## National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) Post Graduate 2020 Question Paper With Answer Key

National Institute of Fashion and Technology

Solver Paper 2020

1. Three Science classes A, B and C take a Life Science test. The average score of class A is 83. The average score of class B is 76. The average score of class C is 85. The average score of classes A and B is 79 and average score of classes B and C is 81. Then, the average score of classes A, B and C is

(a)  80

(b)  80.5

(c)  81.5

(d)  81

2. In a library the ratio of story books and other books is 7 : 2 and there are 1512 story books. Due to collection of some more story books the said ratio becomes 15 : 4. The number of story books collected is

(a)  100

(b)  97

(c)  108

(d)  205

3. A and B have their monthly incomes in the ratio 8 : 5, while their monthly expenditures are in the ratio 5 : 3. If they have saved Rs. 12000 and Rs. 10000 monthly respectively, then the difference in their monthly incomes is

(a)  Rs. 52000

(b)  Rs. 46000

(c)  Rs. 44000

(d)  Rs. 42000

4. A farmer travelled a distance of 61 km in 9 h. He travelled partly on foot at the rate 4 km/h and partly on bicycle at the rate 9 km/h. The distance travelled on foot is

(a)  14 km

(b)  15 km

(c)  16 km

(d)  17 km

5. A sum of Rs. 7930 is divided into 3 parts and given on loan at 5% simple interest to A, B and C for 2 yr, 3 yr and 4 yr, respectively. If the amounts of all three are equal after their respective periods of loan, then the A received a loan of

(a)  Rs. 2760

(b)  Rs. 3050

(c)  Rs. 2800

(d)  Rs. 2750

6. A and B can do a piece of work in 30 and 36 days, respectively. They began the work together but A leaves after some days and B finished the remaining work in 25 days. After how many days did A leave?

(a)  6 days

(b)  11 days

(c)  10 days

(d)  5 days

7. From 1980-90, the population of a country was increased by 20%. From 1990-2000, the population of the country was increased by 20%. From 2000-10, the population of the country was increased by 20%. Then the overall increased population (in percentage) of the country from 1980-2010 was

(a)  60%

(b)  62.8%

(c)  72.2%

(d)  72.8%

8. If the product of two positive numbers be 1575 and their ratio is 7 : 9, then the greater number is

(a)  35

(b)  63

(c)  45

(d)  135

9. If A : B = 2 : 3 and B : C = 3 : 7, then

A + B : B + C : C + A is equal to

(a)  4 : 10 : 9

(b)  5 : 8 : 9

(c)  5 : 10 : 9

(d)  4 : 8 : 9

10. The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 21 and 84, respectively. If the ratio of the two numbers is 1 : 4, then the larger of the two numbers is

(a)  84

(b)  108

(c)  48

(d)  12

11. A sell a cycle to B at a profit of 20% and B sells it to C at a loss of 25%. If C bought the cycle for Rs. P, then the cost price of it for A was

(a)  Rs. 9/10 P

(b)  Rs. 10/9 P

(c)  Rs. 1/20P

(d)  Rs. 9/20 P

12. A number when divided by 361 gives a remainder 47. If the same number is divided by 19, then the remainder obtained is

(a)  8

(b)  1

(c)  3

(d)  9

13. If 64 buckets of water are removed from a cubical shaped water tank completely filled with water, 1/3 of the tank remains filled with water. The length of each side of the tank is 1.2 m. Assuming that all buckets are of the same measure, then the volume (in litre) of water contained by each bucket is

(a)  12

(b)  16

(c)  18

(d)  15

14. In a farm there are cows and hens. If heads are counted there are 180, if legs are counted there are 420. The number of cows in the farm is

(a)  150

(b)  30

(c)  130

(d)  50

15. If the arithmetic means of 3a and 4b is greater than 50, and a is twice of b, then the smallest possible integer value of a is

(a)  18

(b)  19

(c)  20

(d)  21

16. If the average of eight consecutive even number be 93, then the greatest number among them is

(a)  86

(b)  98

(c)  100

(d)  102

17. x can copy 80 pages in 20 h, x and y together can copy 135 pages in 27 h. Then y can copy 20 pages in

(a)  3 h

(b)  12 h

(c)  20 h

(d)  24 h

18. The average of the largest and smallest 3 digit number formed by 0, 2 and 4 would be

(a)  213

(b)  303

(c)  312

(d)  222

19. In what ratio two types of tea costing Rs. 180/kg and Rs. 280/kg should be mixed in the ratio so that the mixture obtained sold at Rs. 320/kg to earn a profit of 20% is

(a)  1 : 13

(b)  2 : 13

(c)  3 : 13

(d)  4 : 13

20. If a person marked a product 25% above the cost price but allows 10% discount, then the percentage of profit is

(a)  15%

(b)  12.5%

(c)  35%

(d)  17.5%

21. x and Mr. y each bought the same motorcycle using a 10% off coupon. Mr. x’s cashier took 10% off the price and then added 8.5% sales tax, whereas Mr. y’s cashier first added the sales tax and then took 10% off the total price. The amount Mr. x paid is

(a)  same as the amount Mr. y paid

(b)  greater than Rs. 850 as the amount Mr. y paid

(c)  less than Rs. 550 as the amount Mr. y paid

(d)  greater than Rs. 85 as the amount Mr. y paid

22. Two workers A and B are engaged to do a piece of work A working alone would take 8 h more to complete the work than when work together. If B worked alone, would take  more than when work together. The time required to finish the work together is

(a)  4 h

(b)  6 h

(c)  5 h

(d)  8 h

23. A and B invest in the ratio 3 : 5. After 6 months, C joins the business investing an amount equal to amount of B. At the end of the year what will be the ratio of their profits?

(a)  3 : 5 : 2

(b)  3 : 5 : 5

(c)  6 : 10 : 5

(d)  8 : 10 : 5

24. If a man walks at the rate of 5 km/h, he misses a train by 7 min. However, if he walks at the rate of 6 km/h, he reaches the station 5 min before the arrival of the train. The distance covered by him to reach the station is

(a)  6 km

(b)  4 km

(c)  7 km

(d)  6.25 km

25. A dealer fixed the price of an article 40% above the cost of production. While selling it he allows a discount of 20% and makes a profit of Rs. 48. The cost of production (in Rs.) of the article is

(a)  400

(b)  360

(c)  320

(d)  420

26. Articles are marked at a price which gives a profit of 25%. After allowing a certain discount the profit reduces to  The discount per cent is

(a)

(b)  12%

(c)  10%

(d)  11.1%

27. The average age of 30 students of a class is 14 yr 4 months. After admission of 5 new students in the class the average becomes 13 yr 9 months. The youngest one of the five new students is 9 yr 11 months old. The average age of the remaining 4 new students is

(a)  13 yr 6 months

(b)  12 yr 4 months

(c)  10 yr 4 months

(d)  11 yr 4 months

28. A sum of money is paid back in two annual installments of Rs. 17640 each, allowing 5% compound interest compounded annually. The sum borrowed was

(a)  Rs. 32400

(b)  Rs. 32000

(c)  Rs. 32200

(d)  Rs. 32800

29. There is a number consisting of two digits, the digit in the unit’s place is twice that in the ten’s place and if 2 is subtracted from the sum of the digits, the difference is equal to 1/6th of the number. The number is

(a)  26

(b)  23

(c)  25

(d)  24

30. Average of n numbers is a. The first number is increased by 2, second one is increased by 4, the third one is increased by 8 and so on. The average of the new numbers is

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-34) In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

31. ENDORSEMENT

(a)  Reprimand

(b)  Censure

(c)  Commendation

(d)  Reproach

32. COMMEMORATE

(a)  Boast

(b)  Remember

(c)  Manipulate

(d)  Harmonise

33. WHIM

(a)  Fancy

(b)  Clumsy

(c)  Desire

(d)  Strange behaviour

34. CANDID

(a)  Rude

(b)  Impertinent

(c)  Blunt

(d)  Frank

Directions (Q. Nos. 35-38) In each of the following questions, a word has been spelt in four different ways out of which only one is correct. Find the correctly spelt word.

35.

(a)  Mountaineous

(b)  Mountaneous

(c)  Mountainous

(d)  Mountanous

36.

(a)  Hindrence

(b)  Hindrane

(c)  Hinderence

(d)  Hinderance

37.

(a)  Sacrosanct

(b)  Sacrosenct

(c)  Secrosanct

(d)  Sacrosantt

38.

(a)  Palid

(b)  Pallid

(c)  Palled

(d)  Pellid

Directions (Q. Nos. 39-42) In each of the following below four sentences are given which are denoted by (A), (B), (C), (D). By using all the four sentences you have to frame a meaningful paragraph. The correct order of the sentences is your answer. Choose from the four alternatives the one having the correct order of sentences and mark it as your answer.

39. (A) Now under liberated economy they are learning to compete domestically and globally.

(B) In India corporations until recently achieved success by avoiding competition, using protected and regulated domestic markets.

(C) The trend is irreversible.

(D) Business leaders are preparing themselves to meet competitive challenges, and to avoid being swept away.

(b)  BDCA

(c)  BDAC

(d)  CDBA

40. (A) Recovery was given inadequate attention and consequently some bank branches regularly incurred heavy losses and their parent bodies had to bale them out.

(B) As a result, banks indulged in extensive lending to borrowers who had little or no potential to make repayments.

(C) To fulfill the social objectives laid down by the master of nationalization, banks were asked to lend to identified priority sectors.

(D) 1992-93 results showed that the loss making branches of public sector banks increased from 10,000 to 13,000 and the quantum of losses showed at Rs. 3,369 crores.

(a)  BACD

(b)  DABC

41. (A) Finally the bureaucratic organization took over from the pioneering enterprise.

(B) The nineteenth century was the age of entrepreneur, the self-made man.

(D) In the twentieth century the rational executive took command.

(a)  DBAC

(b)  CABD

(c)  BDCA

(d)  BCDA

42. (A) He was so busy with them that he did not get time to eat.

(B) Thousands of people came to him and asked different types of questions.

(C) No one cared to see that he had his food or rest that night.

(D) Swami Vivekanand once stayed in a small village.

(a)  BCDA

(c)  DBAC

(d)  DBCA

Directions (Q. Nos. 43-47) Each item in this section consists of sentences with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

43. He speaks eloquently and can pull crowds.

(a)  confusingly

(b)  expressively

(c)  powerfully

(d)  fluently

44. Everyone has to fight the inertia in the system.

(a)  sluggishness

(b)  indolence

(c)  activity

(d)  torpor

45. There is a need to promote philanthropy in education.

(a)  charity

(b)  benevolence

(c)  nastiness

(d)  likeliness

46. What we lack in the current times is

(a)  empathy

(b)  carefulness

(c)  indifference

(d)  hardship

47. Tempestuous behavior would not yield much in any place.

(a)  relaxed

(b)  passionate

(c)  intense

(d)  windy

Directions (Q. Nos. 48-52) Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group you consider most appropriate for the blank space.

48. The Election Commission on Saturday …….. that the Assembly elections in five states will be held from 12th November to 7th

(a)  pronounced

(b)  announced

(c)  promulgated

(d)  issued

49. The victims were fruit vendors and they were going in an auto when they ……….. an accident on the way.

(a)  met with

(b)  ran into

(c)  experienced

(d)  heard

50. Scores of villagers are …….. a sit-in protest against the construction of a new underpass.

(a)  performing

(b)  sitting

(c)  staging

(d)  standing

51. It is common for patients to stop ………… medicine as soon as they start feeling better.

(a)  eating

(b)  gulping

(c)  swallowing

(d)  taking

52. A four-year-old girl got a new lease of life after doctors at a hospital ………… a cancerous tumour from one of her kidneys.

(a)  rejuvenated

(b)  removed

(c)  displaced

(d)  replaced

Directions (Q. Nos. 53-55) Choose the correct plural form of the given words.

53. Loaf

(a)  Loaves

(b)  Loafs

(c)  Loavs

(d)  Lofes

54. Spy

(a)  Spis

(b)  Spys

(c)  Spies

(d)  Spiess

55. Vertex

(a)  Vertics

(b)  Vertexs

(c)  Verticess

(d)  Vertices

Directions (Q. Nos. 56-75) Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow.

PASSAGE 1

Indian nationalism emanated from ‘traditional patriotism’, a socially active sentiment of attachment to land, language and cult, that developed in the subcontinent long before the process of westernization had begun. In India of the 18th and early 19th centuries, such sentiments were emerging on a regional basis as homeland was being defined by various terms like desh, vatan or nadu. But although regionally centred at Bengal, Maharashtra, Awadh or Mysore, their isolation broke down through various means of communication, the political legitimacy of  the Mughal empire was recognized throughout Hindustan, which was thought to be the abode of both the Hindus and the Muslims. Cultural barriers melted down through commercialization and regular pilgrimages. It burst forth through numerous acts of resistance; participated by both princes and the commoners, culminating in the Revolt of 1857. After the revolt, a modern sector of politics gradually evolved in India, through rapid spread of education, development of communication systems, such as the railways and telegraph and the emergence of a new public space created by the colonial institutions.

56. Which of the following was the result of the East India Company’s rule in India?

(a)  Good government

(b)  Consolidation of patriotic sentiments

(d)  Evangelicalism

57. Which of the following contributed most to the dissolution of cultural barriers?

(a)  Pilgrimage

(b)  Creation of Mughal Empire

(c)  Commercialization

(d)  Communication networks

58. In pre-colonial India, what did the nationalism mean?

(a)  Cultural construction of homeland

(b)  Linguistic affinity

(c)  Patriotism

(d)  Social activism

PASSAGE 2

Anxiety and conscience are a pair of powerful dynamos. Of course, I can only speak for myself between them, they have ensured that one shall work at anything worthwhile. They are blind forces which drive but do not direct. Fortunately, I have also been moved by a third motive-the wish to see and understand. Curiosity is another motive for action. It is also one of the distinctive characteristics of human nature (keep) contrasted with the natures of non-human animals.

All human beings have curiosity in some degree and we also have it about things which are of no practical use. Curiosity may be focused on anything in the universe, but the spiritual reality of the phenomenon should be the ultimate objective of all curiosity for it to be fruitful. Thanks to my mother, my approach to this ultimate objective is through the story of human affairs.

59. What is the main objective of this passage?

(a)  Distinguish between human beings and animals

(b)  Project curiosity as a potent motivating factor

(c)  Project anxiety and conscience as inadequate motivators

(d)  Motivation and spiritual reality

60. A characteristic, peculiar to human beings that is referred to, is

(a)  superior intelligence

(b)  spirit of enquiry

(c)  capacity to rationalize and analyze

(d)  ability to shift the practical from the impractical

61. Which of the following statements is true according to the passage?

(a)  Animals are as curious as human beings

(b)  Curiosity is the only motive for action

(c)  People motivated by curiosity do not need other motives to guide them

(d)  People motivated by anxiety and conscience alone can be misdirected

62. According to the author

(a)  those who have little curiosity are curious about unimportant things

(b)  apart from humans no other living being have the gift of curiosity

(c)  the highest form of the curiosity can be satisfied by study of human affairs alone

(d)  spiritual reality is the ultimate goal of humans through action

63. The author subscribes to the view that

(a)  one’s curiosity should focus beyond the façade on the latent meaning of things

(b)  curiosity is an inherited family characteristic

(c)  a study of human affairs is the most effective method of satisfying one’s curiosity

(d)  in order to motivate, curiosity must be coupled with anxiety and conscience

PASSAGE 3

One simple physical concept lies behind the formation of the stars : gravitational instability. The concept is not new. Newton first perceived it late in the 17th century.

Imagine a uniform, static cloud of gas in space. Imagine then that the gas is somehow disturbed so that one small spherical region becomes a little denser than the gas around it so that the small region’s gravitational field becomes slightly stronger. It now attracts more matter to it and its gravity increases further, causing it to begin to contract. As it contracts, its density increases, which increase its gravity even more, so that it picks up even more matter and contracts even further. The process continues until the small regions of gas finally forms a gravitationally bound object.

64. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(a)  describe a static condition

(b)  support a theory considered outmoded

(c)  depict the successive stages of a phenomenon

(d)  demonstrate the evolution of the meaning of a term

65. It can be inferred from this passage that the author views the information contained within it as

(a)  lacking in elaboration

(b)  original but obscure

(c)  speculative and unprofitable

66. With which of the following words can you replace the word ‘uniform’ as given in this passage?

(a)  Uniting

(b)  Varying

(c)  Gaseous

(d)  Unvarying

67. What does the word ‘It in bold type stand for in the passage?

(a)  Gravitational instability

(b)  Cloud of gas

(c)  Small spherical denser region

(d)  Matter

68. The author provides information that answers which of the following questions? Choose the correct option.

(i) What causes the disturbances that changes the cloud from its original static condition?

(ii) How does this small region’s increasing density affect its gravitational field?

(iii) What is the end result of the gradually increasing concentration of the small region of gas?

(a)  Only (i)

(b)  Only (ii)

(c)  (ii) and (iii)

(d)  All of these

PASSAGE 4

As heart disease continues to be the number one killer in the United States, researchers have become increasingly interested in identifying the potential risk factors that trigger heart attacks. High fat-diets and life in the fast lane have long been known to contribute to the high incidence of heart failure. But according to new studies, the list of risk factors may be significantly longer and quite surprising. Heart failure, e.g., appears to have seasonal and temporal patterns. A higher percentage of heart attacks occurs in cold weather and more people experience heart failure on Monday than on any other day of the week.

In addition. People are more susceptible to heart attacks in the first few hours after waking. Cardiologists first observed this morning phenomenon in the mid-1980 and have since discovered a number of possible causes. An early morning rise in blood pressure, heart rate and concentration of heart stimulating hormones, plus a reduction of blood flow to the heart, may all contribute to the higher incidence of heart attacks between the hours of 8:00 am and 10:00 am. In other studies, both birthday and bachelorhood have been implicated as risk factors.

Statistics reveal that heart attack rate increases significantly for both females and males in the few days immediately preceding and following their birthdays. And unmarried men are more at risk for heart attacks than their married counterparts. Though, stress is thought to be linked in some way to all of the aforementioned risk factors, intense research continues in the hope of future comprehending why and how heart failure is triggered.

69. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(a)  Cardiology

(b)  Diet and stress as factors in heart attacks

(c)  Seasonal and temporal patterns of heart attacks

(d)  Risk factors in heart attacks

70. The word ‘potential’ could best be replaced by which of the following?

(a)  Harmful

(b)  Possible

(c)  Unknown

(d)  Primary

71. According to the passage, which of the following is not a possible cause of morning heart attacks?

(a)  Decreased blood flow to the heart

(b)  Increased blood pressure

(c)  Lower heart rate

(d)  Increase in hormones

72. Which of the following is cited as possible risk factor?

(a)  Getting married

(b)  Rainy weather

(c)  Eating fatty foods

(d)  Driving fast

73. Which of the following does the passage infer?

(a)  We now fully understand how the risk factors trigger heart attacks.

(b)  We do not fully understand how the risk factors trigger heart attacks.

(c)  We have not identified risk factors associated with heart attacks.

(d)  We have recently begun to study how risk factors work.

74. What could be the suitable title of the passage?

(a)  Heart disease in the USA

(b)  Causes of Heart Attack

(c)  Stress

(d)  Risk of Heart attack in Humans

75. Which word can be the most opposite word of ‘unlikely’?

(a)  Susceptible

(b)  Stimulating

(c)  Implicated

(d)  Aforementioned

Directions (Q. Nos. 76-80) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.

P, who faces are centre, sits third to the right of V. T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbor of V. Only one person sits between V and W. S sits second to right of Q. Q faces the centre. R is not an immediate neighbor of P.

76. Who sits second to the left of Q?

(a)  V

(b)  P

(c)  T

(d)  Y

77. What is the position of T with respect to V?

(a)  Fourth to the left

(b)  Second to the left

(c)  Third to the left

(d)  Third to the right

78. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a)  R

(b)  W

(c)  V

(d)  S

79. Which of the following will come in place of the question mark(?) based upon the given seating arrangement?

WP TR QW RS ?

(a)  YT

(b)  VY

(c)  VQ

(d)  PY

80. Which of the following is true regarding R?

(a)  R is an immediate neighbor of V

(b)  R faces the centre

(c)  R sits exactly between T and S

(d)  Q sits third to left of R

81. In the given figure, which letter represents those Actors who are also Dancers, Singers as well as Violinists?

(a)  S

(b)  Q

(c)  P

(d)  U

Directions (Q. Nos. 82 and 83) In the following questions, which one of the following diagram represents the correct relationship among :

82. Lion, Fox and Carnivorous

83. Manager, Labour Union and Worker

84. In a certain code language ‘INSTITUTION’ is written as ‘NOITUTITSNI’. How will ‘PERFECTION’ is written in that language?

(a)  NOICTEFREP

(b)  NOITCEFERP

(c)  NOITCEFRPE

(d)  NOITCEFREP

85. In a certain code language ‘RELATED’ is written as ‘EFUBKDQ’, then how will ‘RETAINS’ be written in that language?

(a)  SDQBTOJ

(b)  JOTBQDS

(c)  JOTBSDQ

(d)  TOJBSDQ

Directions (Q. Nos. 86-89) In these questions, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

86. KNQT : LORU : : ADGJ : ?

(a)  BEHK

(b)  FHLO

(c)  DGEF

(d)  MPVW

87. DRIVEN : NEVIRD : : BEGUM : ?

(a)  MEUBG

(b)  BGMUE

(c)  EBGMU

(d)  MUGEB

88. ADIP : DGLS : : BEJQ : ?

(a)  EHMT

(b)  EJQU

(c)  CGLS

(d)  FINU

89. ACE : BDF : : CEG : ?

(a)  DEF

(b)  DFH

(c)  DEH

(d)  DFE

Direction (Q. No. 90) A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

90.

91. Fatima while introducing Mustafa to her husband said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather”. How is Fatima related to Mustafa?

(a)  Aunt

(b)  Sister

(c)  Niece

(d)  Mother

92. A, Q, Y and Z are different persons. Z is the father of Q. A is the daughter of Y and Y is the son of Z. If P is the son of Y and B is the brother of P, then

(a)  B and Y are brothers

(b)  A is the sister of B

(c)  Z is the uncle of B

(d)  Q and Y are brothers

93. Radhika went 50 m South from her house, then turned left and went 20 m, then turning to North she went 30 m. In which direction is her home from this point?

(a)  North

(b)  South-West

(c)  East

(d)  North-West

94. If South-East becomes North and North-East becomes West and all the rest directions are changed in the same manner, what will be the direction for the West?

(a)  North-East

(b)  South

(c)  South-East

(d)  South-West

Directions (Q. Nos. 95-97) In the following questions a statement is given, you have to assume everything to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

(a) If only course of action I follows

(b) If only course of action II follows

(c) If either course of action I or II follows

(d) If both courses of action I and II follow

95. Statement Many pilgrims died in a stampede while boarding a private ferry to the holy place on the first day of the ten-day-long festival.

Course of action

(I) The Government should immediately cancel the licences of all the private ferry operators with immediate effect.

(II) The Government should deploy an. adequate number of its personnel to guide pilgrims on their journey to the holy place.

96. Statement Some students of the local college were caught travelling in the train without purchasing valid tickets.

Courses of action

(I) The parents of these students should be informed about the incident and requested to counsel their wards.

(II) These students should be put behind bars for travelling without bona fide credentials.

97. Statement A large part of the locality was flooded as the main pipe supplying drinking water burst while the workers of a utility company were laying cables in the area.

Courses of action

(I) The civic authority should immediately arrange to repair the damage and stop loss of water.

(II) The civic authority should seek an explanation and compensation from the utility company for the damage caused by them.

Directions (Q. Nos. 98 and 99) In each of the following questions, two statements are given followed by two Conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any follow from the given statements.

98. Statements

(A) Education is a process of lighting.

(B) Mind requires light to enlighten the core of cognitive aspect.

Conclusions

(I) Education is a light which removes the darkness of mind.

(II) Education is a static process for mind.

(a)  Only Conclusion I follows

(b)  Only Conclusion II follows

(c)  Both Conclusions I and II follow

(d)  Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

99. Statements

(A) Best performance in Olympics fetches a gold medal.

(B) Player ‘X’ got god medal but later was found to be using a prohibited drug.

Conclusions

(I) ‘X’ should be allowed to keep the gold medal.

(II) Gold medal should be withdrawn and given to the next person.

(a)  Only Conclusion II follows

(b)  Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

(c)  Both Conclusions I and II follow

(d)  Only Conclusion I follows

100. In this question, two statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to decide which of the given conclusion(s) follow(s) from the given statements.

Statements

(A) There are monks among those who are felicitated for remarkable social service.

(B) Jitananda and Vidyananda are among those felicitated.

Conclusions

(I) Jitananda and Vidyananda did remarkable social service

(II) All monks do social service

(III) Jitananda and Vidyananda are not monks

(IV) All monks are felicitated

(a)  Only conclusion I follows

(b)  Only conclusion II follows

(c)  Only conclusion III follows

(d)  Only conclusion IV follows

101. The tagline ‘The Complete Man’ is associated with which of the following fashion brand?

(a)  Siyaram

(b)  Raymond

(c)  Zara

(d)  Allen Solly

102. Who is the current CEO of Indian fashion e-commerce company Myntra?

(a)  Amar Nagaram

(b)  Ananth Narayanan

(c)  Vineet Saxena

(d)  Mukesh Bansal

103. Which of the following retail stores belong to Aditya Birla Group?

(a)  Big Bazar

(b)  Croma

(c)  Hypercity

(d)  Pantaloons

104. RADO, the famous international wrist watch range belongs to

(a)  Switzerland

(b)  Spain

(c)  Japan

(d)  France

105. Which Indian film actress is the brand ambassador of online portal ‘Make My Trip’?

(a)  Priyanaka Chopra

(c)  Alia Bhatt

106. Which among the following dance forms belongs to Andhra Pradesh?

(a)  Sattriya

(b)  Bharatnatyam

(c)  Kathak

(d)  Kuchipudi

107. Which among the following is an Indian Brand?

(a)  Chanel

(b)  Zara

(c)  Gucci

(d)  Allen Solly

108. Who is the first female Chief Economist of International Monetary Fund (IMF)?

(a)  Kristalina Georgieva

(b)  Anshula Kant

(c)  Gita Gopinath

(d)  Rohini Pandey

109. Which state is known for its renowned Maheshwari and Chanderi Sarees?

(a)  Karnataka

(d)  Rajasthan

110. Which of these cities is a World Heritage city by declared by UNESCO?

(b)  Delhi

(c)  Chennai

111. In which state is the Manas National Park located?

(a)  Assam

(b)  Rajasthan

(c)  Meghalaya

(d)  Manipur

112. Baggit is a well known brand which sells

(a)  bags

(b)  belts

(c)  wallets

(d)  All of these

113. Who became the first ever Indian to win a gold at Badminton World Championship?

(a)  PV Sindhu

(b)  Saina Nehwal

(c)  P Kashyap

(d)  Jwala Gutta

114. Where is Louis Vuitton headquarters located?

(a)  London

(b)  Milan

(c)  Paris

(d)  New York

115. Which is the world’s biggest retailer brand?

(a)  Target

(b)  Walmart

(c)  JC Penny

(d)  Amazon

116. Which of the following desert is located in China?

(a)  Thar desert

(b)  Atacama desert

(c)  Kalahari desert

(d)  Gobi desert

117. In which year was the Lakme Fashion Week first started?

(a)  2006

(b)  2008

(c)  2000

(d)  1999

118. Which Constitutional Amendment Act gave Constitutional Status to Panchayati Raj Institutions?

(a)  73rd

(b)  74th

(c)  93rd

(d)  94th

119. Which of the following is not a member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization?

(a)  India

(b)  China

(c)  Japan

(d)  Russia

120. Retail venture ‘Big Bazar’ is owned by

(a)  Future Group

(b)  Bharti Group

(c)  Sriram Group

(d)  Rahja Group

121. Which of these river is a tributary of Ganga?

(a)  Son

(c)  Godavari

(d)  Mahi

122. Which Indian American economist was awarded the Nobel Prize of Economics in 2019?

(a)  Kaushik Basu

(b)  Raghuram Rajan

(c)  Abhijeet Banerjee

(d)  Urjit Patel

123. Who among the following is not an Indian fashion designer?

(a)  Manish Malhotra

(b)  Rohit Bal

(c)  Ritu Kumar

(d)  Bibi Russell

124. Which city is known as the ‘Manchester’ of South India?

(a)  Cochin

(b)  Coimbatore

(c)  Calicut

(d)  Chennai

125. Little black dress was introduced by

(a)  Zara

(b)  Gucci

(d)  Coco Chanel

Directions (Q. Nos. 126-139) Read each case very carefully and answer the questions that follow.

CASE 1

The Chinese krait and the Chinese cobra might be the original source of the newly discovered coronavirus that has triggered an outbreak of a deadly infectious respiratory illness in China in winter 2019. The many-banded krait (Bungarus multicinctus), also known as the Taiwanese krait or the Chinese krait, is a highly venomous species of elapid snake found in much of Central and Southern China and South-East Asia.

The illness was first reported in late December 2019 in Wuhan, a major city in central China and has been rapidly spreading. Since then, sick travellers from Wuhan have infected people in China and other countries, including the United States. India, Japan, Australia, Singapore, Hong Kong.

Using samples of the virus isolated from patients, scientists in China have determined the genetic code of the virus and used microscopes to photograph it. The pathogen responsible for this pandemic is a new coronavirus. It’s in the same family of viruses as the well-known Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus (SARS-CoV) and Middle East Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus (MERS-CoV), which have killed hundreds of people in the past 17 years. The World Health Organization (WHO) has named the new coronavirus 2019-nCoV.

The name of coronavirus comes from its shape, which resembles a crown or solar corona when imaged using an electron microscope. The electron microscopic image reveals the crown shape structural details for which the coronavirus was named. This image is of the Middle East Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus (MERS-CoV).

Coronavirus is transmitted through the air and primarily infects the upper respiratory and gastrointestinal tract of mammals and birds. Though most of the members of the coronavirus family only cause mild flu-like symptoms during infection, SARS-CoV and MERS-CoV can infect both upper and lower airways and cause severe respiratory illness and other complications in humans. This new 2019-nCoV causes similar symptoms to SARS-CoV and MERS-CoV. People infected with these coronaviruses suffer a severe inflammatory response. Unfortunately, there is no approved vaccine or antiviral treatment available for coronavirus infection. A better understanding of the life cycle of 2019-nCoV, including the source of the virus, how it is transmitted and how it replicates are needed to both prevent and treat the disease.

126. Taiwanese Krait or the Chinese Krait, the original source of the newly discovered coronavirus, is a highly venomous species of elapid snake found in much of

(a)  Central China

(b)  Southern China

(c)  South-East Asia

(d)  All of the above

127. Coronavirus affected sick travellers from Wuhan have infected people in China and other countries, including

(a)  Tanzania

(b)  Australia

(c)  Uganda

(d)  Congo

128. The Pathogen responsible for the pandemic of China is a new coronavirus. The WHO has named the new coronavirus 2019 as

(a)  SARS-CoV

(b)  MERS-CoV

(c)  nCoV

(d)  W-CoV

129. The electron microscopic image of the virus depicts which shape and structure of coronavirus?

(a)  Helical shape

(b)  Icosahedral shape

(c)  Prolate shape

(d)  Crown shape

130. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus and Middle East Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus can infect

(a)  upper airways

(b)  lower airways

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

(d)  None of these

CASE 2

The Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel 2019 (commonly known as the Nobel Prize for economics) has been awarded to Abhijeet Banerjee, Esther Duflo and Michael Kremer “for their experimental approach to alleviating global poverty.”

Through the award, the Nobel committee recognized both the significance of development economics in the world today and the innovative approaches developed by these three economists.

Esther Duflo is only the second woman to be awarded the prize (after Elinor Ostrom in 2009). Banerjee, who is also her husband, is the third ever non-white recipient (after Arthur Lewis in 1979 and Amartya Sen in 1998).

In a recent issue of the journal ‘Nature’, Goran Hansson, head of the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences that awards the Nobel, highlighted measures to address the imbalance in gender and ethnicity among winners.

He said “we are making sure to elect women to the academy” from which the prize-awarding committees for the chemistry, physics and economics Nobels are drawn. The first woman to win the John Bates Clark Medal for top economists under 40, an important indicator of who will be awarded the economics Nobel in the future, Susan Athey, only did so in 2007.

Esther Duflo was the second winner in 2010. Since then, women winners of the Clark medal have been more frequent.

Of course, award decisions are made strictly on significance of contributions. But, based on this evidence, perhaps Athey, Amy Finkelstein (who won the medal in 2012) and Emi Nakamura (who won it in 2019) will not be far behind.

131. The Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences has been awarded to

(a)  Abhijeet Banerjee

(b)  Esther Duflo

(c)  Michael Kremer

(d)  All of these

132. Esther Duflo is also only the second woman to be awarded the Nobel Prize in Economics after

(a)  Goran Hansson

(b)  Elinor Ostrom

(c)  Susan Athey

(d)  Emi Nakamura

133. Abhijeet Banerjee is the third ever non-white recipient of Nobel Prize for Economics after

(a)  Arthur Lewis and Amartya Sen

(b)  Goran Hansson and Amartya Sen

(c)  Elinor Ostrom and Amartya Sen

(d)  Susan Athey and Emi Nakamura

134. The first woman to win the John Bates Clark Medal for top economists under 40 is

(a)  Susan Athey

(b)  Goarn Hasson

(c)  Elinor Ostrom

(d)  None of these

CASE 3

In the 16th century, an age of great marine and terrestrial exploration, Ferdinand Magellan led the first expedition to sail around the world. As a young Portuguese noble, he served the king of Portugal, but he became involved in the quagmire of political intrigue at court and lost the king’s favor.

After he was dismissed from service by the king of Portugal, he offered to serve the future Emperor Charles V of Spain.

A papal decree of 1493 had assigned all land in the New World, West of 50 degrees W longitude to Spain and all the land East of that line to Portugal. Magellan offered to prove that the East Indies fell under Spanish authority. On 20th September, 1519, Magllan set sail from Spain with five ships.

More than a year later, one of these ships was exploring the topography of South America in search of a water route across the continent. This ship sank, but the remaining four ships searched along the Southern peninsula of South America.

Finally they found the passage they sought near 50 degrees S latitude. Magellan named this passage the ‘Strait of All Saints’, but today it is known as the “Strait of Magellan”.

One ship deserted while in this passage and returned to Spain, so fewer sailors were privileged to gaze at that first panorama of the Pacific Ocean. Those who remained, crossed the meridian, now known as the International Date Line in the early spring of 1521 after 98 days in the Pacific Ocean. During those long days at sea, many of Magellan’s men died of starvation and disease.

Later, Magellan became involved in an insular conflict in the Philippines and was killed in a tribal battle. Only one ship and 17 sailors under the command of the Basque navigator Elcano survived to complete the westward journey to Spain and thus prove once and for all that the world is round, with no precipice at the edge.

135. Which of the following century is known as ‘an age of great marine and terrestrial exploration?

(a)  17th century

(b)  18th century

(c)  16th century

(d)  15th century

136. After being dismissed from service of Portuguese king, Magellan served under which king?

(a)  Charles V of Britain

(b)  Charles V of Spain

(c)  George IV of Britain

(d)  Czar of Russia

137. The passage which was discovered by Magellan is known by which name today?

(a)  Strait of Hormuz

(b)  Strait of Gibraltar

(c)  Strait of Magellan

(d)  Strait of Charles

138. In which year, Spanish Ships crossed International Date Line

(a)  1525

(b)  1500

(c)  1498

(d)  1521

139. Under whose command, the only surviving ship returned to Spain and proved that world is round?

(a)  Ferdinand Magellan

(b)  Elcano

(c)  Christopher Columbus

(d)  John Cabot

Directions (Q. Nos. 140-150) In each of these questions a passage is followed by several inferences. You have to examine each inferences separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.

(a) If the inference is ‘definitely true’ i.e. it directly follows from the facts given in the passage.

(b) If the inference is ‘probably true’ i.e. through not definitely true in the light of facts given.

(c) If you think the inference is ‘probably false’ though not definitely false in the light of facts given.

(d) If you think the inference is ‘definitely’ false’ i.e. it contradicts the given facts.

CASELET 1

Sanitation is one of the biggest problems in India. There are about 700 million people who have no access to toilets at home. Slum areas do not have toilets. People are thus forced to defecate in the open, which causes numerous diseases like diarrhoea, cholera, dehydration etc. Many rural schools also have no toilets, because of which parents do not send their kids, especially girls, to school.

Due attention was drawn towards this problem by Gandhiji but nothing much was done. A growing population is the biggest challenge causing these problems.

For example, the sewage system in Delhi was designed to meet the needs of a population of three million people. But Delhi now has more than 14 million of population. This is not just the case of Delhi; every state and region in India is the same. Though 12 million toilets claim to have been built under Swachh Bharat Abhiyan in the last five years, as per a UN report, 44% of the population continues to defecate in the open. Sanitation, solid waste management and drainage continue to pose challenges.

A ranking exercise was taken up by the Government of India called ‘Swachh Survekshan” to assess rural and urban areas for their levels of cleanliness and active implementation of Swachhata mission initiatives in a timely and innovative manner.

The objective of the survey is to encourage large scale citizen participation and create awareness amongst all sections of society about the importance of working together towards making towns and cities a better place to live in. Additionally, the survey also intends to foster a spirit of healthy competition among towns and cities to  improve their service delivery to citizens, towards creating cleaner cities and towns.

140. A growing population is the biggest challenge causing problems related to sanitation.

141. There is a lack of good hygiene habits and inadequacy of social support in society that made sanitation a major problem in the country.

142. Objective of ‘Swachh Survekshan Mission’ is to encourage people to go for cleanliness activities individually and neglect group activities

143. ‘Swachh Survekshan’ exercise to assess rural and urban areas for their levels of cleanliness has increased the healthy competition among states.

144. Most of the cities are doing good in terms of sanitation except few such as Delhi and Mumbai.

CASELET 2

Availability of clean cooking fuel is a major challenge for rural households in India. This deprivation is predominantly suffered by women and children as they are the most exposed to harmful effects of smoke from burning unclean fuels in the households.

In order to safeguard the health of women and children by providing them with a clean cooking fuel-LPG, the Government of India (GoI) launched (1st May, 2016) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY). The scheme aims to provide five crore deposit-free LPG connections to women belonging to Below Poverty Line (BPL) households appearing in Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC2011) and suffering with at least one deprivation.

In SECC-2011 Census survey, Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) enumerated 24.49 crore (17.97 crore rural and 6.52 crore urban) households in the country. Out of these, 10.31 crore households {8.72 crore rural (48.53 per cent) and 1.59 crore urban (24.39 per cent)} suffered with at least one deprivation, which were identified by the GoI for release of five crore LPG connections under PMUY.

PMUY provides that an amount of Rs. 1600 per LPG connection towards security deposit for LPG Cylinder, Pressure Regulator and Installation Charges etc. would be borne by the Government as one-time financial assistance to adult women of BPL households included in the SECC-2011 and who are not already having any LPG connection in their household. It also prescribed that the Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) viz. Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL), Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL) and Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) would provide an option to PMUY beneficiaries to opt for loan, if they so desire, to cover the cost of a cooking stove and first refill. EMI of loan amount would be recovered by the OMCs from the subsidy amount due to the beneficiaries on refills.

145. It was women and children who are mostly exposed due to burning of unclean fuel in household.

146. Giving gas cylinder in the name of women will strengthen their economic status in the family.

147. Though cylinder will be provided free of cost, the charges of pressure regulator and installation charges will be borne by beneficiary.

148. Putting cost of cooking stove and refill on beneficiary will become hindrace for BPLs to go for refilling of cylinders.