IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam-2022
Section-I General English Comprehension
Directions (Qs. No. 1-10): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer out of the four choices after each question that follows:
A great deal of discussion continues as to the real extent of global environmental degradation and its implications. What few people challenge, however, is that the renewable natural resources of developing countries are today subject to stresses of unprecedented magnitude. These pressures are brought about, in part, by increased population and the quest for an ever expanding food supply because the health, nutrition and general well-being of the poor majority are directly dependent on the integrity and productivity of their natural resources, the capability of government to manage them effecting over the long-term becomes of paramount importance.
Developing countries are becoming more aware of the ways in which present and future economic development must build upon a sound and sustainable natural resource base. Some are looking at our long tradition in environmental protection and are receptive to US assistance which recognizes the uniqueness of the social and ecological systems in these tropical countries. Developing countries recognize the need to improve their capability to analyse issues and their own natural resource management. Some countries such as Senegal, India, Indonesia, Thailand etc. are now including conservation concerns in their economic development process.
Because so many governments of developing nations have recognized the importance of these issues, the need today is not merely one of raising additional consciousness, but for carefully designed and sharply focused activities aimed at the establishment of effective resource management reforms that are essential to the achievement of sustainable development.
1. Some developing countries of Asia and Africa have:
(A) formulated very ambitious plans of protecting the habitat in their region.
(B) laid a great stress on the conservation of natural resources in their educational endeavor.
(C) carefully dovetailed environmental conservation with the overall strategies of planned economic development.
(D) sought the help of US experts in solving the problems of environmental degradation.
2. Technical know-how developed in the USA:
(A) cannot be easily assimilated by the technocrats o developing countries.
(B) can be properly utilised on the basis of developing countries being able to launch an in-depth study of their specific problems.
(C) can be easily borrowed by the developing countries to solve the problem of environmental degradation.
(D) can be very effective in solving the problem of resource management in tropical countries.
3. There has been a pronounced deterioration of habitat all over the globe because of:
(A) population explosion
(B) unprecedented urbanisation
(C) massive industrialisation in the developing countries.
(D) large scale deforestation
4. The poor people of the developing world can lead a happy and contented life if:
(A) aid flows freely to the developing world.
(B) industries based on agriculture are widely developed.
(C) economic development takes place within ambit o conservation of natural resources.
(D) there is an assured supply of food and medical care.
5. How much environmental pollution has taken place in the developing and the developed world?
(A) There has been a marginal pollution of environmental in the developed world and extensive damage in the developing world.
(B) There has been a considerable pollution of environment all over the globe.
(C) There has been an extensive environmental degradation both in the developed as well as the developing world.
(D) The environmental pollution that has taken place al over the globe continues to be a matter of speculation and enquiry.
6. What according to the passage, is an unquestionable reality today?
(A) The renewable natural resources in developing countries are in great danger and on the verge of coming to an end.
(B) The renewable natural resources in developed countries will never end.
(C) The renewable natural resources all over the world are going to end soon.
(D) The renewable natural resources in the developed world will end soon.
7. What is the most important reason for the depletion of natural resources in developing countries?
(A) Lack of knowledge
(B) Population explosion
(C) Life style of people
(D) Callousness of their governments
8. What is the most important for the preservation of natural resources?
(A) Funding from external sources to manage resources.
(B) Advancement in science and technology to manage resources.
(C) Awareness of the people to manage resources.
(D) Capability of governments to manage resources.
9. Activities aimed at preservation of natural resources is important for:
(A) Social Development
(B) Sustainable Development
(C) Political Development
(D) Cultural Development
10. The passage is about:
(A) Population Explosion
(B) Expanding Food Supply
(C) US assistance for managing natural resources
(D) Effective resource management for sustainable development
Section-II : Logical and Analytical Reasoning
11. If 4 +4 = 15 and 6 + 6 = 35, then 8 +8 = ?
(A) 65 (B) 63
(C) 64 (D) 62
12. If SYSTEM is coded as METSYS and FORMER is coded as REMROF, then CARPET would be coded as:
(A) PETCAR (B) PETRAC
(C) TEPRAC (D) RACTEP
13. According to the dictionary order, which of the following words will appear last of others?
(A) Dress (B) Drink
(C) Dream (D) Drift
14. Gaurav ranks 23rd from the top and 22nd from the bottom in a certain test. How many students appeared in the test?
(A) 43 (B) 44
(C) 45 (D) 46
15. In a certain coding system, NAME is coded as 3245 and MINT is coded as 4137, then MITE would be coded as:
(A) 4317 (B) 4725
(C) 4571 (D) 4175
16. Which of the following is the next term in the series?
2, 9, 28, 65, ____
(A) 99 (B) 121
(C) 126 (D) 145
17. Five books are placed in such a sway that book C is above book D, book E is below book A, book D is above book A and book B is below book E. Which book is at the bottom?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
18. A bag contains equal number of rupee 1, 50 paisa and 25 paisa coins. If the total amount of money in the bag is Rs. 35, what is the number of each type of coins?
(A) 15 (B) 18
(C) 20 (D) 25
19. A man walking from north to south turns right at right angle. Again the turns right at right angle. In which direction is he now walking?
(A) East (B) North
(C) South (D) West
20. Which of the following pairs of numbers is different from others in some way?
(A) 27-57 (B) 25-63
(C) 18-28 (D) 36-96
21. Which of the following numbers will be placed at the blank space in the series?
20, 19, 17, _____, 10, 5
(A) 9 (B) 11
(C) 14 (D) 16
22. A woman pointed to a man and said, “His mother is the only daughter of my mother.” What is the woman to the man?
(A) Niece (B) Daughter
(C) Sister (D) Mother
23. Which of the following numbers is different from others in some way?
(A) 42 (B) 81
(C) 121 (D) 144
24. If CHDR represents DIES, then SHLD will represent:
(A) LIME (B) LINE
(C) SINE (D) TIME
25. Which of the following numbers continues the series?
1, 8, 27, 64, 125, _____, ?
(A) 156 (B) 196
(C) 216 (D) 225
26. EFGH : DEFG :: OPQR : ?
(A) PQRS (B) QRST
(C) MNOP (D) NOPQ
27. Which of the following would be the next term in the series?
CE, HJ, MO, RT, ____ ?
(A) WY (B) YZ
(C) XZ (D) UV
28. ‘Ignorance’ is to ‘Education’ as ‘Disease’ is to:
(A) Doctor (B) Hospital
(C) Medicine (D) Nurse
29. Which of the following fills the gap in the series?
25, 100, 225, ______, 625
(A) 256 (B) 324
(C) 400 (D) 484
30. Which of the following continues the series?
(A) STZ (B) SRY
(C) TSR (D) TSY
Section-III : Educational and General Awareness
31. ‘Story of My Life’ was written by:
(A) Morarji Desai (B) Abdul Kalam
(C) Vivekananda (D) Togore
32. The Father of English Poetry was:
(A) Geoffery Chaucer (B) Shakespeare
(C) Wordsworth (D) Dryden
33. World Water Day is celebrated on:
(A) 21st March (B) 22nd March
(C) 24th March (D) 23rd March
34. Who advises the State Government on legal matters?
(A) Attorney General
(B) Advocate General
(C) Chief Justice of High Court
(D) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
35. The maximum duration of zero hour in the Lok Sabha is:
(A) 30 minutes (B) 60 minutes
(C) 2 hours (D) Indefinite period
36. ‘No appeal, No Daleel, No Vakil’ perfectly sums up which of the following?
(A) Rowlatt Act
(B) Non-co-operation Movement
(D) Swadesh Movement
37. ‘Alice in Wonderland’ was written by:
(A) George Orwell
(B) Lewis Carroll
(C) Chester Bowls
(D) Sinclair Lewis
38. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called:
(A) Supplementary Question
(B) Short Notice Question
(C) Starred Question
(D) Unstarred Question
39. Article 280 of the constitution of India deals with:
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Information Commission
(C) Election Commission
(D) Public Service Commission
40. Where is the New Moore island situated?
(A) Arab Sagar
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Bay of Bengal
(D) Bay of Mannar
41. Sea territory of India extends upto:
(A) 4 nautical miles
(B) 12 nautical miles
(C) 200 nautical miles
(D) 400 nautical miles
42. World Economic Forum was founded by:
(A) Klaus Schwab
(B) Paul Krugman
(C) Bill Gates
(D) Peter Thiel
43. Which of the following prepared the draft of Basic Education?
(A) Sapru Commission
(B) Shiksha Sammelan Wardha
(C) Radhakrishnan Commmission
(D) Zakir Hussain Committee
44. How many inhabited islands are there in Lakshadweep?
45. In which of the following historical sites of Haryana did excavation indicate 4500 years old civilization relies?
46. Who described Bal Gangadhar Tilak as the ‘Maker of Modern India’?
(A) G. K. Gokhale
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) B.C. Pal
47. In the which year did the Industrial Policy express the concept of a mixed economy for India?
48. Who translated ‘Atharvaveda’ in Pension during Mughal period?
(A) Abdul Hamid Lahori
(B) haji Ibrahim Sarhindi
(C) Khathi Khan
(D) Malik Muhammad Jayasi
49. The Rigveda consists of:
(A) 1028 hymns
(B) 1000 hymns
(C) 2028 hymns
(D) 1038 hymns
50. Which of the following rivers is called ‘Biological Desert’?
51. Who is remembered as the pioneer of economic nationalism?
(A) Bipin Chandra Paul
(C) R.C Dutt
(D) Madan Mohan Malviya
52. The 15th Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas, 2019 was held in:
53. Establishment of DIETs was the result of the recommendation of:
(A) Indian Education Commission (1964-66)
(B) University Education Commission (1948-49)
(C) Secondary Education Commission (1952-53)
(D) National Policy on Education (1986)
54. The ruling dynasty in India during Timur’s invasion was:
55. When did Curzon pass the Indian Universities Act?
Section-IV : Teaching-Learning and The School
56. Which of the following is a maxim of teaching?
(A) Simple to complex
(B) Unknown to known
(C) Abstract to concrete
(D) Far to near
57. Human Development is determined:
(A) by the genetic makeup of the individual.
(B) by a complex of inherited and environmental factors.
(C) primarily by environmental factors over which the individual has no control.
(D) primarily by environmental factor over
58. Non-formal education means:
(A) education obtained through open educational institutions
(B) education obtained through formal schools.
(C) education obtained through polytechnics.
(D) education obtained in conventional universities.
59. Text-book development at the national level is carried out by:
60. Which among the following is constructivist approach to teaching-learning?
(A) Bloom’s Approach
(B) 5-E Approach
(C) Morrison Approach
(D) Herbartian Approach
61. The purpose of National Science Talent Search Scheme is to:
(A) conduct an all India examination.
(B) identify students for recruitment to scientific posts.
(C) identify talented students and nurture their talent.
(D) provide uniformity in science teaching.
62. While counseling students, a teacher should:
(A) plan to do most of talking
(B) establish rapport with students.
(C) refrain from giving information
(D) assume complete responsibility for solving problems
63. In teaching, if noting has been learnt, nothing has been:
64. Basic requirement for success of lecture method is:
(A) use of teaching aids
(B) content delivery in a lucid language
(C) theme based interaction among participants
(D) including a large number of ideas
65. One of the most powerful factors influencing teaching effectiveness is:
(A) teacher’s gender
(B) experience of teachers
(C) location of schools
(D) teacher’s communication skills
66. The best way for providing value education is through:
(A) discussions on text of a particular religion
(B) integration of values within subject content
(C) religious discourses
(D) lectures on values
67. The purpose of continuous and comprehensive evaluation is to:
(A) evaluate scholastic and co-scholastic aspects continuously
(B) priorities term and examination
(C) evaluate mainly scholastic aspects
(D) evaluate primarily co-scholastic aspects
68. What is not required for good teaching?
(D) Teacher’s bias
69. Which of the following factors does not impact teaching?
(A) Classroom activities that encourage learning
(B) Socio-economic background of teachers
(C) Learning through experience
(D) Teacher’s knowledge
70. A good learner is one who:
(A) only memorizes
(B) is not open-minded
(C) does not think divergently
(D) thinks critically
71. Instructional aids are used by the teacher to:
(A) adhere to educational policies
(B) utilise school’s resources
(C) clarify the concepts
(D) ensure discipline
72. CLASS stands for:
(A) Complete Literacy and Studies in Schools
(B) Computer Literates and Students in Schools
(C) Computer Literacy and Students in Schools
(D) Center of Literacy and Studies in Schools
73. The first National Policy on Education following independence was formulated in:
74. Classroom environment should not have:
75. “Spare the rod and spoil the child” gives the message that:
(A) punishment the class should be banned
(B) corporal punishment is not acceptable
(C) undesirable behaviour must be punished
(D) positive discipline should be encouraged
76. What is the other name of Yashpal Committee Report?
(A) Learning with Burden
(B) Learning without Burden
(C) Learning with Grace
(D) Learning with Progress
77. Choose full form of NCERT:
(A) National Coordinator of Educational Resources and Tools
(B) National Council of Educational Research and Training
(C) National Centre for Educational Research and Training
(D) New Centre of Educational Resources and Tools
78. ‘Fill in the blanks’ with alternatives is which type of question?
(A) Open-ended question
(B) Objective type question
(C) Short answer question
(D) Subjective type question
79. Classroom management is ineffective when it is:
80. The idea of basic education was proposed by:
(A) Dr. Zakir Hussian
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Rabindranath Tagore
Section-V : (i) Science
81. The effective resistance of the following combination from A to B is :
(A) 2 Ω
(B) 4 Ω
(C) 5 Ω
(D) 8 Ω
82. Light year is a unit of:
83. Ice floats in water in a cylinder and the water level is at level A. When the ice melts the water level:
(A) will remain unchanged
(B) will go up
(C) will go down
(D) may go up or down
84. An ideal fuse wire should have:
(A) a low resistance and low melting point
(B) a high resistance and high melting point
(C) a low resistance and high melting point
(D) a high resistance and low melting point
85. Total internal reflection can take place when light travels from:
(A) Air to glass
(B) Air to water
(C) Water to glass
(D) Glass to air
86. The lightest element in our world is:
87. In the upper layers of the earth, that is, in the crust, the most abundant metal is:
88. The nucleus of Helium is like:
(A) An alpha particle
(B) A beta particle
(C) A gamma particle
(D) A proton
89. If a chemical reaction is accompanied by evolution of heat, it is:
(A) Exothermic reaction
(B) Endothermic reaction
(C) Reversible reaction
(D) Redox reaction
90. Pressure cooker works on the principle:
(A) When the pressure increases the boiling point of water increases.
(B) When the pressure increases the boiling point of water decreases.
(C) Pressure has no effect on boiling point.
(D) Heat and steam does not escape from the cooker
91. For reducing friction between different parts of machines the following is used:
92. The sugar in the milk in the natural form is called:
93. The following is not an element of the bone:
94. The following treatment is suggested for a person whose kidneys are not working:
(A) Surgical removal of kidneys
(C) Blood transfusion
95. If mitochondria are removed from the cell:
(A) Nothing happens
(B) The cell cannot reproduce
(C) Leaves become white
(D) Energy metabolism of the cell is reduced
96. The foetal growth is monitored using:
(D) Ultraviolet rays
97. Viruses need the following for growth:
(A) Living host
(B) Dead host
98. The following process does not increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the air:
(C) Petrol burning
(D) Decay of vegetation
99. Polio is a disease of the following type:
100. The major pollutants are:
(A) Oxygen and Carbon dioxide
(B) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen and Nitrogen
(D) Carbon monoxide and Lead
Section-V : (ii) Mathematics
101. Which of the following has the largest numerical value?
102. The value of is:
103. A batsman scores 448 runs in x innings. In his next innings he is out for 62 and thereby increases his average by 2. The value of x is:
104. A’s salary is 50% above B’s. How much per cent is B’s salary below A’s?
105. A producer blends two varieties of tea, one costing Rs 150 per kg and the other Rs 200 per kg in the ratio of 7 : 3. He sells the blended variety at Rs 181.50 per kg. His profit per cent is:
106. A tradesman sells his goods at 10% discount on the marked price. What price should he mark on an article that costs him Rs 900 to gain 10%?
(A) Rs 1,000
(B) Rs 1,100
(C) Rs 1,150
(D) Rs 1,200
107. A sum of Rs 1,000 invested at 10% per annum compound interest amounts to Rs 1,331. The period of time is:
(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 3½ years
(D) 4 years
108. A person buys a pen costing Rs 240 on hire purchase basis. He pays. Rs 60 cash down and the rest in 6 monthly installments of Rs 32 each. The rate of interest charged by the dealer is:
109. A plane left 30 minutes later than the scheduled time and in order to reach its destination 1500 km away in time it has to increase its speed by 250 km/hr. from its usual speed. The usual speed of the plane is:
(A) 850 km/hr.
(B) 800 km/hr.
(C) 750 km/hr.
(D) 700 km/hr.
110. If sec θ + tan θ = m, then the value of sin θ is:
111. The value of is:
112. From a building 60 metres high the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a lamp post are 30° and 60° The difference of heights between the building and the lamp post is:
(A) 20√3 m
(B) 20/√3 m
(C) 20 m
(D) 25 m
113. The length of the sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 and its perimeter is 144 cm. The area of the triangle is:
(A) 840 cm2
(B) 1080 cm2
(C) 1440 cm2
(D) 864 cm2
114. The minute hand of a clock is 12 cm long. The area of the face of the clock described by the minute hand in 35 minutes is:
(A) 210 cm2
(B) 264 cm2
(C) 280 cm2
(D) 285 cm2
115. A metallic cone having base radius 2.1 cm and height 8.4 cm is melted and moulded into a sphere. The radius of the sphere is:
(A) 2.1 cm
(B) 1.05 cm
(C) 1.5 cm
(D) 2 cm
116. Water is flowing at a rate of 15 km/hr through a pipe of diameter 14 cm into a rectangular tank which is 50 m long and 44 m wide. The time in which level of water in the tank will rise by 21 cm is :
(A) 1 hour
(B) 1½ hours
(C) 2 hour
(D) 2½ hours
117. The mode of the following series is 36:
The missing frequency is:
118. What is the probability that an ordinary year as 53 Mondays?
119. The sum of all the three-digit natural numbers which are multiples of 7 is:
120. The value of p for which the points (−5, 1) (1, p) and (4, −2) are collinear is:
Section-V : (iii) Social Science)
121. In the presence of the President and Vice President who discharges the function of President?
(A) Attorney General
(B) Chief Justice of India
(C) PM of India
(D) Advocate General
122. Which of the following institutions can expand and increase the scope of Fundamental Rights in the constitution?
(A) High Court
(B) Supreme Court
(C) National Human Rights Commission
(D) State Human Right Commission
123. How many members are there in the Election Commission?
124. Panchayati Raj is based on the Ideology of:
(A) Democratic Decentralization
(B) People Participation in Govt.
(D) Community Development
125. The United Nations Organization was established on:
(A) 24th September, 1945
(B) 15th July, 1945
(C) 24th October, 1945
(D) 26th August, 1945
126. The last country to join SAARC was:
(A) Sri Lanka
127. Which of the following nations adopted an Open Door Policy?
(D) South Korea
128. The central nodal agency for implementing value support works for commercial crops is:
129. Diminishing marginal utility is the basis of:
(A) Law of Supply
(B) Law of Return
(C) Law of Demand
(D) Law of Consumption
130. Loss of interest income on funds is an example of:
(A) Explicit Cost
(B) Implicit Cost
(C) Marginal Cost
(D) Direct Cost
131. Who was the leader and inspirer of the Young Bengal Movement of the late 1820s and 1830s?
(A) Rasik Krishna Mallic
(B) Ramtaru Lahiri
(C) Henry Vivian Derozio
(D) Pearey Chand Mitra
132. The first Indian ruler who joined the subsidiary alliance was:
(A) The Nawab of Awadh
(B) The Nizam of Hyderabad
(C) Peshwa Baji Rao
(D) Jhansi ki Rani
133. The Raja Rani temple is located in:
134. Which one of the following rivers flows westward?
135. The term “Fani” is associated with:
136. The literacy rate of India in 2011 was:
137. Dualistic economy means existence of:
(A) Both industrial and agricultural sectors
(B) Both public and private sectors
(C) Both socialist and capitalist economies
(D) Both foreign and domestic investments
138. Who was the first to unfurl the first Indian National Flag, the parent and precursor of the flag of independent India?
(A) Dada Bhai Naoroji
(B) Taraknath Das
(C) Raja Mahendra Pratap
(D) Madam Bhikaji Cama
139. Operation Flood is also known as:
(A) Green Revolution
(B) White Revolution
(C) Blue Revolution
(D) Black Revolution
140. In India the Tropic of Cancer passes through how many states?
Section-V: (iv) English
Directions (Q. Nos. 141-145) : Choose the word that is nearest meaning to the underlined word:
141. Employers like diligent employees.
142. The meeting was adjourned after discussion for two hours.
143. He is such sham that it is different to get along with him.
144. Oh who despises his colleagues can never be successful.
145. The school took the students of 9th class on a three days’ excursion to Goa.
Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150): In each of the following group of words, only one of them is spelt correctly. Select the one with the correct spelling.
Directions (Q. Nos. 151-154): Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word:
151. The criminal was detained by the police.
152. His depressing attitude was not liked by anyone.
153. Feasibility of the project is under study.
154. A mammoth statue overlooked the building.
Directions (Q. Nos. 155 and 156): Pick out the most appropriate word from the given alternatives and fill in the blanks to complete
155. This book is about a man who _____ his family and went to live in the Himalayas.
156. The villagers _____ the death of their leader by keeping all the shops closed.
Directions (Q. Nos. 157-160): Choose the correct answer:
157. The novel ‘Persuasion’ was written by:
(A) Charlotte Bronte
(B) Emily Bronte
(C) George Eliot
(D) Jane Austen
158. The poem ‘Ode to Nightingale’ was written by:
159. The play ‘Desire under the Elms’ was written by:
(B) Bernard Shaw
(C) Eugene O’Neill
160. The Novel ‘Train to Pakistan’ was written by:
(B) R.K. Narayan
(C) Anita Desai
(D) Khushwant Singh
Section-V : (v) Hindi