NEET-(UG) 2018 Examination Held on 06-05-2018 Code AA Question Paper with Answer Key

NEET-UG Examination Held on 06.05.2018 Code-AA 

1. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The ration of work done by the g as, to the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from state A to state B, is

(1)  1/3

(2)  2/3

(3)  2/5

(4)  2/7

Answer: (3)

2. The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe is

(1)  12.5 cm

(2)  8 cm

(3)  13.2 cm

(4)  16 cm

Answer: (3)

3. At what temperature will the rms speed of oxygen molecules become just sufficient for escaping from the Earth’s atmosphere?

(Given : Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 1026 kg Blotzmann’s constant kB = 1.38 × 1023 J K1)

(1)  5.016 × 104 K

(2)  8.360× 104 K

(3)  2.508 × 104 K

(4)  1.254 × 104 K

Answer: (2)

4. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water, is

(1)  6.25%

(2)  20%

(3)  26.8%

(4)  12.5%

Answer: (3)

5. A carbon resistor of (47 ±7) kΩ is to be marked with rings of different colours for its identification. The colour code sequence will be

(1)  Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold

(2)  Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver

(3)  Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver

(4)  Green – Orange – Violet – Gold

Answer: (2)

6. A set of ‘n’ equal resistors, of value ‘R’ each, are connected in series to a battery of emf ‘E’ and internal resistance ‘R’. The current drawn is I. Now, the ‘n’ resistors are connected in parallel to the same battery. Then the current drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of ‘n’ is

(1)  20

(2)  11

(3)  10

(4)  9

Answer: (3)

7. A battery consists of a variable number ‘n’ of identical cells (having internal resistance ‘r’ each) which are connected in series. The terminals of the battery are short-circuited and the current I is measured. Which of the graphs shows the correct relationship between I and n?





Answer: (3)

8. Unpolarized light is incident from air on a plane surface of a material of refractive index ‘μ’. At a particular angle of incidence ‘i’, it is found that the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other. Which of the following options is correct for this situation?


(2)  Reflected light is polarized with its electric vector perpendicular to the plane of incidence

(3)  Reflected light is polarized with its electric vector parallel to the p lane of incidence


Answer: (2)

9. In Young’s double slit experiment the separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength λ of the light used in 5896 Å and distance D between the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe angular width to 0.21° (with same λ and D) the separation between the slits needs to be changed to

(1)  2.1 mm

(2)  1.9 mm

(3)  1.8 mm

(4)  1.7 mm

Answer: (2)

10. An astronomical refracting telescope will have large angular magnification and high angular resolution, when it has an objective lens of

(1)  large focal length and large diameter

(2)  large focal length and small diameter

(3)  small focal length and large diameter

(4)  small focal  length and small diameter

Answer: (1)

11. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom, is

(1)  2 : −1

(2)  1 : −1

(3)  1 : 1

(4)  1 : −2

Answer: (2)

12. An electron of mass m with a initial velocity  enters an electric field  (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If λ0 is its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-Broglie wavelength at time t is

(1)  λ0t



(4)  λ0

Answer: (3)

13. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is

(1)  30

(2)  10

(3)  20

(4)  15

Answer: (3)

14. When the light of frequency 2v0 (where v0 is threshold frequency), is incident on a metal plate, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted is v1. When the frequency of the incident radiation is increased to 5v0, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is

(1)  4 : 1

(2)  1 : 4

(3)  1 : 2

(4)  2 : 1

Answer: (3)

15. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The values of IB, IC and β are given by

(1)  IB = 20 μA, IC = 5 mA, β = 250

(2)  IB = 25 μA, IC = 5 mA, β = 200

(3)  IB = 40 μA, IC = 10 mA, β = 250

(4)  IB = 40 μA, IC = 5 mA, β = 125

Answer: (4)

16. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature due to heating

(1)  does not affect resistance of p=n junction

(2)  affects only forward resistance

(3)  affects only reverse resistance

(4)  affects the overall V – I characteristics of p-n junction

Answer: (4)

17. In the combination of the following gates the output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and B as





Answer: (2)

18. An em wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity  The instantaneous oscillating electric field of this em wave is along +y-axis. Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of the em wave will be along

(1)  −y direction

(2)  +z direction

(3)  −z direction

(4)  −x direction

Answer: (2)

19. The refractive index of the material of a prism is √2 and the angle of the prism is 30°. One of the two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from the other face will retrace its path (after reflection from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on the prism is

(1)  30°

(2)  45°

(3)  60°

(4)  zero

Answer: (2)

20. An object is p laced at a distance of 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards the mirror, the displacement of the image will be

(1)  30 cm towards the mirror

(2)  36 cm away from the mirror

(3)  30 cm away from the mirror

(4)  36 cm towards the mirror

Answer: (2)

21. The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance

(1)  1.389 H

(2)  138.88 H

(3)  0.138 H

(4)  13.89 H

Answer: (4)

22. An electron falls from rest through a vertical distance h in a uniform and vertically upward directed electric field E. The direction of electric field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it through the same vertical distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of fall of the proton is

(1)  10 times greater

(2)  5 times greater

(3)  smaller

(4)  equal

Answer: (3)

23. The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is

(1)  proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates.

(2)  linearly proportional to the distance between the plates.

(3)  independent of the distance between the plates.

(4)  inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.

Answer: (3)

24. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a glass tube. The length of the air column in this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At room temperature of 27°C two successive resonance are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of column length. If the frequency of the tuning form is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27°C is

(1)  350 m/s

(2)  339 m/s

(3)  330 m/s

(4)  300 m/s

Answer: (2)

25. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is

(1)  2 s

(2)  π s

(3)  2π s

(4)  1 s

Answer: (2)

26. A metallic rod of mass per unit length 0.5 kg m1 is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide down by flowing a current through it when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is acting on it in the vertical direction. The current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary is

(1)  14.76 A

(2)  5.98 A

(3)  7.14 A

(4)  11.32 A

Answer: (4)

27. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically between the poles of an electromagnet. When the current in the electromagnet is switched on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains gravitational potential energy. The work required to do this comes from

(1)  the lattice structure of the material of the rod

(2)  the magnetic field

(3)  the current source

(4)  the induced electric field due to the changing magnetic field

Answer: (3)

28. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 μF and a resistor 50 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in the circuit is

(1)  2.74 W

(2)  0.43 W

(3)  0.79 W

(4)  1.13 W

Answer: (3)

29. Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the galvanometer is

(1)  250 Ω

(2)  25 Ω

(3)  40 Ω

(4)  500 Ω

Answer: (1)

30. A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in the figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to


(2)  D



Answer: (4)

31. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have the same mass M and radius R. They all spin with the same angular speed ω about their own symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the relation

(1)  WB > WA > WC

(2)  WA > WB > WC

(3)  WC > W­B > WA

(4)  WA > WC > WB

Answer: (3)

32. A moving block having mass m, collides with another stationary block having mass 4 m. The lighter block comes to rest after collision. When the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be

(1)  0.8

(2)  0.25

(3)  0.5

(4)  0.4

Answer: (2)

33. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(1)  Frictional force opposes the relative motion.

(2)  Limiting value of static friction is directly proportional to normal reaction.

(3)  Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction.

(4)  Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions of length.

Answer: (4)

34. A toy care with charge q moves on a frictionless horizontal plane surface under the influence of a uniform electric field  Due to the force  its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At that instant the direction of the field is reversed. The car continues to move for two more seconds under the influence of this field. The average velocity and the average speed of the toy car  between 0 to3 seconds are respectively

(1)  1 m/s, 3.5 m/s

(2)  1 m/s, 3 m/s

(3)  2 m/s, 4 m/s

(4)  1.5 m/s, 3 m/s

Answer: (2)

35. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination θ as shown in the figure. The wedge is given an acceleration ‘a’ towards the right. The relation between a and θ for the block to remain stationary on the wedge is

(1)  a = g cos θ

(2)  a = g/sin θ

(3)  a = g/cosec θ

(4)  a = g tan θ

Answer: (4)

36. The moment of the force,  at (2, 0, −3), about the point (2, −2, −2), is given by





Answer: (4)

37. A student measured the diameter of a small steel ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular scale division coincides with 25 divisions above the references level. If screw gauge has a zero error of −004 cm, the correct diameter of the ball is

(1)  0.053 cm

(2)  0.525 cm

(3)  0.521 cm

(4)  0.529 cm

Answer: (4)

38. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its symmetry axis in the free space. The radius of the sphere is increased keeping its mass same. Which of the following physical quantities would remain constant for the sphere?

(1)  Rotational kinetic energy

(2)  Moment of inertia

(3)  Angular velocity

(4)  Angular momentum

Answer: (4)

39. The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of the Sun S as shown in the figure.

(1)  KB < KA < KC

(2)  KA > KB > KC

(3)  KA < KB < KC

(4)  KB > KA > KC

Answer: (2)

40. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller and the universal gravitational constant were ten times larger in magnitude, which of the following is not correct?

(1)  Time period of a simple pendulum on the Earth would decrease.

(2)  Walking on the ground would become more difficult.

(3)  Raindrops will fall faster.

(4)  ‘g’ on the Earth will not change.

Answer: (4)

41. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling motion a body possesses translational kinetic energy (Kt) as well as rotational kinetic energy (Kr) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is

(1)  10 : 7

(2)  5 : 7

(3)  7 : 10

(4)  2 : 5

Answer: (2)

42. A small sphere of radius ‘r’ falls from rest in a viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due to viscous force. The rate of production of heat when the sphere attains terminal velocity, is proportional to

(1)  r56

(2)  r2

(3)  r3

(4)  r4

Answer: (1)

43. The power radiated by a black body is P and it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, λ0. If the temperature of the black body is now changed so that it radiates maximum energy at wavelength  the power radiated by it becomes nP. The value of n is

(1)  256/81

(2)  4/3

(3)  3/4

(4)  81/256

Answer: (1)

44. Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. The first wire has cross-sectional area A and the second wire has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the first wire is increased by ∆l on applying a force F, how much force is needed to stretch the second wire by the same amount?

(1)  4 F

(2)  6 F

(3)  9 F

(4)  F

Answer: (3)

45. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and normal pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm2) requires 54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at 100° If the volume of the steam produced is 167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the sample, is

(1)  42.2 J

(2)  208.7 J

(3)  104.3 J

(4)  84.5 J

Answer: (2)

46. The correct order of N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is

(1)  HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2

(2)  HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2

(3)  HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl

(4)  NH4Cl, N2 NO, HNO3

Answer: (3)

47. Which one of the following elements is unable to form

(1)  B

(2)  Al

(3)  Ga

(4)  In

Answer: (1)

48. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the following metals can be used to reduce alumina?

(1)  Mg

(2)  Zn

(3)  Fe

(4)  Cu

Answer: (1)

49. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 elements is

(1)  B < Ga < Al < Tl < In

(2)  B < Al < Ga < In < Tl

(3)  B < Al < In < Ga < Tl

(4)  B < Ga < Al < In < Tl

Answer: (4)

50. Which of the following statements is not true for halogens?

(1)  All but fluorine show positive oxidation states.

(2)  All are oxidizing agents.

(3)  All form monobasic oxyacids.

(4)  Chlorine has the highest electron-gain enthalpy.

Answer: (1)

51. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone pairs of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is

(1)  four

(2)  two

(3)  one

(4)  three

Answer: (2)

52. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the following sequence of reactions :





Answer: (4)

53. Which of the following compounds can form a zwitterions?

(1)  Benzoic acid

(2)  Acetanilide

(3)  Aniline

(4)  Glycine

Answer: (4)

54. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1)  Examples are Bakelite and melamine.

(2)  They are formed from bi- and tri-functional monomers.

(3)  They contain covalent bonds between various linear polymer chains.

(4)  They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chains.

Answer: (4)

55. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also gives m-nitroaniline because

(1)  In absence of substituents nitro group always goes t m-position.

(2)  In electrophilic substitution reactions amino group in meta directive.

(3)  In spite of substituents nitro group always goes to only m-position.

(4)  In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present as anilinium ion.

Answer: (4)

56. The difference between amylase and amylopectin is

(1)  Amylopectin have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 β-linkage

(2)  Amylose have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 β-linkage

(3)  Amylopectin have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 α-linkage

(4)  Amylose is made up of glucose and galactose

Answer: (3)

57. A mixture of 2.3g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP will be

(1)  2.8

(2)  3.0

(3)  1.4

(4)  4.4

Answer: (1)

58. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in nature?

(1)  BaO

(2)  BeO

(3)  MgO

(4)  CaO

Answer: (2)

59. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both due to natural and human activity?

(1)  N2O

(2)  NO2

(3)  N2O5

(4)  NO

Answer: (3)

60. The compound A on treatment with Na gives B, and with PCl5 gives C. B and C react together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are in the order

(1)  C2H5Cl,  C2H6, C2H5OH

(2)  C2H5OH, C2h5Cl, C2H5ONa

(3)  C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl

(4)  C2H5OH,  C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl

Answer: (4)

61. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following reactions :

The product  ‘C’ is

(1)  3-bromo-2,4, 6-trichlorotoluene

(2)  o-bromotoluene

(3)  m-bromotoluene

(4)  p-bromotoluene

Answer: (3)

62. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous hydrocarbon containing less than for carbon atoms. (A) is

(1)  CH3 − CH3

(2)  CH2 = CH2

(3)  CH ≡ CH

(4)  CH4

Answer: (4)

63. Which of the following molecules represents the order of hybridization sp2, sp2, sp, sp from left to right atoms?

(1)  CH2 = CH – CH = CH2

(2)  CH2 = CH – C ≡ CH

(3)  HC ≡ C – C ≡ CH

(4)  CH3 – CH = CH – CH3

Answer: (2)

64. Which of the following carbocation is expected to be most stable?





Answer: (1)

65. Which of the following is correct with respect to −I  effect of the substituents ? (R = alkyl)

(1)  −NH2 > −OR > −F

(2)  −NR2 < − OR < − F

(3)  −NH2 < − OR < −F

(4)  −NR2 > − OR > − F

Answer: (3)

66. In the reaction

the electrophile involved is

(1)  dichloromethyl anion 

(2)  formyl cation 

(3)  dichloromethyl cation 

(4)  dichlorocarbene (:CCl2)

Answer: (4)

67. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular mass. It is due to their

(1)  more extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction

(2)  formation of carboxylate  ion

(3)  formation of intramolecular H-bonding

(4)  formation of intermolecular H-bonding

Answer: (4)

68. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic smell.

A and Y are respectively.





Answer: (1)

69. Match the metal ions given in Column I with the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in Column II and assign the correct code:

Column I               Column II

(a) Co3+ (i) √8 B. M.

(b) Cr3+ (ii) √35 B.M.

(c) Fe3+ (iii) √3 B.M.

(d) Ni2+ (iv) √24 B.M.

 (v) √15 B.M.

(1)  a – iv; b – i; c – ii; d – iii

(2)  a – i; b – ii; c – iii; d – iv

(3)  a – iv; b – v; c – ii; d – i

(4)  a – iii; b – v; c – i; d – ii

Answer: (3)

70. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d transition and paramagnetism as well?





Answer: (4)

71. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is

(1)  trinulcear

(2)  mononuclear

(3)  tetranuclear

(4)  dinuclear

Answer: (2)

72. The type of isomerism shown by the complex [CoCl2(en)2] is

(1)  Ionization isomerism

(2)  Coordination isomerism

(3)  Geometrical isomerism

(4)  Linkage isomerism

Answer: (3)

73. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)4] are

(1)  square planar geometry and paramagnetic

(2)  tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic

(3)  square planar geometry and diamagnetic

(4)  tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic

Answer: (2)

74. Following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different concentrations :

pH of which one of them will  be equal to 1?

(1)  d

(2)  a

(3)  b

(4)  c

Answer: (4)

75. On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion depend?

(1)  Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion

(2)  Size of the ion alone

(3)  The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone

(4)  The sign of charge on the ion alone

Answer: (1)

76. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2 and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and 3.59, which one of the following gases is most easily liquefied?

(1)  O2

(2)  H2

(3)  NH3

(4)  CO2

Answer: (3)

77. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 103 gL1 at 298 K. The value of its solubility product (Ksp) will be

(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol1)

(1)  1.08 × 1014 mol2 L2

(2)  1.08 × 1012 mol2 L2

(3)  1.08 × 1010 mol2 L2

(4)  1.08 × 108 mol2 L2

Answer: (3)

78. In which case is the number of molecules of water maximum?

(1)  0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K

(2)  0.18 g of water

(3)  18 mL of water

(4)  103 mol of water

Answer: (3)

79. The correct difference between first- and second-order reactions is that

(1)  a first-order reaction can be catalyzed; a second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed

(2)  the half-life of a first-order reaction does not depend on [A]0’ the half-life of a second-order reaction does depend on [A]0

(3)  the rate of a first-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations; the rate  of a second-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations

(4)  the rate of a first-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations; the rate  of a second-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations

Answer: (2)

80. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic character is

(1)  BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2

(2)  CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2

(3)  BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2

(4)  BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2

Answer: (3)

81. Consider the change in oxidation state of Bromine corresponding to different emf values as shown in the diagram below :

Then the species undergoing disproportionation is

(1)  Br2



(4)  HBrO

Answer: (4)

82. For the redox reaction

the correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced equation are

Answer: (2)

83. Which one of the following conditions will favour maximum formation of the product in the reaction,

A2(g) + B2(g) ⇌ X2(g)  ∆rH = −X kJ?

(1)  High temperature and high pressure

(2)  Low temperature and low pressure

(3)  Low temperature and high pressure

(4)  High temperature and low pressure

Answer: (3)

84. When initial concentration  of the reactant is doubled, the half-life period of a zero order reaction

(1)  is tripled

(2)  is doubled

(3)  is halved

(4)  remains unchanged

Answer: (2)

85. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and XY are in the ratio of 1 : 05 : 1. ∆H for the formation of XY is −200 kJ mol1. the bond dissociation energy of X2 will be

(1)  800 kJ mol1

(2)  100 kJ mol1

(3)  200 kJ mol1

(4)  400 kJ mol1

Answer: (1)

86. The correction factor ‘a’ to t he ideal gas equation corresponds to

(1)  electric field present between the gas molecules

(2)  volume of the gas molecules

(3)  density of the gas molecules

(4)  forces of attraction between the gas molecules

Answer: (4)

87. Consider the following species :

CN+, CN, NO and CN

Which one of these will have the highest bond order?

(1)  CN+

(2)  CN

(3)  NO

(4)  CN

Answer: (2)

88. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound. If the ground state electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3, the simplest formula for this compound is

(1)  Mg2X

(2)  MgX2

(3)  Mg2X3

(4)  Mg3X2

Answer: (4)

89. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at room temperature to that at 900° (assuming molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains constant with temperature is





Answer: (1)

90. Which one is a wrong statement?

(1)  The electronic configuration of N atom is 

(2)  An orbital is designated by three quantum numbers while an electron is an atom is designated by four quantum numbers.

(3)  Total orbital angular momentum of electron in ‘s’ orbital is equal to zero.

(4)  The value of m for dz2 is zero.

Answer: (1)

91. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by

(1) Cycas

(2) Nostoc

(3)  Green sulphur bacteria

(4) Chara

Answer: (3)

92. Double fertilization is

(1)  Fusion of two male gametes with one egg

(2)  Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei

(3)  Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs

(4)  Syngamy and triple fusion

Answer: (4)

93. Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete  its life cycle without the other?

(1)  Banana

(2) Yucca

(3) Hydrilla

(4) Viola

Answer: (2)

94. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of

(1)  −196°C

(2)  −80°C

(3)  −120°C

(4)  −160°C

Answer: (1)

95. Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells?

(1)  Potassium

(2)  Sodium

(3)  Magnesium

(4)  Calcium

Answer: (1)

96. What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration?

(1)  It is nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.

(2)  It functions as an electron carrier.

(3)  It functions as an enzyme.

(4)  It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.

Answer: (2)

97. In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants?

(1)  Free element

(2)  Ferrous

(3)  Ferric

(4)  Both ferric and ferrous

Answer: (3)

98. Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?

(1)  λ  phage

(2)  Ti plasmid

(3)  Retrovirus

(4)  pBR 322

Answer: (3)

99. Use of biresources by multinational companies and organizations without authorization from the concerned country and its people is called

(1)  Biodegradation

(2)  Biopiracy

(3)  Bio-infringement

(4)  Bioexploitation

Answer: (2)

100. In India, the organization responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is

(1)  Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)

(2)  Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)

(3)  Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)

(4)  Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)

Answer: (4)

101. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is

(1)  Denaturation, Extension, Annealing

(2)  Annealing, Extension, Denaturation

(3)  Extension, Denaturation, Annealing

(4)  Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

Answer: (4)

102. Select the correct match:

(1)  T.H. Morgan – Transduction

(2)  F2x Recessive parent – Dihybrid cross

(3)  Ribozyme – Nucleic acid

(4)  G. Mendel – Transformation

Answer: (3)

103. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to

(1)  Lerma Rojo

(2)  Sharbati Sonora

(3)  Co-667

(4)  Basmati

Answer: (4)

104. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?

(1)  XO type sex determination : Grasshopper

(2)  ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance

(3)  Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles

(4)  T.H. Morgan : Linkage

Answer: (3)

105. Select the correct statement :

(1)  Spliceosomes take part  in translation.

(2)  Punnett square was developed by a British scientist.

(3)  Franklin Stahl coined the term “linkage”.

(4)  Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.

Answer: (2)

106. The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a

(1)  Plant

(2)  Bacterium

(3)  Fungus

(4)  Virus

Answer: (2)

107. Which of the following flowers only once in its life-time?

(1)  Mango

(2)  Jackfruit

(3)  Bamboo species

(4)  Papaya

Answer: (3)

108. Offsets are produced by

(1)  Parthenocarpy

(2)  Mitotic divisions

(3)  Meiotic divisions

(4)  Parthenogenesis

Answer: (2)

109. Select the correct match:

(1)  Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Pisum sativum

(2)  Alfred Hersey and Martha Chase – TMV

(3)  Alee Jeffreys – Streptococcus pneumoniae

(4)  Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod – Lac operon

Answer: (4)

110. Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils?

(1)  Oil content

(2)  Cellulosic intine

(3)  Pollenkitt

(4)  Sporopollenin

Answer: (4)

111. Natality refers to

(1)  Number of individuals leaving the habitat

(2)  Birth rate

(3)  Death rate

(4)  Number individuals entering a habitat

Answer: (2)

112. World Ozone Day is celebrated on

(1)  16th September

(2)  21st April

(3)  5th June

(4)  22nd April

Answer: (1)

113. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?

(1)  SO2

(2)  CO2

(3)  CO

(4)  O3

Answer: (4)

114. Niche is

(1)  the range of temperature that the organism needs to live

(2)  the physical space where on organism lives

(3)  all the biological factors in the organism’s environment

(4)  the functional role played by the organism where it lives.

Answer: (4)

115. What type of ‘ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data?

Second consumer : 120 g

Primary consumer : 60 g

Primary producer : 10 g

(1)  Upright pyramid of numbers

(2)  Pyramid of energy

(3)  Inverted pyramid of biomass

(4)  Upright pyramid of biomass

Answer: (3)

116. In stratosphere, which of the following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and release of molecular oxygen?

(1)  Fe

(2)  Cl

(3)  Carbon

(4)  Oxygen

Answer: (2)

117. The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are

(1)  carbonyl and phosphate

(2)  carbonyl and methyl

(3)  hydroxyl and methyl

(4)  carbonyl and hydroxyl

Answer: (4)

118. Which among the following is not prokaryote?

(1) Nostoc

(2) Mycobacterium

(3) Saccharomyces

(4) Oscillatoria

Answer: (3)

119. The Golgi complex participates in

(1)  Respiration in bacteria

(2)  Formation of secretory vesicles

(3)  Fatty acid breakdown

(4)  Activation of amino acid

Answer: (2)

120. Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis?

(1)  NADPH

(2)  NADH

(3)  ATP

(4)  Oxygen

Answer: (2)

121. Which of the following is true for nucleous?

(1)  It takes part in spindle formation.

(2)  It is a membrane-bound structure.

(3)  Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.

(4)  It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.

Answer: (4)

122. Stomatal movement is not affected by

(1)  O2 concentration

(2)  Light

(3)  Temperature

(4)  CO2 concentration

Answer: (1)

123. The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is

(1)  Diakinesis

(2)  Diplotene

(3)  Pachytene

(4)  Zygotene

Answer: (2)

124. Stomata in grass leaf are

(1)  Rectangular

(2)  Kidney shaped

(3)  Dumb-bell shaped

(4)  Barrel shaped

Answer: (3)

125. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by

(1)  Phellogen

(2)  Vascular cambium

(3)  Apical meristems

(4)  Axillary meristems

Answer: (2)

126. Pneumatophores occur in

(1)  Carnivorous plants

(2)  Free-floating hydrophytes

(3)  Halophytes

(4)  Submerged hydrophytes

Answer: (3)

127. Casparian strips occur in

(1)  Cortex

(2)  Pericycle

(3)  Epidermis

(4)  Endodermis

Answer: (4)

128. Plants having little or no secondary growth are

(1)  Conifers

(2)  Deciduous angiosperms

(3)  Grasses

(4)  Cycads

Answer: (3)

129. Sweet potato is modified

(1)  Tap root

(2)  Adventitious root

(3)  Stem

(4)  Rhizome

Answer: (2)

130. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1)  Horsetails are gymnosperms.

(2) Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous.

(3)  Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms.

(4)  Stems are usually  unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus.

Answer: (3)

131. Select the wrong statement :

(1)  Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans.

(2)  Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes.

(3)  Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae.

(4)  Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except Monera.

Answer: (1)

132. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in

(1) Agaricus

(2) Alternaria

(3) Neurospora

(4) Saccharomyces

Answer: (1)

133. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I

(a) Herbarium

(b) Key

(c) Museum

(d) Catalogue

Column II

(i) It is a place having a collection of preserved plants and animals.

(ii) A list that enumerates methodically all the species found in an area with brief description aiding identification.

(iii)  Is a place where dried and pressed plant specimens mounted on sheets are kept.

(iv) A booklet containing a list of characters and their alternates which are helpful in identification of various taxa.

(1)  a – ii; b – iv; c – iii; d – i

(2)  a – iii; b – ii; c – i; d – iv

(3)  a – i; b – iv; c – iii; d – ii

(4)  a – iii; b – iv; c – i; d – ii

Answer: (4)

134. Winged pollen grains are present in

(1)  Mango

(2) Cycas

(3)  Mustard

(4) Pinus

Answer: (4)

135. Which one is wrongly matched ?

(1)  Gemma cups – Marchantia

(2)  Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae

(3)  Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia

(4)  Unicellular organism – Chlorella

Answer: (3)

136. Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively?

(1)  Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles

(2)  Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface

(3)  Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface

(4)  Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles

Answer: (3)

137. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I

(a) Tricuspid valve

(b) Bicuspid valve

(c) Semilunar valve

Column II

(i) Between left atrium and left ventricle

(ii) Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery

(iii) Between right atrium and right ventricle

(1)  a – i; b – ii; c – iii

(2)  a – i; b – iii; c – ii

(3)  a – iii; b – i; c – ii

(4)  a – ii; b – i; c – iii

Answer: (3)

138. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I

(a) Tidal volume

(b) Inspiratory Reserve volume

(c) Expiratory Reserve volume

(d) Residual volume

Column II

(i) 2500-3000 mL

(ii) 1100 – 1200 mL

(iii) 500 – 550 mL

(iv) 1000 – 1100 mL

(1)  a – i; b – iv; c – ii; d – iii

(2)  a – iii; b – i; c – iv; d – ii

(3)  a – iii; b – ii; c – i; d – iv

(4)  a – iv; b – iii; c – ii; d – i

Answer: (2)

139. The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by

(1)  smooth muscles attached to the iris

(2)  ligaments attached to the iris

(3)  ligaments attached to the ciliary body

(4)  smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body

Answer: (3)

140. Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?

(1)  Estradiol

(2)  Ecdysone

(3)  Epinephrine

(4)  Estriol

Answer: (3)

141. Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?

(1)  Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone

(2)  Progesterone and Aldosterone

(3)  Aldosterone and Prolactin

(4)  Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin

Answer: (1)

142. Which of t he following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function?

(1)  Hypothalamus : production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst.

(2)  Limbic system : consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movement.

(3)  Medulla oblongata : controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.

(4)  Corpus callosum : band of fibers connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres.

Answer: (2)

143. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from

(1)  mesoderm and trophoblast

(2)  endoderm and mesoderm

(3)  ectoderm and mesoderm

(4)  ectoderm and endoderm

Answer: (3)

144. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are

(1)  hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens

(2)  hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin

(3)  hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin

(4)  hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids

Answer: (1)

145. The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is

(1)  In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.

(2)  In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed.

(3)  In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.

(4)  In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.

Answer: (4)

146. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’

(1)  is an IUD.

(2)  increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.

(3)  blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.

(4)  is a post-coital contraceptive.

Answer: (3)

147. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in

(1)  using pseudopodia for capturing prey

(2)  having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water

(3)  using flagella for locomotion

(4)  having two types of nuclei

Answer: (4)

148. Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system.

(1)  Aves

(2)  Reptilia

(3)  Amphibia

(4)  Osteichthyes

Answer: (1)

149. Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach?

(1)  Forewings with darker tegmina

(2)  Presence of caudal styles

(3)  Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th abdominal segment

(4)  Presence of anal cerci

Answer: (2)

150. Which one of the these animals is not a homeotherm?

(1) Camelus

(2) Chelone

(3) Macropus

(4) Psittacula

Answer: (2)

151. Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis?

(1)  Moth

(2)  Tunicate

(3)  Earthworm

(4)  Starfish

Answer: (3)

152. Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?

(1)  Cyanobacteria

(2)  Diatoms

(3)  Dinoflagellates

(4)  Euglenoids

Answer: (2)

153. Which one of the following population interactions is widely used in medical science for the production of antibiotics?

(1)  Parasitism

(2)  Mutualism

(3)  Commensalism

(4)  Amensalism

Answer: (4)

154. All of the following are included in ‘Ex-situ conservation’ except

(1)  Botanical gardens

(2)  Sacred groves

(3)  Wildlife safari parks

(4)  Seed banks

Answer: (2)

155. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I

(a) Eutrophication

(b) Sanitary landfill

(c) Snow blindness

(d) Jhum cultivation

Column II

(i) UV-B radiation

(ii) Deforestation

(iii) Nutrient enrichment

(iv) Waste disposal

(1)  a – iii; b – iv; c – i; d – ii

(2)  a – i; b – iii; c – iv; d – ii

(3)  a – ii; b – i; c – iii; d – iv

(4)  a – i; b – ii; c – iv; d – iii

Answer: (1)

156. In a growing population of a country,

(1)  reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number.

(2)  reproductive individuals are less than the post-reproductive individuals.

(3)  pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals.

(4)  pre-reproductive individuals are less than the reproductive individuals

Answer: (3)

157. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug “Smack”?

(1)  Roots

(2)  Latex

(3)  Flowers

(4)  Leaves

Answer: (2)

158. All of the following are part of an operon except

(1)  an enhancer

(2)  structural genes

(3)  an operator

(4)  a promoter

Answer: (1)

159. A woman has as X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by

(1)  Only grandchildren

(2)  Only sons

(3)  Only daughters

(4)  Both sons and daughters

Answer: 4

160. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is

(1)  Phenotypic variations

(2)  Saltation

(3)  Multiple step mutations

(4)  Minor mutations

Answer: (2)

161. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?





Answer: (3)

162. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I

(a) Proliferative Phase

(b) Secretory Phase

(c) Menstruation

Column II

(i) Breakdown of endometrial lining

(ii) Follicular Phase

(iii) Luteal Phase

(1)  a – ii; b – iii; c – i

(2)  a – i; b – iii; c – ii

(3)  a – iii; b – ii; c – i

(4)  a – iii; b – i; c – ii

Answer: (1)

163. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I

(a) Glycosuria

(b) Gout

(c) Renal calculi

(d) Glomerular nephritis

Column II

(i) Accumulation of uric acid in joints

(ii) Mass of crystallized salts within the kidney

(iii) Inflammation in glomeruli

(iv) Presence of glucose in urine

(1)  a – ii; b – iii; c – i; d – iv

(2)  a – i; b – ii; c – iii; d – iv

(3)  a – iii; b – ii; c – iv; d – i

(4)  a – iv; b – i; c – ii; d – iii

Answer: (4)

164. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I


(a) Ultrafiltration

(b) Concentration of urine

(c) Transport of urine

(d) Storage of urine

Column II

(Part of Excretory System)

(i) Henle’s loop

(ii) Ureter

(iii) Urinary bladder

(iv) Malpighian corpuscle

(v) Proximal convoluted tubule

(1)  a – v; b – iv; c – i; d – ii

(2)  a – iv; b – i; c – ii; d – iii

(3)  a – iv; b – v; c – ii; d – iii

(4)  a – v; b – iv; c – i; d – iii

Answer: (2)

165. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis?

(1)  Goblet cells

(2)  Mucous cells

(3)  Chief cells

(4)  Parietal cells

Answer: (4)

166. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I

(a) Fibrinogen

(b) Globulin

(c) Albumin

Column II

(i) Osmotic balance

(ii) Blood clotting

(iii) Defence mechanism

(1)  a – i; b – iii; c – ii

(2)  a – i; b – ii; c – iii

(3)  a – iii; b – ii; c – i

(4)  a – ii; b – iii; c – i

Answer: (4)

167. Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder?

(1)  Botulism

(2)  Silicosis

(3)  Anthracis

(4)  Emphysema

Answer: (2)

168. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it

(1)  detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.

(2)  activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.

(3)  binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.

(4)  prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.

Answer: (3)

169. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of

(1)  Nucleic acids and SER

(2)  DNA and RNA

(3)  Proteins and lipids

(4)  Free ribosomes and RER

Answer: (4)

170. Which of these statements is incorrect?

(1)  Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.

(2)  Glycolysis occurs in cytosol.

(3)  Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix.

(4)  Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane.

Answer: (4)

171. Select the incorrect match:

(1)  Submetacentric chromosomes – L-shaped chromosomes

(2)  Allosomes – Sex chromosomes

(3)  Lampbrush chromosomes – Diplotene bivalents

(4)  Polytene chromosomes – Oocytes of amphibians

Answer: (4)

172. Which of the following terms describe human dentition?

(1)  Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont

(2)  Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont

(3)  Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont

(4)  Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont

Answer: (2)

173. Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?

(1)  Cleavage of signal peptide

(2)  Protein glycosylation

(3)  Protein folding

(4)  Phospholipid synthesis

Answer: (4)

174. Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as

(1)  Plastidome

(2)  Polyhderal bodies

(3)  Polysome

(4)  Nucleosome

Answer: (3)

175. In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?

(1)  Ringworm disease

(2)  Ascariasis

(3)  Elephantiasis

(4)  Amoebiasis

Answer: (3)

176. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

(1)  Alzheimer’s disease

(2)  Rheumatoid arthritis

(3)  Psoriasis

(4)  Vitiligo

Answer: (1)

177. Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option:

(1)  Brain of bat, man and cheetah

(2)  Heart of bat, man and cheetah

(3)  Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah

(4)  Eye of octopus, bat and man

Answer: (4)

178. Conversion milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of

(1)  Vitamin B12

(2)  Vitamin A

(3)  Vitamin D

(4)  Vitamin E

Answer: (1)

179. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of

(1)  Convergent evolution

(2)  Analogy

(3)  Homology

(4)  Adaptive radiation

Answer: (3)

180. Which of the following characteristics represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in humans?

(a) Dominance

(b) Co-dominance

(c) Multiple allele

(d) Incomplete dominance

(e) Polygenic inheritance

(1)  b, d, and e

(2)  a, b and c

(3)  b, c and e

(4)  a, c and e

Answer: (2)

Uttar Dinajpur District of West Bengal at a Glance

About Uttar Dinajpur District :

The District of Uttar Dinajpur came into existance on 1st April,1992 after the bifurcation of erstwhile West Dinajpur District. The District lies between latitude 25o11′ N to 26o49′ N and longitude 87o49′ E to 90o00′ E occupying an area of 3142 Sq. Km enclosed by Bangladesh on the East, Bihar on the West, Darjeeling & Jalpaiguri District on the North and Malda District on the South. Uttar Dinajpur is well connected with the rest of the State through National Highways, State Highways and Railways. The regional topography is generally flat with a gentle southerly slope towards which the main rivers like Kulik, Nagar,Mahananda etc flow.In the District there are 2 Sub-Divisions Raiganj & Islampur, 4 Municipalities, 9 Blocks and 98 Panchayats covering 1494 villages.The Distict forms a part of the basin lying between Rajmahal hills on the East.The older alluvium is estimated to be Pleistocene age.Uttar Dinajpur is bestowed with a very fertile soil.The soil is very rich in nature due to the alluvial deposition which helps to grow Paddy, Jute, Mesta and Sugarcane etc. Raiganj on the bank of the River Kulik is the District Headquarter where “Raiganj Wildlife Sanctuary”, the second largest bird sanctuary in Asia situated

At a Glance :

  • District – 
  • Headquarters – 
  • State
Area in Sq Km (Census 2011)
  • Total – 
  • Rural – 
  • Urban – 
Population (Census 2011)
  • Population – 
  • Rural – 
  • Urban – 
  • Male – 
  • Female – 
  • Sex Ratio (Females per 1000 males) – 
  • Density (Total, Persons per sq km) – 
Constituencies (ECI)
  • Assembly
  • Loksabha

Tourist Places :

Raiganj Bird Sanctuary :

Situated in the district and along the National Highway and by the side of the Kulik river is the Raiganj Bird Sanctuary with an area of 35 acre and buffer area of 286.23 acre. The forest, water bodies and the river attract the migratory birds like Open Bill Strok, Night heron, cormorant, little cormorant & Egrets from South Asian countries and coastal regions

Other Tourist Spots in Uttar Dinajpur :

 #Sap nikla forest under Chopra block is 22 km from Islampur and tourists visit the lake and the forest for site seeing. Development of an Eco park is underway.
#   Eco Tourism at Bijolia More is being developed. Here river Sudhani forms an island by dividing into 2 branches and joining again.
#   Temple of Goddess Bhairabi at Bindole. Temple of Goddess Bhairabi at Bindole
#   Mosque of Burhana fakirs. Mosque of Burhana fakirs
#   Temple of Goddess Kali of Baira.
#   Kunore-famous for terracotta pottery & Malgaon.
#   Museum at Karnajora.
#   Park at Karnajora.
#   Banabithi Resort at Barui, Barduari.
#   Farm-House at Samaspur, Hemtabad

Howrah District of West Bengal at a Glance

About Howrah District :

Howrah is a relatively small district in West Bengal with an area of 1467 sq km. Howrah district lies between 22°48′ N and 22°12′ N latitudes and between 88°23′ E and 87°50′ E longitudes. The district is bounded by Hooghly River and districts of North 24 Parganas and South 24 Parganas on the east, on the north by the Hooghly district (Arambagh and Shrirampur sub-divisions) and on the south by Midnapore East district. The district consists of one Municipal Corporation, two Municipalities and 14 Blocks. Howrah Municipal Corporation is the second largest Urban Local Body in the State. The district of Howrah has been a traditional hub of industrial infrastructure and skilled manpower in the small scale and tiny industrial sector and has played a pivotal role in the State’s economy due to which it was known as “Sheffield of the East”. Traditionally, Howrah had been a strong manufacturing base, particularly in the engineering and foundry sectors, and has over the years developed a number of clusters in the areas of lock making, shuttle cock, zari, jewellery etc. Prior to synthetic polo balls coming into the game, Howrah was known for its production of polo balls.

At a Glance :

Administrative set UP :
District Head Quarter:
Police Station
25+1(1 addl women PS)
Municipal Corporation
Panchayat Samity
Gram Panchayat
Gram Sansad
Area and Population:
Density of population
per sq. k.m
Percentage of population:
Annual rainfall
1350 (approx)
Teparature Maximum
Degree Celsius
Teparature Minimum
Workers :
Total workers
Educational Institutions :
Higher Secondary
General College
University(Gen. & Tech.)
Literates: Male

 Tourist Places :

The Howrah Station :

It is the gateway of Kolkata, the capital of West Bengal to the rest of the country. Developed towards the early part of the twentieth century, it has become one of the most important transitpoints for passengers and goods movement in the country. The present station building will be completing its glorious 100 years in 2006.

Howrah is the terminus of the first Indian Railway system namely East Indian Railsays. A survey for the East Indian Railway was taken up in 1845 and construction began in 1851. The section of the Railways, a Broad guage railway 5’6’’ was opened in 1854 from Howrah to Hooghly. In 1855 the line was extended up to Ranigunj and in 1862 up to Benares. After construction of the first Howrah Bridge in 1874, the Howrah Station was remodeled and improved. The other great line, the Bengal Nagpur Railway also a Broad gauge Railway, was extended to Howrah in 1900, thus connecting it with Nagpur and Bombay on the west Cuttak, Puri and Madras on the South. After this the station was further remodeled and became a joint station for E.I. Rly. and B.N. Rly. The old station was made over to the B.N. Rly. The E.I. Rly and B.N. Rly were subsequently renamed as Eastern Railway and South Eastern Railway respectively. Howrah station has now become a large imposing building facing the river with clock Tower and twenty long platforms for the passenger trains and three for the goods trains.

The Howrah Bridge or the Rabindra Setu :

The old Howrah Bridge, a floating pontoon Bridge, was opened in October 1874 and made over to Port Commissioners who managed and maintained it. Designed by the late Sir Bradford Leslie, it had a total length of 1528 feet between centers of abutments and provided a 48 feet roadway and two 7 feet footways. The most novel feature was the removal section which when floated out gage a 200 feet clear openings, with a head room of 22 feet, were also provided for smaller crafts. The adjusting ways or shore spans, one at each end of the bridge, consisted of three 160 feet long bow sting girders.

The traffic between commercial Kolkata and industrial Howrah having enormously increased during the first quarter of the 20th Century, the old b ridge was quite insufficient and it was decided to build a new one. The shifting mode of the river Hooghly was dangerous for either a cantilever or a suspension Bridge and hence a Bridge was designed as a sort of combination of the both. It was however known as and a reputed cantilever Bridge and is the third largest bridge of its kind in the World having a over-all length if 2150 feet with a single span of 1500 feet. The new Howrah Bridge was designed by M/s. Rendell, Palmer and Tritton, consulting Engineers. It took 8 years to complete the bridge and 26,000 tons of steel including 18,200 tons of high tensile quality were used. The total cost of construction of the land and all ancillary works, amounted Rs. 3.33 crores.

It is interesting to note that the Bridge expands about 4.8 inches during the heat of the day and contracts equal length in the cool of the night. Another peculiarity of the Bridge is that the Bridge bends over slightly in strong winds. The framework has also been built to withstand earth-quakes, as Calcutta lies in a Seismic zone.

The height of the Bridge at the supporting towers on the both ends in 300 feet. Each tower has a constant width of 11 feet and a tapering from 8’6’’ to4’6’’ at the top. The entire structure is laid on main piers of re-enforced concrete monoliths with steel ceiling edges. Each pier is 181’6” long by 81’6” wide and is amongst the largest in the world. The monoliths and grinders on Calcutta side are 103 feet deep and on the Howrah side it is 88 feet deep. These monoliths are the heaviest in the world.

The Great Banyan Tree

Belur Math & Temple :

Belur Math is situated just outside the boundary of Howrah Municipal Corporation on the north and stand on the West Bank of the river Hooghly. It was founded in 1897 by Swami Vivekananda, the great servant of India, and other disciples of Sri Sri Ramkrishna Paramhansa, who is regarded by the Hindus as an incarnation of God and occupies a place of great honour amongst the religious leaders of the world. A magnificent temple has been build at a great cost by the unique munificence of two pious American ladies, Miss Helen Rubel and Mrs. Auna Worcester. The breadth of the shrine is 100 ft and its length, including the prayer hall, is 233 ft. On a marble pedestal in the shrine is a marble statue of Sri Ramkrishna in his familiar asana. The prayer hall is 152 ft. long, 72 ft. wide and 48 ft. high.

The math is the head quarter of the Ramkrishna Mission, a society established for the propagation of the orthodox Hindu faith chastened with modern outlook. There is also a large Museum inside the Math on the lives of Sri Ramkrishna and his close disciples. The temple and the math is visited by countless people, most of whom are religiously inclined, to celebrate the birthday anniversary of Sri Ramkrishna (18th February 1836) in February when a fair is held there. The place also attracts large number of visitors from Kolkata and abroad every day, especially on Sundays and holidays.

Second Hooghly Bridge or Vidyasagar Setu :

Vidyasagar Setu – otherwise known as the second Hooghly Bridge opened to the traffic in 1992 is the finest product of modern architecture and technology. It is intricately connected with cities of Kolkata and Howrah by a series of over bridges and situated at a distance of 1.5 k.m. southwards of Ravindra Setu. It is erected on only four pillars and hung on 121 number of iron ropes. The bridge is 458 meters long and 115 meters wide. One can have a glimpse of a large part of Kolkata standing at the middle of the Bridge. The beauty of the bridge and its background is largely utilized by the Film Industry for shooting purposes.


Ranjit Kumar Bag

Hon’ble Justice Ranjit Kumar Bag

He taught ‘Criminal and Constitutional Law’ to the IPS Officers undergoing Induction and in-service training in Sardar Vallabbhai Patel National Police Academy, Hyderabad while he worked there on deputation from 1995 to 1999. He is the author of three books: (i) Law of Medical Negligence and Compensation (ii) Supreme Court on Criminal Law and (iii) Service Laws of Government Employees. He attended 12th International Congress on “Criminology” at Seoul, South Korea as Delegate of Government of India in 1998.

He took oath as Additional Judge of the High Court at Calcutta on October, 1, 2013


NEET Result 2017

NEET Result 2017 has been declared on 23rd June, 2017. NEET 2017 exam finished on 7th of May 2017. You can check your result at NEET Result 2017. Navdeep Singh of Punjab has topped the entrance test with 697 marks out of 720 marks. He was taking coaching in Chandigarh. 2nd Rank has been claimed by Archit Gupta from Madhya Pradesh who has scored 695 marks. Manish Mulchandani who also scored 695 marks secured 3rd place.

NEET 2017 question papers and answer key released on 15th June 2017. Students can practice NEET UG 2017 Question Papers in online more for free. Download option is also available.

11,38,890 students wrote NEET 2017 which held 7th of May. There is huge increase in number of candidates in NEET-I and NEET-II. There were 11,36,206 indian nationals. Out of 11,38,890 candidates 611539 cleared the hurdle. 4,97,043 male candidates apeeared the entrance test and 266221 are emerged victorious. Similarly out of 6,41,839 girl aspirants 345313 could cleared the entrance exam. NEET 2017 conducted in 10 Indian languages and exam was spread over 103 cities.
Earlier it was announced that NEET Result for 2017 will be declared on 8th June 2017. But after Chennai High court order it was delayed. Supreme court intervene and advised NEET Board to declare the result before 26th of June 2017.

NEET 2017 Highlights:

Candidates registered113889070.58% increase from NEET-I, 2016

139.37% increase from NEET-II, 2016

Indian Nationals11,36,206
OCIs480Allowed for the first time
PIO69Allowed for the first time
Foreigners613Allowed for the first time
Male4,97,04343.64% of registered candidates
Female6,41,83956.36% of registered candidates
Number of Cities103Against 52 in 2016
Number of Languages10Only 2 in 2016
Number of examination centres1921Against 739 in 2016
Number of rooms50,000+
Number of invigilators1,50,000+
Number of Observers3500+
Number of City Coordinators124Against 61 in 2016

NEET 2017 Question Paper with Answer Key (Code-W)

NEET Examination 2017 Question Paper

(Biology: Code-W)

Held on 07.05.2017

1. Which one of the following statements is correct, with reference to enzymes?

(1)   Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme  + Coenzyme

(2)   Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme  + Coenzyme

(3)   Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme

(4)   Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor

Ans: (2)

2. Which cells of ‘Crypts of Lieberkuhn’ secrete antibacterial lysozyme?

(1)   Argentaffin cells

(2)   Paneth cells

(3)   Zymogen cells

(4)   Kupffer cells

Ans: (2)

3. Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO2 acceptor in:

(1)   C3 plants

(2)   C4 plants

(3)   C2 plants

(4)   C3 and C4 plants

Ans: (2)

4. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (Column -I) with their causative agent (Column – II) and select the Correct option.

Column-I                         Column-II

(a) Gonorrhea                 (i) HIV

(b) Syphilis                      (ii) Neisseria

(c) Genital Warts             (iii) Treponema

(d) AIDS                          (iv) Human Papilloma – Virus

(1)   (a) – (ii); (b) – (iii); (c) – (iv); (d) – (i)

(2)   (a) – (iii); (b) – (iv); (c) – (i); (d) – (ii)

(3)   (a) – (iv); (b) – (ii); (c) – (iii); (d) – (i)

(4)   (a) – (iv); (b) – (iii); (c) – (ii); (d) – (i)

Ans: (1)

5. Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen ?

(1) Bacillus

(2) Pseudomonas

(3)   Mycoplasma

(4) Nostoc

Ans: (3)

6. Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel’s hybridization experiments?

(1)   1856 – 1863

(2)   1840 – 1850

(3)   1857 – 1869

(4)   1870 – 1877

Ans: (1)

7. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by:

(1)   Water

(2)   Bee

(3)   Wind

(4)   Bat

Ans: (3)

8. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when :

(1)   The value of ‘r’ approaches zero

(2)   K = N

(3)   K > N

(4)   K < N

Ans: (2)

9. Out of ‘X’ pairs of ribs in humans only ‘Y’ pairs are true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents values of X and Y and provides their explanation :

(1)   X = 12, Y = 7 : True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum.

(2)   X = 12, Y = 5 : True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and sternum on the two ends.

(3)   X = 24, Y = 7 : True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on ventral side.

(4)   X = 24, Y = 12 : True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on ventral side

Ans: (1)

10. MALT constitutes about __________percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.

(1)   50%

(2)   20%

(3)   70%

(4)   10%

Ans: (1)

11. Homozygous purelines in cattle can be obtained by:

(1)   mating of related individuals of same breed.

(2)   mating of unrelated individuals of same breed.

(3)   mating of individuals of different breed.

(4)   mating of individuals of different species.

Ans: (1)

12. Among the following characters, which one was not considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea ?

(1)   Stem – Tall of Dwarf

(2)   Trichomes – Glandular or non-glandular

(3)   Seed – Green or Yellow

(4)   Pod – Inflated or Constricted

Ans: (2)

13. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form ATP ?

(1)   Lysosome

(2)   Ribosome

(3)   Chloroplast

(4)   Mitochondrion

Ans: (4)

14. If there are 999 bases in RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered ?

(1)   1

(2)   11

(3)   33

(4)   333

Ans: (3)

15. Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions ?

(1)   Archaebacteria

(2)   Eubacteria

(3)   Cyanobacteria

(4)   Mycobacteria

Ans: (1)

16. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on:

(1)   membranes of synaptic vesicles

(2)   pre-synaptic membrane

(3)   tips of axons

(4)   post-synaptic membrane

Ans: (4)

17. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents:

(1)   stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this character in the population.

(2)   directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction.

(3)   disruptive as it splits the population into two, one yielding higher output and the other lower output.

(4)   stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes the population to produce higher yielding cows.

Ans: (2)

18. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from

(1)   Heart

(2)   Stomach

(3)   Kidneys

(4)   Intestine

Ans: (4)

19. The water potential of pure water is:

(1)   Zero

(2)   Less than zero

(3)   More than zero but less than one

(4)   More than one

Ans: (1)

20. Which of the following represents order of ‘Horse’ ?

(1)   Equidae

(2)   Perissodactyla

(3)   Caballus

(4)   Ferus

Ans: (2)

21. Alexander Von Humbolt described for the first time :

(1)   Ecological Biodiversity

(2)   Laws of limiting factor

(3)   Species are relationship

(4)   Population Growth equation

Ans: (3)

22. DNA fragments are :

(1)   Positively charged

(2)   Negatively charged

(3)   Neutral

(4)   Either positively or negatively charged depending on their size

Ans: (2)

23. A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play school and passes through a dental check-up. The dentist observed that boy had twenty teeth. Which teeth were absent ?

(1)   Incisors

(2)   Canines

(3)   Pre-molars

(4)   Molars

Ans: (3)

24. Anaphase promoting Complex (APC) is a protein degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis of animal cells. If APC is defective in a human cell, which of the following is expected to occur ?

(1)   Chromosomes will not condense

(2)   Chromosomes will be fragmented

(3)   Chromosomes will not segregate

(4)   Recombination of chromosome arms will occur

Ans: (3)

25. An important characteristic that hemichordates share with Chordates is :

(1)   Absence of notochord

(2)   Ventral tubular nerve cord

(3)   Pharynx with gill slits

(4)   Pharynx without gill slits

Ans: (3)

26. The genotypes of a Husband and Wife are IAIB and IA

Among the blood types of their children how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible ?

(1)   3 genotypes; 3 phenotypes

(2)   3 genotypes; 4 phenotypes

(3)   4 genotypes; 3 Phenotypes

(4)   4 genotypes; 4 phenotypes

Ans: (3)

27. Transplantation of tissues / organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient’s body. Which type of immune –response is responsible for such rejections ?

(1)   Autoimmune response

(2)   Cell- mediated immune response

(3)   Hormonal immune response

(4)   Physiological immune response

Ans: (2)

28. Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the following statement (s) is / are most appropriate explanation for this feature?

(a)   They do not need to reproduce

(b)   They are somatic cells

(c)   They do not metabolize

(d)   All their internal space is available for oxygen transport

(1)   Only (d)

(2)   Only (a)

(3)   (a), (c) and (d)

(4)   (b) and (c)

Ans: (1)

29. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration because of :

(1)   Residual Volume

(2)   Inspiratory Reserve Volume

(3)   Tidal Volume

(4)   Expiratory Reserve Volume

Ans: (4)

30. Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of :

(1) Marchantia

(2) Fucus

(3) Funaria

(4) Chlamydomonas

Ans: (4)

31. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs

(1)   Testes → Bidder’s canal → Kidney → Vasa efferentia → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca

(2)   Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal Vesicle → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca

(3)   Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder’s canal → Ureter → Cloaca

(4)   Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder’s canal → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca

Ans: (4)

32. Which one of the following statements is not valid for aerosols ?

(1)   They are harmful to human health

(2)   They alter rainfall and monsoon patterns

(3)   They cause increased agricultural productivity

(4)   They have negative impact on agricultural land

Ans: (3)

33. Viroids differ from viruses in having :

(1)   DNA molecules with protein coat

(2)   DNA molecules without protein coat

(3)   RNA molecules with protein coat

(4)   RNA molecules without protein coat

Ans: (4)

34. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to elongate :

(1)   The leading strand towards replication fork.

(2)   The lagging strand towards replication fork.

(3)   The leading strand away from replication fork.

(4)   The lagging strand away from the replication fork.

Ans: (4)

35. Plants which produce characteristic Pneumatophores and show vivipary belong to :

(1)   Mesophytes

(2)   Halophytes

(3)   Psammophytes

(4)   Hydrophytes

Ans: (2)

36. The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called :

(1)   Upstream processing

(2)   Downstream processing

(3)   Bioprocessing

(4)   Postproduction processing

Ans: (2)

37. Identify the wrong statement in context of heartwood :

(1)   Organic compounds are deposited in it

(2)   It is highly durable

(3)   It conducts water and minerals efficiently

(4)   It comprises dead elements with highly lignified walls

Ans: (3)

38. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of :

(1)   Plants

(2)   Fungi

(3)   Animals

(4)   Bacteria

Ans: (4)

39. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1)   The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.

(2)   The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.

(3)   The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water.

(4)   The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes.

Ans: (1)

40. Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass ?

(1)   Forest ecosystem

(2)   Grassland ecosystem

(3)   Pond ecosystem

(4)   Lake ecosystem

Ans: (4)

41. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from the experiments of :

(1)   Griffith

(2)   Hershey and Chase

(3)   Avery, Mcleod and McCarty

(4)   Hargobind Khorana

Ans: (2)

42. The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD’s is :

(1)   They suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms.

(2)   They inhibit gametogenesis.

(3)   They make uterus unsuitable for implantation.

(4)   They inhibit ovulation.

Ans: (1)

43. An example of colonial alga is :

(1) Chlorella

(2) Volvox

(3) Ulothrix

(4) Spirogya

Ans: (2)

44. Root hairs develop from the region of :

(1)   Maturation

(2)   Elongation

(3)   Root cap

(4)   Meristematic activity

Ans: (1)

45. Hypersecretion of Growth Hormone in adults does not cause further increase in height, because :

(1)   Growth Hormone becomes inactive in adults.

(2)   Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence.

(3)   Bones loose their sensitivity of Growth Hormone in adults.

(4)   Muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth.

Ans: (2)

46. Which of the following in sewage treatment removes suspended solids ?

(1)   Tertiary treatment

(2)   Secondary treatment

(3)   Primary treatment

(4)   Sludge treatment

Ans: (3)

47. Select the mismatch :

(1) Pinus –  Dioecious

(2) Cycas –  Dioecious

(3) Salvinia  –  Heterosporous

(4) Equisetum –  Homosporous

Ans: (1)

48. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis ?

(1)   The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves

(2)   The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves

(3)   Positive charged fragment moves to farther end

(4)   Negatively charged fragments do not move

Ans: (2)

49. In Bougainvillea thorns are the modification of :

(1)   Stipules

(2)   Adventitious root

(3)   Stem

(4)   Leaf

Ans: (3)

50. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates :

(1)   Transcription is occurring.

(2)   DNA replication is occurring.

(3)   The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin Fibre.

(4)   The DNA double helix is exposed.

Ans: (3)

51. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is :

(1)   Pineal gland

(2)   Corpus cardiacum

(3)   Corpus luteum

(4)   Corpus allatum

Ans: (3)

52. Select the mismatch :

(1) Frankia – Alnus

(2) Rhodospirillum – Mycorrhiza

(3) Anabaena – Nitrogen fixer

(4) Rhizobium – Alfalfa

Ans: (2)

53. GnRH , a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts on :

(1)   anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin.

(2)   anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH.

(3)   Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH.

(4)   Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and relaxin.

Ans: (2)

54. A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as :

(1)   Selectable marker

(2)   Vector

(3)   Plasmid

(4)   Structural gene

Ans: (1)

55. Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical layers depending on their height can be seen best in :

(1)   Tropical Savannah

(2)   Tropical Rain Forest

(3)   Grassland

(4)   Temperate Forest

Ans: (2)

56. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into :

(1)   Ovule

(2)   Endosperm

(3)   Embyro sac

(4)   Embryo

Ans: (3)

57. DNA replication in bacteria occurs :

(1)   During S phase

(2)   Within nucleolus

(3)   Prior to fission

(4)   Just before transcription

Ans: (3)

58. Which among these is the correct combination of aquatic mammals ?

(1)   Seals, Dolphins, Sharks

(2)   Dolphins, Seals, Trygon

(3)   Whales, Dolphins, Seals

(4) Trygon, Whales, Seals

Ans: (3)

59. Coconut fruit is a :

(1)   Drupe

(2)   Berry

(3)   Nut

(4)   Capsule

Ans: (1)

60. Double fertilization is exhibited by :

(1)   Gymnosperms

(2)   Algae

(3)   Fungi

(4)   Angiosperms

Ans: (4)

61. Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell ?

(1)   Cell wall

(2)   Nuclear membrane

(3)   Plasma membrane

(4)   Glycocalyx

Ans: (4)

62. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are :

(1)   Haplontic, Diplontic

(2)   Diplontic, Haplodiplontic

(3)   Haplodiplontic, Diplontic

(4)   Haplodiplontic, Haplontic

Ans: (3)

63. Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ conservation of threatened animals and plants?

(1)   Wildlife Safari parks

(2)   Biodiversity hot spots

(3)   Amazon rainforest

(4)   Himalayan region

Ans: (1)

64. Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene-rich food.

Select the best option from the following statements.

(a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene

(b) The photopigments are embedded in the membrane discs of the inner segment.

(c) Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin A.

(d) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual photopigments.

(1)   (a) and (b)

(2)   (a), (c) and (d)

(3)   (a) and (c)

(4)   (b), (c) and (d)

Ans: (2)

65. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select the correct

(1)   Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis.

(2)   Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis.

(3)   Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules.

(4)   Sickle cell anemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules.

Ans: (3)

66. Which of the following are not polymeric ?

(1)   Nucleic acid

(2)   Proteins

(3)   Polysaccharides

(4)   Lipids

Ans: (4)

67. A disease caused by an autosomal primary non-disjunction is :

(1)   Down’s Syndrome

(2)   Klinefelter’s Syndrome

(3)   Turner’s Syndrome

(4)   Sickle Cell Anemia

Ans: (1)

68. With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis, which of the following statements is not correct ?

(1)   Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% of full sunlight

(2)   increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration up to 0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate

(3)   C3 plants respond to higher temperatures with enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants have much lower temperature optimum

(4)   Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be grown in CO2 enriched atmosphere for higher yield.

Ans: (3)

69. Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented by the application of :

(1)   Cytokinins

(2)   Ethylene

(3)   Auxins

(4)   Gibberellic acid

Ans: (3)

70. The region of Biosphere Reserve which is legally protected and where no human activity is allowed is known as :

(1)   Core zone

(2)   Buffer zone

(3)   Transition zone

(4)   Restoration zone

Ans: (1)

71. In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called :

(1)   ostia

(2)   oscula

(3)   choanocytes

(4)   mesenchymal cells

Ans: (3)

72. A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause the release of :

(1)   Renin

(2)   Atrial Natriuretic Factor

(3)   Aldosterone

(4)   ADH

Ans: (2)

73. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both :

(1)   Autogamy and xenogamy

(2)   Autogamy and geitonogamy

(3)   Geitonogamy and xenogamy

(4)   Cleistogamy and xenogamy

Ans: (2)

74. Which of the following facilitates opening of stomatal aperture ?

(1)   Contraction of outer wall of guard cells

(2)   Decrease in turgidity of guard cells

(3)   Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells

(4)   Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells

Ans: (3)

75. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with :

(1)   Bromophenol blue

(2)   Acetocarmine

(3)   Aniline blue

(4)   Ethidium bromide

Ans: (4)

76. Which statement is wrong for Krebs’ cycle ?

(1)   There are three points in the cycle where NAD+ is reduced to NADH + H+

(2)   There is one point in the cycle where FAD+ is reduced to FADH­2

(3)   During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised

(4)   The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield citric acid

Ans: (4)

77. Mycorrhizae are the example of :

(1)   Fungistasis

(2)   Amensalism

(3)   Antibiosis

(4)   Mutualism

Ans: (4)

78. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of :

(1)   fibrous joint

(2)   cartilaginous joint

(3)   synovial joint

(4)   saddle joint

Ans: (3)

79. Which of the following is correctly matched for the product produced by them ?

(1) Acetobacter aceti : Antibiotics

(2) Methanobacterium : Lactic acid

(3) Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid

(4) Sacchromyces cerevisiae : Ethanol

Ans: (4)

80. Frog’s heart when taken out of the body continues to beat for sometime.

Select the best option from the following statements :

(a) Frog is a poikilotherm.

(b) Frog does not have any coronary circulation.

(c) Heart is “Myogenic” in nature.

(d) heat is autoexcitable.

(1)   Only (c)

(2)   Only (d)

(3)   (a) and (b)

(4)   (c) and (d)

Ans: (4)

81. Myelin sheath is produced by

(1)   Schwann cell and Oligodendrocytes

(2)   Astrocytes and Schwann cells

(3)   Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts

(4)   Osteoclasts and Astrocytes

Ans: (1)

82. Capacitation occurs in

(1)   Rete testis

(2)   Epididymis

(3)   Vas deferens

(4)   Female Reproductive tract

Ans: (3)

83. The morphological nature of the edible part of coconut is

(1)   Perisperm

(2)   Cotyledon

(3)   Endosperm

(4)   Pericarp

Ans: (3)

84. Which of the following is made up of dead cells ?

(1)   Xylem parenchyma

(2)   Collenchyma

(3)   Phellen

(4)   Phloem

Ans: (3)

85. In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for fertilisation ?

(1)   Intrauterine transfer

(2)   Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer

(3)   Artificial Insemination

(4)   Intracytoplasmic sperm injection

Ans: (3)

86. Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cell ?

(1)   r-RNA

(2)   t-RNA

(3)   m-RNA

(4)   mi-RNA

Ans: (1)

87. The vascular cambium normally gives rise to :

(1)   Phelloderm

(2)   Primary phloem

(3)   Secondary xylem

(4)   Periderm

Ans: (3)

88. Which of the following options gives the correct sequence of events during mitosis ?

(1)   condensation → nuclear membrane disassembly → crossing over → segregation → telophase

(2)  condensation → nuclear membrane disassembly → arrangement at equator → centromere division → segregation → telophase

(3)   condensation → crossing over → nuclear membrane disassembly → segregation → telophase

(4)   condensation → arrangement at equator → centrometer division → segregation → telophase

Ans: (2)

89. Which of the following options best represents the enzyme composition of pancreatic juice ?

(1)   amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin

(2)   amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase

(3)   peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin

(4)   lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase

Ans: (4)

90. Attractants and rewards are required for :

(1)   Anemophily

(2)   Entomophily

(3)   Hydrophily

(4)   Cleistogamy

Ans: (2)

(Physics: Code-W)

91. Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m respectively are connected by a massless and inextensible string. The whole system is suspended by a massless spring as shown in figure. The magnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately after the string is cut, are respectively :





Ans: (2)

92. The acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 km above the earth is the same as at a depth d below the surface of earth. Then :


(2)   d = 1 km


(4)   d = 2 km

Ans: (4)

93. A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 3 cm. When the particle is at 2 cm from the mean position, the magnitude of its velocity is equal to that of its acceleration. Then its time period in second is :





Ans: (3)

94. The resistance of a wire is ‘R’ ohm. If it is melted and stretched to ‘n’ times its original length, its new resistance will be

(1)   nR


(3)   n2R


Ans: (3)

95. A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is removed and another identical uncharged capacitor is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic energy of resulting system :

(1)   increases by a factor of 4

(2)   decreases by a factor of 2

(3)   remains the same

(4)   increases by a factor of 2

Ans: (2)

96. Two rods A and B of different materials are welded together as shown in figure. Their thermal conductivities are K1 and K2. The thermal conductivity of the composite rod will be



(3)   K1 + K2

(4)   2(K1 + K2)

Ans: (1)

97. The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one end and open at other end are 220 Hz and 260 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of the system?

(1)   10 Hz

(2)   20 Hz

(3)   30 Hz

(4)   40 Hz

Ans: (2)

98. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is ‘B’. If it is subjected to uniform pressure ‘p’, the fractional decrease in radius is :





Ans: (4)

99. A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that can be formed out of c, G and  is [c is velocity of light, G is universal constant of gravitation and e is charge] :





Ans: (1)

100. Figure shows a circuit that contains three identical resistors with resistance R = 9.0 Ω each, two identical inductors with inductance L = 2.0 mH each and an ideal battery with emf ε = 18 V. The current ‘i’ through the battery just after the switch closed is, …..

(1)   2 mA

(2)   0.2 A

(3)   2 A

(4)   0 ampere

Ans: (Bonus)

101. One end of string of length l is connected to a particle of mass ‘m’ and the other end is connected to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in circle with speed ‘v’, the net force on the particle (directed towards center) will be (T represents the tension in the string)

(1)  l



(4)   Zero

Ans: (1)

103. Radioactive material ‘A’ has decay constant ‘8 λ’ material ‘B’ has decay constant ‘λ’. Initially they have same number of nuclei. After what time, the ratio of number of nuclei of material ‘B’ to that ‘A’ will be  ?





Ans: (2)

104. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30N ?

(1)   25 m/s2

(2)   0.25 rad/s2

(3)   25 rad/s2

(4)   5 m/s2

Ans: (3)

105. Two cars moving in opposite directions approach each other with speed of 22 m/s and 16.5 m/s respectively. The driver of the first car blows a horn having a frequency 400 Hz. The frequency heard by the driver of the second car is [velocity of sound 340 m/s] :

(1)   350 Hz

(2)   361 Hz

(3)   411 Hz

(4)   448 Hz

Ans: (4)

106. A 250 – Turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 μA are subjected to a magnetic field of strength 0.85T. Work done for rotating the coil by 180º against the torque is :

(1)   9.1 μJ

(2)   4.55 μJ

(3)   2.3 μJ

(4)   1.15 μJ

Ans: (1)

107. A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 × 104 turn per meter. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of 100 turns and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis coinciding with the solenoid axis. The current in the solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0A from 4 A in 0.05 s. If the resistance of the coil is 10π2Ω the total charge flowing through the coil during this time is :

(1)   32 π μC

(2)   16 μC

(3)   32 μC

(4)   16 π μC

Ans: (3)

108. Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ slightly. One of them is – e, the other is (e + ∆e). If the net of electrostatic force and gravitational force between two hydrogen atoms placed at a distance d (much greater than atomic size) apart is zero, then ∆e is of the order of [Given mass of hydrogen mh = 1.67 × 1027 kg]

(1)   1020 C

(2)   1023 C

(3)   1037 C

(4)   1047 C

Ans: (3)

109. Two astronauts are floating in gravitational free space after having lost contact with their spaceship. The two will :

(1)   keep floating at the same distance between them

(2)   move towards each other

(3)   move away from each other

(4)   will become stationary

Ans: (2)

110. The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer series and the last line of Lyman series is

(1)   2

(2)   1

(3)   4

(4)   0.5

Ans: (4)

111. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T (Kelvin) and mass m, is :





Ans: (2)

112. A thin prism having refracting angle 10° is made of glass of refractive index 1.42. This prism is combined with another thin prism of glass of refractive index 1.7. This combination produces dispersion without deviation. The refracting angle of second prism should be :

(1)   4°

(2)   6°

(3)   8°

(4)   10°

Ans: (2)

113. Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the following diagram:

Match the following :

Column-1                        Column-2

P. Process I                      a. Adiabatic

Q. Process II                    b. Isobaric

R. Process III                   c. Isochoric

S.  Process IV                  d. Isothermal

(1)   P → a, Q → c, R → d, S → b

(2)   P → c, Q → a, R → d, S → b

(3)   P → c, Q → d, R → b, S → a

(4)   P → d, Q → b, R → a, S → c

Ans: (2)

114. A U tube with both ends open to the atmosphere, is partially filled with water. Oil, which is immiscible with water, is poured into one side until it stands at a distance of 10 mm above the water level on the other side. Meanwhile the water rises by 65 mm from its original level (see diagram). The density of the oil is :

(1)   650 kg m3

(2)   425 kg m3

(3)   800 kg m3

(4)   928 kg m3

Ans: (4)

115.  A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio 1 : 2 : 3. They are connected in series and the new force constant is k’. Then they are connected in parallel and force constant is k”. Then k’ : k” is :

(1)   1 : 6

(2)   1 : 9

(3)   1 : 11

(4)   1 : 14

Ans: (3)

116. Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with the centre of gravity of the body.

(b) Centre of mass of a body is the point at which the total gravitational torque on the body is zero.

(c) A couple on a body produce both translational and rotational motion in a body.

(d) Mechanical advantage greater that one means that small effort can be used to lift a large load.

(1)   (b) and (d)

(2)   (a) and (b)

(3)   (b) and (c)

(4)   (c) and (d)

Ans: (1)

117. A beam of light from a source L is incident normally on a plane mirror fixed at a certain distance x from the source. The beam is reflected back as a spot on a scale placed just above the source L. When the mirror is rotated through a small angle θ the spot of the light is found to move through a distance y on the scale. The angle θ is given by :





Ans: (1)

118. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O2 and 4 moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is :

(1)   4 RT

(2)   15 RT

(3)   9 RT

(4)   11 RT

Ans: (4)

119. Consider a drop of rain water having mass 1 g falling from a height of 1 km. It hits the ground with a speed of 50 m/s. Take ‘g’ constant with a value 10 m/s2. The work done by the (i) gravitational force and the (ii) resistive force of air is :

(1)   (i) – 10 J (ii) – 8.25 J

(2)   (i) 1.25 J (ii) – 8.25 J

(3)   (i) 100 J (ii) 8.75 J

(4)   (i) 10 J (ii) – 8.75 J

Ans: (4)

120. A carnot engine having an efficiency of  as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature is :

(1)   1 J

(2)   90 J

(3)   99 J

(4)   100 J

Ans: (2)

121. An arrangement of three parallel straight wires placed perpendicular to plane of paper carrying same current ‘I’ along the same direction is shown in figure. Magnitude of force per unit length on the middle wire ‘B’ is given by :





Ans: (4)

122. The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time are x = 5t – 2t2 and y = 10t respectively, where x and y are in meters and t in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at t = 2s is:

(1)   0

(2)   5 m/s2

(3)   −4 m/s2

(4)   −8 m/s2

Ans: (3)

123. The ratio of resolving powers of an optical microscope for two wavelengths λ1 = 4000 Å and λ2 = 6000 Å is :

(1)   8 : 27

(2)   9 : 4

(3)   3 : 2

(4)   16 : 81

Ans: (3)

124. Preeti reached the metro station and found that the escalator was not working. She walked up the stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, if she remains stationary on the moving escalator, then the escalator takes her up in time t2. The time taken by her to walk up on the moving escalator will be :





Ans: (3)

125. A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm radiates 450 watt power at 500 K. If the radius were halved and the temperature doubled, the power radiated in watt would be :

(1)   225

(2)   450

(3)   1000

(4)   1800

Ans: (4)

126. A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device to make electrical measurements of E.M.F. because the method involves :

(1)   cells

(2)   potential gradients

(3)   a condition of no current flow through the galvanometer

(4)   a combination of cells, galvanometer and resistances

Ans: (3)

127. The given electrical network is equivalent to

(1)   AND gate

(2)   OR gate

(3)   NOR gate

(4)   NOT gate

Ans: (3)

128. In a common emitter transistor amplifier the audio signal voltage across the collector is 3V. The resistance of collector is 3 kΩ. If current gain is 100 and the base resistance is 2kΩ, the voltage and power gain of the amplifier is :

(1)   200 and 1000

(2)   15 and 200

(3)   150 and 15000

(4)   20 and 2000

Ans: (3)

129. Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about their regular axis passing through centre and perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular velocities ω1 and ω2. They are brought into contact face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The expression for loss of energy during this process is :





Ans: (2)

130. Young’s double slit experiment is first performed in air and then in a medium other than air. It is found that 8th bright fringe in the medium lies where 5th dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the medium is nearly :

(1)   1.25

(2)   1.59

(3)   1.69

(4)   1.78

Ans: (4)

131. Which one of the following represents forward bias diode?





Ans: (1)

132. Two polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their axis perpendicular to each other. Unpolarised light I0 is incident on P1. A third Polaroid P3 is kept in between P1 and P2 such that its axis makes an angle 45º with that of P1. The intensity of transmitted light though P2 is :





Ans: (3)

133. In an electromagnetic wave in free space the root mean square value of the electric field is Erms = 6V/m. The peak value of the magnetic field is :

(1)   1.41 × 108 T

(2)   2.83 × 108 T

(3)   0.70 × 108 T

(4)   4.23 × 108 T

Ans: (2)

134. If θ1 and θ2 be the apparent angles of dip observed in two vertical planes at right angles to each other, then the true angle of dip θ is given by

(1)   cot2θ = cot2θ1 + cot2θ2

(2)   tan2θ = tan2θ1 + tan2θ2

(3)   cot2θ = cot2θ1 – cot2θ2

(4)   tan2θ1 = tan2θ1 – tan2θ2

Ans: (1)

135. The diagrams below show regions of equipotentials.

A positive charge is moved from A to B in each diagram

(1)   Maximum work is required to move q in figure (c).

(2)   In all the four cases the work done is the same.

(3)   Minimum work is required to move q in figure (a)

(4)   Maximum work is required to move q in figure (b).

Ans: (2)

(Chemistry: Code-W)

136. The reason for greater range of oxidation states in actinoids is attributed to :

(1)   The radioactive nature of actinoids

(2)   Actinoid contraction

(3)   5f, 6d and 7s levels having comparable energies

(4)   4f and 5d levels being close in energies

Ans: (3)

137. An example of a sigma bonded organometallic compound is

(1)   Ruthenocene

(2)   Grignard’s reagent

(3)   Ferrocene

(4)   Cobaltocene

Ans: (2)

138. Which one is the wrong statement?

(1)  de-Broglie’s wavelengths is given by  where m = mass of the particle, υ = group velocity of the particle.

(2)  The uncertainty principle is ∆E × ∆t ≥ h/4π

(3)   Half filled and fully filled orbitals have greater stability due to greater exchange energy, greater symmetry and more balanced arrangement.

(4)  The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms.

Ans: (4)

139. Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as :

(1)   analgesic

(2)   antiseptic

(3)   antipyretic

(4)   antibiotic

Ans: (2)

140. The element Z = 114 has been discovered recently. It will belong to which of the following family/ group and electronic configuration ?

(1)   Halogen family, [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p5

(2)   Carbon family, [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p2

(3)   Oxygen family, [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p4

(4)   Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p6

Ans: (2)

141. A 20 litre container at 400 K contains CO2(g) at pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of SrO neglect the volume of solid SrO). The volume of the container is now decreased by moving the movable piston fitted in the container. The maximum volume of the container, when pressure of CO2 attains its maximum value, will be :

(Given that : SrCO3(s) ⇌ SrO (s) + CO2(g), Kp = 1.6 atm)

(1)   5 litre

(2)   10 litre

(3)   4 litre

(4)   2 litre

Ans: (1)

142. Predict the correct intermediate and product in the following reaction :





Ans: (4)

143. Which of the following is a sink for CO ?

(1)   Haemoglobin

(2)   Micro organisms present in the soil

(3)   Oceans

(4)   Plants

Ans: (2)

144. Which of the following reactions is appropriate for converting acetamide to methanamine ?

(1)   Carbylamine reaction

(2)   Hoffmann hypobromamide reaction

(3)   Stephens reaction

(4)   Gabriels phthalimide synthesis

Ans: (2)

145. The species, having bond angles of 120° is :

(1)   PH3

(2)   CIF3

(3)   NCl3

(4)   BCl3

Ans: (4)

146. The correct of order the stoichiometries of AgCl formed when AgNO3 in excess is treated with the complexes CoCl3.6NH3, CoCl3. 5NH3, CoCl3. 4NH3 respectively is :

(1)   1 AgCl, 3AgCl, 2AgCl

(2)   3AgCl, 1 AgCl, 2AgCl

(3)   3AgCl, 2AgCl, 1 AgCl

(4)   2 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl

Ans: (3)

147. For a given reaction, ∆H = 35.5 kJ mol1 and ∆S = 83.6 JK1 mol1. The reaction is spontaneous at : (Assume that ∆H and ∆S do not vary with temperature)

(1)   T < 425 K

(2)   T > 425 K

(3)   all temperatures

(4)   T > 298 K

Ans: (2)

148. Match the interhalogen compounds of Column I with the geometry in column II and Assign the correct code.

Column I                  Column II

(a) XXʹ                     (i) T-shape

(b) XXʹ3 (ii) Pentagonal bipyramidal

(c) XXʹ5 (iii) Linear

(d) XX7 (iv) Square –pyramidal

 (v) Tetrahedral

(1)   (a) – (iii); (b) – (iv); (c) – (i); (d) – (ii)

(2)   (a) – (iii); (b) – (i); (c) – (iv); (d) – (ii)

(3)   (a) – (v); (b) – (iv); (c) – (iii); (d) – (ii)

(4)   (a) – (iv); (b) – (iii); (c) – (ii); (d) – (i)

Ans: (2)

149. Identify A and predict the type of reaction

(1) and substitution reaction

(2)  and elimination addition reaction

(3)  and cine substitution reaction

(4)  and cine substitution reaction

Ans: (1)

150. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1)   Catalyst does not initiate any reaction.

(2)   The value of equilibrium constant is changed in the presence of a catalyst in the reaction at equilibrium.

(3)   Enzymes catalyse mainly bio-chemical reactions

(4)   Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity of enzyme.

Ans: (2)

151. Name the gas that can readily decolourise acidified KMnO4 solution:

(1)   CO2

(2)   SO2

(3)   NO2

(4)   P2O5

Ans: (2)

152. The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compounds is :


 (I)              (II)            (III)

(1)   II < III < I

(2)   III < I < II

(3)   III < II < I

(4)   II < I < III

Ans: (4)

153. If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal depression constant (Kf) will be :

(1)   doubled

(2)   halved

(3)   tripled

(4)   unchanged

Ans: (4)

154. Of the following, which is the product formed when cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation followed by heating?





Ans: (2)

155. The equilibrium constants of the following are :

The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction :





Ans: (2)

156. The correct statement regarding electrophile is :

(1)   Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile

(2)   Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from another electrophile

(3)   Electrophiles are generally neutral species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile

(4)   Electrophile can be either neutral or positively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile

Ans: (4)

157. A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated container against a constant external pressure of 2.5 atm from an initial volume of 2.50 L to a final volume of 4.50 L. The change in internal energy ∆U of the gas in joules will be:

(1)   1136.25 J

(2)   −500 J

(3)   −505 J

(4)   +505 J

Ans: (3)

158. Which of the following pairs of compounds is isoelectronic and isostructural ?

(1)   BeCl2, XeF2

(2)   TeI2, XeF2


(4)   IF3, XeF2

Ans: (3)

159. Which of the incorrect statement?

(1)   FeO0.98 has non stoichiometric metal deficiency defect.

(2)   Density decreases in case of crystals with Schottky’s defect.

(3)   NaCl(s) is insulator, silicon is semiconductor, silver is conductor, quartz is piezo electric crystal.

(4)   Frenkel defect is favoured in those ionic compounds in which sizes of cation and anions are almost equal.

Ans: (4)

160. The heating of phenyl-methyl ethers with HI produces.

(1)   ethyl chlorides

(2)   iodobenzene

(3)   phenol

(4)   benzene

Ans: (3)

161. Correct increasing order for the wavelength of absorption in the visible region for the complexes of Co3+ is :

(1)   [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(H2O)6] 3+

(2)   [Co(H2O)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+

(3)   [Co(H2O)6]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+

(4)   [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(en)3] 3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+

Ans: (1)

162. Pick out the correct statement with respect to [Mn(CN)6]3– :

(1)   It is sp3d2 hybridised and octahedral

(2)   It is sp3d2 hybridised an tetrahedral

(3)   It is d2sp3 hybridised and octahedral

(4)   It is dsp2 hybridised and square planar.

Ans: (3)

163. With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true?

(1)   Bond angle remains same but bond length changes

(2)   Bond angle changes but bond length remains same

(3)   Both bond angle and bond length changes

(4)   Both bond angles and bond length remains same

Ans: (4)

164. Which of the following is dependent on temperature ?

(1)   Molality

(2)   Molarity

(3)   Mole fraction

(4)   Weight percentage

Ans: (2)

165. Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1)   Insulin maintains sugar level in the blood of a human body.

(2)   Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg white

(3)   Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are involved in blood clotting.

(4)   Denaturation makes the proteins more active.

Ans: (4)

166. The IUPAC name of the compound  is _____________.

(1)   3–keto–2–methylhex–4–enal

(2)   5–formylhex–2–en–3–one

(3)   5–methyl–4–oxohex–2–en–5–al

(4)   3–keto–2–methylhex–5–enal

Ans: (1)

167. HgCl2 and I2 both when dissolved in water containing I ions the pair of species formed is :


(2)   HgI2, I


(4)   Hg2I2, I

Ans: (3)

168. It is because of inability of ns2 electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding that :

(1)   Sn2+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising

(2)   Sn2+ is oxidising while Pb4+ is reducing

(3)   Sn2+ and Pb2+ are both oxidising and reducing

(4)   Sn4+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising

Ans: (1)

169. Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction X2 + Y2 → 2XY is given below :

(i) X2 → X + X (fast)

(ii) X + Y2 ⇌ XY + Y (slow)

(iii) X + Y → XY (fast)

The overall order of the reaction will be :

(1)   1

(2)   2

(3)   0

(4)   1.5

Ans: (4)

170. Concentration of the Ag+ ions in a saturated solution of Ag2C2O4 is 2.2 × 104 mol L1. Solubility product of Ag2C2O4 is :

(1)   2.42 × 108

(2)   2.66 × 1012

(3)   4.5 × 1011

(4)   5.3 × 1012

Ans: (4)

171. Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with CN Silver is later recovered by :

(1)   liquation

(2)   distillation

(3)   zone refining

(4)   displacement with Zn

Ans: (4)

172. Which one is the correct order of acidity ?

(1)   CH2=CH2 > CH3–CH=CH2 > CH3–C≡CH > CH≡CH

(2)   CH≡CH > CH3–C≡CH > CH2=CH2 > CH3–CH3

(3)   CH≡CH > CH2=CH2 > CH3–C≡CH > CH3–CH3

(4)   CH3–CH3 > CH2=CH2 > CH3–C≡CH > CH≡CH

Ans: (2)

173. Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali metal ions is lowest when aqueous solution of their salts are put under an electric field ?

(1)   Na

(2)   K

(3)   Rb

(4)   Li

Ans: (4)

174. Consider the reaction :

Silver mirror observed

Identify A, X, Y and Z

(1)   A–Methoxymethane, X–Ethanoic acid, Y–Acetate ion, Z–hydrazine.

(2)   A–Methoxymethane, X–Ethanol, Y–Ethanoic acid, Z–Semicarbazide.

(3)   A–Ethanal, X–Acetaldehyde, Y–But–2–enal, Z-Semicarbazone.

(4)   A–Ethanol, X-Acetaldehyde, Y-Butanone, Z-Hydrazone.

Ans: (3)

175. In which pair of ions both the species contain S–S bond





Ans: (2)

176. Which one is the most acidic compound ?





Ans: (4)

177. In the electrochemical cell :

Zn |ZnSO4 (0.01 M )|| CuSO4 (1.0 M) Cu, the emf of this Daniel cell is E1 . When the concentration of ZnSO4 is changed to 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 changed to 0.01 M , the emf changes to E2 . From the followings which one is the relationship between E1 and E2 ? (Given, )

(1)   E1 = E2

(2)   E1 < E2

(3)   E1 > E2

(4)   E2 = 0 ≠ E1

Ans: (3)

178. A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of 10–2 sec1. How much time will it take for 20 g of the reaction to reduce to 5 g ?

(1)   238.6 sec

(2)   138.6 sec

(3)   346.5 sec

(4)   693.0 sec

Ans: (2)

179. The most suitable method of separation of 1:1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is :

(1)   Sublimation

(2)   Chromatography

(3)   Crystallisation

(4)   Steam distillation

Ans: (4)

180. Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order ?

(1)   CO, NO

(2)   O2, NO+

(3)   CN, CO


Ans: (3)