IBPS-RRBS Officer (Pre.) Exam-2017 Held on 16-9-2017 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper With Answer Key
IBPS-RRBS Officer (Pre.) Exam-2017 Held on 16-9-2017
Quantitative Aptitude
1. A mixture of milk and water in a jar comprises 12 litre of milk. If 5 litre of pure milk and 3 litre of pure water were added to this jar, the percentage of water in the new mixture would be 20%. What was the initial quantity of water in the jar? (in litre)
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 6
(E) 1
Answer: (E)
Directions- (Q. 2-6) Refer to the graph and answer the given questions-
2. If in August the number of members who registered for both the clubs together increased by 20% as compared to June, what is the number of members who registered for both the clubs together in August
(A) 1152
(B) 816
(C) 1128
(D) 1056
(E) 1028
Answer: (C)
3. The number of members who registered for Club A in April was what per cent less than that registered in June for the same club?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Answer: (A)
4. A Club B, the number of female members who registered in March was three-fifth of the number of male members who registered in the same month. If the number of female members who registered for Club A in March was 50 more than that registered for Club B in the same month, what was the number of male members who registered for Club A in March?
(A) 140
(B) 130
(C) 110
(D) 100
(E) 120
Answer: (E)
5. What is the respective ratio between the total number of members who registered for both the clubs together in March and that in July?
(A) 9 : 13
(B) 6 : 13
(C) 7 : 17
(D) 9 : 11
(E) 6 : 11
Answer: (D)
6. What is the difference between the total number of members who registered for Club A in May and June together and that registered for Club B in the same months together?
(A) 240
(B) 180
(C) 220
(D) 160
(E) 300
Answer: (B)
7. 8 men can finish a piece of work in 25 days. 15 women can finish the same piece of work in 16 days. 4 men and 8 women started working together and worked for 10 days. After that 6 more men joined them. How many days will they now take to finish the remaining work?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Answer: (D)
Directions- (Q. 8-12) Study the table and answer the given questions-
Number of items sold and percentage of items returned by the customers over the months in two different shops-
8. The total number of items returned by the customers to shop A in August and October together was approximately what per cent more than the total number of items returned by the customers to shop B in September and October together?
(A) 46
(B) 32
(C) 67
(D) 51
(E) 23
Answer: (D)
9. The number of items returned by the customers to shop B in August was what per cent of the number items returned by the customers to that shop in November?
(A) 64
(B) 50
(C) 44
(D) 32
(E) 26
Answer: (B)
10. What was the average number of items which were not returned by the customers to shop B in September, October and November ?
(A) 438
(B) 251
(C) 255
(D) 380
(E) 352
Answer: (D)
11. What is the respective ratio between the number of items not returned by the customers to shop A in October to the number of items returned by the customers to that shop in November?
(A) 15 : 6
(B) 21 : 5
(C) 19 : 7
(D) 11 : 3
(E) 17 : 8
Answer: (D)
12. All the items returned by the customer to shop A in September were found to be defective and the shop received complaints from some of the customers who did not return the items and about 1/12th of those items not returned by the customer were found to be defective. What was the total defective items sold by that shop in that month?
(A) 116
(B) 168
(C) 198
(D) 216
(E) 172
Answer: (A)
13. ?% of (813.97 ×08) – 754.08 + 467.06
(A) 50
(B) 46
(C) 44
(D) 52
(E) 45
Answer: (A)
14. (1356.07 − ?) ÷09 = 2196.11 ÷ 5.92
(A) 367
(B) 335
(C) 294
(D) 258
(E) 274
Answer: (D)
15. ?2 + 142.04 – 21.97×08 = 277.03
(A) 9
(B) 5
(C) 16
(D) 17
(E) 6
Answer: (D)
16.
(A) 29
(B) 43
(C) 48
(D) 50
(E) 25
Answer: (B)
17.
(A) 18
(B) 11
(C) 4
(D) 12
(E) 9
Answer: (C)
18. If 20% of a = b, then b% of 20 is the same as-
(A) 4% of a
(B) 5% of a
(C) 20% of a
(D) 25% of a
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)
Directions- (Q. 19-23) Refer to the pie chart and answer the given question-
19. What is the central angle corresponding to the number of brownies sold by bakery E?
(A) 104°
(B) 108°
(C) 106°
(D) 102°
(E) 105°
Answer: (B)
20. The respective ratio between the number of brownies sold by bakery D and that by bakery F is 2 : 3. If bakery F sold each brownie for Rs 50, what was the amount earned by bakery F?
(A) Rs 3200
(B) Rs 2400
(C) Rs 2000
(D) Rs 2800
(E) Rs 3000
Answer: (B)
21. What is the difference between the average of the number f brownies sold by bakeries A and B and the average of the number of brownies sold by bakeries C and E?
(A) 28
(B) 32
(C) 36
(D) 42
(E) 45
Answer: (B)
22. The respective ratio between the number of chocolate and that of vanilla sold by bakery B is 5 : 3 and the respective ratio between the number of chocolate and that of vanilla brownies sold by bakery C is 3 : 1. What is the total number of chocolate brownies sold by bakeries B and C together? (Bakeries B and C sell only chocolate and vanilla brownies)
(A) 130
(B) 120
(C) 100
(D) 150
(E) 90
Answer: (C)
23. What is the difference between the total number of brownies sold by bakeries A and D together and that sold by bakery E?
(A) 12
(B) 16
(C) 6
(D) 18
(E) 9
Answer: (B)
24. The respective ratio between the present age of A and B is 9 : 10. 8 years ago the respective ratio of 1/7th A’s age that time and 1/4th of B’s age that time was 1 : 2. What will be the respective ratio between A’s age and B’s age 8 years hence?
(A) 17 : 18
(B) 11 : 12
(C) 9 : 11
(D) 9 : 12
(E) 8 : 13
Answer: (B)
25. Area of rectangle is equal to area of the circle whose radius is 21 cm. If the length and breadth of the rectangle are in the ratio 14 : 11 respectively. What is its perimeter?
(A) 142 cm
(B) 140 cm
(C) 132 cm
(D) 150 cm
(E) 155 cm
Answer: (D)
26. A metallic cuboid measuring 12 cm × 9 cm × 2 cm is melted and cast into a cube. Find the length of each edge of the cube-
(A) 5 cm
(B) 6 cm
(C) 2 cm
(D) 8 cm
(E) 10 cm
Answer: (B)
27. A boat can travel 6.4 km downstream in 16 minutes and 9.9 km upstream in 33 minutes. What is the total time taken by the boat to travel 48 km upstream and the same distance downstream together?
(A) 4 hr 40 min
(B) 4 hr
(C) 5 hr
(D) 5 hr 20 min
(E) 6 hr
Answer: (A)
Directions- (Q. 28-32) What will come in place of question-mark (?) in the given number series?
28. 48 63 43 68 38 ?
(A) 76
(B) 73
(C) 79
(D) 66
(E) 75
Answer: (B)
29. 14 16 22 34 54 ?
(A) 76
(B) 84
(C) 86
(D) 75
(E) 95
Answer: (B)
30. 852 285 96 33 12 ?
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 5
(D) 3
(E) 1
Answer: (C)
31. 0.25 4 32 128 256 ?
(A) 264
(B) 256
(C) 234
(D) 274
(E) 284
Answer: (B)
32. 9 4 3 3 4 ?
(A) 11
(B) 7.5
(C) 8.5
(D) 9.5
(E) 10.5
Answer: (B)
Directions- (Q. 33-37) In this question, two equations I and II are given. You have to solve both the equation and answered as-
(A) x > y
(B) x ≥ y
(C) x < y
(D) x ≤ y
(E) relationship cannot be established or x = y
33. (I) 3x2 + 13x + 12 = 0
(II) 4y2 + 5y + 1 = 0
Answer: (C)
34. (I) x2 = 25
(II) y2 + 10y + 25 = 0
Answer: (B)
35. (I) 5x2 – 11x + 2 = 0
(II) 3y2 – 5y + 2 = 0
Answer: (E)
36. (I) 5x2 – 13x + 6 = 0
(II) 2y2 – 7y + 6 = 0
Answer: (E)
37. (I) 2x2 – 17x + 35 = 0
(II) 3y2 – 10y + 7 = 0
Answer: (A)
38. Ram invests a certain sum in Scheme A offering simple interest @ 5% p.a. for 4 years. He further invests the amount obtained from Scheme A into Scheme B offering compound interest @ 10% p.a. (compounded annually) for 2 years. If the interest obtained from Scheme B was Rs 378, what was the sum invested in scheme A ? (in Rs)
(A) 1200
(B) 1000
(C) 1600
(D) 1500
(E) 1400
Answer: (D)
39. Mohan kept 30% of his retirement fund for himself and distributed the remaining amount among his wife, his only son and his only daughter in the respective ratio of 7 : 3 : 4. If the difference between the amount that Mohan kept for himself and the amount he gave to his son is Rs 31500. What was the total retirement fund?
(A) Rs 2,40,000
(B) Rs 2,70,000
(C) Rs 2,10,000
(D) Rs 2,60,000
(E) Rs 3,00,000
Answer: (C)
40. A bag contains 2 red balls, 5 yellow balls and ‘X’ green balls. One ball is drawn at random and the probability of all being yellow is 2/9. What is the value of X?
IBPS Specialist Officers Marketing (Pre.) Exam-2017 Held on 31-12-2017 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper With Answer Key
IBPS Specialist Officers Marketing (Pre.) Exam-2017 Held on 31-12-2017
Quantitative Aptitude
Directions- (Q. 1 to 10) The question consisting of a question and two statements I and II given below. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question read both the statements and choose the most appropriate option.
(A) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(B) The data statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(C) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(D) The data is even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
(E) The data in both statements I and II together necessary to answer the question
1. What is the area of the circle?
(I) Perimeter of the circle is 88 cm.
(II) Diameter of the circle is 28 cm.
Answer: (C)
2. What is the rate of interest?
(I) Simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs 25,000 in two years is less than the compound interest for the same period by Rs 250.
(II) Simple interest accrued in 10 years is equal to the principal.
Answer: (C)
3. What is the number of trees planted in the field in rows and columns?
(I) Number of columns is more than the number of rows by 4.
(II) Number of column is 20.
Answer: (D)
4. What is the speed of the current?
(I) A man can swim a distance of 9 km. in downstream.
(II) While coming back upstream it takes him 3 hr to cover the same distance.
Answer: (E)
5. What is the minimum passing percentage in a test?
(I) Raman scored 25% marks in the test and Sunil scored 288 marks which is 128 more than Raman.
(II) Raman scored 64 marks less than the minimum passing marks.
Answer: (E)
6. What is the value of x2 + y + z?
(I) 4x + 3y + 5z = 60 and 2x = y, 2y = z
(II) 3x + 3y + 2z = 34 and 2x + 5y + 6z = 72
Answer: (A)
7. Whose body weight is second highest among the five boys Arun, Vinay, Suraj, Raju and Pratap?
(I) Average weight of Arun, Suraj and Vinay is 68 kg and average weight of Raju and Pratap is 72 kg. Also Suraj is 78 kg. Raju is 68 kg and Vinay is 46 kg.
(II) Average weight of Arun, Suraj, Vinay and Raju is 68 kg and also Suraj is 78 kg. Raju is 68 kg and Vinay is 46 kg. All of them have different weight.
Answer: (A)
8. How many marks did Subodh obtain in Phsics?
(I) The average marks to Subodh in History, Geography and Chemistry are 75
(II) His average marks in History, Geography and Physics are 78.
Answer: (D)
9. What is the population of the city A?
(I) The ratio of the population of males and females in city A is 27 : 23 and the difference between their population is 100000.
(II) The population of city A is 80% of that of city B. The difference of population of city A and city B is 312500.
Answer: (C)
10. How many students did participate in elocution?
(I) The students who participate in dancing were 150% more than that who participated in elocution.
(II) 150 students participated in dancing.
Answer: (E)
Directions- (Q. 11 to 15) Study the following graph carefully and answer the question given below it.
11. Expenditure of company B in 2009 and 2010 are Rs 12 lakhs and Rs 14.5 lakhs respectively. What was the total income of company B in 2009 and 2010 together (in lakh rupees)?
(A) 39.75
(B) 37.95
(C) 38.75
(D) 38.55
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)
12. Ratio of expenditure of company A and B in 2012 was 3 : 4 respectively. What was the respective ratio of their incomes in 2012?
(A) 21 : 26
(B) 13 : 14
(C) 14 : 13
(D) 26 : 21
(E) None of these
Answer: (E)
13. Total expenditure of company A in all the years together was 82.5 lakhs. What was the total income of the company A in all the years together?
(A) 1.23 crore
(B) 98.75 crore
(C) 99.85 crore
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)
14. If the expenditure of company A and B in 2013 were equal and the total incomes of the two companies was Rs 5.7 lakhs. What was the total expenditure of the two companies in 2013?
(A) 4 lakhs
(B) 2 lakhs
(C) 4.2 lakhs
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)
15. If the income of company B in 2010 and 2011 were in the ratio of 2 : 3 respectively. What was the respective ratio of expenditure of that company in these two years?
(A) 20 : 29
(B) 9 : 10
(C) 29 : 45
(D) 10 : 29
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)
Directions- (Q. 16 to 20) Study the pie-charts carefully to answer the given question.
16. Number of girls enrolled in dancing form are what per cent of total number of students enrolled in the school?
(rounded off to two digits after decimal)
(A) 12.35
(B) 14.12
(C) 11.67
(D) 10.08
(E) None of these
Answer: (E)
17. How many boys are enrolled in Singing and Craft together?
(A) 505
(B) 610
(C) 485
(D) 420
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)
18. What is the respective ratio of number of girls enrolled in swimming to the number of boys enrolled in swimming?
(A) 47 : 49
(B) 23 : 29
(C) 29 : 23
(D) 49 : 47
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)
19. What is the total number of girls enrolled in Swimming and Drawing together?
(A) 480
(B) 525
(C) 505
(D) 495
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)
20. What is the approximate percentage of boys in the school?
(A) 34
(B) 56
(C) 28
(D) 50
(E) None of these
Answer: (E)
Directions- (Q. 21 to 30) In each question, two equation numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark an appropriate answer.
(A) x < y
(B) x > y
(C) x ≥ y
(D) x ≤ y
(E) relationship between x and y cannot be established
21. (I) 6x2 + 5x + 1 = 0
(II) 15y2 + 8y + 1 = 0
Answer: (D)
22. (I) x2 + 5x + 6 = 0
(II) 4y2 + 24y + 35 = 0
Answer: (E)
23. (I) 2x2 + 5x + 3 = 0
(II) y2 + 9y + 14 = 0
Answer: (B)
24. (I) 88x2 – 19x + 1 = 0
(II) 132y2 – 23y + 1 = 0
Answer: (C)
25. (I) 6x2 – 7x + 2 = 0
(II) 20y2 – 31y + 12 = 0
Answer: (A)
26. (I) 6x2 + 23x + 20 = 0
(II) 6y2 + 31y + 35 = 0
Answer: (B)
27. (I) x2 = 81
(II) y2 – 18y + 81 = 0
Answer: (D)
28. (I) 4x2 + 20x + 21 = 0
(II) 2y2 + 17y + 35 = 0
Answer: (C)
29. (I) x2 – 14x + 48 = 0
(II) y2 + 6 = 5y
Answer: (B)
30. (I) 38x2 – 3x – 11 = 0
(II) 28y2 + 32y + 9 = 0
Answer: (D)
31. Two men P and Q start a journey from same place speed at a speed of 3 km/hr and If they move in the same direction then what is the distance between them after 4 hours?
(A) 3 km
(B)
(C) 2 km
(D)
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)
Directions-(Q. 32 to 35) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given question?
32.
(A) 5√5
(B) (125)3
(C) 25
(D) 5
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)
33.
(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 512
(D) 324
(E) None of these
Answer: (E)
34.
(A) 36 + 44√(7)
(B) 6
(C) 216
(D) 36
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)
35.
(A) 6320
(B) 6400
(C) 6351.82
(D) 6431.82
(E) 6491.82
Answer: (C)
Directions- (Q. 36 to 40) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?
36. 28 39 63 102 158 ?
(A) 232
(B) 242
(C) 233
(D) 244
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)
37. 7 16 141 190 919 ?
(A) 1029
(B) 1019
(C) 1020
(D) 1030
(E) None of these
Answer: (E)
38. 12 17 32 57 92 ?
(A) 198
(B) 195
(C) 137
(D) 205
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)
39. 19 25 45 87 159 ?
(A) 254
(B) 279
(C) 284
(D) 269
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)
40. 83 124 206 370 698 ?
(A) 1344
(B) 1324
(C) 1364
(D) 1334
(E) None of these
Answer: (E)
Directions- (Q.41 to 47) Study the table carefully and answer the given question.
41. What is the difference between the number of academic books published by publishing house M and P?
(A) 450
(B) 640
(C) 540
(D) 504
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)
42. How many books were given to each distributor by publisher Q if each distributor gets equal number of books?
(A) 1806
(B) 1068
(C) 1608
(D) 1308
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)
43. What is the average number of non-academic books published by publishers R and S?
(A) 18750
(B) 18850
(C) 19950
(D) 18950
(E) 19990
Answer: (C)
44. If the total number of books published by P, Q and R is increased by 30% and the total number of books published by remaining publishers be decreased by 20%, what will be the new average of books published by all the publishers?
(A) 33418
(B) 33318
(C) 32518
(D) 33618
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)
45. What is the total number of books distributed by publishers O and Q?
(A) 26702
(B) 27324
(C) 55028
(D) 54026
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)
46. Meena Kumar goes to a shop and buys a saree, costing Rs 5.225, including sales tax of 12%. The shopkeeper gives her a discount. so that the price is decreased by an amount equivalent to sales tax. The price is decreased by (nearest value)
(A) Rs 615
(B) Rs 650
(C) Rs 560
(D) Rs 580
(E) Rs 680
Answer: (C)
47. Phanse invests an amount of Rs 24,200 at the rate of 4 p.c.p.a for 6 years to obtain a simple interest later he invests the principal amount as well as the amount obtained as simple interest for another 4 years at the same rate of interest. What amount of simple interest will be obtain at the end of the last 4 years?
(A) Rs 4800
(B) Rs 4850.32
(C) Rs 4801.28
(D) Rs 4700
(E) Rs 4870.32
Answer: (C)
Directions- (Q. 48 to 50) The questions are based on the following information-
There are three different cable channels namely ahead, luck and bang. In a survey, it was found that 85% of viewers, respond to bang, 20% to luck and 30% of ahead. 20% of viewers respond to exactly two channels and 5% to none.
48. What percentage of the viewers responded to all three?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 16
(E) 11
Answer: (A)
49. Assuming 20% respond ahead and bang, and 16% respond to bang and luck. What is the percentage of viewers who watch only luck?
(A) 20
(B) 0
(C) 16
(D) 18
(E) 14
Answer: (B)
50. A milkman mixes 20 L of water with 80 L of milk. After selling one-fourth of this mixture, he adds water to replenish the quantity that he has sold. What is the current proportion of water to milk?
IBPS-R.R.B Officers (Pre.) Exam-2016 Held on 5-11-2016 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper With Answer Key
IBPS-R.R.B Officers (Pre.) Exam-2016 Held on 5-11-2016
Quantitative Aptitude
1. B is 1.5 times as efficient as A. If A can complete 6/7th of a given task in 12 days, what fraction of the same task would remain incomplete if B works on it independently for 6 days only?
(A) 2/5
(B) 3/5
(C) 4/10
(D) 5/14
(E) 3/7
Answer: (D)
Directions- (Q. 2-6) Based on the following table, answer the given question.
Note- The faculty Members include Assistant Professors, Associate Professors and Professors only.
2. In University L, 5/12 of the Assistant Professors are males and in University M, 5/11 of the Assistant professors are males. What is the respective ratio between male Assistant Professors in University L and that in University M?
(A) 4 : 9
(B) 8 : 9
(C) 5 : 7
(D) 5 : 9
(E) 3 : 5
Answer: (B)
3. In University K, 80% faculty members are females. If three fourth of the total Assistant Professors are females, what per cent females are either Associate Professors or Professors?
(A) 61
(B) 64.5
(C) 62.5
(D) 65
(E) 64
Answer: (C)
4. What is the difference between total number of Associate Professors in Universities L and M together and the total number of Professors in the same Universities together?
(A) 48
(B) 45
(C) 40
(D) 46
(E) 41
Answer: (B)
5. The number of Professors in Universities J and K together is approximately what per cent more than the number of Assistant Professors in University L?
(A) 22
(B) 8
(C) 35
(D) 15
(E) 18
Answer: (D)
6. What is the average number of Assistant professors in Universities J, L and M?
(A) 139
(B) 138
(C) 135
(D) 137
(E) 132
Answer: (D)
Directions- (Q. 7-11) What approximate value will come in place of question-mark (?) in the given question ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value)
7. 344 ÷99 + 144.08 ÷ 8.89 = ?
(A) 119
(B) 85
(C) 43
(D) 54
(E) 70
Answer: (B)
8. √? ×88 ÷ 12.01 = 289 – 109.992
(A) 4
(B) 16
(C) 64
(D) 36
(E) 1
Answer: (D)
9. 43.99 × 20.001 – 1439 ÷ 6 = ?
(A) 500
(B) 640
(C) 540
(D) 600
(E) 680
Answer: (B)
10. 459.85 + 519.82 = ?% of 1399.92
(A) 90
(B) 70
(C) 75
(D) 50
(E) 80
Answer: (B)
11. 40% of 249 ÷ 4 + ? = 6.9992
(A) 24
(B) 12
(C) 42
(D) 56
(E) 34
Answer: (A)
12. A starts small business with Rs 3600. At the end of few months from the start of business, B joined the business with Rs 4000. If the annual profit between A and B was divided between them in the respective ratio of 6 : 5, then B joined the business after how many months from the start of the business?
(A) Four
(B) Two
(C) Six
(D) Five
(E) Three
Answer: (E)
13. The sum of the dimensions of a room (i.e., length, breadth and height) is 24 metres and its length, breadth and height are in the ratio of 8 : 7 : 5 respectively. If the room to be painted at the rate of Rs 12 per m2, what would be the total cost incurred on paint-ing only the four walls of the room (in Rs)
(A) 2592
(B) 2648
(C) 2848
(D) 2120
(E) 1956
Answer: (A)
Directions – (Q. 14-18) Refer to the graph and answer the given question.
14. If the respective ratio between total number of scarves sold b stores M and N together in 2003 and that in 2008 is 7 : 11, what is the total number of scarves sold by stores M and N together in 2008 ?
(A) 880
(B) 1100
(C) 660
(D) 770
(E) 990
Answer: (E)
15. If the total number of scarves sold by stores M and N together in 2010 is 105% of that in 2004, what is the total number of scarves sold by stores M and N together in 2010 ?
(A) 508
(B) 524
(C) 520
(D) 504
(E) 512
Answer: (D)
16. Number of scarves sold by store M decreased by what per cent from 2005 to 2006?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Answer: (B)
17. What is the difference between total number of scarves sold by store M in 2003 and 2004 together and total number of scarves sold b y store N in 2006 and 2007 together?
(A) 150
(B) 130
(C) 90
(D) 100
(E) 110
Answer: (E)
18. What is the average number of scarves sold by store N in 2005, 2006 and 2007?
(A) 310
(B) 280
(C) 220
(D) 290
(E) 300
Answer: (E)
19. A boat takes a total time of eight hours of travel 63 kms upstream and the same distance downstream. The speed of the current is 1/8th of the speed of the boat in still water. What is the speed of the boat in still water ? (in km/hr)
(A) 32
(B) 24
(C) 16
(D) 8
(E) 36
Answer: (C)
20. P, Q and R have a certain amount of money with themselves. Q has 25% more than what P has, and R has 1/5th of what Q has. If P, Q and R together have Rs 150, then how much money does P alone have ? (in Rs)
(A) 40
(B) 70
(C) 80
(D) 60
(E) 50
Answer: (D)
21. In a class, the average weight of 40 boys is 65 kg and that of 50 girls is 60 kg. After a few days, 40% of the girls and 50% of the boys leave. What would be the new average weight of the class (in kg) ? Assume that the average weight of the boys and the girls remains constant throughout.
(A) 65
(B) 62
(C) 68
(D) 55
(E) 58
Answer: (B)
Directions- (Q. 22-26) In this question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and choose the appropriate option and answer as
(A) x < y
(B) x ≤ y
(C) x > y
(D) x ≥ y
(E) x = y or cannot be determined
22. (I) x2 – x – 12 = 0
(II) y2 + 4y + 4 = 0
Answer: (E)
23. (I) 2x2 – 15x + 27 = 0
(II) 2y2 – 23y + 63= 0
Answer: (B)
24. (I) x2 + 11x + 28 = 0
(II) 5y2 + 27y + 28 = 0
Answer: (B)
25. (I) x2 – 11x + 30 = 0
(II) y2 – 15y + 56 = 0
Answer: (A)
26. (I) 3x2 + 16x + 21 = 0
(II) 2y2 + 15y + 25 = 0
Answer: (E)
27. At its usual speed, a train of length L metres crosses platform 300 metres long in 25 seconds. At 50% of its usual speed, the train crosses a vertical pole in 20 seconds. What is the value of L?
(A) 160
(B) 260
(C) 200
(D) 310
(E) 350
Answer: (C)
28. Jar A has 36 lts of mixture of milk and water in the respective ratio of 5 : 4. Jar B which had 20 lts of mixture of milk and water, was emptied into Jar A, and as a result in Jar A, the respective ratio of milk and water becomes 5 : 3. What was quantity of water in Jar B?
(A) 5 lts
(B) 3 lts
(C) 8 lts
(D) 2 lts
(E) 1 lts
Answer: (A)
29. Three years ago, the respective ratio between A’s age at that time and B’s age at that time was 9 : 5. A’s age two years hence will be 17 years more than B’s age five years hence, what is B’s present age?
(A) 26 years
(B) 27 years
(C) 28 years
(D) 24 years
(E) 23 years
Answer: (C)
Directions-(Q. 30-34) Refer to the pie chart and answer the given question :
30. In November 1/12 of the available bags in store Q remained unsold and 3/16 of the available bags in store T remained unsold. How many bags were sold by stores Q and T together in November?
(A) 246
(B) 254
(C) 248
(D) 252
(E) 268
Answer: (B)
31. What is the difference between the average number of bags available in stores P and Q together and the average number of bags available in stores R and S together?
(A) 16
(B) 15
(C) 18
(D) 21
(E) 12
Answer: (A)
32. The respective ratio between the number of bags available in store R in December and that available in the same store in the November was 7 : 6. How many bags were more available in Store R in December as compared to November?
(A) 32
(B) 28
(C) 40
(D) 12
(E) 80
Answer: (C)
33. In January 2012, the total number of bags available in all the stores together was 40 more than that available in November. What was the percentage increase in the total number of bags available in all the stores together from November to January?
(A)
(B) 5
(C)
(D) 4
(E)
Answer: (B)
34. What is the central angle corresponding to the number of bags available in store Q? (in degrees)
(A) 83.2
(B) 86.4
(C) 82.5
(D) 88.6
(E) 84.2
Answer: (B)
Directions-(Q. 35-39) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?
35. 455 212 131 104 95 ?
(A) 84
(B) 92
(C) 45
(D) 61
(E) 49
Answer: (B)
36. 2 3 8 27 112 ?
(A) 565
(B) 650
(C) 316
(D) 290
(E) 430
Answer: (A)
37. 45 57 67 75 81 ?
(A) 89
(B) 85
(C) 105
(D) 91
(E) 78
Answer: (B)
38. 36 37 33 42 26 ?
(A) 51
(B) 41
(C) 61
(D) 45
(E) 49
Answer: (A)
39. 5 5 15 37.5 ? 393.75
(A) 80
(B) 112.5
(C) 160
(D) 48
(E) 72
Answer: (B)
40. The sum of a series of 5 consecutive odd numbers is 225. The second number of this series is 15 less than the second lowest number of another series of 5 consecutive even numbers. What is 60% of the highest number of this series of consecutive even numbers?
IBPS Bank Specialist Officers (Personnel) (Pre.) Examination Held on 31-12-2017 Reasoning Question Paper With Answer Key
IBPS Bank Specialist Officers (Personnel) (Pre.) Examination Held on 31-12-2017
Reasoning
Directions- (Q. 1-5) Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
Eight erasers of different colours viz. White, Yellow, Pink, Green, Orange, Blue, Red and Violet are stacked one above the other but not necessarily in the same order.
The green eraser is kept third from the bottom. Only one eraser is kept between the green and the red erasers. Only three erasers are kept between the blue and the violet erasers. The blue erasers is neither the topmost eraser nor kept immediately above or immediately below the green eraser. As many erasers are kept between the violet and the red erasers as between the pink and the white erasers. The pink eraser is kept at one of the positions above white as well as the blue eraser. More than three erasers are kept between the pink and the yellow erasers.
1. Which of the following erasers is kept at the topmost position?
(A) Violet
(B) Cannot be determined
(C) Pink
(D) Orange
(E) Yellow
Answer: (D)
2. Which of the following is the correct position of the Blue eraser in the stack?
(A) Fourth from the bottom
(B) Immediately below the orange eraser
(C) Third from the top
(D) Immediately above the yellow eraser
(E) Second from the bottom
Answer: (C)
3. Which of the following erasers is kept immediately below the pink eraser?
(A) Cannot be determined
(B) The orange eraser
(C) The blue eraser
(D) The red eraser
(E) The white eraser
Answer: (C)
4. Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to the given information?
(A) No eraser is kept between the pink and the white erasers
(B) The yellow eraser is kept exactly between the green and the red erasers
(C) The blue eraser is kept at one of the positions below the violet eraser
(D) Both violet and white erasers are kept below the green eraser
(E) None of the given statements is true
Answer: (E)
5. How many erasers are kept between the yellow and the white erasers?
(A) Two
(B) Four
(C) None
(D) One
(E) Three
Answer: (A)
Directions- (Q. 6-8) In this question a statement is given followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a practicable and feasible step or administrative decision to be taken for follow-up, improvement of further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. One the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, and decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
6. Statement :According to latest census, the number of homeless people in urban areas is much more than that in rural areas of State of A whereas this trend is reverse in all other states of the country.
Course of Action I : Homeless people in urban areas of A should be relocated to the rural areas of State A.
Course of Action II : State A should cut public spending as well as subsidies on housing for the rural poor.
(A) Either I or II follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Neither I nor II follows
(D) Only II follows
(E) Both I and II follow
Answer: (C)
7. Statement : Despite various appeal and orders by the municipal authorities since last one year, many housing complexes have not been segregating recyclable from non-recyclabe waste, leading to losses worth several crores every month.
Course of Action : Strict penalty should be levied by the authorizes on all the housing complexes which have not been following the protocol.
Course of Action II : The municipal authority should not collec the garbage from such housing complexes unless it is segregated accordingly.
(A) Either I or II follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Neither I nor II follows
(D) Only II follows
(E) Both I and II follow
Answer: (E)
8. Statement : The electricity bill of Company X’s office building increased by 35% after the number of employees as well as the working hours were increased two months ago.
Course of Action I : A part of salary should be deducted from all employees towards the increased electricity bills.
Course of Action II : Electricity saving devices such as LED lighting and solar powered appliances should be used in the office building in place of traditional appliances.
(A) Either I or II follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Neither I nor II follows
(D) Only II follows
(E) Both I and II follow
Answer: (D)
Directions – (Q. 9-13) Study the following information to answer the given question.
Eight people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. Each one of them has different number of books with them viz. 2, 4, 5, 6, 8, 11, 13 and 16.
Only three people sit between R and the person having 11 books. Only two people sit between the person having 11 books and W (Either from left or right). T sits second to left of the person having 6 books. The person having 6 books in neither an immediate neighbour of R nor the person having 11 books. R does not have 6 books. Only three people sit between V and the person having 2 books. V is not an immediate neighbour of T. V does not have 6 books. Sum of the total number of books with T and Q is 19. Q is not an immediate neighbour of T. Both the immediate neighbours of Q have more books than Q. Both V and R have even number of books with them. Sum of the total number of books with immediate neighbours of S is less than 10. Us is not an immediate neighbour of S.
9. Who amongst the following has 6 books?
(A) P
(B) W
(C) S
(D) Q
(E) U
Answer: (C)
10. How many people are sitting between W and the person having 8 books when counted from the right of W?
(A) Five
(B) One
(C) Three
(D) None
(E) Two
Answer: (E)
11. Who amongst the following has 13 books?
(A) U
(B) S
(C) T
(D) P
(E) W
Answer: (A)
12. Which of the following represents the person sitting to immediate right of T?
(A) The person having 13 books
(B) P
(C) S
(D) W
(E) The person having 4 books
Answer: (B)
13. Which of the following represents the position of U with respect of S?
(A) Fourth to the right
(B) Fourth to the left
(C) Second to the right
(D) Third to the left
(E) Third to the right
Answer: (D)
Directions- (Q. 14-17) In this question three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements and answered as-
(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(C) Only conclusion II follows
(D) Either conclusion I or II follows
(E) Both conclusion I and II follow
14. Statements : Some profits are losses. No loss is a return. All wages are returns.
Conclusion I : No loss in a wage.
Conclusion II : All profits can never be returns.
Answer: (E)
15. Statements : All markets are shops. Some shops are arcades. All arcades are fairs.
Conclusion I : Atleast some fairs are shops.
Conclusion II : Atleast some arcades are markets.
Answer: (A)
16. Statements : No peak is a hill. All hills are slopes. All slopes are valleys.
Conclusion I : No peak is a slope.
Conclusion II : Atleast some valleys are peaks.
Answer: (A)
17. Statements : All markets are shops. Some shops are arcades. All arcades are fairs.
Conclusion I : No arcade is a market.
Conclusion II : All markets being fairs is a possibility.
Answer: (A)
Directions- (Q. 18 and 19) This question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the most appropriate option. as-
(A) Statement I alone sufficient to answer the question while statement II is not.
(B) Statement II alone sufficient to answer the question while statement I is not.
(C) Either statement I alone or statement II alone sufficient to answer the question.
(D) Both statement I and statement II together are necessary to answer the question.
(E) Both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
18. How far is Point A from Point C?
(I) Ameena starts walking from point A. She walks 5 m towards north, takes a right turn and walks 7 m. She takes a right turn, walks 11 m and stops at point B. Point C is 6 m away from Point B.
(II) Raju starts walking from point A. He walks 6 m towards west, takes a left turn, and walks 22 m. He then turns left again, walks 13 m and stops at Point Q. Point C is to the north of both Point Q as well as B.
Answer: (D)
19. How is ‘treat’ coded in the given code language ? (All the given codes are two letter codes only)
(I) ‘treat them same’ is coded as ‘cu ti su’ in the code language. In the same code language, ‘same by them’ is coded as ‘ti py cu’.
(II) ‘a treat for eyes’ is coded as ‘su jo vi la’ in the code language. In the same code language, ‘eyes for a cause’ is coded as ‘vi ko la jo’.
Answer: (C)
Directions- (Q. 20 and 21) Study the following information and answer the question.
A certain number of people are sitting in a straight, horizontal line facing north. Only three people sit between Manas and Ravi. Ravi sits at one of the positions to the right of Manas. Only two people sit between Manas and Charu. Priya sits third to the right of Charu. Only three people sit between Priya and Fazila. Less than eight people sit in the line.
20. How many people sit between Manas and Fazila?
(A) Six
(B) One
(C) Three
(D) Two
(E) Four
Answer: (B)
21. If Anya is an immediate neighbour of Ravi, what is Anay’s position with respect to Priya?
(A) Immediate left
(B) Immediate right
(C) Second to the left
(D) Third to the left
(E) Second to the right
Answer: (A)
22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A) CGEF
(B) VZXW
(C) LPNM
(D) QUSR
(E) GKIH
Answer: (A)
Directions- (Q. 23-25) Read the following information to answer the given question.
Each of the six cities viz. A, B, C, D, E and F have different number of lakes. Only one city has more lakes than A. D has more lakes than E and C but less than B. B does not have the highest number of lakes. The city having third highest number of lakes has 9 lakes. E has 4 lakes.
23. If C has 6 lakes, which of the following is true?
(I) C has second lowest number of lakes
(II) City D possibly has 11 lakes
(III) Only two cities have more number of lakes than E.
(A) Both I and II
(B) Only II
(C) Only III
(D) Only I
(E) All I, II and III
Answer: (D)
24. How many lakes does A possibly have ?
(A) 10
(B) 3
(C) 7
(D) 5
(E) 8
Answer: (A)
25. How many cities have more lakes than D?
(A) Four
(B) Two
(C) One
(D) Three
(E) Cannot be determined
Answer: (D)
Directions- (Q. 26-30) Study the following information and answer the question.
Eight boxes marked as F, G, H, I, J, K, L and M are kept on eight different floors of a building. The lower mot floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered eight. Each box has a different shape viz. Cuboid, Spherical, Oval, Conical, Cylindrical, Pyramidal, heart-shaped and Star-shaped.
• F is kept on an odd numbered floor below floor number 5. Only three boxes are kept between F and the cuboid box.
• Only two boxes are kept between L and the oval box. L is kept on floor above the oval box. L is kept on an odd numbered floor. L is not cuboid is shape.
• As many boxes are kept between the cuboid and the oval boxes as between the cylindrical box and K. K is kept at one of the floors below the oval box. K is not kept on floor number 2. Only three boxes are kept between the cylindrical box and M.
• The spherical box is kept immediately below H. H is neither kept on floor number 4 nor 8. Only two boxes are kept between H and the heart-shaped box.
• As many boxes are kept between M and the heart-shaped box as between I and the star-shaped box. G is kept on one of the floors above I.
• The pyramidal box is kept at one of the floors above the conical box.
26. Which of the following is true based on the given information?
(A) Box F is kept on the lowermost floor.
(B) Box L is spherical in shape.
(C) Box L is kept on floor number 7.
(D) None of the given options is true
(E) No box is kept between the cuboid and the oval boxes.
Answer: (B)
27. How many floors are there between the floors on which J and F are kept?
(A) Two
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) None
(E) One
Answer: (D)
28. I is kept on which of the following floor numbers?
(A) 7
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 2
(E) Other than the those given as options
Answer: (A)
29. Which of the following boxes is conical?
(A) J
(B) M
(C) G
(D) I
(E) K
Answer: (E)
30. What is the shape of box J?
(A) Oval
(B) Star-shaped
(C) Cylindrical
(D) Pyramidal
(E) Conical
Answer: (D)
31. Which of the following will come in the given series in the place of question mark?
p q r s 4 q r s t 4 5 r s t u 4 5 6 s t u v 4 5 6 7 ?
(A) w
(B) r
(C) t
(D) u
(E) 8
Answer: (C)
Directions-(Q. 32-35) In this question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statement. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.
(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Both conclusion I and II follow
(D) Either conclusion I or II follows
(E) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
32. Statements : J ≥ L > W ≤ R = T; B ≤ W < A
Conclusion I : B < J
Conclusion II : T ≥ A
Answer: (A)
33. Statements : J ≥ L > W ≤ R = T; B ≤ W < A
Conclusion I : B < T
Conclusion II : B = T
Answer: (D)
34. Statements : T < R ≤ U ≥ C > M; R ≥ S; C < Z
Conclusion I : S > Z
Conclusion II : Z > M
Answer: (B)
35. Statements : T < R ≤ U ≥ C > M; R ≥ S; C < Z
Conclusion I: Z > T
Conclusion II : M < S
Answer: (E)
Directions- (Q. 36-40) Study the following information to answer the given question.
Each of the seven people, J, K, L, M, N, O and P are seated in a straight line facing north with equal distance between each other. Each one of them owns are car from a different brands viz. Toyota, Hyundai, Tata, Tesla, Audi, BMW and Suzuki but not necessarily in the same order.
M sits third to the right of Toyota owner. O sits second to the right of M. The Audi owner sits second to the left of P. P is neither an immediate neighbour of Toyota owner nor sits at any of the extreme ends of the line. As many people sit to the right of P as to the left of N. As many people sit between N and M as between K and the BMW owner. K neither owns as Audi nor a Toyota. Only two people sit between the BMW and the Hyundai owners. More than three people sit between J and the Tesla owner. More than one person sits between the Tesla and the Tata owners.
36. Which of the following is true with respect to L as per the given arrangement?
(A) L owns a Tesla
(B) Only one person sits between L and the BMW owner.
(C) None of the given options is true
(D) L sits at one of the extreme ends of the line
(E) L is an immediate neighbour of J
Answer: (B)
37. How many persons are seated between N and M?
(A) Two
(B) None
(C) One
(D) Three
(E) Four
Answer: (A)
38. What is the position of K with respect to the Tata owner?
(A) Third to the right
(B) Fourth of the right
(C) Fifth to the right
(D) Third to the left
(E) Second to the right
Answer: (E)
39. Car of which brand does K own?
(A) Tesla
(B) Suzuki
(C) Tata
(D) Hyundai
(E) Other than those given as options
Answer: (D)
40. Which of the following represents persons seated at the two extreme ends of the line?
(A) J and the Suzuki owner
(B) L and the Toyota owner
(C) The Audi owner and L
(D) K, O
(E) The Tesla and The Tata owners
Answer: (E)
41. Read the following information carefully and answer the question.
Most of the Japanese companies which invested almost 500 million dollars in country Zylland made losses in the last financial year to the extent of 250 million dollars.
“If all the Japanese companies makes losses in Zylland to such extent, it would deter any further investments in the near future.” An industry insider.
Which of the following statements weakens the industry insider’s view to some extent?
(A) More than 94% of the total investments by Japanese companies were made in Zylland’s e-retailer company ‘Netshop’which closed down last year.
(B) Companies from all other countries invested an average amount of 450 million dollar only in zylland.
(C) An economic downturn which hit the world economy two y ears ago had impacted Zylland adversely as well.
(D) The Japanese companies were well aware before investing in Zylland that average profit earned through investments in this country was only 12%.
(E) All Japanese companies which made losses in Zylland also made losses in the past in some of their endeavours in other countries as well.
Answer: (E)
42. Read the following information carefully and answer the question.
NetBart has agreed to provide free of cost, high-speed internet connection to all schools in Village A.
“This step would bring the computer literacy to 10% in Village A “-NetBart’s CEO.
Which of the following is an assumption made by the NetBart’s CEO in the given statement
(A) No school at present can afford a paid internet connection.
(B) NetBart may provide free internet connections to other villages as well.
(C) At present computer literacy in Village A is much lower than other village.
(D) NetBart will make substantial profits from this venture.
(E) Al schools in Village A can afford adequate number of computers.
Answer: (E)
43. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word INVESTOR each of which has as many letters between them (in both forward and backward directions) as there are in English alphabetical order?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) None
(E) More than three
Answer: (C)
Directions- (Q. 44-48) Study the given information carefully and answer the given question.
Eight people A, B, C, D, L, M, N and O were born in one of the months-January, March, June and November of the same year but not necessarily in the same order. In each month these people were born on either 5th or 18th, with each person born on a different day.
C has born on an even numbered date in a month having only 30 days. Only two of these eight people were born between C and N. L is younger than N. L was born on the 18th. Only three of these given people were born between B and O. B is older than O. D is older than B. Only one of the given persons has birthday between D and A.
44. Which of the following statements is true as per the given arrangement?
(A) M is the youngest amongst the given people.
(B) C was born in November.
(C) None of the given statements is true.
(D) N was born on 5th March.
(E) O has his birthday on one of the days between D and A.
Answer: (B)
45. Which of the following combinations is correct based on the given information?
(A) L-November
(B) L-March
(C) M-18th
(D) A-March
(E) D-5th
Answer: (D)
46. When was D born?
(A) 5th June
(B) 18th January
(C) 5th March
(D) 18th March
(E) 5th November
Answer: (B)
47. How many people have birthday between M and L?
(A) Cannot be determined
(B) Four
(C) Six
(D) Three
(E) Five
Answer: (B)
48. How many people are younger than O?
(A) Six
(B) None
(C) Three
(D) One
(E) Four
Answer: (D)
49. In a certain code language, COULD is coded as BPTMC. Following the same coding pattern, ‘FLOWS’ is written as ‘EMNXR’. How will ‘PRICE’ be written in the same code language?
(A) OSHBF
(B) OSHDD
(C) OSHDF
(D) QQJBF
(E) QQHDD
Answer: (B)
50. The positions of first and the sixth letters of the word NORMAL are interchanged; similarly, the positions of second and fifth letters and third and fourth letters are interchanged. In the new arrangement. Thus formed, how many letters are there between the letter which is third from the left and the letter which is second from the right, in the English alphabetical series?
IBPS Bank Pos-MTs (Pre.) Examination Held on 14-7-2017 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper With Answer Key
IBPS Bank Pos/MTs (Pre.) Examination Held on 14-7-2017
Quantitative Aptitude
Directions- (Q. 1 to 5) When a number arrangement machine is given an input line of numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule.
The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. All the numbers are two digit numbers :
Input : 81 63 79 42 15 24 86 37 96 19
Step I : 15 19 81 63 79 42 24 86 37 96
Step II : 96 86 15 19 81 63 79 42 24 37
Step III: 24 37 96 86 15 19 81 63 79 42
Step IV: 81 79 24 37 96 86 15 19 63 42
Step V: 42 63 81 79 24 37 96 86 15 19
Step V is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended output of arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input : 26 69 13 82 55 21 71 34 93 47
1. Which is the fourth element to the left of the seventh element from the left end in Step III of the given arrangement?
(A) 93
(B) 82
(C) 13
(D) 26
(E) 55
Answer: (A)
2. What will be the resultant if the fifth element from right end in Step V is subtracted from the second element from left end in Step II as per the given arrangement?
(A) 59
(B) 79
(C) 56
(D) 48
(E) 67
Answer: (D)
3. In which of the following steps ’26 69 55’ found consecutively in the same order as the given arrangement?
(A) Only II
(B) Both I and II
(C) Both II and III
(D) There is no such step
(E) Only III
Answer: (A)
4. As per the given arrangement, in Step I ‘21’ is related to ‘69’ in a certain pattern. Following the same pattern, ‘26’ is related to ‘93’ in Step IV. To which of the following is ‘47’ related to following the same pattern in Step V?
(A) 71
(B) 21
(C) 34
(D) 69
(E) 55
Answer: (A)
5. How many elements appear to the right of ‘26’ in Step IV of the given arrangement?
(A) Six
(B) None
(C) Two
(D) Five
(E) Seven
Answer: (E)
Directions- (Q. 6 to 8) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions-
D is the father of only F and E. D has only one son. E is married to G. G is the son-in-law of M. H is the only son of G. K and J are the children of E. L is married to K.
6. How is M related to J?
(A) Aunt
(B) Grandmother
(C) Mother
(D) Niece
(E) Granddaughter
Answer: (B)
7. How is H related to L?
(A) Brother
(B) Brother-in-law
(C) Son-in-law
(D) Nephew
(E) Uncle
Answer: (B)
8. How is F related to K?
(A) Grandfather
(B) Either ‘brother’ or ‘sister’
(C) Aunt
(D) Either ‘nephew’ or ‘niece’
(E) Uncle
Answer: (E)
Directions- (Q. 9 and 10)In this question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer. (A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Either conclusion I or II follows
(C) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(D) Only conclusion II follows
(E) Both conclusion I and II follows
9. Statements:
B ≤ O = L ≤ D; P ≥ C ≥ A = L
Conclusions: I. P = B II. B < P
Answer: (B)
10. Statements:
P ≥ O ≤ L < E; S ≤ O ≥ A = K
Conclusions: I. E < S II. K ≤ P
Answer: (D)
Directions-(Q. 11 to 15) Read the given information to answer the given questions-
Eight people viz., A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the table while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides, but not necessarily in the same order. The ones sitting in the middle of the sides are facing the centre and the ones sitting at the corners of the table are facing outside (i.e., opposite to the centre).
A sits in the middle of one of the sides. C is an immediate neighbour of A. E sits second to the left of C. Only three people sit between E and G. Only two people sit between G and D (either from left or right). D is not an immediate neighbour of C. B sits second to the right of D. F sits second to the right of B.
11. How many people sit between C and H when counted from the left of H?
(A) None
(B) Two
(C) One
(D) More than three
(E) Three
Answer: (E)
12. Which of the given statements is not true as per the given arrangement?
(A) G sits at one of the corners of the table
(B) All the given statements are true
(C) Only three people sit between F and D
(D) B and F face the centre
(E) E sits second to the right of F
Answer: (E)
13. Which of the following pairs represent the people sitting between H and F, when counted from the left of F?
(A) G, B
(B) C, G
(C) C, E
(D) A, D
(E) B, D
Answer: (A)
14. As per the given arrangement, four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) H
(D) G
(E) E
Answer: (B)
15. Who sits third to the left of B?
(A) G
(B) A
(C) E
(D) H
(E) C
Answer: (C)
Directions – (Q. 16 to 20) Read the given information to answer the given questions.
Eight people viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a straight line facing north with equal distance between each other. Each of them teaches a different subject viz. Chemistry, History, Mathematics, English, Physics, Biology, Geography and Social Science.
(Note : None of the given information in necessarily in the same order.)
P sits third from the left end of the line. Only one person sits between P and the one who teaches English. Only three people sit between the one who teaches English and R. As many people sit to the right of R as to the left of the one who teaches Social Science. Only three people sit between the one who teaches Social Science and W. No one sits between W and the one who teaches History. As many people sit to the left of the one who teaches History as to the right to T. Only One person sits between T and V. The one who teaches Mathematics sits to the immediate right of the one who teaches Physics. The one who teaches Mathematics is an immediate neighbour of V. Only one person sits between Q and the one who teaches Mathematics. More than four people sit between Q and the one who teaches Chemistry. U sits to the immediate left of S. U does not teach Geography.
16. How many people sit to the right of U?
(A) More than three
(B) None
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) One
Answer: (C)
17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?
(A) Q-Physics
(B) T-English
(C) S-Chemistry
(D) W-History
(E) P-Biology
Answer: (E)
18. Which of the following is true about the one who teaches Geography as per the given arrangement?
(A) The one who teaches Geography sits second to the left of P
(B) Only one person sits between T and the one who teaches Geography
(C) V sits to the immediate left of the one who teaches Geography
(D) None of the given statements is true
(E) Less than two people sit between the one who teaches Geography and English
Answer: (C)
19. What is the position of the one who teaches Chemistry with respect to V?
(A) Immediate right
(B) Fourth to the right
(C) Third to the right
(D) Third to the left
(E) Fourth to the left
Answer: (B)
20. Who sits third to the left of S?
(A) T
(B) The one who teaches Mathematics
(C) P
(D) The one who teaches Biology
(E) The one who teaches Social Science
Answer: (E)
Directions- (Q. 21 to 25) Study the given information to answer the given questions-
In a certain code language,
‘with all caring friends’ is written as ‘bs up ck lq’
‘all the time dancing’ is written as ‘av tn lq og’
‘friends daning and singing’ is written as ‘tn dz up ry’
‘caring and loving people’ is written as ‘dz xn bs eh’
(Note: All the codes are two letter codes only)
21. How many ‘all singing song’ be coded as in the given code language?
(A) ry sf lq
(B) ry bs up
(C) av lq ry
(D) sf tn ry
(E) ry lq eh
Answer: (A)
22. What is the code for ‘time’ in the given code language?
(A) Either ‘lq’ or ‘tn’
(B) up
(C) tn
(D) Either ‘av’ or ‘og’
(E) Either ‘xn’ or ‘lq’
Answer: (D)
23. If ‘people dancing together’ is coded as ‘tn gi xn’, then how will ‘loving friends together’ be coded as in the given code language?
(A) av dz up
(B) eh gi dz
(C) gi up lq
(D) eh dz up
(E) gi up eh
Answer: (E)
24. What does the code ‘ck’ stand for in the given code language?
(A) friends
(B) all
(C) caring
(D) singing
(E) with
Answer: (E)
25. What does ‘bs dz’ stand for in the given code language?
(A) and caring
(B) and with
(C) caring with
(D) with the
(E) and the
Answer: (A)
Directions- (Q. 26 to 30) Read the given information to answer the given questions-
Seven people viz., T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z studies in three branches of an engineering college viz. Aeronautical, Chemical and Electrical. Each of them also likes a different sport viz. Hockey, Cricket, Football, Volleyball, Boxing, Archery and Wrestling. Atleast two people study in each branch.
(Note: None of the given information is necessarily in the same order)
T studies in Aeronautical with only the one who likes Archery. The one who likes Wrestling studies with the one who likes Hockey. U studies with W and the one who likes Cricket. Neither U nor W like either Wrestling or Hockey. Z studies with the one who likes Boxing. Neither T nor U like Boxing. Y studies with V. V neither studies Electrical engineering nor likes Wrestling. T does not like Volleyball.
26. Who amongst the following studies Chemical Engineering?
(A) Y
(B) U
(C) The one who likes Volleyball
(D) W
(E) The one who likes Cricket
Answer: (A)
27. Which of the following is true as per the given arrangement?
(1) Y likes Cricket.
(2) X studies Aeronautical Engineering.
(3) The one who likes Boxing studies Electrical Engineering.
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 1
(C) Both 1 and2
(D) Only 2
(E) Both 2 and 3
Answer: (E)
28. Which sport does X likes?
(A) Wrestling
(B) Archery
(C) Boxing
(D) Volleyball
(E) Cricket
Answer: (B)
29. Four of the following five study in the same branch based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Who amongst the following study in a different branch as per the given arrangement?
(A) T-X
(B) Football-Archery
(C) Wrestling-Boxing
(D) Y-Hockey
(E) W-Volleyball
Answer: (C)
30. Who amongst the following likes Football?
(A) T
(B) U
(C) V
(D) W
(E) Y
Answer: (A)
Directions- (Q. 31 to 35) Read the given information to answer the given questions-
Seven people viz. J, K, L, M, N, O and P advertize for a brand viz. Fastrack, Biba, Nike, Puma, Marigo, Vivo and Zara in seven different months of the same year viz. February, April, May, June, August, September and November.
(Note: None of the given information is necessarily in the same order. No one advertises in any other month of the given year.)
Only two people advertise between P and the one who advertises for Puma. P advertises in a month having 31 days. More than three people advertise between the one who advertises for Puma and the one who advertises for Biba. Only three people advertise between the one who advertises for Biba and K. No one advertises between K and the one who advertises for Marigo. Only three people advertise between O and L. L advertises in one of the months before O. The one who advertises for Fastrack advertises in a month immediately before the one who advertise for Nike. Only two people advertise between N and the one who advertises for Vivo. Only one person advertises between M and the one who advertises for Zara. M advertises in one of the months before June.
31. Who advertises in the month of April?
(A) The one who advertises for Fastrack
(B) N
(C) The one who advertises for Puma
(D) J
(E) M
Answer: (C)
32. How many people advertise between M and the one who advertises for Nike?
(A) Three
(B) One
(C) More than three
(D) Two
(E) None
Answer: (C)
33. Advertisement for Marigo is done in which month?
(A) April
(B) September
(C) August
(D) June
(E) May
Answer: (D)
34. As per the given arrangement, L is related to the one who advertises for Zara following a certain pattern. In the same pattern, N is related to the one who advertises for fastrack. Following the same pattern to who amongst the following is O related to?
(A) Vivo
(B) Puma
(C) Marigo
(D) Biba
(E) Nike
Answer: (D)
35. Which of the given combinations is correct as per the given arrangement?
IBPS Specialist Officers IT (Pre.) Examination Held on 30-10-2017 Reasoning Question Paper With Answer Key
IBPS Specialist Officers IT (Pre.) Examination Held on 30-10-2017
Reasoning
Directions- (Q. 1 to 3) This question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and Ii given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the most appropriate option and answered as-
(A) Only statement I is sufficient to answer the question while statement II is not
(B) Only statement II is sufficient to answer the question while statement I is not
(C) Statement I and statement II together are necessary to answer the question
(D) Either statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(E) Neither statement I nor statement II are sufficient to answer the question
1. How many students are there in class 8 in school K?
(I) The class teacher of class 8 correctly remembers that the number of students in her class is more than 21but less than 32. The number of students in her class is exactly divisible by 6.
(II) The principal of school K correctly remembers that the difference between the number of students in class 7 and class 8 is less than nine. There are 33 students in class 7.
Answer: (C)
2. Among A, B, C, D and E, seated around a circular table, facing the centre, who sits second to the right of C?
(I) C sits to the immediate right of A. Only two person sits between B and A (when counted from left to right).
(II) Both D and C are immediate neighbours of B. E sits second to the right of B.
Answer: (C)
3. Amongst five bags, L , M, N, O and P, each having a different weight, which is the lightest?
(I) Only two bags are heavier than O. O is heavier than P but lighter than M.
(II) N is lighter than O but heavier than P. L is heavier than O, but not the heaviest.
Answer: (B)
Directions (Q. 4 to 8) In this questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.
(A) Only conclusions I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Either conclusion I or II follows
(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(E) Both conclusion I and II follows
4. Statements : P ≥ R > O = S ≤ A = Q
Conclusions: I. P > S II. O ≤ Q
Answer: (E)
5. Statements : R ≤ A < C = E ≤ D
Conclusions: I. R < D II. R = D
Answer: (A)
6. Statements: V ≥ E = N ≥ I ≥ C > E
Conclusions: I. C ≤ V II. N > E
Answer: (A)
7. Statements: C ≤ D < L ≤ F ≥ G; K ≥ L > M
Conclusions : I. C < M II. K ≥ G
Answer: (D)
8. Statements: J ≤ L ≤ P ≤ E; K ≥ P > M
Conclusions: I. M > E II. J ≤ K
Answer: (B)
9. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows.
‘A variety of duplicate products have snatched our market. Our profits are reducing by almost 10% each passing year. Despite much longer durability of our handmade products, people these days are settling for the second copies only because of their prices and easy availability”-statement by the owner of a handmade products store in City Y. Which of the following can be inferred from the owner’s statements?
(An inference is something by which you can logically deduce something to be true based).
(A) The market of handmade products will dissolve completely in the coming few years
(B) Manufacturing of second copies or duplicate articles is recent trend in City Y
(C) Reducing the price of handmade articles by 10% will attract more customers
(D) Making handmade products more widely available at reduced prices will help its market revive atleast to some extent
(E) Durability is the least important factor that affects the choice of customers while buying such items
Answer: (B)
Directions-(Q. 10 to 14) Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
In a certain code language.
‘give me your number’ is coded as ‘tm ct ar bp’
‘highest number in English’ is coded as ‘bp dg sk mi’
‘test your English skills’ is coded as ‘tm fo ve dg’
‘skills in pencil sketches’ is coded as ‘nu ve ky sk’
(Note: All codes are two letter codes only)
10. What is the code for ‘English’ in the given code language?
(A) ve
(B) tm
(C) nu
(D) ky
(E) dg
Answer: (E)
11. What does the code ‘ct’ stand for in the given code language?
(A) test
(B) Either ‘give’ or ‘me’
(C) Either ‘your’ or ‘number’
(D) number
(E) highest
Answer: (B)
12. What may be the possible code for ‘your hidden skills’ in the given code language?
(A) mi tm fo
(B) ve fo tm
(C) ve rb sk
(D) ve rb tm
(E) rb tm ky
Answer: (D)
13. If in the given code language, ‘colour of pencil’ is coded as ‘nu xg hf’, what will be the code for ‘number of sketches’?
(A) bp xg ve
(B) hf fo xg
(C) fo tm hf
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) ky tm nu
Answer: (D)
14. What does the code ‘fo’ stand for in the given code language?
(A) None of the given options
(B) your
(C) test
(D) skills
(E) English
Answer: (C)
Directions- (Q. 15 to 18) Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
A certain number of people are sitting in a straight line facing north. B sits fifth to the right of K. Only two people sit between K and S. M sits seventh to the left of S.R sits at one of the positions to the right of M. The number of people between S and B is one less than that between M and R. Q sits at one of the positions between S and R. Q is not an immediate neighbour of K. L sits seventh to the right of Q. L sits at an extreme end. As many people sit between L and B as to the left of M.
15. Who sits second to the left of B?
(A) S
(B) R
(C) L
(D) M
(E) Other than those given as options
Answer: (A)
16. Which of the following represents the positions of R in the given line?
(A) Exactly between Q and K
(B) Second to the right of S
(C) Eighth from the right end of the line
(D) Sixth to the left of L
(E) Seventh from the left end of the line
Answer: (E)
17. Which of the following statements is true as per the given information?
(A) K is an immediate neighbour of L
(B) None of the given statements is due
(C) Only six people sit between B and L
(D) Only one person sits to the left of M
(E) More than three people sits between M and R
Answer: (B)
18. How many people are sitting in the given line?
(A) 17
(B) 20
(C) 15
(D) 22
(E) Cannot be determined
Answer: (A)
Directions- (Q. 19 to 23) Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C, D, E and F are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing north. In row-2 P, Q, R, S, T and U are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing south. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other now.
B sits third to the right of A. The one who faces A sits second to the right of P. R sits second to the left of P. Only two people sit between C and the one who faces R. As many people sit to the right of E as to the left of C. D faces U. Only one person sits between U and T. The one who faces F sits second to the left of Q.
19. Which of the given statements is TRUE with respect to the given information?
(i) C faces G
(ii) Its at an extreme end
(iii) D faces an immediate neighbour of R
(A) Only (iii)
(B) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) Both (ii) and (iii)
(D) Both (i) and (ii)
(E) Only (ii)
Answer: (A)
20. Who amongst the following faces T?
(A) B
(B) D
(C) E
(D) C
(E) A
Answer: (A)
21. If all the people of Row-1 are made to sit in alphabetical order from left to right, then who amongst the following will face P as per the new arrangement?
(A) F
(B) A
(C) D
(D) C
(E) B
Answer: (D)
22. As per the given arrangement, B is related to Q in the same way as P is related to D. Following the same pattern, to whom is E related?
(A) U
(B) The one who faces A
(C) S
(D) The one who faces D
(E) T
Answer: (C)
23. Who among the following does not sit at any of the extreme end of the rows?
(A) The one who faces A
(B) The one who sits to the immediate left of C
(C) U
(D) R
(E) D
Answer: (D)
Directions- (Q. 24 to 28) Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
Eight people D, E, F, G, R, S, T and U are sitting around a square table facing the centre. Four people are sitting at the corners and four in the middle of the sides of the table. The ages of the ones sitting in the middle of the sides are multiples of 3 and that of those sitting at the corners are multiples of 7.
D sits second to the right of the 36 year old. One of the immediate neighbours of D is 28 years old. Only three people sit between E and the 28 year old. The age of the one who sits second to the left of E is less than 15 and also a multiple of 2. G is an immediate neighbour of the 51 year old. G is neither 14 nor 28 year old.Only one person sits between G and U (when counted from left or right). F is 27 years old. Only three people sit between F and T. The one who sits to the immediate left of S is 49 years old. G’s age is less than 10 years. The difference between ages of G and D is 11.
24. How many people sit between T and the 51 year old, when counted from the left of T?
(A) One
(B) None
(C) More than three
(D) Two
(E) Three
Answer: (A)
25. How many people are younger than D?
(A) Two
(B) More than four
(C) Four
(D) Three
(E) One
Answer: (A)
26. Which of the following statements is true as per the given arrangement?
(A) T is 51 years old
(B) None of the given statements is true
(C) F is an immediate neighbour of U
(D) The differences of the ages of E and F is 8
(E) T sits to the immediate right of the 7 year old
Answer: (E)
27. Who amongst the following is 14 years old?
(A) None of the given options
(B) E
(C) T
(D) U
(E) R
Answer: (E)
28. What is the age of D (in years)?
(A) 48
(B) 15
(C) 18
(D) 27
(E) 9
Answer: (C)
29. Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
Bus no. 218 is the only bus which plies on the only route between localities A and G of city Haroya. There are three huge factories between these areas. Though the bus has always been very punctual and well maintained, last week, it was decided to discontinue the bus for certain reason.
Which of the following cannot be reason behind discontinuing Bus no. 218?
(A) Soon AC buses will start playing between localities A and G, whose fare will be just 2% more than that of Bus no. 218. It is anticipated that Bus 218 will not make much profit thereafter
(B) All the given options can be possible reasons for discontinuing the bus
(C) It has been decided to increase the number of e-ricksh was playing between areas A and G by 40% hence making them more easily and frequently available to the customers as compared to the bus. Also, as a result, the additional pollution caused by buses in these areas can brought down to the great extent
(D) Under the recently completed metro rails project of Haroya, there are more frequent train between localities A and G as compared to the frequency of Bus no. 218. The metro fare is also lower than that of the bus.
(E) The number of chain snatching and pick-pocketing cases near locality G of Haroya have drastically increased. As a result, Bus no. 218 has considerably lesser passengers now.
Answer: (B)
30. This consist of a decision and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide which of the given statements weaken/s or strengthen/s the decision and mark the appropriate answer.
Decision : ‘Health-Wise’ is a chain of stores of healthcare products in country K. It has decided to keep products on only 20 companies in its store from now onwards.
(I) These 20 companies have been associated with ‘Health-Wise’ for almost a decade and hence the time between the supply and demand of products is very less.
(II) 90% of the 20 listed companies have been awarded as the best healthcare products providing companies of the country.
(A) Both statement I and II are neutral statements
(B) Statements I weakens the decision and while statement II strengthens the decision
(C) Both statement I and II weaken the decision
(D) Statement I strengthens the decision while statement II weakens the decision
(E) Both statement I and II strengthen the decision
Answer: (E)
31. Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
Despite giving repeated waning to the science students of School, Z, it has been found in this academic year that students who have not opted for Biology frequently enter the Biology Lab without permission. A few of such students were also found to have damaged the microscopes in the laboratory.
Which of the given two options can be a feasible course of action for the given situation?
(I) Biology students must be given additional ID cards specifically to enter the laboratory. Any student without the card should strictly not be allowed inside the lab unless specified by the teacher.
(II) Only the teacher should be allowed to touch or use the microscopes.
(A) Only Ii is a feasible course of action
(B) Both I and II are feasible course of actions
(C) Either I or II is a feasible course of action
(D) Neither I nor II is a feasible course of action
(E) Only I is a feasible course of action
Answer: (E)
Directions- (Q. 32 to 35) In this question three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II given below it. You have to take the given statements to b e true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements and answered as-
(A) Only conclusion I is true
(B) Only conclusion II is true
(C) Both conclusion I and II are true
(D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) Either conclusion I or II is true
32. Statements : Some juices are fruits. No fruit is a potato. Some potatoes are cakes.
Conclusions:
(I) Some cakes are fruits.
(II) No fruit is a cake.
Answer: (E)
33. Statements : Some juices are fruits. No fruit is a potato. Some potatoes are cakes.
Conclusions:
(I) All cakes being juices is a possibility.
(II) All juices can never be potatoes.
Answer: (B)
34. Statements : All sketches are paintings. Some paintings are drawings. All drawings are letters.
Conclusions:
(I) All paintings can never be letters.
(II) Atleast some sketches are drawings.
Answer: (D)
35. Statements: All cubs are kittens. No kitten is a zebra. All zebras are bears.
Conclusions:
(I) All zebras being cubs is a possibility.
(II) No kitten is a bear.
Answer: (B)
36. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
AZ-4 BY-6 DW-10 GT-16 ?
(A) KP-20
(B) JO-20
(C) KN-24
(D) KP-24
(E) JO-22
Answer: (D)
37. In a straight line of six people (all facing north), Q sits at an extreme end of the line. Only two people sit between Q and G. R sits second to the right of G. L sits third to the right of A. Only one person sits between Q and B. Who sits to the immediate right of B?
(A) No one as B sits at the extreme right end
(B) L
(C) G
(D) A
(E) Cannot be determined
Answer: (C)
38. Five boxes A, B, C, D and E are stacked above one another but not necessarily in the same order. Only one box is kept between A and B. C is kept at one of the positions above B but not at the top of the stack. Only two boxes are kept between C and D. Which of the following box is kept second from the bottom of the stack?
(A) D
(B) B
(C) A
(D) C
(E) Cannot be determined
Answer: (D)
39. In the word PATRONISE, the letter immediately before each vowel is replaced with the next alphabet (as per the English alphabetical order) and all others remain unchanged. Which of the following letters will appear twice in the word thus formed?
(A) Only T
(B) Both T and O
(C) Both S and O
(D) Only Q
(E) Only E
Answer: (B)
40. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the fourth, the eighth, the ninth and the eleventh letters from the left of the word EXAMINATION using all the letter but each letter only once, which would be the second letter of the world from the left end ? (If more than one such word can be formed, given ‘Z’ as your answer. If no such word can be formed, ,given ‘Y’ as your answer.
(A) Z
(B) T
(C) Y
(D) M
(E) I
Answer: (E)
Directions- (Q. 41 to 45) Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
Seven people A, B, F, G, L, M and X were born on seven different days of the same week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday. Each one of them works in different companies-Dell, Capegemini, Convergys and IBM. Atleast one person works in each of the given companies.
A was born on Thursday. Only two people were born between F and A. F works for Capegemini. One of the persons who works for IBM was born on Tuesday. Only two people were born between L and the one born on Tuesday. X works for Dell, and was born on one of the days after L. The person born on one of the days after L. The person born immediately after X works for Capegemini. One of the persons who works for Covergys was born immediately before M. Only two people were born between B and one of the persons who work for the same company. One of the persons born after G works for IBM.
41. Who amongst the following was born on Monday?
(A) L
(B) F
(C) None of the given options
(D) One of the persons who work for Capegeminin
(E) One of the persons who work for IBM
Answer: (C)
42. In which of the given companies, does only one person work?
(A) None
(B) Only Convergys
(C) Both Capegemini and Convergys
(D) Both Dell and Capegemini
(E) Only Dell
Answer: (D)
43. X was born on which of the following days?
(A) Friday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Other than those given as options
(E) Saturday
Answer: (E)
44. Which of the following represents the people who work or IBM?
(A) L, B, A
(B) G, M
(C) A, M
(D) G, L, M
(E) L, G
Answer: (D)
45. How many people were born between M and the one who works for Capegemini?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) One
(D) More than three
(E) None
Answer: (D)
46. Study the given information to answer the given question.
A very famous play ‘Jhankaar’ was set to be staged in one of the biggest theatres of city X on 27th of December. The theatre usually closes booking of its tickets two days before the play. Despite all promotions and large scale advertisements, the theater sold only 70% of his tickets for the play by 25th December.
Which of the following can be an effect of given situation?
(I) The theatre will not give its premises to the director of ‘Jhankaar’ to stage any of his future plays.
(II) The theatre can decide to remain open for booking tickets till a few hours before the play.
(A) Either I or II can be an effect
(B) Only II can be an effect
(C) Neither I nor II can be an effect
(D) Both I and II can be effects
(E) Only I can be an effect
Answer: (B)
Directions- (Q. 47 to 50) Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
Point A is 12 m to the north of Point B. Point C is 8 m to the east of Point B. Point D is 4 m south of Point C.
Madhav who is standing at Point A, walks 10 m towards west, takes left turn and walks for 14 m to reach Point S. He takes a left turn again, walks for 5 m and stops at Point Q. Aditya who is standing at Point D walks 6 m towards west, takes a right turn, walks for 2 m and stops at Point Y. Point Z is 7 m away from Points S.
47. In which direction is Point S with respect to Point D?
(A) North-West
(B) West
(C) South-West
(D) North-East
(E) East
Answer: (A)
48. If point L is to the north of Point B such that point Z and Point L form a horizontal straight line, then which of the following will be true?
(A) Distance between points A and L is 7 m
(B) Point L is to the north west of Point D
(C) Point Y is to the south east of Point Z
(D) Point Z is to the north of Point S
(E) All the given statements are true
Answer: (E)
49. What is the distance between Point Q and Point Y?
(A) 5 m
(B) 13 m
(C) 7 m
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) 9 m
Answer: (C)
50. If 2 is added to all odd digits of the number 4738261 and 1 is subtracted from all the even digits, then how many digits will be greater than 5 in the new number thus formed?
IBPS Specialist Officers IT (Pre.) Examination Held on 30-10-2017 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper With Answer Key
IBPS Specialist Officers IT (Pre.) Examination Held on 30-10-2017
Quantitative Aptitude
Directions- (Q. 1-5) Refer to the graph and answer the given questions.
1. The total number of people who travelled by both the given trains together on Tuesday is what per cent more than the total number of people who travelled by both the given trains together on Thursday?
(A) 29
(B) 25.5
(C) 31
(D) 27.5
(E) 28.4
Answer: (D)
2. What is the average number of people who travelled by train P on Sunday, Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday?
(A) 225
(B) 235
(C) 215
(D) 195
(E) 205
Answer: (A)
3. The number of people who travelled by Train Q on Friday is 20% more than the number of people who travelled by the same train on Thursday. What is the respective ratio between the number of people who travelled on Friday and those who travel led on Saturday by the same train?
(A) 6 : 11
(B) 6 : 7
(C) 5 : 7
(D) 3 : 5
(E) 5 : 9
Answer: (B)
4. The number of people who travelled by Train P decreased by what per cent from Monday to Wednesday?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Answer: (C)
5. What is the difference between the total number of people who travelled by Train P on Monday and Sunday together and the total number of people who travelled by Train Q on the same days together?
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 50
(E) 40
Answer: (E)
6. The respective ratio of curved surface area and total surface area of a right circular cylinder is 3 : 5. If the curved surface area of the right circular cylinder is 1848 cm2, what is its height? (in m)
(A) 24
(B) 14
(C) 21
(D) 28
(E) 18
Answer: (C)
7. Jar A and Jar B both contain mixture of milk and water. Jar A has 80 litres of mixture out of which 20% is water. The mixture in Jar B has 40% of water. The mixture from both the jars is poured in an empty Jar C. The resultant respective ratio between milk and water in the Jar C is 5 : 2. What is the quantity of milk in Jar C? (in litres)
(A) 105
(B) 120
(C) 110
(D) 100
(E) 130
Answer: (D)
8. What is the difference between total number of female students in institutions C and D together and number of students (both male and female) in institute E?
(A) 415
(B) 414
(C) 424
(D) 418
(E) 294
Answer: (E)
9. Number of male students in institute E is approximately what per cent more than the number of female students in institute A?
(A) 80
(B) 68
(C) 60
(D) 75
(E) 55
Answer: (B)
10. Number of female students in institute B is what per cent of the number of male students in Institute D?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Answer: (E)
11. What is the central angle corresponding to number of students (both male and female) in institute A?
(A) 55.2°
(B) 51.2°
(C) 57.6°
(D) 63.4°
(E) 61.6°
Answer: (C)
12. 2/3rd of the number of students (both male and female) in institute C are science graduate. If the number of female science graduate students in institute C is 68, what percentage of male students in institute C are science graduates?
(A) 30
(B) 55
(C) 45
(D) 35
(E) 57
Answer: (E)
13. What is the average number of male students in institute A, B and E?
(A) 382
(B) 390
(C) 394
(D) 388
(E) 396
Answer: (B)
14. Number of students (both male and female) in institute E increased by 25% from 2011 to 2012, if the respective ratio of number of male and female students in 2012 in institute E is 5 : 6, what is the number of female students institute E in 2012?
(A) 300
(B) 324
(C) 420
(D) 380
(E) 405
Answer: (E)
Directions – (Q. 15-19) Study the given table carefully to answer the questions that follow-
15. What is the total number of men and children staying in locality I together?
(A) 4115
(B) 4551
(C) 4515
(D) 4155
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)
16. The number of women staying in which locality is the highest?
(A) H
(B) I
(C) F
(D) G
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)
17. What is the total number of children staying in localities H and I together-
(A) 1287
(B) 1278
(C) 1827
(D) 1728
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)
18. What is the respective ratio of number of men staying in locality F to the number of men staying in locality H?
(A) 517 : 416
(B) 403 : 522
(C) 416 : 517
(D) 522 : 403
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)
19. Total number of people staying in locality J forms approximately what per cent of the total number of people staying in locality F?
(A) 81
(B) 72
(C) 78
(D) 93
(E) 87
Answer: (E)
20. 8 8 11 19 34 ?
(A) 49
(B) 73
(C) 51
(D) 58
(E) 62
Answer: (D)
21. 80 1 86.3 92.6 ? 111.5
(A) 102.3
(B) 101
(C) 99
(D) 98.2
(E) 100.4
Answer: (B)
22. 16 7 6 8 15 ?
(A) 42
(B) 38
(C) 55.5
(D) 44.8
(E) 38.5
Answer: (E)
23. 3 4 9 28 113 ?
(A) 462
(B) 566
(C) 585
(D) 558
(E) 36.5
Answer: (B)
24. 126 62 30 14 ?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
(E) 7
Answer: (C)
Direction- (Q. 25-27) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Given Answers :
(A) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(D) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(E) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
25. Equal sums have been invested in schemes A and B for two years. Scheme A offers simple interest while scheme B offers compound interest (compounded annually. Both the schemes have equal rate of interest (p.c.p.a.). What is the rate of interest (p.c.p.a.) offered by each of the schemes?
(I) The interest earned from scheme A per annum on the given sum is Rs 545.
(II) The interest earned on scheme B after two years is 65.40 more than the interest earned from scheme A after two years.
Answer: (E)
26. What is the cost price of the table?
(I) The profit earned when the table is sold for Rs 560 is double the loss incurred when the same table is sold for Rs 320.
(II) The market price of the table is 40% more than the cost price. If a discount of 30% is given on the marked price, loss incurred is Rs 8.
Answer: (C)
27. How much time will Train M take to cross Train N (from the moment they meet) running in opposite direction (towards each other)?
(I) Train M can cross a signal pole in 10 seconds it can cross 420 m long station in 25 seconds.
(II) The respective ratio of speeds of Train M and Train N is 5 : 3. The sum of the lengths of Train M and Train N is 575 m.
Answer: (E)
28. The circumference of a circular field is 20 m less than the perimeter of square field. If the radius of the circular field is 9 m less than the side of the square field, what is the cost of graveling the circular field @ Rs 50 per m sq.?
(A) Rs 10,200
(B) Rs 7,700
(C) Rs 8,342
(D) Rs 6,500
(E) Rs 12,920
Answer: (B)
29. Present age of Ram is equal to Shyam’s age 8 years ago, the respective 6 years hence, the respective ratio between Shyam’s age and Ram’s age will be 6 : 5 at that time. What is Ram’s present age?
(A) 40 years
(B) 24 years
(C) 28 years
(D) 38 years
(E) 34 years
Answer: (E)
30. 600.16 × √? + 60.05 × √63 = 2280
(A) 9
(B) 49
(C) 81
(D) 121
(E) 25
Answer: (A)
31. 59.99% of 500.18 + 60.97 = ?2
(A) 11
(B) 9
(C) 19
(D) 21
(E) 7
Answer: (C)
32. 18.013 ÷ ? × 19.95 × 3.01 = 350.15
(A) 22
(B) 56
(C) 40
(D) 34
(E) 15
Answer: (B)
33. 45012 ÷85 ÷ √146 × 4.98 = ?
(A) 125
(B) 110
(C) 250
(D) 50
(E) 75
Answer: (A)
34. (1280.14 + 519.85) ÷99 = ?
(A) 250
(B) 100
(C) 200
(D) 150
(E) 125
Answer: (D)
35. A boat travels from A to B upstream and then from B to C downstream taking the same time. The respective ratio between the distance from A to B and the distance from B to C is 5 : 7. If the boat takes 2 hours 30 minutes to travel a distance of 35 km downstream what is the speed of the stream? (in km/h)
(A) 2 km/h
(B) 3 km/h
(C) 12 km/h
(D) 10 km/h
(E) 14 km/h
Answer: (A)
36. Rs 7,350 was partly invested in Scheme A at 10% p.a. compound interest (compounded annually) for 2 years and partly in Scheme B at 7% p.a. simple interest for 4 years. Both the schemes earn equal interests. How much was invested in Scheme A?
(A) Rs 5,000
(B) Rs 4,200
(C) Rs 4,500
(D) Rs 3,150
(E) Rs 6,000
Answer: (B)
37. The height of cylinder is 14 cm and its curved surface area is 264 sqm. The volume of the cylinder is-
(A) 308 cm3
(B) 396 cm3
(C) 148 cm3
(D) 1232 cm3
(E) 529 cm3
Answer: (B)
38. A certain sum is divided among A, B and C in such a way that A gets 220 more than 1/3th of the sum, B gets Rs 40 less than 2/5th of the sum and C gets Rs 300. What is the total sum invested?
(A) Rs 1,300
(B) Rs 1,400
(C) Rs 1,800
(D) Rs 1,500
(E) Rs 1,250
Answer: (C)
Direction – (Q. 39-43) In the following questions two equation numbered I and II are given you have to solve both the questions and given answers-
(A) If x < y
(B) If x ≤ y
(C) x > y
(D) If x ≥ y
(E) x = y or the relations cannot be established.
39. (I) x2 – 8x + 15 = 0
(II) y2 – 7x + 10 = 0
Answer: (D)
40. (I) 2x2 + 9x + 9 = 0
(II) 2y2 + 15y + 28 = 0
Answer: (C)
41. (I) 2x2 – 13x + 18 = 0
(II) 2y2 – 19y + 45 = 0
Answer: (B)
42. (I) 2x2 + 19x + 44 = 0
(II) 2y2 + 7y + 3 = 0
Answer: (A)
43. (I) x2 + 7x + 12 = 0
(II) 2y2 + 17y + 35 = 0
Answer: (E)
44. The cost of 2 TV sets and a radio is 7,000, while 2 radios and one TV set together cost 4,250 the cost of a TV set is-
(A) Rs 3,000
(B) Rs 3,160
(C) Rs 3,240
(D) Rs 4,160
(E) Rs 3,250
Answer: (E)
Direction- Study the following information carefully to answer the given question.
In a college, there were 700 students in 2012 the college offers Engineering in five specialization’s Computer Science, Civil, Electrical, Mechanical and Bio-technology. Out of the total number of male students in the college, 30% study computer science, 15% study Civil, 18% study Electrical, 12% study Mechanical and the remaining students study biotechnology.
Out of the total number of female students in the college, 35% study computer science, 5% study civil, 20% study electrical and 15% study Mechanical. There are 75 female students in bio-technology.
45. The number of male students in bio-technology is what per cent more than the number of female students studying in the same course?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Answer: (C)
46. What is the respective ratio between the male students in computer science and the number of female students studying in the same course?
(A) 15 : 8
(B) 13 : 9
(C) 8 : 7
(D) 10 : 9
(E) 12 : 11
Answer: (C)
47. What is the difference between the total number of female students in Electrical and Mechanical together and total number of male studying in the same courses together?
(A) 12
(B) 19
(C) 15
(D) 11
(E) 17
Answer: (C)
48. The total number of male students in Civil and Computer Science together are what per cent of the total number of students (male and female) studying in these two courses together?
(A) 66
(B) 62
(C) 64
(D) 65
(E) 60
Answer: (E)
49. What is the average number of students (male and female) in Mechanical and Bio-technology?
(A) 132
(B) 124
(C) 134
(D) 128
(E) 138
Answer: (C)
50. A started a business. After 4 months from the start of the respective ratio between the amounts invested by A, B and C was 6 : 11 : 12. If the C’s share in annual profit was 720 more than A’s share. What was the total annual profit earned?
IBPS PO (Pre.) Examination Held on 15-10-2017 Reasoning Question Paper With Answer Key
IBPS PO (Pre.) Examination Held on 15-10-2017
Reasoning
Directions – (Q. 1-5) Read the following information and answer the given question-
L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are seven employees who are working in the same company. They attend meeting in different department viz., Administrative, Security, Finance and HR department on different days from Monday to Sunday but not necessarily in the same order. One employee attends only one meeting and only one meeting is held on each day. There are two employees who attend meeting in administrative, security HR department and only one employee attends meeting in Finance department.
L attends meeting on Thursday. There are two persons who attend meeting between L and the person who attends meeting in HR department. There are three persons who attend meeting between the persons who attend meeting in Administrative department and the one who attends meeting in Finance department. The one who attends meeting in administrative department attends before the one who attends in Finance department. The one who attends meeting in finance department does not attend on Saturday. The number of persons who attend meeting between L and the one who attend meeting in finance department is same as the number of persons who attend meeting between O and the one who attends meeting in security department. The one who attends meeting in security department attend before O. O does not attend meeting on the day immediately before the day on which L attends meeting. O does not attend meeting on the day just after the day on which L attends meeting. The number of persons who attend meeting between L and P is same as the number of persons who attend meeting between L and R. P attends meeting in one of the day before the day on which R attend meeting. N attends meeting in administrative department. R does not attend meeting in security department.
1. Who among the following person attend meeting on Friday?
(A) P
(B) M
(C) P
(D) N
(E) R
Answer: (D)
2. Which of the following combinations of ‘Person-Day’ is true with respect to the given arrangement?
(A) R-Friday
(B) M-Saturday
(C) Q-Thursday
(D) P-Friday
(E) P-Tuesday
Answer: (E)
3. L attends meeting in which of the following department?
(A) Security
(B) HR
(C) Administrative
(D) Finance
(E) Either (A) or (B)
Answer: (A)
4. In this arrangement, Q is related on Monday, L is related to Security then N is related to?
(A) Thursday
(B) Wednesday
(C) HR
(D) None of those given as options
(E) Sunday
Answer: (B)
5. How many persons attend meeting between P and O?
(A) 3
(B) None
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) More than three
Answer: (E)
Directions –(Q. 6-10) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Mark answer:
(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow
6. Statements : L > I = N > P;
Conclusions: (I) E > P (II) R < L
Answer: (E)
7. Statements : S > A = N ≥ D;
A ≥ L > E; M ≤ L ≤ D
Conclusions: (I) S > E (II) L < S
Answer: (E)
8. Statements : L > I = N > P;
I ≥ R > K; N ≤ E < Z
Conclusions: (I) K > N (II) I < Z
Answer: (B)
9. Statements: P ≥ V ≥ R ≤ E < Y;
G ≥ E > N
Conclusions: (I) P > N (II) G ≥ Y
Answer: (D)
10. Statements: S > A = N ≥ D;
A ≥ L > E; M ≤ L ≤ D
Conclusions: (I) A > M (II) A = M
Answer: (C)
Directions (Q. 11-15) Read the following information and answer the given question-
A, B, C, D, E, F, G & H are eight friends and sitting around a circular table but not necessarily in same order. Some of them are facing inside and some of them are facing outside. A sits third to right of H. There is two people sits between H and B. C sits second to left of B. There is three people sits between B and E. D is second to left of F, who is not immediate neighbour of A. Immediate neighbours of H faces same direction as H. F sits third to left of A, who faces centre. The immediate neighbours of A face opposite to the direction of A.
11. Who is sitting third to the right of F?
(A) C
(B) B
(C) A
(D) E
(E) D
Answer: (D)
12. Who is facing the centre?
(A) AD
(B) AGH
(C) AB
(D) ADC
(E) None of those given as options
Answer: (C)
13. Who sits opposite to H?
(A) A
(B) D
(C) F
(D) E
(E) G
Answer: (B)
14. How many people are sitting between C and B, when counted from left of C?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) One
(D) Four
(E) Five
Answer: (C)
15. Who is sitting exactly between D and C when counted from right of D?
(A) HE
(B) CE
(C) FH
(D) BF
(E) DF
Answer: (D)
Directions – (Q. 16-20) Study the following information carefully and answer the given question-
Ten persons are sitting in 2 parallel rows containing 5 persons in each row. In 1st row M, N, O, P and Q are seated and are facing south. In 2nd row, U, V, X, Y and Z are seated and are facing north. Therefore in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. They like different colours Red, Orange, Blue, Brown, Black, White, Yellow, Pink, Peach and Grey (not necessarily in same order).
M doesn’t like brown and P likes black. Y sits third to the left of U, who likes yellow. M faces immediate neighbour of Y, who likes orange. The one who likes peach sits at extreme end. O sits second to the right of M. The one who likes red faces the one who likes pink but M doesn’t like pink. Only one person sits between N and P. V and Z are immediate neighbours. Z does not face M and N, who doesn’t like grey. The one who faces U likes white. The one who faces an immediate neighbour of Y likes brown.
16. How many persons are seated between N and the one who likes white?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Answer: (C)
17. Who amongst the following faces P?
(A) U
(B) The one who likes Pink
(C) X
(D) N
(E) The one who like grey
Answer: (E)
18. Which of the following is true regarding M?
(A) N and X are immediate neighbours of M
(B) M sits at one of the extreme ends of the line
(C) M likes black
(D) P sits to the immediate left of M
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D)
19. Who amongst the following pair sits exactly in the middle of the rows?
(A) M, Z
(B) P, Y
(C) U, N
(D) M, V
(E) None of those given as options
Answer: (D)
20. V likes which of the following colour?
(A) Brown
(B) Pink
(C) Black
(D) White
(E) Other than those given as options
Answer: (B)
Directions – (Q. 21-25) Study the following information and answer the given question-
In a certain code,
‘detail even year this’ is written as ‘bi g voc st’,
‘event revised of awaited’ is written as ‘tm oc da pu’,
‘of detail results first’ is written as ‘nh mk tm gv’.
‘awaited great year of’ is written as ‘da st rx tm’
(All codes are two letter code only)
21. In the given code language, what does the code ‘mk’ stand for?
(A) either ‘detail’ or ‘year’
(B) this
(C) of
(D) Either ‘first’ or ‘results’
(E) great
Answer: (D)
22. What is the code for ‘awaited’ in the given code language?
(A) tm
(B) rx
(C) st
(D) da
(E) Other than those given as options
Answer: (D)
23. What is the code for ‘event’ in the given code language?
(A) nh
(B) oc
(C) gv
(D) pu
(E) rx
Answer: (B)
24. What may be the possible code for ‘awaited revised’ in the given code language?
(A) ve be
(B) da nh
(C) nh ve
(D) pu da
(E) bi da
Answer: (D)
25. If ‘of year home’ is written as ‘aj tm st’ in the given code language, then what is the code for ‘home revised this’?
(A) aj gv nh
(B) pu aj bi
(C) nh bi pu
(D) bi da aj
(E) aj oc pu
Answer: (B)
26. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘TRANSFER’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Three
(D) More than three
(E) Two
Answer: (C)
27. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the given arrangement?
BED EIG HMJ KQM ?
(A) PUN
(B) OUQ
(C) NUQ
(D) NUP
(E) NUR
Answer: (D)
Directions – (Q. 28 and 29) Read the following information and answer the given question-
R is the sister of Q. M is the father of R. V is the son of Q. C is the maternal grandfather of V. M does not have married daughter.
28. How is R related to V?
(A) Uncle
(B) Aunt
(C) Mother
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) Nephew
Answer: (B)
29. If B is married to Q, then how is B related to M?
(A) Grandson
(B) Son-in-law
(C) Son
(D) Daughter-in-law
(E) Cannot be determined
Answer: (D)
Directions- (Q. 30-32) Read the following information and answer the given question-
A certain number of persons are seated in a row. The Row is arranged in a vertical manner and all are facing to north direction. Ranjan sits fourth from the left end of the row. There are two person sit between Ranjan and Seema. Puja sits immediate right of Seema. There are as many persons sit between Puja and Seema as sits between Dinesh and Puja. Dinesh does not sit to the left of Ranjan.
30. How many person sits between Ranjan and Dinesh?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) None
(D) 4
(E) 1
Answer: (D)
31. What is the position of Puja with respect to Ranjan?
(A) Immediate right
(B) Third to the left
(C) Other than those given as options
(D) Second to the left
(E) Fourth to the right
Answer: (E)
32. How many persons are seated in a row?
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 10
(D) 11
(E) 9
Answer: (E)
Directions – (Q. 33-35) Read the following information and answer the given question-
The are six persons S, T, U, V, W and X, who got different marks in the examination. S got more marks than only U and X. T got less marks than W, who did not get the highest marks in the examination. The Second highest person got 92 marks.
33. How many persons got more marks than U?
(A) Four
(B) Two
(C) Five
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) One
Answer: (D)
34. If S got 69 marks and U got 68 marks, then which of the following statement is true?
IBPS Clerk Pre. Online Examination Held on December 3, 2017 Question Paper With Answer Key
IBPS Clerk Pre. Online Examination Held on December 3, 2017
Part I English Language
Direction (Q. Nos. 1-6) In the given sentence, a blank is given indicating that something is missing. From the given four options (a), (b) (c) and (d), a combination of words would independently fit and one combination would not. Mark that option that does not fit as the answer. If the given combinations fit perfectly, then mark ‘All fit’ as the answer. Both the words in the correct answer combination independently must not fit in the blank.
1. Games between England and Australia enjoy a popularity sadly ………… in others parts of the world.
(A) absent (B) dearth
(C) lacking (D) inadequately
(a) AD
(b) AB
(c) BD
(d) CD
(e) All fit
Answer: (d)
2. A recent survey …… that light pollution is threatening darkness almost everywhere.
(A) highlighted (B) revealed
(C) show (D) unveiling
(a) AD
(b) AB
(c) BC
(d) CD
(e) All fit
Answer: (d)
3. The mobile wallet firm Mobikwik recently announced that the users will now be ……… to pay traffic challans on its application.
(A) able (B) willing
(C) went (D) allowed
(a) AD
(b) AB
(c) BC
(d) CD
(e) All fit
Answer: (c)
4. The president has consistently been ……….. to take it on a bigger role in the world owing to reasons unknown.
(A) very (B) hesitant
(C) uncertainty (D) reluctant
(a) AC
(b) AB
(c) BC
(d) CD
(e) All fit
Answer: (a)
5. The two countries will ……. in the next phase of bilateral cooperation in the field of science and technology.
(A) merged (B) clasps
(C) work together (D) join hands
(a) AD
(b) AB
(c) BC
(d) CD
(e) All fit
Answer: (b)
6. Passengers should brace themselves for a fare increase as the government is likely to …….. the passengers service’ fee by 30%.
(A) raise (B) rise (C) hike (D) boast
(a) BD
(b) AB
(c) BC
(d) CD
(e) All fit
Answer: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 7-12) Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
In a world in which nearly half the population is over the age of 50, we will have to start thinking of older people differently. The first thing we will have to recognize is that our very notion of old age is faulty. In the mid-to-late 1800s, medical theory suggested that the only healthy thing for older adults to do was rest. This gave birth to the first government pensions, corporate retirement policies, dedicated old-age homes. Surviving till today is this idea that older people are ‘supposed’ to be consumers of ideas, work, products and culture, but never producers.
Today, ask anyone over the age of 60 or so if she wants to sit in a rocking chair for the rest of her life and she’ll laugh you out of the room. Yet, this outmoded norm concerning the capabilities and goals of older people persists. It remains at the core of misguided products, policies, workplace expectations. Living longer and better may mean working longer. It may mean a lifetime of learning and growth. We may see older adults in roles to which we are not accustomed: retail, manufacturing, teaching and delivering healthcare (not just receiving it). The energy we draw from our older population may grow to become one of our most valuable resources. Businesses founded by people over the age of 50 are already major sources of employment across the nation. Products designed with older people in mind must evolve. An ageing society has given rise to a new multi-trillion-dollar market of consumers who want not just to be taken care of, but also live out aspirations once considered impossible in old age. These products, services and experiences will become a source of economic growth and innovation. Infrastructure from housing to transportation must be reengineered, Workplaces will have to learn to utilize the unique skills and institutions knowledge of older workers and resist the age-old urge to age-discriminate. We as individuals will have to rethink old age, both for the sake of those older than us and for our own future selves.
7. Choose the world which is most opposite in meaning to the word ‘Innovation’ printed in bold as used in the passage?
(a) Modernity
(b) Customary
(c) Nascency
(d) Novation
(e) Upstart
Answer: (b)
8. Which of the following is the author referring to through the term ‘valuable resources’?
(a) Embracing the latest technology
(b) Economic growth
(c) Infrastructure
(d) Cut-throat corporate culture
(e) None of the given options
Answer: (e)
9. Which of the following is/are the impact(s) of the medical theory mentioned in the passage?
(A) We have side-lined the older population.
(B) Better treatment of age related diseases.
(C) Creation of facilities such as pensions for the elderly.
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) A and C
(d) Only C
(e) All of these
Answer: (c)
10. Which of the following is the author’s advice regarding work?
(a) Organizations should harness the skills of older workers.
(b) Companies should utilize the experience of workers who are not yound.
(c) We must embrace the idea of people working even at an older age.
(d) We must keep in mind that older workers can be entirely productive.
(e) All the given options
Answer: (e)
11. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
(a) We must revamp infrastructure to meet the needs of the elderly.
(b) The elderly population is dropping.
(c) The concept of ‘old age’ needs to be rethought.
(d) The traditional idea of ‘old age homes’ is outdated.
(e) All the given options are true.
Answer: (b)
12. Which of the following represent(s) the author’s view?
(A) Society needs to recognize the needs, desires and aspirations of older people.
(B) Older people are capable producers.
(C) Corporate retirement policies are very generous at present.
(a) A and B
(b) Only B
(c) B and C
(d) Only C
(e) All of these
Answer: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 13-20) The sentence has been spilt into five parts denoted by A, B, C, D and E. Part A is fixed in the sentence and is to be taken as grammatically correct. The remaining four parts B, C, D and E may or may not have either (an) inappropriate word (s) or spelling errors in it. From these four, there will be only one part without any error. Identify that part and mark it as your answer. If the sentence is correct as it is, then mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
13. Traditionally, people have/ associated excessive sweating/ with having a higher body fat/ percentage and less sweating/ with a higher level of acrobic activity.
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) No error
Answer: (c)
14. The country is among/the emerging global players in/research and innovation, thenks/to the excellent research centres/ and a considerable talent pool.
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) No error
Answer: (c)
15. After a gap of over eighty years,/ the black bear has returned/ to the northern region of the country/ through conservation, and their/population believed to be over 500.
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) No error
Answer: (b)
16.The government is likely/ to lounch a policy on electric vehicles/ proposing benefits for manufacturers/ and putting in place the necessary/ support system by the end of this year.
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) No error
Answer: (d)
17. ‘Writer Page’ is a unique platform/where budding writers/are encouraged to hone/ their writing skills/ with the help of establishment authors.
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) No error
Answer: (e)
18. Ferrying of coal in/uncowered vehicles and rail wagons is/said to won of the key/ reasons behind high pollution/ levels along the transportation root.
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) No error
Answer: (c)
19. Thanksgiving is that/festival when families/gather together, forget/ their differences and feast/ on turkey and pumpkin pie.
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) No error
Answer: (c)
20. There needs to be/a dipper exploration of/why parents actually have/ a problem with/their children reading books based on voilence.
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) No error
Answer: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 21-30) The sentence has a blank which indicates something has been omitted. which of the following phrases given against the sentence, fits the blank in the given sentence both grammatically and meaningfully, If none of phrases fit, select ‘None of the given options’ as your answer.
21. She ……….. so badly in the last movie that she decided to withdraw from acting.
(a) so hardly hit
(b) got alive and kicking
(c) got her fingers burnt
(d) fall at life
(e) None of the given options
Answer: (c)
22. Last night the cricket match was ………. as the home team could not stand their opponents.
(a) a throwback on
(b) epic fall
(c) a major let down
(d) loss of face
(e) None of the given options
Answer: (c)
23. Since you were just discharged from the hospital, you need ………. so that you are able to recover fully.
(a) plenty of down-time
(b) play back required
(c) take care of
(d) recover from
(e) None of the given options
Answer: (a)
24. He started working from home so that he would be able ………. with his family.
(a) for the duration
(b) to spend more time
(c) to in the long run
(d) spend a penny for
(e) None of the given options
Answer: (b)
25. While I was searching the attic, I ………. some very interesting photographs.
(a) find a way around
(b) came across
(c) looking forward to
(d) came down with
(e) None of the given options
Answer: (b)
26. Simone ……… deleted Ravi’s contact number but pretended to have lost it.
(a) an honest mistake
(b) accidentally on purpose
(c) at cross purpose
(d) all intention of purpose
(e) None of the given options
Answer: (d)
27. The manager offered him a lucrative job but he ……….. .
(a) fell for it
(b) paid dearly for
(c) turned it down
(d) given it away
(e) None of the given options
Answer: (c)
28. The head of the detective department asked the officers to …….. before reaching any conclusion in the case.
(a) thinking over
(b) do searching of
(c) looking for clues
(d) explore all the avenues
(e) None of the given options
Answer: (d)
29. The teacher complained to his mother that he does not ……… the rule.
(a) follow over
(b) make the rounds
(c) stick with
(d) abide by
(e) None of these
Answer: (d)
30. At the beginning of her performance on stage, she always has ……… .
(a) butterflies in her stomach
(b) get highly tensed
(c) nervous brokedown
(d) get all worked up
(e) None of the given options
Answer: (a)
Part II Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-32) In each question, relationship between different elements is shown in the two statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.
Give answer
(a) if either conclusion I or II follows
(b) if neither conclusion I nor II follows
(c) if only conclusion II follows
(d) if both conclusions follow
(e) if only conclusion I follows
31. Statement M ≥ P ≥ F ≥ Q; R ≤ F
Conclusion I R ≤ M
Conclusion II Q < R
Answer: (e)
32. Statement G = E ≤ N < R ≥ L > T
Conclusion I T < N
Conclusion II E ≤L
Answer: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 33-37) Study the information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code,
‘lots of exams today’ is written as ‘po li sy ko’
‘today are final exams’ is written as ‘jp sy po fr’
‘are the lots ready’ is written as ‘fr dv ko mt’
‘get ready for exams’ is written as ‘sy ot gh dv’
(All the codes are two letter codes only)
33. What is the code for ‘ready today’ in the given code language?
(a) mt po
(b) po dv
(c) dv fr
(d) li ot
(e) mt ko
Answer: (b)
34. Which of the following may represent ‘the routine exams’ in the given code language?
(a) mt kk gh
(b) dv op sy
(c) mt ot sy
(d) fr sy mt
(e) sy ul mt
Answer: (e)
35. What is the code for ‘get’ in the given code language?
(a) Either ‘sy’ or ‘dv’
(b) sy
(c) ko
(d) Either ‘ot’ or ‘gh’
(e) None of these
Answer: (d)
36. What is the code for ‘lots’ in the given code language?
(a) po
(b) ko
(c) fr
(d) li
(e) mt
Answer: (b)
37. What is the code for ‘final’ in the given code language?
(a) po
(b) jp
(c) ko
(d) fr
(e) sy
Answer: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 38-42) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
Eight people C, D, E, F, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre with equal distance between each other.
Only three people sit between E and U. Only two people sit between U and F. C sits third to the left of V. V is neither an immediate neighbour of U nor F. D sits to the immediate right of T.
38. Which of the following represents the position of D with respect to C?
(a) Second to the right
(b) Third to the left
(c) Fourth to the right
(d) Third to the right
(e) Second to the left
Answer: (b)
39. Which of the following is true regarding S as per the given arrangement?
(a) S sits to the immediate right of D.
(b) None of the given options is true.
(c) S is an immediate neighbour of F.
(d) S sits second to the right of E.
(e) Only three people sit between S and T.
Answer: (b)
40. Who sits second to the right of T?
(a) F
(b) V
(c) E
(d) U
(e) C
Answer: (d)
41. How many people are sitting between V and F when counted from the right of F?
(a) One
(b) None
(c) Four
(d) three
(e) Two
Answer: (a)
42. Who among the following are seated exactly between U and F when counted from the right of U?
(a) C, D
(b) C, S
(c) E, S
(d) E, T
(e) S, T
Answer: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 43-45) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
Sameer starts walking from Point A, He walks 15 m towards East and reaches Point B. He then takes a left turn, walks 5m and reaches Point C. From Point C he takes, a left turn. walks 6 m and reaches Point D. He takes a left turn, walks 10 m and reaches Point E. From Point E, he takes a right turn, walks 9 m and reaches point F.
43. How far and in which direction is Point A with respect to Point F?
(a) 9m towards South
(b) 9m towards North
(c) 8m towards North
(d) 5m towards North
(e) 6m towards South
Answer: (d)
44. Points B, C and Z form a straight line in such a way that B falls at a point between Points C and Z. If the distance between B and Z is double the distance between Points B and C, in which direction is Point Z with respect to Point E?
(a) South-East
(b) North-West
(c) West
(d) South-West
(e) North-East
Answer: (a)
45. In which direction is Point F with respect to Point C?
(a) North
(b) East
(c) South-West
(d) West
(e) South-East
Answer: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 46-50) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. All the given persons in both the rows face North. In row-1 A, B, C, D and E area seated and in row-2, L, M, N, O and P are seated. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member of row-2 is sitting right behind a member of row-1.
D sits second to the left A. A does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The one sitting behind A sits to the immediate right of P. The one sitting in front of M sits third to the right of B. Only one person sits between B and C. E sits in front of L. More than two people sit between L and N.
46. Which of the following is true regarding O?
(a) O sits second to the left of M.
(b) O sits behind C.
(c) O is an immediate neighbour of L
(d) O sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
(e) None of the given option is true.
Answer: (a)
47. In which of the following pairs of people, are both of them sitting at extreme ends of the rows?
(a) C, M
(b) C, N
(c) E, N
(d) B, O
(e) B, P
Answer: (c)
48. B is related to C in the same way as P is related to L based on the given seating arrangement. To who amongst the following is N related to following the same pattern?
(a) N
(b) The one sitting behind E
(c) P
(d) O
(e) The one sitting behind D
Answer: (c)
49. How many persons are seated between E and D?
(a) One
(b) None
(c) Three
(d) Two
(e) Cannot be determined
Answer: (d)
50. Who amongst the following is sitting in front of O?
(a) B
(b) The one sitting to immediate right of A
(c) The one sitting to immediate right of C
(d) C
(e) D
Answer: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-53) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the given questions.
D C U D B C B A C D E B U B A C
A D C A D B A E B U A D E B C E
51. How many alphabets are there in the English alphabetical series between the alphabet which is fourth from the left end and the alphabet which is third from the right end of the arrangement?
(a) More than three
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) None
(e) Three
Answer: (c)
52. If all D’s are dropped from the given arrangement, which of the following will be eighth from the left end of the given arrangement?
(a) U
(b) A
(c) E
(d) B
(e) C
Answer: (c)
53. How many such vowels are there in the given arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by a consonant?
(a) Two
(b) More than four
(c) Three
(d) One
(e) Four
Answer: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 54-58) Study the following information and answer the given questions.
Each of eight people-L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S was born in a different month viz. January, March, May, June, September, October, November and December of the same year.
S was born in one of the months before April. Only three people were born between the months in which S and Q were born. Only two people were born between L and N. L was born in one of the months before N. More than two people were born between the months in which L and Q were born. As many people were born before N as after O. P was born in one of the months having only 30 days. M has born in one of the months before R.
54. If X was born in one of the months between the months in which N and O were born, in which was X possibly born?
(a) February
(b) May
(c) April
(d) October
(e) August
Answer: (e)
55. Who amongst the following was born in a month immediately after the month in which P was born?
(a) M
(b) L
(c) R
(d) Q
(e) S
Answer: (c)
56. In which of the following months was M born?
(a) March
(b) December
(c) January
(d) May
(e) November
Answer: (d)
57. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information and thus form a group. Which is the one that dies not belong to that group?
(a) L
(b) m
(c) R
(d) S
(e) O
Answer: (e)
58. How many people were born between the months is which S and O were born?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) None
(d) One
(e) Four
Answer: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 59-62) Following questions are based on five words given below.
SHE OLD ANT TIN JUG
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
59. If S is added before the first letter in each word, which of the following would form meaningful English words with the new arrangement?
(a) Only SHE
(b) ANT and JUG
(c) Only OLD
(d) TIN and JUG
(e) Only TIN
Answer: (c)
60. If in each of the given words each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is chaged to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
(a) One
(b) More than three
(c) None
(d) Three
(e) Two
Answer: (a)
61. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
(a) Two
(b) Eight
(c) Five
(d) Six
(e) Three
Answer: (a)
62. If second alphabet in each of the words is chaged to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having more than one vowel will be formed?
(a) Three
(b) More than three
(c) Two
(d) One
(e) None
Answer: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 63-65) In each question two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows.
Give answer
(a) if either conclusion I or II follows
(b) if both conclusions follows
(c) if neither conclusion I nor II follows
(d) if only conclusion II follows
(e) if only conclusion I follows
63. Statements All alerts are mails. No mail is a post. Some posts are boxes.
Conclusion I No post is an alert.
Conclusion II No box is an alert.
Answer: (e)
64. Statements All alerts are nails. No mail is a post. Some posts are boxes.
Conclusion I Atleast some boxes are nails.
Conclusion II All mails can never be boxes.
Answer: (c)
65. Statements Some sauces are jams. All jams are pickles.
Conclusion I Some jams are definitely not sauces.
Conclusion II At least some pickles are sauces.
Answer: (d)
Part III Quantitative Aptitude
66. 120 kg and 150 kg of potatoes were stored in warehouse on Monday and Tuesday respectively. If ‘X’ kg of potatoes got rotten on each day and the respective ratio of number of potatoes that did not get rotten on Monday and Tuesday was 3 : 4, what is the value of X?
(a) 30
(b) 25
(c) 50
(d) 20
(e) 40
Answer: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 67-81) What will come in place of question marks (?) in the given questions?
67. (612 +184 – ?) ÷ (2 ÷04) = 15
(a) 50
(b) 46
(c) 42
(d) 54
(e) 49
Answer: (b)
68.
(a) 16
(b) 8
(c) 4
(d) 0.5
(e) 2
Answer: (b)
69. (4.5)2 – (1.5)2 = ?2
(a) 9√2
(b) 9
(c) 3√2
(d) 18
(e) 4√3
Answer: (c)
70. 3432/3 * 2561/4 – ? = 122
(a) 44
(b) 56
(c) 52
(d) 42
(e) 54
Answer: (c)
71.
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 7
(e) 6
Answer: (b)
72.
(a) 14
(b) 15
(c) 12
(d) 26
(e) 28
Answer: (e)
73.
(a) 25
(b) 15
(c) 10
(d) 20
(e) 45
Answer: (b)
74. 4/5th of 3/8th of ? = 112 + 5
(a) 450
(b) 390
(c) 360
(d) 420
(e) 440
Answer: (d)
75. 4 – ? ÷ 5 – 3.9 = 17.8
(a) 17.5
(b) 16.5
(c) 18.5
(d) 12.5
(e) 14.5
Answer: (c)
76.
(a) 225
(b) 324
(c) 196
(d) 400
(e) 289
Answer: (a)
77. (18* 23 – 141) ÷5 = 2?
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 3
(e) 6
Answer: (c)
78.
(a) 12
(b) 16
(c) 36
(d) 24
(e) 48
Answer: (d)
79. √? = 120 ÷ 48 + 29.5
(a) 900
(b) 1156
(c) 784
(d) 1024
(e) 676
Answer: (d)
80. 2/5 of (40 ÷25 + 2 ÷ 5) = ?
(a) 4/5
(b) 1/2
(c) 2/5
(d) 1/4
(e) 1/5
Answer: (a)
81. 14* 5 ÷ 8 + 7.25= ?2
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 8
(d) 4
(e) 2
Answer: (d)
82. Train A, 150 m long and running at 15 m/sec overtakes Train B running at 10 m/sec in a direction same as that of Train A in 72 sec (from the moment both trains meet). What is Train B’s length?
(a) 240 m
(b) 220 m
(c) 200 m
(d) 160 m
(e) 210 m
Answer: (e)
83. A vessel contains a mixture of X L milk and 25 L water in the respective ratio of 24 : 5. If 29 L mixture is taken out and 4 L water is added to it, what will be the resultant respective ratio between milk and water?
(a) 16 : 3
(b) 8 : 1
(c) 16 : 5
(d) 4 : 1
(e) 8 : 3
Answer: (e)
84. The sum of four consecutive even numbers is 236. Sum of four consecutive odd numbers is 140% more than the second highest even number. What is the average of the given four odd numbers?
(a) 32
(b) 38
(c) 34
(d) 28
(e) 36
Answer: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 85-89) What will come in place of question marks in the given number series?
85. 129 127 122 112 ? 69
(a) 105
(b) 65
(c) 115
(d) 75
(e) 95
Answer: (e)
86. 60 89 112 131 ? 161
(a) 158
(b) 148
(c) 142
(d) 152
(e) 144
Answer: (b)
87. 2 8 26 80 242 ?
(a) 718
(b) 716
(c) 728
(d) 722
(e) 724
Answer: (c)
88. 25 8 128 1024 ? 8192
(a) 4048
(b) 2024
(c) 4096
(d) 3072
(e) 2048
Answer: (c)
89. 5 6 10 17 30 ?
(a) 45
(b) 58
(c) 60
(d) 52
(e) 55
Answer: (e)
90. Marked price of article A is 40% more than its Cost Price. Profit earned when article A was sold after giving two successive discounts of 10% each is Rs 53.60. If article A is sold at 30% profit, what would be its selling price?
(a) Rs 580
(b) Rs 680
(c) Rs 750
(d) Rs 590
(e) Rs 520
Answer: (e)
91. A and B started a business with investment of Rs 12800 and Rs 15600 respectively. 8 months after the start of the business, B left. If the total annual profit was Rs 14500, what was A’s share in profit?
(a) Rs 8800
(b) Rs 8000
(c) Rs 7200
(d) Rs 7680
(e) Rs 9600
Answer: (b)
92. Harshal spends his monthly income on paying rent, buying groceries and investing in mutual funds in the respective ratio of 2 : 3 : 5. If the difference between the income spent on rent and that invested in mutual funds is Rs 12000, what is h is annual income?
(a) Rs 4.8 lakh
(b) Rs 4.0 lakh
(c) Rs 5.4 lakh
(d) Rs 3.6 lakh
(e) Rs 6.0 lakh
Answer: (a)
93. Suresh invested some money for 8 years in scheme A offering simple interest at 12% p.a. The interest received from Scheme A was then invested in scheme B (which offers simple interest at 10% p.a.) for 5 years. If interest received from scheme B was Rs 4032, what was the sum invested in scheme A?
(a) Rs 9600
(b) Rs 7200
(c) Rs 7600
(d) Rs 8000
(e) Rs 8400
Answer: (e)
94. A alone can finish a piece of work in 36 days. B is 20% more efficient than A. A alone started working and was replaced by B after 8 days. In how many days B alone can finish the remaining work?
(a) 21 1/3
(b) 19 1/3
(c) 25 2/3
(d) 20 2/3
(e) 23 1/3
Answer: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 95-99) Study the table and answer the given questions.
95. What was the respective ratio of total number of tickets sold from Location D on Tuesday and Wednesday together to number of tickets sold from Location A on Wednesday?
(a) 6 : 5
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 5: 4
(d) 2 : 1
(e) 4 : 3
Answer: (d)
96. What is the average number of tickets sold from Location C on Monday, Wednesday and Friday?
(a) 91
(b) 89
(c) 90
(d) 88
(e) 87
Answer: (c)
97. If number of tickets sold from Location E on Tuesday was 15/31 times the total number of tickets sold from locations A and B together on Tuesday, how many tickets were sold from Location E on Tuesday?
(a) 60
(b) 65
(c) 70
(d) 75
(e) 55
Answer: (d)
98. What was the difference between total number of tickets sold from Location B and D on Monday and those sold from the same locations together on Thursday?
(a) 9
(b) 12
(c) 11
(d) 14
(e) 8
Answer: (b)
99. Number of tickets sold from Location a on Monday was what percent more than those sold from Location A on Friday?
(a) 25%
(b) 22.5%
(c) 15%
(d) 12.5%
(e) 17.5%
Answer: (d)
100. If the length of the rectangle is increased by 25%, its perimeter would become 92 m. If the breadth of the original rectangle is increased by 50%, its perimeter would become 96 m. What is the breadth of the original rectangle?
IBPS Specialist Officer Pre. Online Examination Held on December 20, 2017Question Paper With Answer Key
IBPS Specialist Officer Pre. Online Examination Held on December 20, 2017
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Each sentence has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for the blanks which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
1. A rift on a gigantic ice shall has grown more ………… in the past few months than it has …………. the past five years, and the consequences could be disastrous.
(a) rapidly; over
(b) slowly; from
(c) fast; in
(d) sluggishly; under
(e) briskly; on
Answer: (a)
2. Contrary to the usual ………… of air travel, wherein July is the lean month, this year’s air travel data presents a ………… picture.
(a) style; similar
(b) trend; different
(c) pattern; poor
(d) Statistic; solid
(e) fad; drastic
Answer: (b)
3. The new material, when incorporated ……. windows or sunroofs, can …….. the incoming heat and light from the Sun, thereby cutting electricity costs.
(a) at; forfeit
(b) to; manage
(c) in; control
(d) for; change
(e) of; regulate
Answer: (c)
4. Initially preferred by many as a winter …………., velvet has, over the years, assumed great versatility and can now be worn …….. the year.
(a) dress, along
(b) clothing, across
(c) thread, for
(d) fabric, throughout
(e) suit, out
Answer: (d)
5. Recently, the local municipal corporation of the city has made the ………. of yoga mandatory in all the schools that come ………… its purview.
(a) outcome, within
(b) duty, on
(c) essence, for
(d) custom, off
(e) practice, under
Answer: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Education in most of the developing world is shocking. Half the children in South Asia and a third of those in Africa who complete four years of schooling cannot read properly. In India, 60% of six-to-14-year-olds cannot read at the level of a child who has finished two years of schooling.
Most government have proposed to provide universal primary education and to promote secondary education. But even when public schools exist, they often fail to do so.
Results of the survey conducted in this respect by the World Bank depicted worrisome results. In rural Indian schools, a quarter of teachers was absent. In Africa, the teacher-absenteeism rates ranged between15-25%. Pakistan recently discovered that it had over 8000 non-existent state schools, 17% of the total, Sierra Leone spotted 6000’ ghost’ teachers, nearly a fifth the number on the State payroll.
Powerful teachers’ union are part of the problem, They often see jobs as hereditary sinecures, the State-education budget as a revenue stream to be milked and any attempt to monitor the quality of education as an intrusion. The union can be fearsome enemies, so governments leave them to run schools in the interests of teachers rather than pupils.
The failure of State education, combined with the shift in emerging economies from farmin to jobs that need at least a modicum of education, has caused a private-school boom. According to the World Bank, across the developing world, a fifth of primary-school pupils are enrolled in private schools twice, as many as 20 years ago. So many private schools are unregistered that the real figure is likely to be much higher. A census in Lagos found 12000 private schools, four times as many as on government records. Across Nigeria, 26% of primary-age children were in private schools in 2010, up from 18% in 2004. In India in 2013, 29% were, up from 19% in 2006. In Liberia and Sierra Leone, around 60% and 50% respectively of secondary schools enrollments are private.
By and large, politicians and educationalists are unenthusiastic. Governments see education as the State’s job. Teacher’s union dislike private schools because they pay less and are harder to organize in NGOs tend to be ideologically opposed to the private sector. The UN special rapporteur on education has said that ‘for-profit education should not be allowed in order to safeguard the noble cause of education.’ This attitude harms those whom educationalists claim to serve children.
The boom in private education is excellent news for them and their countries, for three reasons. First, it is bringing in money-not just from parents, but also from investors, some in search of a profit. Most private schools in the developing world are single operators that charge a few dollars a month, but chains are now emerging.
Bridge International Academies, for instamce, has 400 nursery and primary schools in Kenya and Uganda which teach in standardized classrooms that look rather like stacked shipping containers. It plans to expand into Nigeria and India. Mark Zuckenberg, Facebook’s founder. Bill Gates and the International Finance Corporation, the World Bank’s private-sector arm, are among its investors, Chains are a healthy development, because they have reputation to guard. Second, private schools are often better value for money than State ones. Measuring this is hard, since the children who go to private schools tend to be better off and therefore likely to perform better.
But a rigorous four-year study of 6000 pupils in Andhra Pradesh, in southern India, suggested that private pupils perform better in English and Hindi than public-school pupils and at a similar level in mathematics and Telugu, the local language, The private schools achieved these results at a third of the cost of the public schools. Lastly, private schools are innovative. Since, technology has great (though as yet mostly unrealized) potential in education, this could be important. Bridge gives teachers tablets linked to a central system that provides teaching materials and monitors their work. Such robo-teaching may not be ideal, but it is better than lessons without either materials or monitoring.
Critics of the private sector are right that it has problems. Quality ranges from top-notch international standard to not much more than cheap child care. But the alternative is often a public school that is worse ….. or no school at all.
6. As mentioned in the passage, the boom in education sector, brought in by the private education, is welcomed because
(A) It provides a platform for bringing in innovative practices.
(B) If focuses on education children on a large scale.
(C) It encourages investment from all stakeholders.
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Both A and C
(d) Only C
(e) Both B and C
Answer: (c)
7. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
(a) Private schools in Africa function better as compared to those in Sierra Leone.
(b) Keeping track of the number of mushrooming private schools is easy in the developing world.
(c) The education sector in Liberia is mainly dominated by public schools.
(d) Standalone education institutions are better managed as compared to chains of schools.
(e) None of the given statements is true.
Answer: (c)
8. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning as the world ‘Safeguard’ as used in the passage?
(a) Threaten
(b) Shield
(c) Misfortune
(d) Violent
(e) Default
Answer: (a)
9. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning as the word ‘Unenthusiastic’ as used in the passage?
(a) Illogical
(b) Passionate
(c) Apathetic
(d) Kind
(e) Distressed
Answer: (b)
10. The data with respect to the failure of public schools
(a) depicted the real picture of the education sector in the developed world.
(b) identified loopholes in the existing pedagogy followed by most public schools.
(c) brought to the fore the fact that teachers must undergo constant training.
(d) highlighted the fact that a good number of schools and teachers existed only on paper.
(e) emphasized the point that absenteeism from school was a problem that existed only in the developing world.
Answer: (d)
11. Which of the following correctly explains the meaning of the phrase, ‘ hereditary sinecures’ as used in the passage for jobs?
(a) These can be acquired only on the basis of merit.
(b) These are inherited by female members of the family and passed on from generation to generation.
(c) These are acquired with minimum effort and involve little or no work.
(d) These are married by insecurities.
(e) These are not at all lucrative.
Answer: (c)
12. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘Milked’ as used in the passage?
(a) Saved
(b) Exploited
(c) Expressed
(d) Outsourced
(e) Managed
Answer: (b)
13. As mentioned in the passage, teachers’ unions pose a threat to the education system because
(A) they have a strong network of student volunteers.
(B) they always think about betterment of students at the cost interests of teachers.
(C) they follow controversial methods of teaching.
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Both A and B
(d) Only C
(e) None of the given A, B & C
Answer: (e)
14. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘Modicum’ as used in the passage?
(a) Minimum
(b) Strategy
(c) Medium
(d) Abundance
(e) Relief
Answer: (a)
15. Which of the following is the central theme of the passage?
(a) Exploring methods to implement education models from the western world.
(b) Provisions for making teacher unions an integral part of the education system.
(c) Exploring the role played by the technology to better the education sector in the developed world.
(d) Concerns surrounding the education system in the developing world.
(e) Critically analyzing the loopholes in the private sector.
Answer: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) Rearrange the given six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.
(A) Conversion of forests into agricultural land is weakening India’s monsoon.
(B) This is because forests are a source of transpiration, which adds to rainfall.
(C) It contributes to around 25% of the total precipitation in the later stages of the monsoon.
(D) The latter cannot do the same, thereby resulting in a weak monsoon.
(E) Now, transpiration is the process by which trees channel moisture from the soil into the air.
(F) However, deforestation replaces deep-rooted plants with shallow-rooted vegetation.
16. Which of the following should be the second sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Answer: (a)
17. Which of the following should be the third sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) D
(b) E
(c) C
(d) B
(e) A
Answer: (d)
18. Which of the following should be the first sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) B
(b) F
(c) D
(d) C
(e) A
Answer: (d)
19. Which of the following should be the sixth sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) F
Answer: (e)
20. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) F
Answer: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 21-30) Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) given be low should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (e) as the answer.
21. The drought preceding winter has playedspoilsport with regard to the sowing of winter crops such as wheat, pulses and oilseeds.
(a) playing spoilsport
(b) are being playing spoilsports
(c) has been spoilt
(d) to p lay spoilsport
(e) No correction required
Answer: (e)
22. Evidence indicates that businesses are holding off on investment as they await clearly about this country’s future relationship with the European Union.
(a) they wait for clarity
(b) clearly waiting
(c) their waiting clearly
(d) to wait for clarity
(e) No correction required
Answer: (a)
23. Over the past three years, the government has been urging civil servants to open bank accounts to which they pay transferred directly.
(a) they are paid
(b) their paying to be
(c) their paying can be
(d) it has been paid
(e) No correction required
Answer: (c)
24. Scientists at an American University have discovered a fabric that keeps the skin 2 degrees cooler which will be good for the wearer serve to reduce energy bills.
(a) by serving reduced
(b) and also serve to reduce
(c) to serve reduce
(d) by serving a reduction
(e) No correction required
Answer: (b)
25. Newly created a vaccine from scratch is a huge undertaking, but in the case of Ebola, several vaccines were already on the shelf, thanks to the work of the army.
(a) Creating a new
(b) Creation from a new
(c) To create newly
(d) The new creation
(e) No correction required
Answer: (a)
26. As per the World Giving index, India came down in the rankings from 93 in 2013 to 106 in 2014 demonstration an overall reduction in Indian philanthropy.
(a) that reducing overall
(b) how to reduce overall
(c) that an overall reduction of
(d) if there is overall a reduction
(e) No correction required
Answer: (e)
27. The company has been testing self-driving cars on the roads of the capital for months and will soon begin offering customers request chances rides in one.
(a) a chance request
(b) to request chance
(c) a chance to request
(d) requesting a chance
(e) No correction required
Answer: (c)
28. They became much involvedin the rescue and relief work that they refused to be evacuated.
(a) so involved with
(b) very involved
(c) more involved with
(d) too involved that
(e) No correction required
Answer: (a)
29. The appreciate the social transformations that took place in Europe between 1815 and World War I, it is importantly considered its towns and cities evolved.
(a) considered of importance that
(b) to be considered importantly
(c) important to consider how
(d) considered how important
(e) No correction required
Answer: (c)
30. When a country became richer, they tend to move away from the use of cash on grounds of security, convenience and cost.
(a) When rich countries
(b) Until rich country becomes richer
(c) A country which is rich
(d) As countries become richer
(e) No correction required
Answer: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, your answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
31. For almost three decades, central bankers/have agreed that one of the best way/ to stabilize an economy is/to aim for a specific ‘inflation target’.
(a) For almost three decades, central bankers
(b) have agreed that one of the best way
(c) to stabilize an economy is
(d) to aim for a specific ‘inflation target’
(e) No error
Answer: (b)
32. Consulting firms estimates that about $1540 billion / of the world’s IT budget of $34 trillion will be spent/ on cloud computing this year alone/ a number which is expected to grow tenfold by next year.
(a) Consulting firms estimates that about $1540 billion
(b) of the world’s IT budget of $34 trillion will be spent
(c) on cloud computing this year alone
(d) a number which is expected to grow tenfold by next year
(e) No error
Answer: (a)
33. In this state, a mere/ 50% of the food been consumed/ is grown locally, compared/ to 81% in the other States.
(a) In this state, a mere
(b) 50% of the food been consumed
(c) is grown locally, compared
(d) to 81% in the other States
(e) No error
Answer: (b)
34. After years of economic stagnation/ and questionable lending,/ bad loans at Italian banks/ have pile up.
(a) After years of economic stagnation
(b) and questionable lending
(c) bad loans at Italian banks
(d) have pile up
(e) No error
Answer: (d)
35. The main reason for Britain’s success/ at the Olympics was/ the efficient allocation of fund toward/ equipment, facilities and training for athletes.
(a) The main reason for Britain’s success
(b) at the Olympics was
(c) the efficient allocation of fund toward
(d) equipment, facilities and training for athletes
(e) No error
Answer: (e)
36. Over thirty years ago, Chile created/ a pension system in which workers/ had to save for their own retirement by paying/ 10% of its earning into individual accounts.
(a) Over thirty years ago, Chile created
(b) a pension system in which workers
(c) had to save for their own retirement by paying
(d) 10% of its earning into individual accounts
(e) No error
Answer: (d)
37. The cement industry is one of/ the world’s most polluting industries/ and it accounts 5% of/ manmade carbon dioxide emissions each year.
(a) The cement industry is one of
(b) the world’s most polluting industries
(c) and it accounts 5% of
(d) manmade carbon dioxide emissions each year
(e) No error
Answer: (c)
38. Under the ‘Dodd-Frank’ Act, a law aimed/ mainly at tightening the regulation of companies,/ firms in the United States had to be able/ to show how the minerals used in their products are formed.
(a) Under the ‘Dodd-Frank’ Act, a law aimed
(b) mainly at tightening the regulation of companies
(c) firms in the United States had to be able
(d) to show how the minerals used in their products are formed
(e) No error
Answer: (d)
39. Launching a satellite into space/ remained a risky and hideously/ expensive proposition, only taken/ up by governments and a few companies.
(a) Launching a satellite into space
(b) remains a risky and hideously
(c) expensive proposition, only taken
(d) up by governments and a few companies
(e) No error
Answer: (b)
40. Under the terms of the policy,/ a payment has been triggered only/ if more than 1.39 million people/ are affected by the drought.
(a) Under the terms of the policy
(b) a payment has been triggered only
(c) if more than 1.39 million people
(d) are affected by the drought
(e) No error
Answer: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 41-50) In the given passage,, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find the appropriate word in each case.
Brazil’s Tourism Ministry is (41) a 6% increase in the number of tourists visiting the country (42) the next year, following the end of the Rio Olympics. The number is an estimate based on the (43) from the last three Olympic host cities-Athens, Beijing and London. Now that the curtain has been (44) and that the host country has taken its final bow. Brazil (45) released a glowing self-assessment of its performance based (46) the survey results from its international visitors. Rio (47) five lakh visitors (48) the games, with 88% of foreigners saying that they intend to come back to Brazil. However, when it (49) to security, public transport, infrastructure and prices, satisfaction levels fall (50) the ‘good’ category.
41.
(a) negotiating
(b) announcing
(c) predicting
(d) generating
(e) approving
Answer: (c)
42.
(a) on
(b) over
(c) from
(d) off
(e) at
Answer: (c)
43.
(a) searching
(b) highlight
(c) citing
(d) findings
(e) discoveries
Answer: (d)
44.
(a) drawn
(b) fallen
(c) risen
(d) there
(e) picked
Answer: (b)
45.
(a) have
(b) had
(c) has
(d) were
(e) was
Answer: (c)
46.
(a) unto
(b) on
(c) for
(d) in
(e) off
Answer: (b)
47.
(a) stopped
(b) felt
(c) resided
(d) brought
(e) received
Answer: (e)
48.
(a) during
(b) on
(c) without
(d) by
(e) down
Answer: (a)
49.
(a) goes
(b) falls
(c) comes
(d) moves
(e) leaves
Answer: (c)
50.
(a) above
(b) down
(c) besides
(d) under
(e) out
Answer: (b)
Part II Reasoning
51. Among five people – A, B, C, D and E, each scoring different marks, only one person scored less marks than B. D scored more than B, but less than A. A did not score the highest. Who scored the second highest?
(a) E
(b) Cannot be determined
(c) A
(d) C
(e) D
Answer: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 52-54) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
A is 14 m East of B. C is 6 m South of A. P is 4 m West of C. Point C is the midpoint of Points P and H, such that Points P, C and H form a straight line. Q is 6 m South of Point H.
52. Kunal walks 10 m towards North from Point H, takes a left turn, and walks for 4 m. How far will he be from Point C?
(a) 2 m
(b) 10 m
(c) 4 m
(d) 6 m
(e) 7 m
Answer: (b)
53. If A is 2 m to the North of L and R is 4 m West of Q, how far is Point L from Point R?
(a) 4 m
(b) 12 m
(c) 7 m
(d) 10 m
(e) 9 m
Answer: (d)
54.In which direction is B with respect to H?
(a) North-East
(b) South-East
(c) North-West
(d) North
(e) West
Answer: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 55-59) Study the following information and answer the given questions
Nine friends- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X live on nine different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lower most floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered nine. T lives on an odd numbered floor below the floor numbered five. Only three people live between T and V. Only one person lives between X and V. V lives above X. Q lives on an odd numbered floor immediately below P. Q does not live on the floor numbered five. the number of persons living between X and P is equal to the number of people living between T and S. W lives on an even numbered floor above R.
55. S is related to the floor numbered seven and R is related to the floor numbered three in a certain way, same as X is related to which of the following floor numbers?
(a) Seven
(b) Nine
(c) Five
(d) Eight
(e) Four
Answer: (e)
56. U lives on which of the following floor numbers?
(a) Five
(b) Four
(c) Nine
(d) Three
(e) Other than those given as options
Answer: (c)
57.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) UP
(b) VW
(c) XR
(d) PR
(e) QS
Answer: (d)
58. How many persons live below the floor on which W lives?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) More than three
(d) Three
(e) None
Answer: (d)
59. Which of the following statements is true as per the given arrangement?
(a) Only three people live between S and V.
(b) None of the given statements is true
(c) Q lives immediately above T.
(d) Less than three persons live above R.
(e) U lives on the floor numbered nine.
Answer: (e)
60. How m any such pairs of digits are there in the number 71864392 (both in forward and backward directions), each of which has as many digits between them as in the arithmetic series?
(a) More than three
(b) None
(c) Three
(d) One
(e) Two
Answer: (a)
61. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (based on their positions of alphabets in the English alphabetical series) and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) RQT
(b) NPL
(c) FHD
(d) KMI
(e) WYU
Answer: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 62-66) Study the following information to answer the given questions
Nine persons B, C, D, E, L, M, N, O and P are seated in a straight line facing North with equal distance between each other, but not necessarily in the same order.
As many people sit to the left of E as to the right of E. Only one person sits between E and O. L sits third to the left of P. P is not an immediate neighbour of O. Neither P nor D sits at any of the extreme ends of the line. Only three persons sits between B and C. B is not an immediate neighbour of E. the number of people sitting between B and E is double as that between E and N.
62. Who sits third to the right of B?
(a) E
(b) O
(c) N
(d) L
(e) No one as B sits at one of the extreme ends of the line
Answer: (a)
63. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) C, E
(b) M, D
(c) O, C
(d) B, L
(e) D, B
Answer: (e)
64. Which of the following is true with respect to M as per the given arrangement?
(a) M sits second to the left of O.
(b) M is an immediate neighbour of L
(c) More than two people sit between D and M.
(d) None of the given options is true
(e) M sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
Answer: (e)
65. Who amongst the following sit exactly between L and P?
(a) E, N
(b) M, O
(c) B, N
(d) C, O
(e) D, E
Answer: (c)
66. In which of the given pairs of people, is odd number of people sitting between them?
(a) E, M
(b) B, M
(c) L, C
(d) L, P
(e) P, O
Answer: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 67-71) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Gaurav watches seven movies viz. Gladiator, Bravheart, Titanic, Inception, Chinatown, Avatar and Passion on seven different days of the same week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday, but not necessarily in the same order. Thus on one day he watches only one movie. Gaurav watches Inception on Friday. He watches only one movie between Inception and Titanic. He watches only three movies between Titanic and Gladiator. he watches
downstream.
If they move in the same direction then what is the distance between them after 4 hours?
