizontal flat plate, as shown in the figure. The boundary layer thickness is proportional to

(A)   x1/4

(B)   x1/2

(C)   x1/2

(D)   x2

35. In a steady two-dimensional compressible flow, u and v are the x- and y-components of flow velocity, respectively and ρ is the fluid density. Among the following pairs of relations, which one(s) perfectly satisfies/satisfy the definition of stream function, ψ, for this flow?

36. A water jet (density = 1000 kg/m3) is approaching a vertical plate, having an orifice at the center, as shown in the figure. While a part of the jet passes through the orifice, remainder flows along the plate. Neglect friction and assume both the inlet and exit jets to have circular cross-sections. If V = 5 m/s, 𝐷 = 100 mm and d = 25 mm, magnitude of the horizontal force (in N, rounded off to one decimal place) required to hold the plate in its position is ___________.

37. Water (density =1000 kg/m3) and alcohol (specific gravity = 0.7) enter a Y-shaped channel at flow rates of 0.2 m3/s and 0.3 m3/s, respectively. Their mixture leaves through the other end of the channel, as shown in the figure. The average density (in kg/m3) of the mixture is _______.

38. The velocity and acceleration of a fluid particle are given as  and   The magnitude of the component of acceleration (in m/s2, rounded off to two decimal places) of the fluid particle along the streamline is _______.

39. A hydraulic turbine with rotor diameter of 100 mm produces 200 W of power while rotating at 300 rpm. Another dynamically-similar turbine rotates at a speed of 1500 rpm. Consider both turbines to operate with the same fluid (identical density and viscosity), and neglect any gravitational effect. Then the power (in W, rounded off to nearest integer) produced by the second turbine is ___________.

40. Water (density = 1000 kg/m3) flows steadily with a flow rate of 0.05 m3/s through a venturimeter having throat diameter of 100 mm. If the pipe diameter is 200 mm and losses are negligible, the pressure drop (in kPa, rounded off to one decimal place) between an upstream location in the pipe and the throat (both at the same elevation) is _______.

41. Water flows around a thin flat plate (0.25 m long, 2 m wide) with a free stream velocity (U) of 1 m/s, as shown in the figure. Consider linear velocity profile  for which the laminar boundary layer thickness is expressed as  For water, density = 1000 kg/m3 and dynamic viscosity = 0.001 kg/m.s. Net drag force (in N, rounded off to two decimal places) acting on the plate, neglecting the end effects, is ________.

42. Axial velocity profile u(r) for an axisymmetric flow through a circular tube of radius R is given as,

where U is the centerline velocity. If V refers to the area-averaged velocity (volume flow rate per unit area), then the ratio V/U for n = 1 (rounded off to two decimal places) is ___________.

43. A stationary circular pipe of radius R = 0.5 m is half filled with water (density =1000 kg/m3), whereas the upper half is filled with air at atmospheric pressure, as shown in the figure. Acceleration due to gravity is g = 9.81 m/s2. The magnitude of the force per unit length (in kN/m, rounded off to one decimal place) applied by water on the pipe section AB is _______.

Material Science (XE-C)

XE-C: Q.44 – Q.52 Carry ONE mark Each

44. In age-hardening of an aluminium alloy, the purpose of solution treatment followed by quenching is to

(A)   form martensitic structure

(B)   increase the size of the precipitates

(C)   form supersaturated solid solution

(D)   form precipitates at the grain boundaries

45. The magnetization (M) – magnetic field (H) curves for four different materials are given below. Which one of these materials is most suitable for use as a permanent magnet?

46. The band gap of a semiconducting material is ~ 2 eV. Which one of the following absorption (A) vs. energy (in eV) curves is correct?

47. Figures (i) and (ii) show a binary phase diagram and the corresponding Gibbs free energy (G) vs. composition (XB) diagram, respectively. Figure (ii) corresponds to which one of the temperatures shown in Figure (i)?

(A)   T1

(B)   T2

(C)   T3

(D)   T4

48. Aliovalent doping of MgCl2 in NaCl leads to the formation of defects. Which one of the following is the correct defect reaction?

49. A screw dislocation in a FCC crystal has Burgers vector of  where a is the lattice constant. The possible slip plane(s) is/are:

50. The tensile true stress (σ) – true strain (ϵ) curve follows the Hollomon equation:

σ = 500ϵ0.15 MPa

At the maximum load, the work-hardening rate (dσ/dϵ) is (in MPa): _________ (rounded off to nearest integer)

51. A metal has a certain vacancy fraction at a temperature of 600 K. On increasing the temperature to 900 K, the vacancy fraction increases by a factor of ____________ (rounded off to one decimal place)

Given: Gas constant, R=8.31 J mol−1K−1 and activation energy for vacancy formation, Q =68 kJ mol−1

52. In a semiconductor, the ratio of electronic mobility to hole mobility is 10. The density of electrons and holes are 1015 m−3 and 1016 m−3, respectively. If the conductivity of the material is 1.6 Ω−1 m−1, then the mobility of holes is (in m2V−1s−1) : ____________ (rounded off to nearest integer)

Given: Charge of an electron: 1.6 × 10−19 C

XH-C: Q.53 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

53. A student performed X-ray diffraction experiment on a FCC polycrystalline pure metal. The following sin2θ values were calculated from the diffraction peaks.

sin2 θ = 0.136, 0.185, 0.504, 0.544

However, the student was negligent and missed noting one of the peaks. Which one of the following Miller indices corresponds to the missing peak?

(A)   (200)

(B)   (220)

(C)   (311)

(D)   (222)

54. Match the lattice planes and directions (in Column I) with the corresponding Miller indices (in Column II):

(A)   P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(B)   P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(C)   P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1

(D)   P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1