## National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) UNDER GRADUATE 2020 Question Paper With Answer Key

National Institute of Fashion and Technology

Solver Paper 2020

1. A company employed 200 workers to complete a certain work in 150 days. If only 1/4th of the work has been done in 50 days, then in order to complete the whole work in time, the number of additional workers to be employed was

(a)  300

(b)  200

(c)  100

(d)  600

2. A boat moves downstream at the rate of 1 km in  and upstream at the rate of 5 km in an hour. What is the speed of the boat in the still water?

(a)

(b)  8 km/h

(c)

(d)  4 km/h

3. The average weight of first 11 persons among 12 persons is 95 kg. The weight of 12th person is 33 kg more than the average weight of all the 12 persons. The weight of the 12th person is

(a)  128 kg

(b)  97.45 kg

(c)  128.75 kg

(d)  131 kg

4. If a man earns Rs. 2000 for his first 50 h of work in a week and is then paid one and one half times his regular hourly rate for any additional hours, then the hours must he work to make Rs. 2300 in a week is

(a)  4 h

(b)  5 h

(c)  6 h

(d)  7 h

5. Pipe A can fill an empty tank in 6 h and pipe B in 8 h. If both the pipes are opened and after 2 h pipe A is closed, then how much time pipe B will take to fill the remaining tank?

6. A builder purchases 25 windows at 25% off the total price of Rs. 120000. If the builder receives an additional discount of Rs. 7500 for the purchase, then the cost of each window is

(a)  Rs. 3100

(b)  Rs. 3200

(c)  Rs. 3300

(d)  Rs. 3400

7. x does 1/4 of a job in 6 days, y completes rest of the job in 12 days. Then, x and y could complete the job together in

8. If 90 men can do a certain job in 16 days, working 12 h per day, then that part of that work which can be complete by 70 men in 24 days, working 8 h per day is

(a)  2/3

(b)  5/8

(c)  7/9

(d)  1/3

9. A profit of 12% is made when a mobile phone is sold at Rs. P and there is 4% loss when the phone is sold at Rs. Q. Then Q : P is

(a)  4 : 5

(b)  3 : 1

(c)  1 : 1

(d)  6 : 7

10. A man purchases some oranges at the rate of 3 for Rs. 40 and the same quantity at 5 for Rs. 60. If he sells all the oranges at the rate of 3 for Rs. 50, then find his gain or loss per cent (to the nearest integer).

(a)  31% loss

(b)  32% profit

(c)  34% loss

(d)  31% profit

11. Pooja wants to sell a watch at a profit of 20%. She bought it at 10% less and sold it at Rs. 30 less, but still she gained 20%. The cost price of watch is

(a)  Rs. 220

(b)  Rs. 225

(c)  Rs. 240

(d)  Rs. 250

12. The portion of a ditch 48 m long, 16.5 m wide and 4 m deep that can be filled with stones and earth available during excavation of a tunnel, cylindrical in shape, of diameter 4 m and length 56 m is (take π = 22/7)

(a)  1/9 part

(b)  1/4 part

(c)  2/9 part

(d)  1/2 part

13. A school group charters three identical buses and occupies 4/5 of the seats. After 1/4 of the passengers leave, the remaining passengers use only two of the buses. The fraction of the seats on the two buses that are now occupied is

(a)  7/10

(b)  9/10

(c)  8/9

(d)  7/9

14. Let x be the smallest number, which when added to 2000 makes the resulting number divisible by 12, 16, 18 and 21. The sum of the digits of x is

(a)  7

(b)  6

(c)  5

(d)  4

15. While solving a problem, by mistake, Anita squared a number and then subtracted 25 from it rather than first subtracting 25 from the number and then squaring it. But the got the right answer. What was the given number?

(a)  13

(b)  38

(c)  48

(d)  Cannot be determined

16. P and Q together can do a job in 6 days Q and R can finish the same job in 60/7 days. P started the work and worked for 3 days. Q and R continued for 6 days. Then, the difference of days in which R and P can complete the job, is

(a)  15

(b)  10

(c)  8

(d)  12

17. Two places P and Q are 162 km apart. A train leaves P for Q and simultaneously another train leaves Q for P. They meet at the end of 6 h. If the former train travels 8 km/h faster than the other, then speed of train from Q is

18. In an examination average marks obtained by the girls of a class is 85 and the average marks obtained by the of the same class is 87. If the girls and boys are in the ratio 4 : 5, then average marks of the whole class (approx.) is closest to

(a)  86.5

(b)  86.1

(c)  85.9

(d)  86.4

19. The price of an antique is reduced by 20% and then this price again reduced by 10%. The total reduction of the price is

(a)  30%

(b)  28%

(c)  25%

(d)  23%

20. The marked price of a tape recorder is Rs. 12600. A festival discount of 5% is allowed on it. Futher for cash payment, a second discount of 2% is given. The cash payment, is to be made for buying it, is

(a)  Rs. 11730.60

(b)  Rs. 11703.60

(c)  Rs. 11073.60

(d)  Rs. 11370.60

21. A shopkeeper sold his goods at half the list price and thus lost 20%. If he had sold on the listed price, his gain percentage would be

(a)  20%

(b)  35%

(c)  60%

(d)  72%

22. In a school there were 1554 students and the ratio of the number of the boys and girls was 4 : 3. After few days, 30 girls joined the school but few boys left, as a result the ratio of the boys and girls became 7 : 6. The number of boys who left the school is

(a)  84

(b)  76

(c)  74

(d)  86

23. The number, which can be written in the form of n(n + 1) (n + 2), where n is a natural number, is

(a)  3

(b)  6

(c)  7

(d)  5

24. If x can finish a job in 4 h and y can finish the same job in 8 h independently, then they together will finish the job in

(a)  160 min

(b)  150 min

(c)  140 min

(d)  120 min

25. In a partnership business, B’s capital was half of A’s. If after 8 months, B withdrew half of his capital and after 2 months more A withdrew one-fourth of his capital, then the profit ratio of A and B will be

(a)  10 : 23

(b)  23 : 10

(c)  5 : 2

(d)  2 : 5

26. A car covers four successive 7 km distances at speeds of 10 km/h, 20 km/h, 30 km/h, 60 km/h, respectively. Its average speed over this distance is

(a)  40 km/h

(b)  20 km/h

(c)  30 km/h

(d)  60 km/h

27. If a hemisphere is melted and four spheres of equal volume are made, then the radius of each sphere will be equal to

(a)  1/4th of the radius of the hemisphere

(b)  radius of the hemisphere

(c)  1/2 of the radius of the hemisphere

(d)  1/6th of the radius of the hemisphere

28. The average of six numbers is 3.95. The average of two of them is 3.4, while the average of the other two is 3.85. The average of the remaining two numbers is

(a)  4.5

(b)  4.7

(c)  4.6

(d)  4.8

29. If (x3 – y3) : (x2 + xy + y2) = 5 : 1 and (x2 – y2) : (x – y) = 7 : 1, then the ratio 2x : 3y equals

(a)  3 : 2

(b)  4 : 1

(c)  2 : 3

(d)  4 : 3

30. A manufacturer fixes his selling price at 33% over the cost of production. If cost of production goes up by 12% and manufacturer raises his selling price by 10%, his percentage profit is

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-33) In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/proverb has been given (underlined) followed by some alternatives. Choose the one that best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb.

31. There is no cut and dried formula for success in life.

(a)  guaranteed

(c)  compulsory

(d)  undefined

32. Meena is not highly qualified but she has the gift of the gab.

(a)  loves to gossip

(b)  speaks irrationally

(c)  art of speaking

(d)  constantly talk out of context

33. Rahul proved to be a fair-weather friend to Abhishek as he refused to support him in hard times.

(a)  a selfish friend

(b)  a faithful friend

(c)  a man of good heart

(d)  a man of wisdom

Directions (Q. Nos. 34 and 35) In each of the questions below, only one among the given alternatives is correctly spelt. Find out the word with correct spelling.

34.

(a)  Enterprenuer

(b)  Enterepraneur

(c)  Entrapreneur

(d)  Entrepreneur

35.

(a)  Itinarary

(b)  Itenerary

(c)  Itinerary

(d)  Itinarery

Directions (Q. Nos. 36 and 37) In each of the following questions, choose the wrongly spelt word.

36.

(a)  Conceit

(b)  Deceit

(d)  Percieve

37.

(a)  Coupious

(b)  Cautious

(c)  Captious

(d)  Capricious

Directions (Q. Nos. 38 and 39) From amongst the options given below each word, choose the appropriate singular form of the given word.

38. Phenomena

(a)  Phenomen

(b)  Phenomenal

(c)  Phenomenon

(d)  Phenomenas

39. Strata

(a)  Stratum

(b)  Stratas

(c)  Stratal

(d)  Strati

Directions (Q. Nos. 40 and 41) From among the options given below each word, choose the appropriate plural form of the given word.

40. Medium

(a)  Mediums

(b)  Media

(c)  Medias

(d)  Mediumies

41. Crisis

(a)  Crisisess

(b)  Crisises

(c)  Crisies

(d)  Crises

Directions (Q. Nos. 42-45) in each of these question, choose the alternative which can replace the underlined word without changing the meaning of the sentence.

42. His boss’ criticism left him feeling rather

(a)  annoyed

(b)  arrogant

(c)  embarrassed

(d)  awakened

43. He wrote a scathing review of the prize winning novel.

(a)  biased

(b)  scornful

(c)  unbalanced

(d)  subjective

44. Even the most careful researcher cannot predict the possible future ramifications of his findings.

(a)  consequences

(b)  developments

(c)  uses

(d)  conclusions

45. After he came back from his evening walk, he felt famished.

(a)  exhausted

(b)  peevish

(c)  relaxed

(d)  hungry

Directions (Q. Nos. 46-49) Fill in the blanks.

46. I swam …….. the lake.

(a)  in

(b)  into

(c)  at

(d)  on

47. He lives ……. 48, MG Road.

(a)  in

(b)  at

(c)  on

(d)  for

48. Nobody …….. that he is innocent.

(a)  is believing

(b)  believes

(c)  believe

(d)  believed

49. Mother ……… busy cooking for the guests who are arriving in the evening.

(a)  was

(b)  has

(d)  has been

Directions (Q. Nos. 50-53) In each of these questions, choose the alternative which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word.

50. He has a passion for indigenous

(a)  native

(b)  foreign

(c)  silly

(d)  cheap

51. The leader was pragmatic in his approach to the problems faced by the country.

(a)  indefinite

(b)  vague

(c)  idealistic

(d)  optimistic

52. That was dauntless

(a)  cowardly

(b)  secret

(c)  subtle

(d)  devious

53. It is obligatory for a common citizen to follow the rules.

(b)  unnecessary

(c)  superfluous

(d)  optional

Directions (Q. Nos. 54 and 55) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative that can be substituted for the given phrase/sentence.

54. Giving undue favours to one’s own kith and kin.

(a)  Favouritism

(b)  Nepotism

(c)  Corruption

(d)  Worldliness

55. That cannot be corrected

(a)  Invulnerable

(b)  Hardened

(c)  Incurable

(d)  Incorrigible

Directions (Q. Nos. 56-75) Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow.

PASSAGE 1

“The history of science is the real history of mankind.” In this striking epigram, a nineteenth century writer links science with its background. Like most epigrams, its power lies in emphasizing by contrast an aspect of truth which may be easily overlooked. In this case, it is easy to overlook the relations between science and mankind and to treat the former as some abstract third party, which can sometimes be praised for its beneficial influences, but frequently and conveniently blamed for the horrors of war.

Science and mankind cannot be divorced from time to time at man’s convenience. Yet, we have seen that, in spite of countless opportunities of improvement, the opening  years of the present period of civilization have been dominated by International conflict. Is this the inevitable result of the progress of science or does the fault lie somewhere else?

56. The sentence “The history of science is the real history of mankind” means

(a)  science has given man countless opportunities for improvement.

(b)  science and mankind cannot always be divorced.

(c)  mankind has progressed as science has developed.

(d)  the good and bad uses of science reflect the character of man.

57. The epigram given in the passage highlights

(a)  the evolution of science

(b)  the real history of man

(c)  the contrast between science and civilization

(d)  an elusive truth about human nature

58. The aspect of truth likely to be overlooked is that science

(a)  has made war horrible

(b)  is beneficial to man

(c)  is what man has made it

(d)  has created international conflicts

59. The writer implies that international conflict is the result of

(a)  faulty relations between nations

(b)  human weaknesses

(c)  invention of deadly weapons

(d)  progress of science

60. The last sentence of the passage suggests that

(a)  civilization could prosper well without scientific inventions.

(b)  the trouble lies with human beings themselves.

(c)  people have missed opportunities to improve themselves.

(d)  the horrors of modern life are the inevitable result of the progress of science.

PASSAGE 2

There is more than a modicum of truth in the assertion that “a working knowledge of ancient history is necessary to the intelligent interpretation of current events”. But the sage who uttered these words of wisdom might well have added something on the benefits of studying, particularly, the famous battles of history for the lessons they contain for those of us who lead or aspire for leadership.

Such a study will reveal certain qualities and attributes which enabled the winners to win, and certain deficiencies which caused the losers to lose. And the student will see that the same pattern recur consistently, again and again, throughout the centuries.

61. The expression ‘more than a modicum of truth’ means

(a)  nothing but truth

(b)  some truth

(c)  much truth

(d)  more than a small amount of truth

62. In this context, ‘intelligent interpretation of current events’ means

(a)  skillful interpretation of events

(b)  intellectual outlook on events

(c)  appropriate understanding of events

(d)  rational explanation of events

63. According to the writer, a study of the famous battles of history would

(a)  provide food to modern leaders for reflection.

(b)  be beneficial to wise man.

(c)  help us understand the art of human warfare.

(d)  be more useful than a general knowledge of ancient history.

64. A person who aspires to lead could learn from the history of battles

(a)  the qualities and deficiencies of commanders of these battles.

(b)  what led the previous leaders win battle.

(c)  what made them lose a battle.

(d)  the strategies they evolved in course of these battles.

65. A knowledge of history is necessary to interpret current problems because

(a)  they may be repetitions of past events.

(b)  only then they can be put in a proper context.

(c)  they have roots in the past.

(d)  they can be contrasted with the past events.

PASSAGE 3

No one knows when or by whom rockets were invented. In all probability the rocket was not suddenly invented but evolved gradually over a long period of time. Perhaps in different parts of the world at the same time. Some historians of rocketry; notably Willy Ley, trace the development of rocket to the 13th century China, a land noted in ancient times for its firework display.

In the year AD 1232, when the Mongols laid siege to the city of Kai-Feng Fu, the capital of Homan province, the Chinese defenders used weapons that were described as ‘arrows of flying fire’.

There is no explicit statement that these arrows were rockets, but some students have concluded that they were because the record does not mention bows or other means of shooting the arrows.

In the same battle, we read the defenders dropped from the walls of the city a kind of bomb described as ‘heaven-shaking thunder’. From these meager references, some students have concluded that the Chinese, by the year 1232, had discovered gun powder and had learned to use it to make explosive bombs as well as propulsive charge for rockets.

66. The passage gives, primarily, a history of

(a)  the bravery of the Chinese

(b)  the invention of rockets

(c)  the attack on China by the Mongols

(d)  the battle against the Chinese wall

67. According to this passage, rockets were invented by

(a)  Willy Ley

(b)  unknown people

(c)  the Mongols

(d)  the ruler of Honan province

68. According to this passage, rockets were

(a)  a gift of God to the Chinese

(b)  invented in the twentieth century

(c)  invented in AD 1232

(d)  developed over many centuries

69. The phrase ‘arrows of flying fire’

(a)  means some ancient phenomenon in the skies

(b)  refers to lightning and thunder

(c)  is another name for rockets

(d)  is assumed to refer to rockets

70. The bombs have been referred to as ‘heaven shaking thunder’ because they

(a)  contain gunpowder

(b)  make thunderous noise

(c)  are propelled by rockets

(d)  seem to fall from heaven

PASSAGE 4

When we pick up a newspaper, a book or an article we come to our task with certain preconceptions and predispositions. We expect to find a specific piece of information or be presented with an argument or an analysis of something, say, the likelihood of recession in the next six months or the reasons why children can’t read. We probably know a little about the book or article we are reading even before we start. There was, after all, some reason why we chose to read one piece of writing rather than another.

Our expectations and predispositions may, however, blind us to what the article and its author is actually saying. If, for example, we are used to disagreeing with the author, we may see only what we expect to see and not what is actually there. Day after day in our routine pattern of life we expose ourselves to same newspaper, the same magazine, even books by authors with the same perspectives. In order to reflect on our reading habits and improve our skills we need to break out of this routine, step back and look at what we are doing when we read.

71. According to the author, which one of the following statements is not true?

(b)  Readers have expectations when they read an article or a book.

(c)  Readers look for specific information in any of their readings.

(d)  Readers assume that everything they read will have new information.

72. Our expectations and predispositions may, however, blind us because

(a)  we may not get the actual ideas of the author.

(b)  we will get the actual ideas of the author.

(c)  we may disagree with the author.

(d)  we will agree with all the ideas of the author.

73. One of the ways to improve our reading habits is to

(a)  break the routine by changing the time of reading.

(b)  change the types of topics we read.

(c)  break the routine of reading the same newspaper.

(d)  stop reading for some time and then restart reading.

74. Which quality does the author here advocate, to be a good reader?

(a)  Being objective to the ideas of the author.

(b)  Having preconceptions and predispositions.

(c)  Having continuous routines.

(d)  Disagreeing with the author.

75. Which word the passage means ‘viewpoints’?

(a)  Preconceptions

(b)  Predispositions

(c)  Pattern

(d)  Perspectives

Directions (Q. Nos. 76-80) For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) below, choose the correct alternative from the following.

(a) If (A) is true but (R) is false

(b) If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(c) If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(d) If (A) is false but (R) true

76. Assertion (A) India celebrates its Independence day on 15th

Reason (R) India became independent on 15th August, 1947.

77. Assertion (A) Silver is not used to make wires.

Reason (R) Silver is a bad conductor.

78. Assertion (A) In India, people elect their own representatives.

Reason (R) India is a democratic country .

79. Assertion (A) A body weighs less when immersed in water.

Reason (R) Newton’s law explains the above phenomenon.

80. Assertion (A) The steam engine was invented by James Watt.

Reason (R) There was a problem of taking out water from flooded mines.

81. In a certain code language ‘KAMLESH’ is written as ‘GUJLMCO’, then how will ‘NATURAL’ be written in the language?

(a)  TCNUPCV

(b)  TCOUPVC

(c)  TCUOPVC

(d)  TCOUVCP

82. The time on the watch is 9 : 15 and the hour hand points towards West. The direction of the minute hand is

(a)  North

(b)  South

(c)  East

(d)  West

Directions (Q. Nos. 83-85) In the following questions, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

83. ? : ALKLO :: WOULD : TLRIA

(a)  BLOCK

(b)  DONOR

(c)  CONES

(d)  BARGE

84. BEAK : ORNX :: FILM : ?

(a)  RUXY

(b)  MLIF

(c)  SVYZ

(d)  URON

85. AB : ZY :: CD : ?

(a)  WX

(b)  UV

(c)  XW

(d)  VU

86. Complete the following series by choosing the correct term.

ABC, PQR, DEF, STU, ?

(a)  VWX

(b)  GHI

(c)  IJK

(d)  GKL

87. If WOOD is coded as 23|225|4, then MEET is coded as

(a)  13|5|5|20

(b)  13|10|20

(c)  13|25|20

(d)  None of these

88. What comes in place of question mark (?) in the alphabetical series.

W, T, P, M, I, F, B, ?, ?

(a)  Z, V

(b)  X, U

(c)  Y, U

(d)  Y, V

89. City C is to the South of city B and city A is to the North of city C. In which direction city A is located in respect of city B?

(a)  North

(b)  South

(c)  East

(d)  Cannot be determined

90. Surbhi ranks 18th in a class of 49 students. What is her rank from the last?

(a)  31

(b)  28

(c)  35

(d)  32

91. There are 35 students in a class. Suman ranks third among the girls in the class. Amit ranks 5th among the boys in the class. Suman is one rank below Amit in the class. No, two students hold the same rank in the class. What is Amit’s rank in the class?

(a)  7th

(b)  5th

(c)  8th

(d)  Cannot be determined

92. What comes in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

4, 7, 12, 21, 38, ?

(a)  75

(b)  71

(c)  78

(d)  77

93. What comes in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

4, 6, 16, 62, 308, ?

(a)  990

(b)  1721

(c)  698

(d)  1846

94. If A is B’s sister, C is B’s mother, D is C’s father and E is D’s mother, then how is A related to D?

(a)  Granddaughter

(b)  Daughter

(c)  Aunt

(d)  Father

95. Rajesh is the brother of Ankit. Shano is the sister of Shubham. Ankit is the son of Shano. How is Rajesh related to Shano?

(a)  Father

(b)  Brother

(c)  Son

(d)  Nephew

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-98) In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statements and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

(a) if only Assumption I is implicit

(b) if only Assumption II is implicit

(c) if either Assumption I or II is implicit

(d) if both Assumption I and II are implicit

96. Statement The driver of the huge truck pulled the emergency brakes to avoid hitting the auto rickshaw which suddenly came in front of the truck.

Assumptions

(I) The auto rickshaw driver may be able to steer his vehicle away from the oncoming truck.

(II) The truck driver may be able to stop the truck before it hits the auto rickshaw.

97. Statement The doctor warned the patient against any further consumption of alcohol if he desired to get cured from the ailment and live a longer life.

Assumptions

(I) The patient may follow the doctor’s advice and stop consuming alcohol.

(II) The doctor may be able to cure the patient from the ailment if the patient stops consuming alcohol.

98. Statement The Chairman of the company urged all the employees to refrain from making long personal calls during working hours in order to boost productivity.

Assumptions

(I) Majority of the employees may respond positively to the Chairman’s appeal.

(II) Most of the employees may continue to make long personal calls during working hours.

Directions (Q. Nos. 99 and 100) In these questions, identify the diagram that represents the best relationship among classes given below.

99. Women, Sisters and Wives

100. Pulses, Redgram, Moongdal

101. Myntra, the popular fashion e-commerce platform is an entity of which company?

(a)  Amazon

(b)  Flipkart

(c)  Snapdeal

102. Which among the following brands is not an Indian brand?

(a)  Allen Solly

(b)  Da Milano

(c)  Monte Carlo

103. ‘Carat Lane’, the biggest online jewellery company in India is associated with which brand?

(a)  Kalyan

(b)  Malabar Gold

(c)  Tanishq

(d)  PC Jewellers

104. The brand ‘ZARA’ is associated with which country?

(a)  India

(b)  France

(c)  England

(d)  Spain

105. National Gallery of Modern Art is located at

(a)  Mumbai

(b)  Kolkata

(c)  New Delhi

(d)  Lucknow

106. Who among the following is the brand ambassador of Men’s clothing brand “Wrogn’?

(a)  Hritik Roshan

(b)  Virat Kohli

(c)  Ranveer Singh

(d)  Rohit Sharma

107. ‘Your Style, Your Store’ is the tag line of which of the following retail chains?

(a)  Lifestyle

(b)  Pantaloons

(c)  Landmark

(d)  Shoppers shop

108. Peter England, one of India’s premium Men’s wear brands, belongs to which group?

(a)  Reliance Industries

(b)  Aditya Birla Group

(c)  Tata Group

109. Nike, a popular fashion and sportswear brand belongs to which country?

(a)  USA

(b)  UK

(c)  Japan

(d)  Spain

110. Mirabai Chanu is a famous Indian sportsperson of

(a)  Hockey

(b)  Boxing

(c)  Weightlifting

111. What type of fabric is Calico?

(a)  Silk

(b)  Cotton

(c)  Linen

(d)  Wool

112. Who was won the Australian open Tennis Title 2020 in the men’s category?

(b)  Novak Djokovic

(c)  Roger Federer

(d)  Dominic Thiem

113. Lakme Fashion week winter festive 2019 took place at

(a)  Bangaluru

(b)  Mumbai

(c)  Delhi

(d)  Pune

114. Which of the following is a West flowing river?

(a)  Godavari

(b)  Kaveri

(c)  Son

115. Sariska Tiger Reserve is located in which of the following states?

(a)  Maharashtra

(c)  Rajasthan

116. Where is the headquarter of World Trade Organization located?

(a)  Vienna

(b)  Geneva

(c)  New York

(d)  Philippines

117. Who was sworn in as the Prime Minister of Great Britain in July 2019?

(a)  Theresa May

(b)  Tony Blair

(c)  Boris Johnson

(d)  Bonar Law

118. Which part of Indian Constitution deals with the Fundamental Rights?

(a)  III

(b)  IV

(c)  IV A

(d)  II

119. Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is celebrated to commemorate the return of whom to India?

(a)  Subhash Chandra Bose

(b)  Mahatma Gandhi

(c)  Rakesh Sharma

(d)  Bal Gangadhar Tilak

120. Which of the following Union Territories are recently merged with Daman and Diu?

(a)  Dadar and Nagar Haveli

(b)  Andaman and Nicobar island

(d)  Chandigarh

121. Which is the first Design School in India?

(a)  NID

(b)  NIFT

(c)  IDC

(d)  SID

122. Which country is known as the ‘Land of the Rising Sun’?

(a)  Norway

(b)  Australia

(c)  Japan

(d)  Mexico

123. The 2024, Olympic Games are scheduled to be held in

(a)  Tokyo

(b)  Paris

(c)  Los Angles

(d)  Shanghai

124. Van Heusen is a leading international brand of

(a)  Cars

(b)  Bikes

(c)  Clothing

(d)  Sports accessories

125. Who was awarded the 2019 Ramon Magsaysay award for journalism?

(a)  Ravish Kumar

(b)  Bhavesh Kumar

(c)  Abhisar Sharma

(d)  Vinod Dua

CASE 1

Nike used factory scraps and recycled “space waste  yarn” to create the Space Hippie sneakers in an experimental project to reduce the carbon impact of its products. Each of the four different designs in the collection – named Space Hippie 01, 02, 03 and 04 – are made from scrap material taken from Nike’s factory floors. Which the brand has named “space junk”, and other recycled materials. The result is the creation of Nike footwear with Nike’s lowest carbon footprint scores ever. Nike said the shoe is a first step towards employing the process of the circular economy, which aims to eliminate waste and pollution from manufacturing. The upper part of Space Hippie is knitted from what Nike calls “space waster yarn”. This is made from 100 per cent recycled material including plastic water bottles, T-shirts and textile scraps.

When combined with other design elements, Nike claims the shoe upper consists of a total of 90 per cent recycled content. It redesigned this lightweight foam in a manner that uses around half the carbon dioxide equivalent as compared to normal Nike foams. The outsole part of each shoe in the Space Hippie collection is built from “crater foam”, made from a mixture of standard Nike foams and 15 per cent recycled waste rubber that has been ground down into granules, which Nike has branded as Nike Grind.

126. Nike has used recycled materials to create the space hippie sneakers for which purpose?

(a)  To change its product strategy

(b)  To reduce carbon impact

(c)  To support waste collectors

(d)  To create new designs

127. According to Nike, the space hippie sneakers are the first step towards

(a)  A clean environment

(b)  A circular economy

(c)  A sustainable ecosystem

(d)  A new brand to be launched by Nike

128. The outsole part of the Nike sneakers is built from which foam?

(a)  Space waste foam

(b)  Crater foam

(c)  Rubber foam

(d)  Junk foam

129. The space waste yarn used by Nike is

(a)  waste collected from outer space

(b)  waste collected from waste collectors

(c)  waste from Nike’s factories

(d)  waste from other brands

130. The Recycled waste rubber used by Nike in their sneakers, has been named as

(a)  Nike waste

(b)  Nike granules

(c)  Nike rubber

(d)  Nike grind

CASE 2

Swedish fast-fashion major H and M has announced its first global collaboration with celebrated Indian couture and jewellery designer Sabyasachi Mukherjee. The new collection will be sold under the label Wanderlust. The collection will be out on 16th April, 2020. The high-end Indian designer wants to make the designs accessible to a larger set of people, both in India and worldwide.

The Sabyasachi plus H and M collection will be offering clothes for both ladies and men, including accessories and will give a modern twist to its inspiration-Indian textile, craft and history. Taking cues from India’s rich textile, craft and history, the collection mixes modern and traditional silhouettes with a tilt towards athleisure and glamping. A key highlight of this collection will be Indian textile and print traditions made by the Sabyasachi Art Foundation, meticulously crafted, embroidery and multicultural silhouettes. The collection will be available at all H and M stores in India as well as selected H and M flagship stores around the world, and online on HM.com and Myntra.

Sabyasachi has previously collaborated with various international luxury designers and brands such as KarI Lagerfeld, Christian Louboutin, Pottery Barn, Balmain and Versace.

131. Sabyasachi has collaborated with H and M, which is based in which of these countries

(a)  Norway

(b)  Australia

(c)  Sweden

(d)  India

132. Under the collaboration of Sabyasachi and H and M, their new product range will be known as

(a)  Global star

(b)  Cosmos

(c)  Korona

(d)  Wanderlust

133. The Sabyasachi and H and M collection will offer which of these products

(b)  Men clothes

(c)  Accessories

(d)  All of these

134. Apart from HM.com, which other online portal would sell the products of their collaboration?

(a)  Flipkart

(b)  e-bay

(c)  Myntra

(d)  Amazon

135. The aim of Sabyasachi and H and M collaboration is

(a)  Mixing Indian and Western culture

(b)  Showing traditional arts of India

(c)  Giving an old glance to its products

(d)  Making designs accessible to larger set of people

CASE 3

Prada has become the first luxury brand to sign a loan tied to sustainability targets. Prada has signed a £42.9 million loan with banking group Credit Agricole, with repayment terms conditional to meeting key targets around the sustainability of its products and operations. Prada’s interest payments on the five-year loan will be determined annually based on whether the company has hit three specific objectives.

The first focuses on its physical shops, setting out that a certain number of them need to be certified gold or platinum according to the green-building rating system, Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (LEED). This evaluates everything from the design and construction of a building to its management and the extent to which it uses resources and produces waste. The other targets are related to the amount of training hours given to employees, and reinforce a pledge made by Prada earlier this year which involves phasing out the use of virgin nylon by 2021.

According to Prada’s chief financial officer Alessandra Cozzani, linking more sustainable business practices to concrete financial rewards is an attempt to engrain these values into the very functioning of the company.

This transaction demonstrates that sustainability is a key element for the development of the Prada Group. Beyond substituting nylon, Prada has also gone fur-free, switching to faux fur, although these are often made of plastic.

136. Prada has become the first luxury brand to sign a loan that is tied to its

(a)  economic performance

(b)  sustainability targets

(c)  stocks in markets

(d)  None of the above

137. Prada has to design its shops to meet the sustainability targets according to which rating system?

(a)  BIS

(b)  LEED

(c)  ISO

(d)  None of the above

138. Prada has promised to phase out virgin nylon by which year?

(a)  2020

(b)  2021

(c)  2025

(d)  2050

139. According to Prada, what is the purpose of linking the sustainable practices to financial rewards?

(a)  To save the environment

(b)  To achieve the sustainable development

(c)  The engrain sustainable values in functioning of the company

(d)  To develop Prada Group

140. Apart from substitution of the Nylon, Prada has also eliminated which of the following elements from its processes?

(a)  Wool

(b)  Cotton

(c)  Plastic

(d)  Fur

Directions (Q. Nos. 141-150) In each of these questions, a passage is followed by several inferences. You  have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and secede upon its degree of truth or falsity.

(a) If the inference is definitely true i.e. it directly follows from the facts given the passage.

(b) If the inference is probably true i.e. though not definitely true in the light of facts given

(c) If the inference is probably false i.e. though not definitely false in the light of facts given

(d) If the inference is definitely false i.e. it contradicts the facts given.

CASELET 1

In India, the proportion of women in paid work is among the lowest in the world, at just over 23% – a figure which contrasts sharply with the corresponding rate of over 78% for  men. Opportunities for women to enter employment in the country are limited by a range of factors. These include a dominant tradition of female domestic responsibility, and a prevailing social patriarchy.

Deeply entrenched cultural expectations mean that women are more likely to stay at home. And when they do work, it is mainly on an informal basis, without the luxury of secured wages and contracts.

Against this backdrop, the idea of female entrepreneurship in India faces major challenges. Setting up a business can require significant efforts outside of normal work times, and can lead to women being perceived as irresponsible if they dedicate time to entrepreneurial activities.

But the scenario is still changing. Improved access to social media, education, and social enterprises are all contributing to change.

These are giving momentum to the aspirations of women entrepreneurs in India. Their stories will hopefully inspire women entrepreneurs from around the world, while encouraging policy makers to create avenues that support their aspirations.

141. In India, the proportion of women in paid work is just 23% as compared to 78% for men.

142. The women have low participation rate in paid work as they do not have necessary skill set.

143. A large number of women are employed in the informal sector of the economy that do not provide regular wages.

CASELET 2

In the wake of the recent brutal murder of a  young woman in Hyderabad, much of the public discourse on the subject has been confined to outrage, policing, punishment and tougher laws. All this sound and fury suggest that few really want to address the basic flaws in our culture that breed male violence against women.

Holding up a mirror to ourselves can be a painful exercise as it is safer to vent against the government of the day, lack of law enforcement personnel and unutilized budget allocations for women’s safety programmes.

Deep-rooted social prejudice against women reflects in India’s adverse sex ratio, particularly in the age group 0-6. Families prefer boys: female foetus are selectively aborted, infant girls allowed to die. An official campaign of the government has been addressing this most violent form of discrimination against the female sex.

However, other egregious forms of discrimination that push women to a subordinate role in society and train men to see themselves as entitled to favourable treatment fail to get addressed. Only rigorous democratization of society can bring about sustainable improvement in the conditions of women. The sooner we realize this, the better.

144. There has been a critical discussion on the issues that affect women in the country.

145. Families prefer a boy child over a girl child and discriminate against the women.

146. The problems of women can be addressed when they get truly represented in the society.

147. There are basic flaws in the culture and society of India that are only responsible for perpetuating male violence.

CASELET 3

In the decade between 2005 and 2016, India lifted 27 crore people out of extreme poverty-more than the combined population of Congo, Uganda, Iraq, Venezuela, Australia and Italy. India more than doubled its per capita GDP moving up from being a poor country to a middle-income one. An average Indian now earns slightly more than Rs. 10,500 a month, up from around Rs. 4,000 in 2005. The numbers are flattering but deceiving. More than 36 crore Indians still cannot afford three square meals a day, which is why the World Bank continues to bracket India with Nicaragua, Honduras, Kenya and Kiribati. On an average, even people in war-torn Libya and sanctions-plagued Cuba continue to earn more than Indians.

There is another worry line for India. The Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative, which annually publishes the most authoritative index of poverty across the world, has found that the poorest among India’s poor did not increase their income as much as the other sections did. It means that the gap between the poor and the rich is widening fast. The last time the government appointed an expert committee to estimate poverty in India was seven years ago. The committee, headed by former Reserve Bank of India Governor C. Rangarajan submitted its report but the report has neither been rejected nor been released, which means that economists in India still baser their research largely on data that date back to 2012.

148. India has been able to lift almost 27 crore people out of extreme poverty.

149. India’s average per capita income has increased in the decade 2005-2016 because of reduction in its population.

150. The gap between poor and rich is widening fast because of reducing income of the poor.

## National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) UNDER GRADUATE 2021 Question Paper With Answer Key

National Institute of Fashion and Technology

Solver Paper 2021

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-25) Study the passages given below to answer the questions that follow each passage.

PASSAGE I

Opera refers to a dramatic art form, originating in Europe, in which the emotional content is conveyed to the audience as much through the lyrics. By contrast, in musical theatre an actor’s dramatic performance is primary, and the music plays a lesser role. The drama in opera is presented using the primary elements of theatre such as scenery, costumes and acting. However, the words of the opera or libretto are sung rather than spoken. The singers are accompanied by a musical ensemble ranging from a small instrumental ensemble to a full symphonic orchestra.

1. It is pointed out in the passage that Opera

(a)  has developed under the influence of musical theatre.

(b)  is a drama sung with the accompaniment of an orchestra.

(c)  is often performed in Europe.

(d)  is the most complex of all the performing arts.

2. We can understand from the passage that

(a)  drama in opera is more important than the music.

(b)  people are captivated more by opera than musical theatre.

(c)  orchestras in operas can vary considerably in size.

(d)  musical theatre relies above all on music.

3. It is stated in the passage that

(a)  an opera requires an orchestra.

(b)  many people find musical theatre more captivating than opera.

(c)  music in musical theatre is not as important as it is in opera.

(d)  opera doesn’t have any properties in common with musical theatre.

4. A good opera performance requires

(a)  dramatic skills

(b)  singing skills

(c)  musical instrumental skills

(d)  All of the above

PASSAGE II

Dolphins are regarded as the friendliest creatures in the sea and stories of them helping drowning sailors have been common since Roman times. The more we learn about dolphins, the more we realize that their society is more complex than people previously imagined. They look after other dolphins when they are ill, care for pregnant mothers and protect the weakest in the community, as we do. Some scientists have suggested that dolphins have a language but it is much more probable that they communicate with each other without needing words. Could any of these mammals be more intelligent than man?

Certainly the most common argument in favour of man’s superiority over them, that we can kill them more easily than they can kill us, is the least satisfactory. On the contrary, the more we discover about these remarkable creatures, the less we appear superior when we destroy them.

5. It is clear from the passage that dolphins

(a)  are proven to be less intelligent than once thought.

(b)  have a reputation for being friendly to humans.

(c)  are the most powerful creatures that live in the oceans.

(d)  are capable of learning a language and communicating with humans.

6. The fact that the writer of the passage thinks that we can kill dolphins more easily than they can kill us

(a)  means that they are less adapted to their environment than humans are to theirs.

(b)  proves that dolphins are not the most intelligent species at sea.

(c)  does not mean that we are superior to them.

(d)  proves that the linguistic skills of dolphins are not comprehensible to humans.

7. One can infer from the passage that

(a)  dolphins are quite abundant in some areas of the world.

(b)  communication is the most fascinating aspect of the dolphins.

(c)  the ability to think is unique to dolphins among all mammals.

(d)  dolphins have some social traits are similar to those of humans.

8. If a dolphin gets sick, the other dolphins

(a)  take care of the sick one

(b)  move on to keep away

(c)  simply keep looking at the sick member

(d)  None of the above

PASSAGE III

Naval architects never claim that a ship is unsinkable, but the sinking of the passenger-and-car ferry Estonia in the Baltic surely should never have happened. It was well designed and carefully maintained. It carried the proper number of lifeboats. It had been thoroughly inspected on the day of I ts fatal voyage. Yet hours later, the Estonia rolled over and sank on a cold, stormy night. It went down so quickly that most of those on board, caught in their dark, flooding cabins, had no chance to save themselves. Of those who managed to scramble overboard, only 139 survived The rest died of hypothermia before the rescuers could pluck them from the cold sea. The final death toll was 912 souls. However, there were an unpleasant number of questions about why the Estonia sank and why so many survivors were men in the prime of their lives, while most of the dead were women, children and the elderly.

9. One can understand from the passage that

(a)  most victims were trapped inside the ship as they were in their cabins.

(b)  the lifesaving equipment did not work well and lifeboats could not be lowered.

(c)  design faults and incompetent crew contributed to the sinking of the Estonia ferry.

(d)  naval architects claimed that the Estonia was unsinkable.

10. It is clear from the passage that the survivors of the accident

(a)  were immune to hypothermia.

(b)  were mostly young men.

(c)  told the investigators nothing about the accident

(d)  All of the above

11. According to the passage, when the Estonia sank,

(a)  there were only 139 passengers on board.

(b)  few of the passengers were asleep.

(c)  there were enough lifeboats for the number of people on board.

(d)  faster reaction by the crew could have increased the Estonia’s chances of survival.

12. Estonia appears to be a

(a)  naval ship

(b)  naval submarine

(c)  cargo ship

(d)  passenger ferry

PASSAGE IV

Erosion of America’s farmland by wind and water has been a problem since settlers first put the prairies and grasslands under the plough in the nineteenth century. By the 1930s, more than 282 million acres of farmlands were damaged by erosion. After 40 years of conservation efforts, now soil erosion has again accelerated due to new demands placed on the land by heavy crop production. In the years ahead, soil erosion and the pollution problems it causes are likely to replace petroleum scarcity as the nation’s most critical natural resource problem.

13. As we understand from the passage, today, soil erosion in America

(a)  causes humans to place new demands on the land

(b)  happened so slowly that it took forty years to get noticed.

(c)  is the most critical problem that the nation faces.

(d)  is worse than it was in the nineteenth century.

14. The author points out in the passage the soil erosion in America

(a)  has damaged 282 million acres ever since settlers first put the prairies and grasslands under the plough.

(b)  could become a more serious problem in the future.

(c)  has been so severe that it has forced people to abandon their settlements.

(d)  was on the decline before 1930s.

15. It is pointed out in the passage that in America

(a)  petroleum is causing heavy soil erosion and pollution problems.

(b)  soil erosion has been hastened due to the overuse of farming lands.

(c)  heavy crop production is necessary to meet the demands and to prevent a disaster.

(d)  water is undoubtedly the largest cause of erosion.

16. From the passage, it appears that the profession of early settlers in America was

(a)  mining.

(b)  conservation work.

(c)  agriculture.

(d)  All of the above

PASSAGE V

The Gandharva Music and Art Fair-better known to its participants and to history simply as “Gandharva”-should have been a colossal failure. Just a month prior to its August 15th, 1969 opening, the fair’s organisers were informed by the Council of Gandharva Music and Art, Allahabad that permission to hold the festival was withdrawn. Amazingly, not only was a new site found, but word spread to the public of the fair’s new location. At the new site, fences that were supposed to facilitate ticket collection never materialized and all attempts at gathering tickets were abandoned. Crowd estimates of 30,000 kept rising; by the end of the three days, some estimated the crowd at 500,000. Then, on the opening night, it began to rain. Off and on, throughout all three days, huge summer storms rolled over the gathering. In spite of these problems, most people think of Gandharva not only as a fond memory but also as the defining moment for an entire generation.

17. Which of the following would be closest in meaning to the word ‘colossal’ as used in this passage?

(a)  Definite

(b)  Surprising

(c)  Massive

(d)  Disastrous

18. Which of the following is implied in the passage, about The Gandharva Music and Art Fair held in August 1969?

(a)  It was a colossal failure.

(b)  It was the defining moment for an entire generation.

(c)  Ticket sales never materialized as per expectations.

(d)  All of the above

19. In what context is the word ‘amazingly’ used in the passage?

(a)  The fair drew such an unexpectedly enormous crowd

(b)  The event was moved and word sent out in a very short time.

(c)  Despite pressure by Allahabad officials, the fair was held successfully.

(d)  The stormy weather was so unfavourable.

20. As per the passage, most people think of Gandharva as a fond memory because the

(a)  event was held for the first time in August, 1969.

(b)  crowds that thronged the venue were larger than anticipated.

(c)  performers at the fair were popular amongst the youth.

(d)  None of the above

PASSAGE VI

Everybody earns the living in their own way to support themselves as well as the family. If you are employed and bored with what you do, take a look at the weirdest jobs below to know that you are luckier than many people. Those who are not well educated or have strange hobbies take up to following jobs t make ends meet:

(a) Fire-Observer Sounds interesting! This job requires the candidate to sit and watch for any upcoming fires in forests. You sit on a tower and warn the authorities about any impending dangers. It’s quite a lonely job. So, if there are any loners out there who seek complete loneliness they can try their hands at this weird job.

(b) Ice-Cream Taster A sweet job! But it takes more than just tasting the ice-creams to get your pay in this job. There can be no compromise about the quality of the ice-cream, so one has to keep all the taste-buds on his tongue alive and active. This requires you to follow a strict diet, not eating anything too spicy or hot. You cannot smoke, drink or even use strong perfumes!

.(c) Sports Mascot Getting dressed in an often silly-looking costume, entertaining thousands of screaming fans and shadow-punching umpires are all in a day’s work for the Sports Mascot.

The term, mascot, or in this case, the sports mascot is used to describe a person, animal or object that is thought to bring luck. Sporting entities are usually the home for these “luck” bringers, but mascots can also be found in other areas of society, such as military units and charity organisations.

The next time you sit at your desk considering a job change, sneak a peek at this list of weird jobs that give a complete twist to your career.

21. A word close in meaning to ‘weird’ is …

(a)  bored

(b)  luckier

(c)  strange

(d)  well educated

22. A fire observer

(a)  works alone

(b)  works with lots of people

(c)  has to hate loneliness

(d)  is a lonely person

23. A mascot is a/an ….. symbol.

(b)  good luck

(c)  melancholic

(d)  elegant

24. An ice-cream taster

(a)  eats whatever he wants

(b)  drinks alcohol.

(c)  has a strict diet.

(d)  is a heavy smoker.

25. Getting dressed in an often silly-looking costume probably means to

(a)  dress elegantly

(b)  dress casually

(c)  be naked

(d)  dress ridiculously

Directions (Q. Nos. 26 and 27) Choose the option that is the plural form of the given word.

26. Bunch

(a)  Bunches

(b)  Bunch

(c)  Bunchs

(d)  Bunchies

27. Shelf

(a)  Shelf

(b)  Shelves

(c)  Shelfes

(d)  Shelfies

Directions (Q. Nos. 28-30) Fill in the blanks.

28. He ……… from fever

(a)  has been suffering

(b)  has suffered

(c)  is suffering

(d)  was suffering

29. I shall get a job before the week ……….

(a)  will end

(b)  ends

(d)  is ending

30. The servant had finished his work when I …….. him.

(b)  has called

(c)  have called

(d)  called

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-34) Choose the word which is similar in meaning to the given word.

31. Contrary

(b)  Kind

(c)  Harmonious

(d)  Consistent

32. Desolate

(a)  Bright

(b)  Lonely

(c)  Inhabited

(d)  Intact

33. Despise

(b)  Cherish

(c)  Hate

(d)  Praise

34. Eccentric

(a)  Regular

(b)  Ordinary

(c)  Standard

(d)  Erratic

Directions (Q. Nos. 35-38) Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word.

35. Abate

(b)  Recede

(c)  Diminish

(d)  Slacken

36. Bizarre

(a)  Peculiar

(b)  Common

(c)  Weird

(d)  Curious

37. Zest

(a)  Passion

(b)  Relish

(c)  Gusto

(d)  Dullness

38. Dainty

(a)  Exquisite

(b)  Lacy

(c)  Crude

(d)  Petite

Directions (Q. Nos. 39-41) In each of these questions, out of the given group of words, choose the correctly spelt word.

39.

(a)  Acknowledgement

(b)  Acknowledgemant

(c)  Acknawledgement

40.

(a)  Publesher

(b)  Publisher

(c)  Publishar

(d)  Pablishar

41.

(a)  Anouncement

(b)  Announcement

(c)  Annoncement

(d)  Announcment

Directions (Q. Nos. 42-44) Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

42. Pay through one’s nose

(a)  To pay heavily

(b)  To criticize someone

(c)  To get ahead secretly

(d)  To be under suspicion

43. To turn over a new leaf

(a)  To want something that is not possible

(b)  To change for the better

(c)  To do all possible efforts

(d)  To put an end to something before it develops

44. To see the light of the day

(a)  To be in control of the situation

(b)  To gain an advantage on

(c)  To be made available

(d)  To change for a better

Directions (Q. Nos. 45-47) A sentence has been divided into four parts and one part has a grammatical error. Choose the part that has an error.

45.

(a)  Post COVID-19

(b)  the Government of India

(c)  made the test and treatment

(d)  free under the Ayushman Bharat Scheme.

46.

(a)  I am so glad that

(b)  my husband spoke in on my behalf

(c)  because I felt awful

(d)  that I couldn’t make it to the event.

47.

(a)  We thought our company

(b)  was going to expand this year

(c)  but the company actually has

(d)  less people now than it did two years ago.

Directions (Q. Nos. 48-50) In each of these questions, choose the option which can be substituted for the given words.

48. One who is able to use the right and left hands equally well.

(a)  Disingenuous

(c)  Ambidextrous

(d)  Equipoised

49. The study of the origin of humankind.

(a)  Anthropogeny

(b)  Archaeology

(c)  Anthropology

(d)  Psephology

50. A person who is lacking in or hostile or indifferent to cultural values.

(a)  Imposter

(b)  Cannibal

(c)  Iconoclast

(d)  Philistine

51. What is the unit digit in the expansion of (89628)402?

(a)  8

(b)  6

(c)  4

(d)  2

52. Find the sum of all possible values of x if 25849 x 4 is divisible by 4.

(a)  8

(b)  20

(c)  12

(d)  24

53. What is the remainder if 293 is divided by 9?

(a)  2

(b)  6

(c)  7

(d)  8

54. If  then find the value of a.

(a)  4/5

(b)  2/3

(c)  8/5

(d)  3/5

55. The number of unskilled workers in a factory is six times the number of skilled workers. Which of the following cannot be the total number of workers in the factory?

(a)  35

(b)  40

(c)  70

(d)  84

56. Average of eleven observations is 30. Average of first five observations is 25 and last five is 28. Find the 6th

(a)  65

(b)  60

(c)  75

(d)  78

57. Virat obtained 18% marks in an examination and he failed by 60 marks. If passing marks are 33%, then total marks are ……….. .

(a)  350

(b)  400

(c)  450

(d)  500

58. The simple interest on Rs 200 for 7 months at 5 paisa per rupee per month is ……….. .

(a)  Rs. 70

(b)  Rs. 7

(c)  Rs. 35

(d)  Rs. 30.50

59. The difference between compound interest and simple interest on a sum of Rs 50000 for 2 yr at 6.5% p.a. is ……… .

(a)  Rs. 201.125

(b)  Rs. 210.25

(c)  Rs. 211.25

(d)  Rs. 225.125

60. Rahul travels first 50 km at 10 km/h, next 40 km at 20 km/h and then next 60 km at 15 km/h. Find his average speed for the whole journey.

61. The ratio of average temperature between Jaipur and Delhi is 9 : 7 and that between Jaipur and Mumbai is 11 : 8. Find the ratio of average temperature between Delhi and Mumbai.

(a)  7 : 9

(b)  77 : 72

(c)  9 : 8

(d)  11 : 8

62. The ratio of three numbers is 3 : 4 : 7 and their product is 18144. The numbers are ……… .

(a)  9, 12 and 21

(b)  15, 20 and 25

(c)  18, 24 and 42

(d)  None of these

63. What is the single discount that is equivalent to two successive discounts of 12% and 20%?

64. A shopkeeper buys a mobile phone for Rs 12500 and sell sit for Rs. 13350. Find his profit percent.

(a)  6%

(b)  6.3%

(c)  6.5%

(d)  6.8%

65. How many minutes will a motor car travelling at 45 km/h take to cover a distance of 15 km?

(a)  15 min

(b)  20 min

(c)  10 min

(d)  30 min

66. If the speed of a 100 m long train is 144 km/h, then in how much time will this train cross a standing pole?

(a)  2 sec

(b)  1.5 sec

(c)  2.5 sec

(d)  3.5 sec

67. How many zeroes are there in the LCM of 150, 70 and 2500?

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

68. The HCF of 80, 120 and 200 = 10 + ‘?’.

(a)  10

(b)  40

(c)  30

(d)  20

69. Find the greatest number of four digits, which is exactly divisible by 18, 24 and 45.

(a)  9580

(b)  9640

(c)  9720

(d)  9860

70. Satish can do a job in 15 days and Kapil works twice as fast as Satish. Then, in how many days can Satish and Kapil together complete the job?

(a)  4.5 days

(b)  5 days

(c)  5.5 days

(d)  6 days

Directions (Q. Nos. 71 and 72) Find what will come at the place of question mark ‘?’ in the following questions which will complete the series.

71. 2, 7, 17, 32, 52, ?

(a)  77

(b)  64

(c)  72

(d)  81

72. AZ, GT, MN, ‘?’, YB

(a)  KF

(b)  RX

(c)  SH

(d)  TS

Directions (Q. Nos. 73 and 74) In the given questions, which number/number-alphabet combination is different from the others.

73.

(a)  Seven

(b)  Two

(c)  Three

(d)  Five

74.

(a)  a

(b)  d

(c)  p

(d)  u

75. In a certain code language, BEGK is written as ADFJ. How will PSVY will be written in that code language?

(a)  LOQT

(b)  ROUX

(c)  OTUZ

(d)  ORUX

76. Pointing towards a man in the photograph Ami said, “He is the only son of the father of the brother of my sister”. How is that person related to Ami?

(a)  Mother

(b)  Father

(c)  Uncle

(d)  None of these

77. What is the minimum number of colours required to colour the faces of a cube so that no adjacent faces have the same colour?

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  5

(d)  6

78. A, B, C, D and E are five cities. There is a way which join two cities. How many total number of ways are there?

(a)  12

(b)  10

(c)  5

(d)  2

79. Vishal walks 8 km towards East. He turns left and walks 5 km. Then he rotates 270° Now in which direction is he facing?

(a)  West

(b)  East

(c)  North

(d)  South

Directions (Q. Nos. 80-82) Study the information carefully to answer the following questions.

Out of four persons Arun, Bharat, Chandu and Dharma, two are interested in hockey, two are painters, one is a singer and one is a dancer. Each man has one outdoor interest (either cricket or hockey) and one hobby concerned with fine arts (either painting or dancing or signing).

(i) Arun is neither a painter nor he plays hockey.

(ii) Bharat does not dance.

(iii) The person who is a dancer plays hockey.

(iv) Bharat and Dharma do not play cricket.

80. Who among the following plays cricket and is interested in painting?

(a)  Arun

(b)  Bharat

(c)  Chandu

(d)  Arun and Chandu

81. Who among the following is a singer?

(a)  Dharma

(b)  Arun

(c)  Chandu

(d)  Bharat

82. Which pair shows the correct relationship of the game and hobby of Dharma?

(a)  Cricket and Singing

(b)  Cricket and Painting

(c)  Hockey and Singing

(d)  Hockey and Dancing

Directions (Q. Nos. 83-85) For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) below, choose the correct alternative from the following mark answer as

(a) If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) If (A) is true but (R) is false.

(d) If (A) is false but (R) is true.

83. Assertion (A) Indian Constitution is the largest written Constitution in the world.

Reason (R) India follows bi-cameral system of Legislative House.

84. Assertion (A) Carrying fountain pen while flying in an aeroplane may be a risky proposition.

Reason (R) Due to low pressure, the ink of a fountain pen may leak or overflow.

85. Assertion (A) The states in Eastern part of India produce more rice than those in Western part.

Reason (R) The states in eastern part receive more rainfall than those in western part of India.

86. Which state will host the 4th edition of Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG) in the year 2021?

(a)  Uttarakhand

(b)  Haryana

(c)  Assam

(d)  None of these

87. Who has/have won the 2020 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for discovering the Hepatitis C Virus?

(a)  Michael Houghton

(b)  Harvey J Alter

(c)  Charles M Rice

(d)  All of these

88. Joe Biden of Democratic Party won the 2020 United States (US) Presidential election to become ……. President of the United States.

(a)  44th

(b)  45th

(c)  46th

(d)  47th

89. Which Bollywood actress is recently seen in advertisements of the Kalyan Jewellers ‘Muhurat’ Wedding Jewellery along with Amitabh Bachchan?

(a)  Katrina Kaif

(b)  Karishma Kapoor

(c)  Sonam Kapoor

(d)  Disha Patani

90. ‘Urban Ladder’ is a well-known online company dealing with ………. .

(a)  Fashion garments and accessories

(b)  Furniture-Home Decor

(c)  Fashion jewellery and accessories

(d)  None of the above

91. Which former Indian cricketer has paired with Arvind Fashion to bring out the label ‘True Blue’, a range of summer suits, t-shirts, chinos etc.?

(a)  MS Dhoni

(b)  Virender Sehwag

(c)  Rahul Dravid

(d)  Sachin Tendulkar

92. Who among the following was popularly known as ‘Tiger of Mysore’?

(a)  Haider Ali

(b)  Tipu Sultan

(d)  Achyuta Deva Raya

93. Who was the first Indian to win the Nobel Prize?

(a)  Rabindranath Tagore

(b)  C V Raman

(c)  Amartya Sen

(d)  Mahatma Gandhi

94. India celebrates birthday of ………. On 12th January every year as the “National Youth Day”.

(a)  Swami Vivekananda

(b)  Chandra Shekhar Azad

(c)  Subhash Chandra Bose

(d)  Bhagat Singh

95. The famous monument ‘Leaning Tower of Pisa’ is located at …………. .

(a)  France

(b)  USA

(c)  Japan

(d)  Italy

96. Which of the following is not a function of the RBI?

(a)  Issue of currency

(b)  Conducting monetary policy

(c)  Accepting deposits from the public

(d)  Lender of last resort for the banks

97. Durand Cup is associated with which national sports/games?

(a)  Football

(c)  Cricket

(d)  Golf

98. Which of the following is not a common property of plastics?

(a)  Non-reactive

(b)  Light in weight

(c)  Durable

(d)  Good conductor of electricity

99. Based on their origin, resources can be abiotic and biotic, and biotic resources are ………… .

(a)  derived from non-living things

(b)  made by human beings

(c)  derived from living things

(d)  None of the above

100. Parliament of India consists of ………. .

(a)  Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and State Assemblies

(b)  President, Prime Minister and Speaker

(c)  President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

(d)  Prime Minister, Cabinet Ministers and Opposition

## National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) UNDER GRADUATE 2022 Question Paper With Answer Key

National Institute of Fashion and Technology

Solver Paper 2022

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-3) Below each of the following words (in capital letters) four words are given. Pick out the word that is nearest in meaning to the words given in the capital letters.

1. MENDACIOUS

(a)  Bounteous

(b)  Preemptive

(c)  Albion

(d)  Perfidous

2. BROBDINGNAGIAN

(a)  Colossal

(b)  Laconic

(c)  Succinct

(d)  None of these

3. PUSILLANIMOUS

(a)  Plucky

(b)  Tremulous

(c)  Spunky

(d)  Gallant

Directions (Q. Nos. 4 and 5) Choose the alternative that best expresses the meaning of the expression in bold.

4. Fall flat

(a)  To fail to stand

(b)  To fail to maintain

(c)  To fail to produce intended effect

(d)  To fail to realise

5. She tried to slip out but was caught immediately.

(a)  Steal

(b)  Leave quietly

(c)  Go quickly

(d)  Slight quickly

Directions (Q. Nos. 6-8) Out of the options given, find out the most similar in meaning for the given word.

6. Rostrum

(a)  Dais

(b)  Mould

(c)  Decompose

(d)  Revolve

7. Homespun

(a)  Nominal

(b)  Titular

(c)  uniform

(d)  unrefined

8. Fester

(a)  Feast

(b)  Carnival

(c)  Decay

(d)  Jollity

Directions (Q. Nos. 9 and 10) Fill in the blank with the appropriate option.

9. I know all about that film because I ______ it twice.

(a)  saw

(b)  seen

(d)  have seen

10. It started to rain while we ____ tennis.

(a)  are playing

(b)  were playing

(d)  have been playing

11. Give the synonym of Angst

(b)  Ban

(c)  Authorize

(d)  Calm

12. Give the synonym of ‘perseverance’

(a)  Determination

(b)  Negative

(c)  Clear

(d)  Regressive

13. Give the synonym of ‘retrograde’.

(a)  Positive

(b)  Downhill

(c)  Seemly

(d)  Disreputable

14. Antonym of ‘abrasive’ is

(a)  Begin

(b)  Care

(c)  Kind

(d)  Bear

15. Antonym of ‘pandemonium’ is

(a)  Silence

(b)  Nuisance

(c)  Emerge

(d)  Educate

16. Choose the alternative that best expresses the meaning of the expression in bold.

They got on well with each other the moment they met.

(a)  Had a friendly relationship

(b)  Held an agreement

(c)  Had a misunderstanding

(d)  Fell in love

17. Antonym of ‘reluctance’ is

(a)  Remove

(b)  Polite

(c)  Willingness

(d)  Rapid

18. Give the synonym of ‘intransigent’

(a)  Outdated

(b)  Anxiety

(c)  Unbending

(d)  Compliant

19. Give the synonym of ‘rebut’

(a)  Confirm

(b)  Disprove

(c)  Intentional

(d)  Conscious

Directions (Q. Nos. 20-21) Choose the alternative that best expresses the meaning of the underlined expression.

20. Sachin has had a good innings in cricket.

(a)  Fine experience

(b)  Ultimate success

(c)  Long and successful spell

(d)  Victorious win

21. He left the town under a cloud.

(a)  Of his one accord

(b)  With a heavy heart

(c)  When it was raining

(d)  In disgrace

22. The world’s highest plateau is

(a)  Bolivian

(b)  Tibetan

(c)  Deccan

23. Choose the right word to complete the sentence. Thirty kilometres … a big distance.

(a)  is

(b)  are

(c)  was

(d)  were

24. Choose the correct word opposite in meaning to the word ‘hesitancy’

(a)  Gird

(b)  Certainty

(c)  Stout

(d)  Band

25. Give the antonym of ‘innocuous’.

(a)  Marred

(b)  Immortal

(c)  Harmful

(d)  Pious

26. Antonym of ‘fragility’ is

(a)  Robustness

(b)  Raise

(c)  Relax

(d)  Peace

27. The abbreviation BRICS stands for

(a)  Brazil-Russia-India-China-South Africa

(b)  Britain-Russia-India-China-South Africa

(c)  Brazil-Russia-India-China-South Korea

28. Parakram Diwas is observed to celebrate the birth anniversary of

(a)  Atal Bihari Vajpayee

(b)  A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

(c)  Subhash Chandra Bose

(d)  Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

29. In the study of pollution, SPM refers to

(a)  Suspended Particulate Matter

(b)  Solid Particulate Matter

(c)  Sulphur Particulate Matter

(d)  Sulphur Phosphorus Matter

30. Where is CSIR-Central Glass and Ceramic Research Institute situated?

(a)  Nagpur

(b)  Lucknow

(c)  New Delhi

(d)  Kolkata

31. Hollywood is located in

(a)  London

(b)  Paris

(c)  California

(d)  Florida

32. Insert the missing letter.

(a)  O

(b)  N

(c)  M

(d)  Q

33. Which of the following won “Oscar Award 2020 for best film?

(a)  Gully Boy

(b)  Parasite

(c)  Joker

(d)  Avenger

34. The capital of Somalia is

(a)  Ankara

(b)  Juba

(d)  Ulan Bator

35. Finland is known as

(a)  Land of Midnight Sun

(b)  Land of Golden Fleece

(c)  Land of Thunderbolt

(d)  Land of Thousand Lakes

36. In banking system the abbreviation SWIFT stands for

(a)  Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Transformation

(b)  Society for World Interbank Financial Telecommunications

(c)  Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunications

(d)  Society of World Interbank Financial Telecommunications

37. NASA refers to

(a)  National Aeronautics and Space Administration

(b)  National Airborne and Space Agency

(c)  Northern Airborne and Space Agency

(d)  North Atlantic Space Agency

38. There are five persons A, B, C, D and E in a row. B is to the right of C and A is to the left of D and right of B, C is to the right of E. Who is in the middle?

(a)  B

(b)  C

(c)  D

(d)  E

39. How many times do the hands of a clock make a right angle with each other during 24 h?

(a)  22

(b)  24

(c)  44

(d)  48

40. Find the odd one among the following:

(a)  Success-Failure

(b)  Gain-Profit

(c)  Spend-Earn

(d)  Win-Lose

41. Insert the missing number.

(a)  20

(b)  16

(c)  4

(d)  3

42. Which country won the Cricket World Cup in 1983?

(a)  India

(b)  Pakistan

(c)  West Indies

(d)  England

43. The author of the book “Home in the World” is

(a)  Amartya Sen

(b)  Amitav Ghosh

(c)  Kaushik Basu

(d)  Ruskin Bond

44. Who was the captain of Indian Women’s Hockey team for Tokyo Olympics 2020?

(a)  Lalremsiami

(b)  Savita Punia

(c)  Rani Rampal

(d)  Deep Grace Ekka

45. What is the rank of India in the Global Peace Index (GPI) 2021?

(a)  130

(b)  132

(c)  134

(d)  135

46. What is the time of the mirror image of a clock when the original time is 8 min past 12?

(a)  11 : 52

(b)  10 : 54

(c)  11 : 25

(d)  6 : 52

47. At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at 15 minute past 6?

(a)

(b)  90°

(c)  95°

(d)  97°

48. R and K are good in Football and Cricket. S and R are good in Football and Golf. G and K are good in Volleyball and Cricket. S, G and M are good in Tennis and Golf. Who is good in Football, Volleyball and Cricket?

(a)  G

(b)  R

(c)  K

(d)  S

49. There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in a circle. C is facing to D. D is to the right of B and left of E. E is to the left of A. F is to the right of C. If A exchanges his position with F and B with D, then who is to the left of A?

(a)  B

(b)  C

(c)  A

(d)  F

50. Find the missing term

KPA, LQB, MRC, NSD, ?

(a)  PSE

(b)  PTE

(c)  OTE

(d)  OSE

51. Find the missing term

PON, RQP, TSR, VUT, ?

(a)  WXV

(b)  XWV

(c)  XWU

(d)  XWZ

52. Find the missing number.

4, 5, 8, 13, 20, ?

(a)  29

(b)  27

(c)  28

(d)  30

53. ‘Pitch’ is related to ‘Cricket’, in same way ‘Court’ is related to

(a)  Tennis

(b)  Race

(c)  Boeing

(d)  Football

54. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the following equations.

16 * 6 * 25 * 36 * 2 = −116

(a)  −, ×, + ÷

(b)  +, −, ×, ÷

(c)  +, ×, ÷, −

(d)  −, ÷, +, ×

55. Which two signs should be interchanged in the following equation to make it correct?

28 – 32 ÷ 2 + 286 × 26 = −25

(a)  + and −

(b)  × and +

(c)  ÷ and ×

(d)  + and ÷

56. It takes 3 days for Mr. X to go from place A to place B. On the first day he travelled 30% of the entire distance, on the second day 60% of the remaining distance. After the first two days it remains for Mr. X to travel by 5 km less than the distance he covered during the first day. What is the distance between A and B?

(a)  200 km

(b)  150 km

(c)  250 km

(d)  300 km

57. Salim saves 14% of his salary while Manjur saves 22%. If both get the same salary and Manjur saves Rs 1540, then the savings and salary of Salim are

(a)  Rs 980, Rs 5000

(b)  Rs 980, Rs 6000

(c)  Rs 980, Rs 7000

(d)  Rs 980, Rs 8000

58. Due to fall in rate of interest from 12% to 10.5% per annum simple interest a money lender’s income diminishes by Rs 900. Find the capital.

(a)  Rs 40000

(b)  Rs 45000

(c)  Rs 55000

(d)  Rs 60000

59. A seller offers a TV for Rs 27000 cash down or Rs 3000 cash down and 18 equal monthly installment of Rs 1500 each. Find the simple interest charged.

60. Find two numbers such that the mean proportional between them is 6 and the third proportional to them is 48.

(a)  (3, 12)

(b)  (4, 9)

(c)  (2, 18)

(d)  (3, 18)

61. What is the last digit of the product of 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18 and 19?

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  9

(d)  5

62. 200 men are employed in a job to complete it by 35 days. After 15 days, it is seen that only 2/7th portion of the job has been finished. The number of men to be further employed to complete the job within the stipulated time is

(a)  50

(b)  175

(c)  375

(d)  75

63. Two-fifth of X’s money is equal to Y’s, and seven-ninth of Y’s money is equal to Z’s; in all they have Rs 770. How much X has?

(a)  Rs 140

(b)  Rs 180

(c)  Rs 320

(d)  Rs 450

64. Two bottles contain mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 5 : 1 and the other in the ratio 9 : 1. In what proportion the quantities from the two should be mixed together, so that the mixture thus formed may contain milk and water in the ratio of 8 : 1?

(a)  1 : 5

(b)  5 : 1

(c)  1 : 8

(d)  2 : 5

65. At 12:00 noon X starts to walk at 6 km an hour and at 1 : 30 pm. Y follows on horseback at 8 km an hour. When will Y overtake X?

(a)  4 : 30 pm

(b)  5 : 00 pm

(c)  5 : 30 pm

(d)  6 : 00 pm

66. Two numbers are in the ratio 5 : 6. If 20 is added to each of them, the ratio becomes 7 : 8. The numbers are

(a)  55, 66

(b)  50, 60

(c)  40, 48

(d)  25, 30

67. A person took a loan of Rs 10000 at X% simple interest and after 5 yr he pays a total of Rs 14250. Then X is

(a)  6.5

(b)  7.5

(c)  8

(d)  8.5

68. A rope 198 cm long was cut into two parts so that one part turned out to be 20% longer than the other part. The lengths are

(a)  100 cm, 98 cm

(b)  120 cm, 78 cm

(c)  108 cm, 90 cm

(d)  101 cm, 97 cm

69. If  then which one in true?

70. If x : y = 3 : 2, find the value of

(a)  5 : 8

(b)  8 : 5

(c)  3 : 5

(d)  5 : 3

71. Find the value of

(a)  a – b + c

(b)  a + b + c

(c)  −a + b – c

(d)  a – b – c

72. Simplify –[–{–(y + z – x)}] + {(x + z – y)}].

(a)  2x + 2y

(b)  2x – 2y

(c)  2x – 2z

(d)  2x – 2y – 2z

73. Find the value of 84 – 7[–11x – 4{–17x

(a)  12x

(b)  21x

(c)  x

(d)  –12x

74. Find the fourth proportional to 6, 9, 20.

(a)  25

(b)  30

(c)  60

(d)  40

75. The sum of speed with which a motor ship goes with stream and against the stream of a river is equal to 30km/h. The speed of the motor ship in stagnant water is

(a)  15 km/h

(b)  18 km/h

(c)  12 km/h

(d)  30 km/h

Directions (Q. Nos. 76-81) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below.

Though he makes Biblical references throughout ‘The Raven,’ Poe does not allude to the Bible because he is religious. Rather, he does this because he wishes to invoke the Bible’s dramatic and philosophical weight.

For instance, in line 89 the narrator asks the raven, “is there-is there balm in Gilead?” In ancient Arabia, the balm of Gilead was a salve produced from the tree Commiphora gileadenesis. The balm was used to treat the dry, scratchy skin common in Arabia’s desert climate. (The substance currently marketed as “balm of Gilead.” A compound made from the gum of the North American balsam poplar tree, is unlikely to be the subject of Poe’s reference.) The balm is more famous, however, because of its mention in the book of Jeremiah, a reference that readers during Poe’s time would have easily recognized.

As God punishes Jeremiah’s people for their  years of sin and disobedience, Jeremiah utters the phrase “ is there no balm in Gilead?” The meaning of Jeremiah’s question is not literally “is there an ointment that can heal our skin,” but something more philosophical: “Is there anything we can do to relieve the suffering of God’s punishment?” This philosophical question about the nature of relief from suffering is the one Poe invokes in “The Raven.” The narrator is suffering greatly from the loss of his lover Lenore, and this suffering seems hopeless until the mysterious raven appears.

The narrator interprets the raven as an omen of Lenore’s future return, but Poe’s reference to the balm of Gilead signals to the reader that the narrator’s hope is futile. Just as Jeremiah’s people had no hope of evading God’s power on punishment, so does the narrator have no hope of reuniting with his lost Lenore. Furthermore, by comparing the profound suffering depicted in the book of Jeremiah to the narrator’s pining for Lenore, Poe emphasises just how delusional the narrator really is.

76. The author most likely places the sentence “The substance currently marketed as ‘balm of Gilead,’ a compound made from the gum of the North American balsam poplar tree, is unlikely to be the subject of Poe’s reference” in parentheses because it represents a

(a)  the main idea of the passage

(b)  a direct quotation from another source

(c)  a departure from the main idea

(d)  a controversial statement

77. In the passage, the word ‘salve’ is a synonym of

(a)  ointment

(b)  solvent

(c)  salvation

(d)  None of the above

78. As used near the end of the passage, which is the best synonym for ‘futile’?

(a)  inaccessible

(b)  pointless

(c)  immature

(d)  reckless

79. Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that the author would most likely characterize Poe’s attitude towards suffering in ‘The Raven’ as

(a)  religious

(b)  disrespectful

(c)  delusional

(d)  philosophical

80. The author argues that Poe mentions the balm of Gilead in order to

(a)  demonstrate his own religious convictions

(b)  describe how dry, itchy skin was treated in Arabia’s desert climate

(c)  emphasize the delusional nature of the narrator

(d)  argue that the narrator’s suffering is universal

81. Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that

(a)  readers during Poe’s time were more likely to have read the Bible than today’s readers

(b)  the book of Jeremiah contains the most profound depiction of suffering in the Bible

(c)  ravens are often interpreted as an omen foreshadowing a lover’s return

(d)  the narrator will eventually be reunited with his lost love, Lenore

Directions. (Q. Nos. 82-91) Read the following passage and answer the questions carefully.

In one of the most rousing pamphlets of all time, Thomas Paine expounded on the need for American independence. It was ‘Common Sense,’ Paine alleged, forging his place in the pantheon of America’s founders alongside such luminaries as Jefferson, Washington, and Adams. However unlike those three men, Paine did not enjoy celebrity at the time of his death. Instead of being lionized, Paine was vilified by the very same individuals who once passed his pamphlet around as the gospel truth. But it was not ‘Common Sense’ that got him excommunicated from the American canon; rather, it was his final work, The Age of Reason.

To understand The Age of Reason, one needs to understand the context. After the Revolutionary War, Paine returned to his native England before his controversial, proFrench Revolution leanings made him increasingly unpopular. Paine immigrated to France, where he was so revered that he helped draft two separate French constitutions.

However, the French Revolution was a far more violent and turbulent conflict than was the American Revolution, with dozens of leaders jockeying for power and killing each other to get it. Paine ended up in prison during one fluctuation of power but turned this vicissitude into an opportunity. It was while he was in prison that Paine wrote The Age of Reason, his religious text.

The Age of Reason is not an inherently atheistic text, though that is how it was interpreted. Rather, the text espouses the same religious ideals that defined the Enlightenment, especially those ideals of the French Revolution, with its disestablishment of the Catholic Church as a national institution. Paine returned to America in 1802 and quickly fell out of favor in the new nation.

Americans saw The Age of Reason as expressly anti-Christian, even though the actual philosophy of the text is closer to the deism practiced by Thomas Jefferson and other Founding Fathers.

But America of 1802 was very different from the America of the Revolution, as the Second Great Awakening was just rising. In this new, devoutly Protestant nation, men like Paine were not welcome, nor would have men like Jefferson been, if Jefferson had not adapted to the times and modified his public statements on religion. Jefferson, unlike Paine, had the good sense-politically speaking-to not publish his religious beliefs. Thus Jefferson, unlike Paine, was able to publicly, at least, keep up with the times. Paine, on the other hand, was ostracized and denied the corridors of political power he had once helped make possible.

Ultimately, Paine was punished for being an anachronism in a world that passed him by In 1809, Paine died in New York, largely forgotten and certainly not celebrated. And today, while Americans commemorate ‘Common Sense’, most schoolchildren known nothing of the man who wrote it.

82. In paragraph 1 the author makes use of words most commonly associated with which of the following?

(a)  history

(b)  patriotism

(c)  politics

(d)  religion

83. Based on its use in paragraph 1, it can be inferred that which of the following would be an example of a ‘pantheon’?

(a)  a canon of important works of literature

(b)  a collection of the best baseball players of all time

(c)  a ranking of American presidents

(d)  a history of the most important era in American politics

84. This passage is best described as a(n)

(a)  defense of Thomas Paine’s lifework and time in France

(b)  celebration of American patriots

(c)  historic analysis of the end of the Enlightenment

(d)  analysis of Thomas Paine’s work in historical context

85. According to the passage, which of the following provides an accurate order of the places Paine lived during his lifetime?

(a)  America, England, France, America, England

(b)  England, America, France, America, England

(c)  England, America, England, France, America

(d)  America, England, France, America

86. As used in paragraph 2, the word ‘vicissitude’ most nearly means

(a)  opportunity

(b)  change

(c)  of violence

(d)  philosophy

87. Based on the description given in paragraph 2, as compared to the French Revolution, the American Revolution was

(a)  relatively stable

(b)  completely peaceful

(c)  inherently simple

(d)  largely unimportant

88. Which of the following, if added to the passage, would be least likely to strengthen the author’s argument?

(a)  description of Paine’s beliefs

(b)  excerpts from The Age of Reason

(c)  a brief explanation of the beliefs of the Second Great Awakening

(d)  a history of the French Revolution

89. Which of the following best describes the function of paragraph 2?

(a)  It provides the context for Paine’s writings.

(b)  It describes the content of The Age of Reason.

(c)  It explains Paine’s unpopularity in America.

(d)  It introduces the author’s main argument.

90. Which of the following summarizes the author’s principal explanation for Paine’s unpopularity at the time of his death?

(a)  He had betrayed the ideals of his own and his adopted countries.

(b)  He was explicitly atheistic at a time of religious fervor.

(c)  He was the relic of an earlier era of religious thought.

(d)  He was associated with the equally unpopular Thomas Jefferson.

91. As used in the final paragraph, the word anachronism most nearly means something

(a)  disdainful and deservedly criticized

(b)  vilified and demonized by the masses

(c)  that incites religious passion and zeal

(d)  belonging to a different time period

Directions (Q. Nos. 92-100) Read the following passage and answer the questions carefully.

Ever hear that John F. Kennedy was assassinated by someone other than Lee Harvey Oswald? Or how about the fact that the United States government has been harboring extraterrestrials and their advanced technology at Area 51?Or-my favorite for its sheer lunacy-that the moon landing was staged in Hollywood? You might laugh at these theories, or like millions of Americans, you might believe them wholeheartedly. Regardless of their veracity, they exist and proliferate each day, and the Internet has only helped to promulgate them.

So where do they come from? Well, in a literal sense, they come from people asking questions and seeking answers. But in a more figurative sense, they come from the experience of not knowing, the great void created by a dearth of certainty. There are several questions about the Kennedy assassination, enough so that several government panels (most notably the Warren Commission) have investigated it; there have been several thousands of reports of UFO encounters (no to mention an equally absurd number of television shows about aliens); and there are aspects of the moon landing that seem too good to be true. But none of these questions necessarily hint at something nefarious or sinister. Rather, they demonstrate that these events are all too real. Nothing in life is certain, and nothing completely adds up. Sure, we’d all prefer major historic events to have the certainty of a sunrise, but there’s the rub: most of us do not really know why the sun rises or even, with certainty, that it will rise tomorrow. But a sane person does not question the sunrise, though that same person will wonder about the trajectory of a bullet in Dallas.

None of this is to say that one should not ask questions. Rather, one should ask questions of everything! We should know who shot JFK, whether there are aliens, and whether the Illuminati control everything. Yet, this is impossible. We can no more know these things than we can know who specifically invented the wheel. So, rather than making up theories to explain away the lacuna of acts, we should simply accept the fact that we will never know absolutely everything about anything. Continue asking questions, but don’t make up ridiculous answers for them. Because the ultimate problem with conspiracy theories is that they don’t answer any questions; they merely explain away gaps of knowledge with pseudoscience.

Put differently, no one is really sure why cats, purr, but that doesn’t mean that cats do not purr. There does not need to be a why for every what.

92. Based on its use in paragraph 1, it can be inferred that ‘veracity’ belongs to which of the following word groups?

(a)  ridiculousness, preposterousness, absurdity

(b)  artifice, bias, prejudice

(c)  fallacy, misconception, delusion

(d)  authenticity, genuineness, truth

93. As used in paragraph 2, the word ‘nefarious’ most nearly means

(a)  indifferent

(b)  secret

(c)  evil

(d)  vague

94. In this passage, the author makes use of which of the following literary devices?

(a)  Rhetorical question, characterized by a question posed for effect rather than one that expects a reply

(b)  Satire, characterized by the use of ridicule to expose a vice, weakness, or flaw

(c)  Repetition, characterized by repeating the same phrase multiple times for emphasis in order to produce a grander effect

(d)  Paradox, characterized by the use of contradictory concepts or ideas that, when placed together, bear a deep significance or possible truth

95. The main purpose of this passage is to

(a)  provide information about the history of conspiracy theories in the twentieth century

(b)  argue that conspiracy theories are harmful to those who ask questions

(c)  refute the notion that conspiracy theories have no benefit in answering unknowable questions

(d)  argue that conspiracy theories arise from normal questions

96. Which of the following pieces of information, if added to the passage, would most strengthen the author’s argument?

(a)  proof that Lee Harvey Oswald did not assassinate John F. Kennedy

(b)  examples of ancient theories explaining the sunrise and interactions with aliens

(c)  a survey suggesting that very few Americans actually believe in conspiracy theories

(d)  examples of gaps in certainly about the Kennedy assassination, aliens, and the moon landing

97. As used in paragraph 3, ‘lacuna’ most nearly means

(a)  a body of water

(b)  a gap

(c)  an abundance

(d)  a fallacy

98. Which of the following best describes the function of the third paragraph in the context of the rest of the passage?

(a)  It redirects the passage and furthers the author’s main argument.

(b)  It refutes the argument made earlier in the passage and provides a new one.

(c)  It introduces several hypothetical conspiracies for the purpose of providing evidence for an earlier point.

(d)  It states the author’s main thesis and restates the evidence the author uses to make his or her argument.

99. In the final paragraph, the author most likely uses the example of why cats purr to suggest that some things

(a)  are unknowable

(b)  should simply be accepted as fact

(c)  are scientific truths

(d)  are better left to conspiracy theorists

100. Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage as a possible conspiracy theory?

(a)  The moon landing was staged.

(b)  The government has hidden aliens for years.

(c)  Kennedy was not assassinated by a lone gunman.

(d)  The wheel was not invented by one person.