IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam-2021
Section-I General English Comprehension
Directions (Qs. No. 1-10): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer out of the four choices given after each question that follows:
Nature is like business. Business sense dictates that we guard our capital and live from the interest. Nature’s capital is the enormous diversity of living things. Without it, the cannot feed ourselves, cure ourselves of illness or provide industry with the raw materials of wealth creation. Professor Edward Wilson of Harvard University, says: “The folly our descendants are least likely to forgive us is the ongoing loss of genetic and species diversity. This will take millions of years to correct.”
Only 150 plant species have ever been widely cultivated. Yet over 75,000 edible plants are known in the wild. In a hungry world, with a population growing by 90 million each year, so much wasted potential is tragic. Medicines from the wild are worth around 40 billion dollars a year. Over 5000 species are known to yield chemical with cancer fighting potential. Scientists currently estimate that the total number of species in the world is between 10-30 million with only around 1.4 million identified.
The web of life is torn when human beings exploit natural resources in short-sighted ways. The trade in tropical hardwoods can destroy whole forests to extract just a few commercially attractive specimens. Bad agricultural practices trigger 24 billion tonnes of top soil erosion a year losing the equivalent of 9 million tonnes of grain output. Cutting this kind of unsuitable exploitation and institution “sustainable utilization” will help turn the environmental crisis around.
1. Why does the author compare ‘nature’ to ‘business’?
(A) Because of the capital depletion in nature and business
(B) Because of the similarity with which one should use both
(C) Because of the same interest level yield
(D) Because of the diversity of the various capital inputs
2. “The folly our descendants are least likely to forgive us”-What is the business equivalent of the folly the author is referring to?
(A) Reducing the profit margin
(B) Not pumping some money out of profits into the business
(C) Eroding the capital base of the business
(D) Putting interest on capital back into the business
3. Which of the following statements is false in the context of the passage?
(A) The diversity of plant life is essential for human existence
(B) Scientists know the usefulness of most plant specie
(C) Chemicals for cancer treatment are available from plants
(D) There are around ten times the plant species undiscovered as compared to the discovered ones
4. Which of the following correctly reflects the opinion of the author to take care of hunger in the world?
(A) Increase the number of species of edible plants being cultivated.
(B) Increase cultivation of the 150j species presently under cultivation
(C) Increase the cultivation of medicinal plants
(D) Increases the potential of the uncultivated edible plants
5. Which of the following is mentioned as the immediate cause for the destruction of forests?
(A) Soil Erosion
(B) Destruction of Habitat
(C) Cutting of Trees
(D) Bad Agricultural Practices
6. The author gives two examples of ‘unsuitable exploitation’. These are:
(A) Bad agricultural practices and soil erosion
(B) Bad agricultural practices and trade in tropical hardwoods
(C) Trade in tropical hardwoods and soil erosion
(D) Trade in tropical hardwoods and losing tonnes of grain output
7. The passage is about
(C) Environmental Crisis
(D) Agricultural Practices
8. What, according to the author, is ‘environmental crisis’
(A) Trade in tropical hardwoods
(B) Bad agricultural practices
(C) Soil erosion
(D) The ongoing loss of genetic and species diversity
9. Which of the following words is nearly the same in meaning as the words ‘wasted’ as used in the passage?
10. Which of the following words is nearly opposite in meaning to ‘cutting’ as used in the passage?
Section-II : Logical and Analytical Reasoning
11. Which of the following is the next term in the series?
PAT, PEN, PIT, PON, ?
12. Which of the following continues the series?
2, 4, 6, 9, 12, ?
13. Which of the following fills the gap in the series?
25, 49, 81, ?, 169
14. Rohit said to a girl, “Your mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-law.” How is Rohit related to the girl?
15. In a code language, STAR is written as RATS, then ROUT will be written as:
16. In a code language 25 means, ‘Green Apple’, 35 means ‘Red Apple’ and 34 means ‘Red Cherry’. What is the code for ‘Green Cherry’?
17. Father said to the son, “When you were born, I was of your present age.” If the father is 36 years old now, how old was the son 7 years ago?
(A) 11 years
(B) 13 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 17 years
18. A circular coin is placed on a plane surface. How many more coins of the same size can be placed around it so that each touches the central coin and adjacent coins?
19. From a starting point, a man moves 3 km north, then turns west and walks 2 km, again turns back and walks 1 km and then moves 5 km towards east. How far is the how from starting point?
(A) 5 km
(B) 8 km
(C) 10 km
(D) 12 km
20. If 3rd of December is Saturday, then the last day of the month would be:
21. Five houses A to E are in a row. A is to the right of B, E is to the left of C and right of A, and B is to right of D. Which house is in the middle?
22. The medians of a triangle ABC intersect at D. How many triangles are formed in the resulting figures?
23. If 6 + 7 is 43 and 5 + 6 is 31, then 4 + 5 is :
24. If 213 is written as 6 and 432 is written as 9, then 543 would be written as:
25. If order of first 13 English alphabets is reversed, then which letter would not change its position?
26. Which of the following fills the gap in the series?
1, 2, 3, 1, 4, 9, 1, ?, 27
27. The population of a town consists of 45% men and 40% women. If the number of children is 30,000, then the total population of the town is:
(A) 2 lakhs
(B) 3 lakhs
(C) 4.5 lakhs
(D) 6 lakhs
28. Which of the following words appears first of all in the dictionary?
29. Preetig ranks 38th in her class both from top and bottom. How many students are there in the class?
30. A square is divided into 16 equal parts by intersecting lines parallel to its sides. How many squares are formed in the resulting figure?
Section-III : Educational and General Awareness
31. Kisan Diwas is celebrated on:
(A) October 23
(B) November 23
(C) December 23
(D) September 23
32. “A Bunch of Old Letters” was written by:
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Abdul Kalam
(D) Morarji Desai
33. Who is known as ‘Man of Destiny’?
(A) Adolf Hitler
(B) George Bernard Shaw
34. Mission Innovation aims to:
(A) accelerate clean energy innovation to address climate change
(B) promote indigeous development of Nano Satellites
(C) adopt new methods of agriculture
(D) adopt new methods of water harvesting
35. Who was the Viceroy at the time of Quit India Movement?
(A) Lord Warren Hastings
(B) Lord Dalhousie
(C) Lord Curzon
(D) Lord Linlithgow
36. The ‘Red Line campaign’ started by India is related to which of the following field?
(A) Fencing of India-Pakistan Border
(B) Zero open defecation
(C) Curb irrational use of antibiotics
(D) Zero corruption
37. The Union Budget is presented under which Article of the Constitution of India ?
38. When was the Indian Post Office Act passed?
39. Which event occurred first in India’s Independence struggle?
(A) Simon Commission
(B) Non-Cooperation Movement
(C) Gandhi-Irwin Pact
(D) Tripura Adhiveshan of Congress
40. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in:
(D) South Africa
41. The country which levied a tax on WhatsApp and Facebook in the year 2018 is:
42. According to the World Bank, which country remained the top recipient of remittances in 2018?
43. The Tropic of Capricorn does not pass through:
44. Similipal Tiger Reserve is situated in the State of:
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) West Bengal
45. In which State is Silent Valley situated?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
46. A document called “ The Future We Want” related to which of the following organizations?
(A) United Nations Conference of Sustainable Development
(B) Global Environment Facility
(C) United nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(D) Convention on Biological Diversity
47. The Spratly Islands are located in which of the following seas?
(A) The Caspian Sea
(B) The Black Sea
(C) The Mediterranean Sea
(D) The South China Sea
48. Tapti river originates from which district of Madhya Pradesh?
49. Which of the following monuments in India is not a world heritage?
(A) Fatehpur Sikri
(B) Ajanta and Ellora
(D) Jantar Mantar in Delhi
50. ‘Life Divine’ is written by:
(A) Aurobindo Ghosh
(B) V.V Giri
(C) Amrita Pritam
(D) V.D. Savarkar
51. Which writ is issued by the High Court to the lower courts to stop legal actions?
(A) Habeas corpus
(C) Quo warranto
52. Return of income is submitted under which Section of the Income Tax Act?
(A) Section 138(1)
(B) Section 142(1)
(C) Section 139(1)
(D) Section 129(1)
53. National Knowledge Commission was headed by:
(A) Ashok Ganguly
(B) P. Balaram
(C) Sam Pitroda
(D) Deepak Nayyar
54. Which of the following is the apex body in the area of Teacher Education in India?
55. The idea of Four Pillars of Education was suggested by:
Section-IV : Teaching-Learning and The School
56. RTE Act, 2009 envisages all children free admission to:
(A) Sainik schools
(B) Army schools
(C) Neighbourhood schools
(D) Navodaya schools
57. “Learning Without Burden” is the report submitted by a committee under the chairmanship of:
(A) Prof. Amrit Desai
(B) Prof. Amrik Singh
(C) Prof. Ved Prakash
(D) Prof. Yashpal
58. What is the verbal component of a poster?
59. Which of the following learner characteristics impacts teaching the most?
(A) Prior experience of the learner
(B) Educational status of the parents of the learner
(C) Peer group of learner
(D) Family size from which the learner comes
60. National Education Day is observed on November 11 every year in the memory of:
(A) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Zakir Hussain
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
61. Determining the aims of Education is the responsibility of:
(a) Parents (b) Teachers
(c) Students (d) Society
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (b) and (c)
(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) only (a)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
62. Immediate outcome of teaching is related to:
(A) desirable changes in the behaviour of students.
(B) development of personality of students.
(C) moral development of students.
(D) enhancing employability.
63. Discipline in the class essentially helps to:
(A) establish teacher’s authority.
(B) make children understand that indiscipline is punishable.
(C) make classroom activities organised and orderly.
(D) adhere to the time-table.
64. Which of the following is not desirable for effective teaching?
(B) Using teaching aids
(C) Following textbook rigidly
(D) Encouraging student talk
65. What are the characteristics of Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation?
(a) Multiple tests
(b) Criteria-based tests
(c) Assessment for learning
(d) Assessing scholastic and co-scholastic aspects
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b) and (d)
(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
66. Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of multiple choice type questions?
(A) These are objective.
(B) These are subjective.
(C) These do not need appropriate distractors.
(D) These do not have a fixed answer.
67. The key component of teacher-student communication during teaching is:
(B) Learner’s problems
(C) Subject content
(D) Motivating statements
68. Which among the following is a teacher-centred method?
(C) Group work
69. A teacher as a facilitator is one who:
(A) delivers lectures.
(B) explains concepts and principles.
(C) gives printed notes to students.
(D) inspires students to learn.
70. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching?
(A) Students asking questions
(B) Maximum attendance of students
(C) Silence in the classroom
(D) Students taking notes
71. In the classroom, the teacher sends the message either as words or images. The students are:
(C) Noise eliminators
72. CIET stands for:
(A) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology
(B) Central Institute for Engineering and Technology
(C) Central Institute for Educational Technology
(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation Techniques
73. An effective classroom environment has:
(A) No teaching aids
(B) Lively student-teacher interaction
(D) Strict discipline
74. In which period did India become a centre of higher learning with Nalanda and Taxila?
(A) Chola period
(B) Gupta period
(C) Harappa Civilization period
(D) Mughal period
75. Curriculum is:
(A) same as syllabus
(B) content to be taught
(C) overall educational activities within and outside the school.
(D) only teaching, no other activities.
76. What is the full from SWAYAM?
(A) Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds
(B) Study Webs for Accustomed Learning for Young Aspiring Minds
(C) Study Ways of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds
(D) Study Webs of Actual Learning for Young Aspiring Minds
77. Operation Blackboard was launched under National Policy on Education (1986) to:
(A) provide schools with adequate number of blackboards.
(B) create awareness for using blackboards.
(C) provide minimum essential facilities to the schools.
(D) use blackboard effectively in the teaching learning process.
78. Effectiveness of teaching has to be judged in terms of:
(A) course coverage.
(B) aims of teaching.
(C) learning outcomes of students
(D) use of teaching aids in the classroom.
79. Good teaching does not involve:
(D) Encouraging rote learning
80. Project method is based on the principle of:
(A) Learning by play-way
(B) Learning by doing
(C) Learning from teacher
(D) Learning from books
Section-V : (i) Science
81. Cause of Acid rain is:
(A) Release of oxides of Carbon, Nitrogen and Sulphur in the atmosphere due to burning of fossil fuels.
(B) Friction among clouds causes electric charges
(C) Humidity produces acid vapour
(D) Sun heats up the clouds
82. Which of the following is acidic in nature?
(A) Common Salt solution
(B) Pure water
(C) Lemon juice
(D) Baking soda solution
83. What is the volume of 16 g of oxygen at Standard Temperature and pressure (S.T.P.)?
(A) 22.4 litres
(B) 11.2 litres
(C) 22.4 cm3
(D) 11.2 cm3
84. Mass number of an element is X and it has 11 electrons. The number of neutrons in it is:
(A) X + 11
(D) X – 11
85. An example of a chemical change is:
(A) Conversion of water into ice
(B) Conversion of water into steam
(C) Heating of a resistor on passing current
(D) Conversion of milk into curd
86. A man is 10 feet away from his image in a plane mirror fixed in a wall. He walks 3 feet towards the mirror. What is the distance between him and his image now?
(A) 2 feet
(B) 3 feet
(C) 4 feet
(D) 6 feet
87. If a ray of light is going from air to glass and angle of incidence is i and angle of refraction is r we have:
(A) i < r
(B) sin i = sin r
(D) sin i × sin r = Constant
88. Two resistance of two ohms each are joined in parallel. What is the equivalent resistance?
(A) 1 ohm
(B) 2 ohms
(C) 3 ohms
(D) 4 ohms
89. What unbalanced force in Newton (N) will accelerate a 25 kg body from 5 m/s to 10 m/s in 5 seconds?
(A) 1 N
(B) 5 N
(C) 25 N
(D) 50 N
90. Watt is the unit of:
91. The planet nearest to Earth in our Solar System is:
92. Alpha particles are:
(A) Positively charged
(B) Negatively charged
(C) Not charged
(D) Same as photons
93. Night blindness is caused due to:
(A) Deficiency of Vitamin ‘A’
(B) Deficiency of Vitamin ‘B’
(C) Deficiency of Vitamin ‘C’
(D) Excess of Vitamin ‘A’
94. Why is a flash of lightning seen before the sound of thunder is heard?
(A) Because light travels faster than sound
(B) Because light is produced much earlier
(C) Because sound is obstructed by clouds
(D) Because sound is produced farther away
95. The disease ‘Jaundice’ is associated with:
96. It is the process by which green plants manufacture food in the form of carbohydrates in the presence of sunlight.
97. Which one of the following is not an essential micronutrient for plants?
98. What is the measure of acidity of a liquid?
(A) Boiling Point
(B) Freezing Point
99. Which one of the following is also known as ‘Laughing Gas’?
(B) Nitrous oxide
(C) Nitrogen dioxide
100. Respiration involves exchange of:
(A) Oxygen and Carbon dioxide
(B) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(C) Nitrogen and Carbon dioxide
(D) Hydrogen and Nitrogen
Section-V: (ii) Mathematics
101. The sum of the odd numbers between 0 and 50 is:
102. Ten observations have been arranged in ascending order as under:
29, 32, 48, 50, x, x + 2, 72, 78, 84, 95
The median is 63. The value of x is:
103. 75th Percentile coincides with:
(C) First Quartile
(D) Third Quartile
104. Mean, Median and Mode coincide in:
(A) Positively skewed curve
(B) Negatively skewed curve
(C) Normal probability curve
(D) Leptokurtic curve
105. The value of sec A(1 – sin A) (sec A + tan A) is:
(C) sin A
(D) cos A
106. The angle of elevation of the top of a building from the foot of the tower is 30° ad the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the building is 60°. The tower is 50 m high. The height of the building is:
107. In ∆ABC, AB = 6√3 cm, AC = 12 cm and BC = 6 cm. The angle B is:
108. 8 men can dig a pit in 20 days. If a man works half as much more as a boy, 4 men and 9 boys will dig a similar pit in:
(A) 12 days
(B) 14 days
(C) 16 days
(D) 18 days
109. 12 copies of a book were sold for Rs 1,800 thereby gaining the cost price of 3 copies. The cost price of a copy is:
(A) Rs 100
(B) Rs 120
(C) Rs 140
(D) R 160
110. A wooden box is 110 cm × 90 cm × 40 cm is size. Packets 22 cm in length, 15 cm in breadth and 6 cm in height are to be placed in it. How many of these can be place in the box?
111. The approximate value of :
0.4 × 0.4 + 0.04 × 0.04 + 0.04 is:
112. Two trains 126 m and 114 m long are running in opposite directions, one at the rate of 30 kmph and another one at 42 kmph. From the moment they meet, the will cross each other in:
(A) 13 seconds
(B) 12 seconds
(C) 11 seconds
(D) 10 seconds
113. A student passed in first division securing 440 marks, but missed distinction marks of 75% by 10 marks. The maximum marks for the exam was:
114. A sum of money amounts to Rs 1,800 in 2 years and Rs 2,592 in 4years at a compound interest rate of:
115. The HCF and LCM of two number are 16 and 672 respectively. If one of the numbers is 112, what is the other number?
116. A man’s salary was decreased by 30% and then increased by 30%. The net change is:
(A) 10% increase
(B) 10% decrease
(C) 9% decrease
(D) 9% increase
117. The average salary of male employees in a firm is Rs 5,200 and that of female employees is Rs 4,200. The mean salary of all employees is Rs 5,000. The percentage of female employees is:
118. How much would A get if a sum of Rs 890 is to be divided amongst A, B and C such that A : B is 4 : 5 and B : C is 6 : 7?
(A) Rs 160
(B) Rs 200
(C) Rs 220
(D) Rs 240
119. A father’s age is 5 times the age of his daughter. It was 9 times, five years ago. How old is the father now?
(A) 45 years
(B) 50 years
(C) 55 years
(D) 60 years
120. A two-digit number is less than 30. The sum of its digits is 7 and their multiplication product is 10. The number is:
Section-V : (iii) Social Science
121. Which of the following periodicals is not correctly matched with the editor?
(A) Bande Mataram : Aurobindo Ghosh
(B) Sandhya : Barindra Ghosh
(C) New India : Bipin Chandra Pal
(D) Yugantar : Bhupendranath Datta
122. An instrument used to record the motion of the ground during an earthquake is:
123. The idea of ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ in the Indian Constitution is taken from the Constitution of:
124. The idea of “Lokpal” bill is taken from:
(C) Scandinavian countries
125. Who was the First Woman President of Indian National Congress?
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Rajkumari Amrita Kaur
(C) Annie Besant
(D) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
126. Mahatma Gandhi gave the title of ‘Sardar’ to Vallabhbhai Patel for his great organisational skill in the :
(A) Kheda Satyagraha
(B) Bardoli Satyagraha
(C) Salt Satyagraha
(D) Champaran Satyagraha
127. Andaman wild pig is an example of:
(A) Vulnerable species
(B) Endemic species
(C) Rare species
(D) Extinct species
128. Which country has the highest productivity of rice?
(C) Sri Lanka
129. The main source of National Income in India is ………. .
(A) Primary Sector
(B) Secondary Sector
(C) Service Sector
(D) Allied Sector
130. The central banking functions are performed by the:
(A) Central Bank of India
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) State Bank of India
(D) Punjab National Bank
131. The First Battle of Panipat was in the year:
132. Who was popularly known as the “Parrot of India”?
(A) Amir Khusro
(B) Khwaja Nasir
(C) Parthasarathi Mishra
(D) Chand Bardai
133. The Capital of the kingdom of Maharaja Ranjit Singh was:
134. Of the four events mentioned below, which was the last to take place?
(A) The Cripps Mission
(B) Simla Conference
(C) Cabinet Mission Plan
(D) The Ratings Mutiny
135. Which dynasty ruled during the years 1206 – 1290 in India?
(A) Mauryan dynasty
(B) Slave dynasty
(C) Gupta dynasty
(D) Chalukya dynasty
136. The organization that negotiates trade agreements between almost all of the nations in the world is:
137. The lowest layer of the Earth’s atmosphere is:
138. Black soil is most suitable for the cultivation of:
139. Which of the following rivers is called as Dakshina Ganga?
140. A Public Service Commission was established in India for the first time by:
(A) Indian Council Act, 1892
(B) The Government of India Act, 1919
(C) The Act of 1909
(D) The Government of India Act, 1935
Section-V : (iv) English
Directions (Q. Nos. 141-145) : Choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.
141. Being a big businessman, Gita’s father is very affluent.
142. The massacre of Kashmiri Pandits in 1990 was tragic.
143. The young boys were reprimanded for watching obscene videos.
144. He pilfered many precious things from the palace.
145. Resilience is a desirable human trait.
Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150): In each of the following group of words, only one of them is correctly spelt. Select the one with the correct spelling.
Directions (Q. Nos. 151-154): Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.
151. He is mystic by nature.
152. The number of words in a dictionary are finite.
153. He had ample number of days to prepare for the exam.
154. He lived a lavish life:
Directions (Q. Nos. 155 and 156): Pick out the most appropriate word from the given alternatives to fill in the blank to complete the sentence.
155. The soldiers were instructed to …… restraint and handle the situation peacefully.
156. Since one cannot read all books, one should be content with making a ………. selection.
Directions (Q. Nos. 157-160) : Choose the correct answer.
157. The novel ‘Wuthering Heights’ was written by:
(A) Charlotte Bronte
(B) Emily Bronte
(C) George Eliot
(D) Jane Austen
158. The poem ‘Daffodils’ was written by:
159. The play ‘Man and Superman’ was written by:
(B) Bernard Shaw
(C) Eugene O’Neil
(D) Aurobindo Ghosh
160. The novel ‘The Guide’ was written by:
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) R. K. Narayan
(C) Anita Desai
(D) Khushwant Singh
Section-V : (v) Hindi