## OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2022 With Answer Key

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OUAT Previous Question Paper-2022

PHYSICS

Questions : 66

1. If a heating device is able to melt 2000 gm of ice at −5°C in 10 min, then its power expressed in horse power will be-

(Specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal g1 °C1, latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 cal/g).

(A)  368 hp

(B)  0.368 hp

(C)  1.55 hp

(D)  1155 hp

2. The body of mass ‘m’ is rotating about a fixed axis with the radius of the path ‘r’ and linear velocity ‘v’. Its angular momentum is :

(A)  mr/v

(B)  mvr2

(C)  mvr

(D)  mv/r

3. The number of significant figures in the following : 5.700 m and 0.006400 kg are, respectively, _____.

(A)  4, 2

(B)  4, 4

(C)  2, 2

(D)  2, 4

4. If both the charge and electric field on the capacitor is doubled, then its capacitance :

(A)  becomes double

(B)  remains the same

(C)  becomes four times

(D)  becomes half

5. Match Column A with Column B

(A)  p → ii, q → iii and r → i

(B)  p → iii, q → i and r → ii

(C)  p → i, q → iii and r → i

(D)  p → ii, q → i and r → iii

6. A free neutron, unlike a free proton, is unstable. It decays into :

(A)  an electron and an antineutrino

(B)  a proton and antineutrino

(C)  a proton, an electron and an antineutrino

(D)  a proton and an electron

7. If a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in space has an electric field of amplitude 2.7 × 105 V/m, then the amplitude of the magnetic field is :

(A)  3 × 104 T

(B)  3 × 105 T

(C)  9 × 105 T

(D)  9 × 104 T

8. Inertial Mass is _____ and Gravitational Mass is _____.

(A)  The measure of inertia and it follows from Newton’s second law of motion, the measure of gravitational pull and it follows from Newton’s law of Gravitation.

(B)  The measure of gravitational pull and it follows from Newton’s law of Gravitation, the measure of inertia and it follows from Newton’s second law of motion.

(C)  The measure of gravitational pull and it follows from Newton’s second law of motion; the measure of inertia and it follows from Newton’s law of Gravitation.

(D)  The measure of inertia and it follows from Newton’s law of Gravitation; the measure of gravitational pull and it follows from Newton’s second law of motion.

9. For unit magnification, the distance of an object from a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm will be :

(A)  −20 cm

(B)  20 cm

(C)  −10 cm

(D)  10 cm

10. According to the third law of thermodynamics:

(A)  it is possible to reach 0 K with an ideal refrigerator

(B)  it is possible to reach 0°C in any physical process.

(C)  it is impossible to reach 0°C with an ideal refrigerator

(D)  it is impossible to reach 0 K in any physical process.

11. Ohm’s law is NOT applicable in the case of which of the following electrical equipment?

(A)  Filament of a light bulb

(B)  Fan motor

(C)  All ohmic conductors

(D)  Resistors

12. Match Column A with Column B

(A)  p-ii, ,q-iv,, r-i and s-iii

(B)  p-iii, ,q-iv,, r-i and s-ii

(C)  p-iii, ,q-i,, r-iv and s-ii

(D)  p-ii, ,q-i,, r-iv and s-iii

13. The dimension of the product of surface tension and length is :

(A)  [M L1 T1]

(B)  [M L T2]

(C)  [M L T1]

(D)  [M L0 T2]

14. In an electromagnetic wave, the electric and magnetic fields are 200 V m1 and 0.426 A m1. The maximum energy flow is :

(A)  185.2 W/m2

(B)  45.2 W/m2

(C)  850.2 W/m2

(D)  85.2 W/m2

15. A 0.5 kg block is pushed against a wall with a horizontal force of 10 N. If the coefficient of static and kinetic friction between the wall and the block are 0.5 and 0.3, respectively, then :

(Take g = 10 m/sec2.)

(A)  the frictional force on the block is 4.0 N

(B)  the block moves down with an acceleration.

(C)  the frictional force on the block is 5.0 N

(D)  the normal force on the block is 5.0 N

16. In instrinsic semiconductor, the number of free electrons, ne and number of holes, nh are related as :

(A)  ne < nh

(B)  ne = nh

(C)  ne > nh

(D)  ne = nh = 0

17. The slope of stress vs. strain graph for a wire subjected to increasing load, upto proportionality limit gives :

(A)  Poisson’s ratio of the wire

(B)  Rigidity modulus of the wire

(C)  Young’s modulus of the wire

(D)  Bulk modulus of the wire

18. If the cabin of an ideal refrigerator is at −4°C, then for its coefficient of performance to be 5, the outside temperature should be nearly _____ °C (Choose the closest value)

(A)  −20

(B)  323

(C)  52

(D)  27

19. Consider a tightly wounded 40 turn coil of radius 8 cm, carrying a current of 1 A. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of the coil will be :

(A)  1.57 G

(B)  3.14 G

(C)  12.56 G

(D)  6.28 G

20. In which of the following cases the force acting on an object is one newton?

(a)   Object of 1 kg moving with a constant velocity of 1 m/sec.

(b)   Object of 1 g moving with a constant acceleration 1 m/sec2.

(c)   Object of 1 kg moving with a constant acceleration 1 cm/sec2.

(d)   Object of 1 kg moving with a constant

(A)  (a)

(B)  (b)

(C)  (c)

(D)  (d)

21. In an arrangement of two rods A and B joined in series, rod A is the upper rod and is of length 2l and radius of cross section r. Rod B is the lower rod and is of length l and radius of cross section 2r. If the upper end of rod A is fixed to a rigid roof and the lower end of rod B is given a twist of θ°, the angle of twist at the joint of the two rods A and B is _____.

22. A particle starts from (0m, 0m) at t = 0 s with a velocity of  and moves in x-y plane with a constant acceleration of  Here symbols have their usual  At what time is the x coordinate of the particle 27 m ?

(A)  2.0 s

(B)  4.0 s

(C)  3.0 s

(D)  1.0 s

23. In an enclosure two gases A and B, with densities in the ratio 18 units and 44 units are mixed. The volume of gas A is one part and gas B is three part of the total volume of the enclosure. Assuming that they do not react chemically, the speed of sound in gas A and B is the speed of sound in this mixture is 340 m/sec will be___.

(A)  314 m/sec and 419 m/sec

(B)  419 m/sec and 314 m/sec

(C)  708 m/sec and 289 m/sec

(D)  289 m/sec and 708 m/sec

24. Match Column A with Column B

(O is Optical Centre, F is first Principal Focus)

(A)  p-ii, q-iv, r-i and s-iii

(B)  p-iii, q-iv, r-i, and s-ii

(C)  p-ii, q-i, r-iv and s-iii

(D)  p-iii, q-i, r-iv and s-ii

25. If the force is acting along-X direction on a body moving along +X direction, then work done here :

(A)  does not depends on direction

(B)  is zero

(C)  is negative

(D)  is positive

26. The linear velocity of the tip of the second hand in a given all clock is : (Length of the second had is 10 cm.)

(A)  0.001 m/sec

(B)  0.1 m/sec

(C)  10 m/sec

(D)  0.01 m/sec

27. Infinitely large number of point charges, each equal to q are placed at positions x = 1, 2, 4, 8….. Calculate the electrostatic potential at the origin.

(A)  πε0/q

(B)  q/2πε0

(C)  2q/πε0

(D)  q/3πε0

28. Two wires X and Y are placed parallel to each other at a distance of d carrying the same current in the same direction. At what distance between them, the magnetic field will be zero?

(A)  d/4

(B)  1/d

(C)  d

(D)  d/2

29. There are two clocks. The first one works on the basis of oscillations of simple pendulum and the other works on the oscillation of a spring mass system on Earth. If these two are now taken to Pluto, then :

(A)  the pendulum clock beats the same time as on Earth and the spring mass system does not beat same time as on Earth.

(B)  The pendulum clock does not beat the same time as on Earth and the spring mass system does not beat the same time as on Earth.

(C)  The pendulum clock beats the same time as on Earth and the spring mass system beats the same time as on Earth.

(D)  The pendulum clock does not beat the same time as on Earth and spring mass system beats the same time as on Earth.

30. A coil having 450Ω resistance is placed in a magnetic field that varies with time t (sec) as ϕ = 45t2 + 2t. The current in the coil at t = 2 sec is :

(A)  0.404 A

(B)  0.54 A

(C)  0.5 A

(D)  0.32 A

31. SI unit and dimensions of activity of a radio-active sample is :

(A)  S1, [T1]

(B)  H2, [T1]

(C)  S, [T]

(D)  Bq, [T1]

32. For a body executing SHM the distance between the positive and negative extreme is 0.5 m and if it oscillates with a frequency of 40 hertz, the equation for its displacement (y) is ______.

(A)  y = 0.25 sin (40t)

(B)  y = 0.5 sin (40t)

(C)  y = 0.25 sin (80πt)

(D)  y = 0.5 sin (80 πt)

33. If the battery and galvanometer positions get interchanged in a Wheatstone bridge, the deflection in the galvanometer will :

(A)  change to lower value

(B)  change to higher value

(C)  not change

(D)  move in either direction

34. In an isothermal process, if the volume of 2 moles of a monoatomic gas (Y = 1.4) is explanded from V to 10V at a temperature 1°C, the amount of work done is ____.

(A)  4.6 RT loge10

(B)  4.6 RT

(C)  2.3 RT loge10

(D)  2.3 RT

35. On what following factors does Young’s Modulus of a given wire depend on ?

(i) Length

(ii) Area of cross-section

(iii) Tension in the wire

(iv) Material of the wire

(A)  Only (ii) and (iii)

(B)  Only (ii) and (iv)

(C)  Only (iv)

(D)  Only (i) and (iv)

36. Lorentz force is the :

(A)  force of attraction or repulsion between two like and unlike charges, respectively.

(B)  force on a point charge moving in presence of both the electric field and the magnetic field.

(C)  force on a point charge at rest in the presence of both the electric field and the magnetic field.

(D)  force that acts between the protons and neutrons of atoms.

37. Select the INCORRECT statement regarding electromagnetic waves.

(A)  In free space they travel at the speed of light.

(B)  They are transverse in nature.

(C)  Their speed is same in all mediums.

(D)  They are produced by accelerating charges.

38. The position of a particle is given by

Where r is in meters and t in seconds, i, j and k are unit vectors along x-axis, y-axis and z-axis, respectively. The magnitude of the velocity of the particle at t = 0.5 s is :

(A)  6.0 m/sec

(B)  3.0 m/sec

(C)  4.0 m/sec

(D)  5.0 m/sec

39. The eddy current magnitude does not depend upon the :

(A)  magnetic flux

(B)  magnetic field

(C)  electric field

(D)  resistance of conductor

40. The charge of two-point charges halved and the distance between them made four times, the force between them :

(A)  remains the same

(B)  gets double

(C)  gets four times

(D)  gets 1/64 times

41. The capacitance of a capacitor depends on the

(A)  potential of conductors

(B)  shape of conductors

(C)  charge of conductors

(D)  charge of densities

42. Change in kinetic energy of a body of mass 1kg moving along a circular path with the constant speed 10 m/s is :

(A)  10 J

(B)  0 J

(C)  1 J

(D)  5 J

43. Materials A, B and C have energy band gap (E­­g­) of zero, < 3eV and > 3eV, respectively. Materials A, B and C can be classified as :

(A)  Semiconductor, insulator and metal

(B)  Metal, conductors and insulator

(C)  Insulator, metal and semiconductor

(D)  Metal, semiconductor and insulator

44. If an organ pipe closed at one end is suddenly opened, the fundamental frequency in the open pipe formed is found to be increased by 50 Hz. Then the 3rd overtone frequency of the closed pipe is _____.

(A)  350 Hz

(B)  250 Hz

(C)  150 Hz

(D)  50 Hz

45. An object 10m away from a concave mirror of focal length 1m, starts moving at a speed of 5m/sec towards the mirror. The average speed of the image is approximately :

(A)  1/7 m/sec

(B)  5 m/sec

(C)  1/5 m/sec

(D)  7 m/sec

46. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about errors in measurements?

(a) Imperfections in experimental procedures cause random errors.

(b) Unpredictable fluctuations in temperature cause systematic errors.

(A)  Both (a) and (b)

(B)  Only (a)

(C)  Neither (a) nor (b)

(D)  Only (b)

47. If a planet sweeps 2 lakh km2 are in the month of February 2022, then the area swept by it in one week of any month in any year will be ______.

(A)  5 × 106km2

(B)  8 × 1010km2

(C)  5 × 1010km2

(D)  8 × 106km2

48. Two circular metal plates with identical dimensions are rotating about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the body and passing through the centre. If mass of the first plate is double the mass of the second plate, then their moments of inertia are in the ratio :

(A)  4 : 1

(B)  1 : 2

(C)  1 : 1

(D)  2 : 1

49. The difference between the reciprocals of focal length and image distance is equal to the ______ in a spherical mirror.

(B)  object distance

(C)  Inverse of object distance

(D)  Inverse of radius of curvature

50. Two coils are placed close to each other. The mutual inductance of the pair of coils depends upon :

(I) the relative position and orientation of the two coils

(II) the cross-section area of the wires of the coils.

(III) the current changing rates of both the coils.

Which of the above statement is/are true?

(A)  I and II

(B)  II and III

(C)  Only III

(D)  Only I

51. In two different places on earth, A and B, simple pendulum experiment was conducted with the same pendulum. It is found that in place A, 20 oscillations take 97.8 sec and at place B, 20 oscillations take 100 sec. The ratio of accelerations due to gravity of place B to place A is nearly____.

(A)  0.95

(B)  0.97

(C)  1.02

(D)  1.46

52. If 3 moles of diatomic gas are made to dissociate into a monotomic gas at room temperature, then the change in its degrees of freedom will be _____.

(A)  1.8 × 1024

(B)  1.2 × 1024

(C)  0.6 × 1024

(D)  2.4 × 1024

53. Consider the velocity (v) and acceleration (a) of a ball thrown vertically upward. During its motion upwards (downward direction taken to be negative) :

(A)  v is positive and a is negative

(B)  both v and are positive

(C)  v is negative and a is positive

(D)  both v and a are negative

54. Match Column A with Column B.

(A)  p-iii, q-iv, r-i and s-ii

(B)  p-ii, q-iv, r-i and s-iii

(C)  p-ii, q-i, r-iv and s-iii

(D)  p-iii, q-i, r-iv and s-ii

55. Magnetic flux is defined as :

(A)  the total number of magnetic filed lines passing through a given area and perpendicular to it.

(B)  the total current through a plane

(C)  the total charge per unit volume

(D)  the total EMF in a closed loop

56. For same increase in volume if WP, WT, WQ are works done in Isobaric, Isothermal and Adiabatic process, ascending order of these works done is _____.

(A)  WQ < WP < WT

(B)  WQ < WT < WP

(C)  WT < WP < WQ

(D)  WP < WT < WQ

57. Among the following thermodynamic quantities, the point functions are (i) __ and path functions are (ii) ___.

(a) external work (b) internal energy

(c) heat supplied  (d) entropy

(A)  (i) (a), (b) (ii) (c), (d)

(B)  (i) (a), (d) (ii) (b), (d)

(C)  (i) (b), (d) (ii) (a), (c)

(D)  (i) (a), (c) (ii) (b), (d)

58. A fruit falling from the tree is under the action of gravitational force. Here force is :

(A)  viscous force

(B)  non-conservative force

(C)  Elastic force

(D)  Conservative force

59. Match Column A with Column B

(A)  p-ii, q-i, r-iv and s-iii

(B)  p-iii, q-iv, r-i and s-ii

(C)  p-ii, q-iv, r-i and s-iii

(D)  p-iii, q-i, r-iv and s-ii

60. A particle is in equilibrium under the action of three concurrent forces F1, F2 and F3 are given by :

F2 = (2.0 N)i + (3.0 N)j + (4.0 N)k

F3 = (3.0 N)i – (4.0 N)j – (5.0 N)k

Then F1 is :

(A)  (1.0N)i – (7.0 N)j – (9.0N)k

(B)  −(5.0N)i + (1.0 N)j + (3.0N)k

(C)  −(2.0N)i + (7.0N)j + (9.0N)k

(D)  (5.0N)i – (1.0N)j – (1.0N)k

61. A circular disc is rotating about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the body and passing through the centre with angular velocity ‘ω1’. If the angular velocity of the disc is increased to ‘ω’, then moment of inertia of the disc :

(A)  decreases

(B)  increases

(C)  remains same

(D)  varies as a function of time

62. A small smooth spherical particle is placed on a smooth concave surface of radius R = 19.6 m. If it is displaced from the mean position, it executes SHM. The time period of oscillation will be _____.

(A)  2π

(B)  2√2π

(C)  π

(D)  √2π

63. If a wire is made ‘n’ times shorter than its original length (l), the effect on its elongation will be (a) ____ and the maximum load it can bear will be (b) _____.

(A)  (a) no change (b) 1/n times the initial value.

(B)  (a) 1/n times the initial value (b) no change

(C)  (a) 1/n times (b) n times

(D)  (a) n times (b) 1/n times

64. The V-I curve for a conductor is plotted at two different temperatures T1 and T2. If T1 > T2 then the slope of the V-I curve will be more at which temperature?

(A)  Same of both temperatures

(B)  T1

(C)  Does not depend on temperature

(D)  T2

65. A box of mass 5.0 kg is lying on a horizontal smooth surface. It is pulled by applying a force of 10.0 N at an angle of 30° to the horizontal. The magnitude of the acceleration of the box is about :

(A)  1.7 m/sec2

(B)  1.0 m/sec2

(C)  2.0 m/sec2

(D)  3.4 m/sec2

66. In 50 years, tritium undergoing beta decay reduced to one-sixteenth of its initial amount. The half-life of tritium is :

(A)  6.25 years

(B)  12.5 years

(C)  50 years

(D)  0.25 years

CHEMISTRY

Questions : 66

67. Which of the following elements or compounds does NOT dissolve in water ?

(A)  Cane sugar

(B)  Sulphur

(C)  Urea

(D)  Glucose

68. Which of the following molecule has bond order two?

(A)  He2

(B)  O21

(C)  C2

(D)  N2

69. What will be the ‘spin only’ magnetic moment of M3+ ion in aqueous solution for an element having Z = 26 ?

(A)  3.87 BM

(B)  5.92 BM

(C)  2.82 BM

(D)  4.89 BM

70. Which of the following devices is used for determining the resistance of a material?

(A)  Wheatstone bridge

(B)  Salt bridge

(C)  Galvanometer

(D)  Daniell cell

71. Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labeled Assertion (A) and Reason (R)

Assertion (A) : Hoffmann’s ammonolysis of alkyl halides gives a mixture of primary, secondary, tertiary mines along with some quaternary ammonium halide.

Reason (R) : Primary amine with its lone pair of electron acts as a nucleophile.

(A)  Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B)  Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(C)  A is false and R is true

(D)  A is true but R is false

72. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an amorphous solid?

(A)  They are isotropic

(B)  They are anisotropic

(C)  They do not have a pattern of arrangements

(D)  They do not have a sharp melting point.

73. Select the correct statement from the following options.

(A)  Colloids differ from crystalloids in electrical behavior of particles

(B)  Colloids differ from crystalloids in solubility of the particles

(C)  Colloids differ from crystalloids in nature of the particles.

(D)  Colloids differ from crystalloids in size of the particles.

74. The functional group, which is NOT present in aspartame is :

(A)  aldehydic group

(B)  amino group

(C)  ester group

(D)  carboxylic group

75. What are the main components of phosphate rocks?

(A)  Ca2(PO4)6CaF2

(B)  Ca3(PO4)6CaF2

(C)  Ca2(PO4)8CaF2

(D)  Ca9(PO4)6CaF2

76. The ion having the largest size is :

(A)  I

(B)  Br

(C)  Cl

(D)  F

77. Which of the following statement is correct for oxides of halogens?

(A)  I2O5 is a good oxidizing agent

(B)  ClO2 is used as washing soda.

(C)  BrO3 exist only at higher temperature

(D)  Bromine oxides are less powerful oxidizing agent.

78. The oxidation of p-nitrotoluene with chromic trioxide in acetic anhydride followed by hydrolysis in aqueous acid gives :

(A)  benzoic acid

(B)  benzaldehyde

(C)  p-nitrobenzaldehyde

(D)  p-nitrobenzoic acid

79. Which of the following lanthanoids has an abnormally low value of third ionization enthalpy?

(A)  Ytterbium

(B)  Cerium

(C)  Europium

(D)  Lutetium

80. What temperature is required in the preparation of low-density polyethylene?

(A)  350-570 K

(B)  150-570 K

(C)  650-970 K

(D)  950-1270 K

81. Which of the following polymers is resistant to the action of petrol and lubrication oil?

(A)  Melamine

(B)  Nylon-6, 6

(C)  Buna-N

82. What will be the hybrid state of BeCl2 in vapour state?

(A)  sp3d

(B)  sp

(C)  sp3

(D)  sp2

83. Which of the following crystals is an example of covalent crystal?

(A)  Water

(B)  Potassium Nitrate

(C)  Carborundum

(D)  Carbon dioxide

84. The composition of German silver is :

(A)  Cobalt, zinc and silver

(B)  Copper, zinc and tin

(C)  Copper, zinc and silver

(D)  Copper, zinc and nickel

85. Which of the following is the correct increasing order with respect to melting points?

(A)  PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < NH3

(B)  SbH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < NH3

(C)  AsH3 < SbH3 < PH3 < NH3

(D)  NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3

86. Complete the balanced reaction.

Ca3P2 + 6H2O→

(A)  3CaO + 2PH3

(B)  Ca(OH)2 + 2PH3

(C)  6CaO + 2PH3

(D)  3Ca(OH)2 + 2PH3

87. Which of the following coordination entities would have a square planar geometry?

(A)  [Ni(H2O)4]2+

(B)  [Ni(CO)4]

(C)  [Ni(Cl)4]2

(D)  [Ni(CN)4]2

88. Match the Column I (Structure) with Column II (IUPAC name) and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A)  a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iii)

(B)  a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii)

(C)  a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii)

(D)  a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii)

89. Toulene on oxidation with alkaline potassium permanganate followed by hydrolysis gives compound X. X on reaction with ethanol in presence of conc.

H2SO4 gives Y. Compound X and Y respectively are :

(A)  Benzoic acid; Ethyl-2-methyl benzoate

(B)  2-Methyl Benzoic acid; Ethyl benzoate

(C)  2-Methyl Benzoic acid; Ethyl-2-methyl benzoate

(D)  Benzoic acid; Ethyl benzoate

90. Match the Column I with Column II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A)  (a)-I, (b)-II, (c)-III

(B)  (a)-II, (b)-I, (c)-III

(C)  (a)-I, (b)-III, (c)-II

(D)  (a)-III, (b)-II, (c)-I

91. Match the Column I with Column II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A)  A-(II), B-(I), C-(III)

(B)  A-(I), B-(III), C-(III)

(C)  A-(III), B-(II), C-(I)

(D)  A-(I), B-(II), C-(III)

92. What is the rate constant for the 1st order reaction?

(A)  moll1

(B)  S1

(C)  mol L1s1

(D)  mol1LS

93. Which of the following dehydrating agents CANNOT convert ethanol into ethene?

(A)  HCl

(B)  H3PO4

(C)  Conc. H2SO4

(D)  D.Al2O3

94. Which of the following a consequence of Lanthanoid contraction?

(A)  Atomic radius of Zn is larger than Ni and Cu.

(B)  ∆a H increases from left to right in first transition series

(C)  Zr and Hf have almost the same atomic radii

(D)  Atomic radius decreases from left to right in second transition series.

95. Which of the following compounds has the lowest melting point?

(A)  BaCl2

(B)  NaF

(C)  CaF2

(D)  BeCl2

96. How many isomers are possible of dihalogen derivatives of propane?

(A)  Four

(B)  Three

(C)  Five

(D)  Two

97. Select the correct statement regarding Li.

(A)  1st ionization energy of Li is equal to Be.

(B)  1st ionization energy of Li is equal to F.

(C)  1st ionization energy of Li is lesser than Be.

(D)  1st ionization energy of Li is greater than to Be.

98. Which of the following polymers is NOT an example of synthetic polymer?

(A)  Rayon

(B)  Buna-S

(C)  Polythene

(D)  Nylon-6, 6

99. Which of the following is true about galvanic cell?

(A)  It converts electrical energy into chemical energy

(B)  It converts chemical energy into electrical energy.

(C)  It converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.

(D)  It converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.

100. How many O-O bonds present in the ozone molecule are identical?

(A)  0

(B)  2

(C)  1

(D)  3

101. Chloroform is NOT used as anaesthetic due to the formation of:

(A)  chlorine gas

(B)  carbon-dikoxide gas

(C)  oxygen gas

(D)  phosgene gas

102. What will be the change in entropy for the following process?

CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)

(A)  Entropy increases

(B)  Entropy decreases

(C)  Entropy becomes zero

(D)  Entropy remains unchanged

103. Which of the following is correct?

(A)  Neutrons = Atomic mass – Atomic number

(B)  Neutrons = Atomic number – Atomic mass

(C)  Protons = Atomic mass – Atomic number

(D)  Electrons = Atomic mass/ atomic number

104. In a bomb calorimeter, energy change occurring in a reaction is measured under which of the following conditions?

(A)  At constant temperature

(B)  At constant pressure

(C)  At constant pressure and volume

(D)  At constant volume

105. Phenol on treatment with conc. H2SO4 at 373 K given compound A, which on treatment with excess of bromine water gives compound B. Compound A and B are respectively

(A)  4-phenolsulphonic acid; 4-Bromophenol

(B)  2-Phenolsulphoni acid; 2,4,6-Tribromophenol

(C)  2-Phenolsulphonic acid, 2-Bromophenol

(D)  4-Phenolsulphonic acid; 2,4,6-Tribromophenol

106. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT regarding the carbonyl group?

(A)  The carbonyl carbon acts as nucleophile

(B)  The carbonyl oxygen acts as a nucleophile

(C)  The carbonyl carbon is sp2 hybridised

(D)  It is polar in nature.

107. Which is the following statements is INCORRECT?

(A)  Inductive effect is temporary effect while electrometric effect is permanent effect.

(B)  Inductive effect involves the partial displacement of sigma electrons while in electrometric effect, complete transference of pi-electrons takes place.

(C)  In inductive effect partial charges are developed on atoms and no ions are formed, while in electrometric effect complete transference of electrons takes place

(D)  In this effect the displaced electron pair does not leave its orbitals but in electrometric effect it leaves its orbital.

(A)  C

(B)  B

(C)  A

(D)  D

108. What is the numerical value of Avogadro’s number?

(A)  6.022 × 1026

(B)  6.022 × 1023

(C)  6.022 × 1025

(D)  60.22 × 102

109. How many number of zero oxidation states of sulphur atoms are present in tetrathionate ion?

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  1

(D)  4

110. The slope of plot between ln [R] vs t give ____.

(A)  Concentration of the products

(B)  Molecularity of the reaction

(C)  Rate of the reaction

(D)  Rate constant

111. The compound BeCl2 is ____.

(A)  Polymeric

(B)  Ionic

(C)  Co-ordinate

(D)  Covalent

112. How many double bonds are present in butane?

(A)  1

(B)  0

(C)  2

(D)  3

113. The packing fraction of a simple cubic system is :

(A)  0.524

(B)  0.480

(C)  0.680

(D)  0.740

114. Choose the correct differential rate equation for the following reaction:

A + 3B → 2C + D

(A)  r = −d[A]/dt = −1/3[B]dt = 1/2d[C]dt = d[D]/dt

(B)  r = −d[A]/dt = 1/3d [B]/dt = 1/2d[C]/dt = d[D]/dt

(C)  r = −d[A]/dt = 1/3d[B]/dt = −1/2d[C]dt = d[D]/dt

(D)  r = −d[A]/dt = −3d[B]/dt = 1/2d[C]/dt = d[D]/dt

115. Which of the following correctly represents Gay Lussac’s law?

(A)  V/T = K

(B)  VT = K

(C)  PT = K

(D)  P/T = K

116. The number of primary –OH and secondary –OH group present in ethylene glycol is :

(A)  One primary –OH and one secondary –OH group

(B)  Only two secondary –OH groups

(C)  Only two primary –OH groups

(D)  Two primary –OH and one secondary –OH group

117. Which of the following statements is correct about bonding in metal carbonyls?

(A)  The M-C sigma bond is formed by the donation of electron pair from a metal d-orbital into a vacant bonding orbital of a CO molecule.

(B)  The M-C pi bond is formed by donation of electron pair from a metal d-orbital into vacant π* antibonding orbital of CO molecule.

(C)  The M-C pi bond is formed by the donation of lone pair of electrons of carbonyl carbon into a vacant metal d-orbital

(D)  The M-C sigma bond is formed by donation of electron pair from a metal d-orbital into vacant π* antibonding orbital of Co molecule.

118. Which of the following is NOT an antacid?

(A)  Aluminium hydroxide

(B)  Lansoprezole

(C)  Ranitidine

(D)  Chlorpheniramine

119. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A)  a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

(B)  a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

(C)  a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

(D)  a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

120. Select the elements can form d π – d π bond with transition metals.

(A)  Arsenic, nitrogen and phosphorus

(B)  Phosphorus and nitrogen

(C)  Phosphorus and arsenic

(D)  Arsenic and nitrogen

121. If the partial pressures of four non interacting gases are p1, p2, p3 and p4, then the pressure of mixture of these gases, P is _____.

(A)  p1 + p2 + p3 + p4

(B)  (p1 + p2) (p3 + p4)

(C)  p1 × p2 × p3 × p4

(D)

122. Which of the following reagent is used in the preparation of K­3[Fe(CN)6] from K4[Fe(CN)6]?

(A)  O3

(B)  MnO2

(C)  H2O2

(D)  AlH3

123. Which of the following is the increasing order of a s-block elements with respect to wavelength?

(A)  Li < Na < K < Rb

(B)  Na < Li < K < Rb

(C)  Rb < K < Na < Li

(D)  Na < K < Li < Rb

124. What is the nature of hexaflourides?

(A)  Solid

(B)  Gaseous

(C)  Liquid

(D)  Solid and liquid

125. Which of the following molecule will produce 2 moles of AgCl precipitate with an excess of AgNO3 solution?

(A)  [Cr(NH3)5Cl]Cl2

(B)  [Cr(NH3)3Cl3]

(C)  [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Br

(D)  [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3

126. The shape and bond angle of 3° amine is :

(A)  Pyramidal, 108°

(B)  Tetrahedral, 108°

(C)  Pyramidal, 107°

(D)  Tetrahedral, 109.28°

127. The common name of (CH3)2C = CHCOCH3 is :

(A)  isopropyl ketone

(B)  di-isopropyl ketone

(C)  acrolein

(D)  mesityl oxide

128. Under which of the following conditions will a process be spontaneous at all temperature?

(A)  ∆H = +ve, ∆S = +ve

(B)  ∆H = −ve, ∆S = +ve

(C)  ∆H = −ve, ∆S = −ve

(D)  ∆H = +ve, ∆S = −ve

129. Select the correct pairs of isobars from the following.

130. Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labeled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Tertiary alcohols are less acidic than secondary and primary alcohols.

Reason (R) : An electron releasing group increases the polarity of O-H bond by increasing the electron density on oxygen atom.

(A)  Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(B)  A is false and R is true

(C)  Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(D)  A is true but R is false

131. Which of the following is lyophobic in nature?

(A)  Gelatin

(B)  Sulphur

(C)  Starch

(D)  Protein

132. Which of the following is used as Tranquillizers?

(A)  Iburofen

(B)  Dichlorofenic sodium

(C)  Veronal

(D)  Naproxen

MATHEMATICS

Questions : 68

133. Which of the following is a statement?

(A)  Oh ! we have drawn the match

(B)  May God bless you !

(C)  Jupiter is a planet

(D)  I may live long !

134. The value of the integral  is :

(A)  −1

(B)  ∞

(C)  1

(D)  0

135. Match the column A with column B

(A)  1 → P; 2 → P; 3 → S; 4 → R

(B)  1 → R; 2 → P; 3 → S; 4 → R

(C)  1 → Q; 2 → P; 3 → S; 4 → R

(D)  1 → Q; 2 → P; 3 → P; 4 → R

136. The value of

137.

(A)  n – 1 + 2n

(B)  n – 1 – 2n

(C)  n + 1 – 2n

(D)  n + 1 + 2n

138. In how many ways can 16 examination papers be arranged, so that the best and the worst papers never come together?

(A)  14 – 15!

(B)  15 – 14!

(C)  15 – 16!

(D)  16 – 15!

139. The value of

(A)  2

(B)  0

(C)  −2

(D)  1

140. The number of elements in a set {x : x ϵ a all alphabets} is :

(A)  12

(B)  5

(C)  26

(D)  30

141. If f : R → A defined by f(x) = {x – 2} – 3 is a surjection then A is ____.

(A)  (−∞, 1] ∪ [2, ∞)

(B)  [−3, ∞)

(C)  [1, 2]

(D)  (1, ∞)

142. If ω is non-real cube root of unity, x = a + b, y = aω2 + bω and z = bω2 + aω, then x2 + y2 + z2.

(A)  12a2b2

(B)  12ab

(C)  6ab

(D)  6a2b2

143. For n ϵ N, 2.3n+1 + 3n + 36 is divisible by :

(A)  2

(B)  8

(C)  6

(D)  3

144. The polar form of −√7 + i√21 is :

145. Let  then the value of tan(x/2) is :

(A)  15/29

(B)  14/29

(C)  13/25

(D)  −15/29

146. The angle between the lines

x + y – 5 = 0, 7x + 5y – 8 = 0 is :

147. The product of the slopes of the tangents to the parabola y2 = x drawn from the point (1, −2) is :

(A)  −1/4

(B)  1/4

(C)  −2/4

(D)  2/4

148. The product of all the nth roots of unity is :

(A)  1

(B)  0

(C)  −1

(D)  (−1)n1

149. The number an = 6n – 5n for n = 1, 2, 3,…. When divided by 25 leaves the remainder

(A)  9

(B)  7

(C)  3

(D)  1

150. The 11th term of sequence 3, 2, 4/3, 8/9….is :

(A)  210/69

(B)  910/39

(C)  210/39

(D)  210/310

151. The equation of a plane bisecting the angle between the planes 4x – 2y + 4z + 6 = 0 and 6x – 4y + 12z + 16 = 0 is :

(A)  23x + 13y + 32z – 45 = 0

(B)  5x – y – 4z – 3 = 0

(C)  23x – 13y + 32z + 5 = 0

(D)  5x – y – 4z – 45 = 0

152. If E is an impossible event, then P(E) is :

(A)  2

(B)  1

(C)  0

(D)  0.1

153. The equation of line through (1, 3) with slope 2 is :

(A)  y = x + 2

(B)  y = x – 2

(C)  y = 2x – 1

(D)  y = 2x + 1

154. Find the number of 2000th roots of unity which are 2020th roots of unity.

(A)  2

(B)  0

(C)  5

(D)  20

155. If 26Pr+6 : 25Pr+3 = 11050 : 1 then r is equal to :

(A)  16

(B)  4

(C)  6

(D)  8

156. Let S be the set of people living in India, then the relation R in S defined by ‘aRb if a and b have same father’ is :

(A)  reflexive

(B)  equivalence

(C)  symmetric

(D)  transitive

157. If  and  then the value of ∝ for which A2 = B is :

(A)  2

(B)  −1

(C)  1

(D)  0

158. Match the columns

(A)  1 → Q, 2 → Q, 3 → R, 4 → P

(B)  1 → S, 2 → Q, 3 → R, 4 → P

(C)  1 → S, 2 → Q, 3 → P, 4 → P

(D)  1 → S, 2 → R, 3 → R, 4 → P

159. The solution of the differential equation  is :

160. If  & B = adj A & C = 5A, then the value of  is _____.

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  0

(D)  −1

161. The exponent of 6 in 100! is :

(A)  45

(B)  48

(C)  13

(D)  22

162. In a city 15% are suffering from fever and 10% are suffering from cold and 5% are suffering from both. The probability that they are suffering from either cold or fever is :

(A)  50%

(B)  30%

(C)  20%

(D)  40%

163. If A = {−3, 1}, B = {x ∈ R : x2 + 2x – 3 = 0}, and C = {1, 2, 3} and D = {x ∈ R : x2 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0}, then the equal sets are :

(A)  A, B and C

(B)  A and B

(C)  A and C

(D)  A, C and D

164. If  such that |A – KI| = 0, then the sum of all the possible values of K is ____.

(A)  0

(B)  2

(C)  6

(D)  4

165. If nA = m and nB = 2, then the number of possible surjective mappings from A to B is :

(A)  m!

(B)  2m

(C)  2m – 1

(D)  2m – 2

166. A line segment has length 1089 and direction ratios are 6, −2, 9. If the line makes an obtuse angle with x-axis, the components of the line vector are :

(A)  −594, 198, 891

(B)  27, −18, 54

(C)  −27, 18, −54

(D)  18, −6, 27

167. The set {x : x is a positive interger less than 5 and 5x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is :

(A)  {2, 4, 6}

(B)  {1, 3, 5}

(C)  {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}

(D)  {1, 2, 3, 4}

168. The solution of the differential equation x(x + y) dy – y2dx = 0 is

(A)  y = −x log cy

(B)  y = x log cxy

(C)  y = x log cy

(D)  y = −x log cxy

169. The contrapositive of the statement, ‘IF I am not happy, then I will go to the picture’ is :

(A)  I I am happy, then I will not go to the picture

(B)  If I will go to the picture, then I am happy

(C)  If I will go to the picture, then I am not happy

(D)  I I will not go to the picture, then I am happy

170. What is the probability of getting a sum as 7 or 8 with two dice ?

(A)  1/36

(B)  1/12

(C)  5/36

(D)  11/36

171. If the 4th and 9th term of a GP be 54 and 13122, respectively, then its second term is :

(A)  10

(B)  12

(C)  6

(D)  8

172. If f(x) = ex, g(x) = tan1 x and k(x) = f(g(x)) then

(A)  1 – x2

(B)

(C)

(D)  1 + x2

173. If x = sin1 t, y = log(1 – t2), then  is _____.

(A)  −√3/2

(B)  −2/√3

(C)  2/√3

(D)  √3/2

174. If the eccentricity of the hyperbola is √3 then the eccentricity of its conjugate hyperbola is :

(A)  1/2

(B)

(C)

(D)  3/2

175. The eccentricity and length of latus rectum of hyperbola

X2 – 2y2 – 6x + 8y = 36 is :

(A)  √3 and √14

(B)  √13 and √37

(C)

(D)  2 and √3

176. If A and B are matrices of order 3 × 3 and if |A| − 2, |B| = 3, then |4A2B3| is ____.

(A)  7062

(B)  7612

(C)  6912

(D)  6072

177. The solution of the differential equation  is :

178. Find the equation of the line through the intersection of x + y – 1 = 0, 2x – y – 2 = 0 and perpendicular to 2x – 3y + 2 = 0 is :

(A)  3x + 2y – 3 = 0

(B)  3x + 2y + 3 = 0

(C)  3x – 2y – 3 = 0

(D)  3x + 2y – 2 = 0

179. If R is relation on the set A = {1, 2, 3}, then R = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3)} is a :

(A)  Transitive

(B)  Reflexive

(C)  All the given options

(D)  Symmetric

180. The value of

(A)  100√2

(B)  50 π

(C)  100 π

(D)  50√2

181. Let m = tan2(sec12) + cot2(cosec12), then the value of m3 – m is :

(A)  121

(B)  210

(C)  144

(D)  81

182. Match the following :

(A)  A-i, B—ii, C-iii, D-iv

(B)  A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

(C)  A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

(D)  A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

Note : For this question, discrepancy is found in question/answer. Full marks is being awarded to all candidates.

183.

184. If PA. = 0.25 PB. = 0.5, P(A ∪ B) = 0.59, then is :

(A)  1

(B)  0.09

(C)  0.9

(D)  0.2

185. The derivative of y = x3x sin(x) is :

(A)  x3xsin(x)(3 + 3 ln(x) + cot (x))

(B)  xx sin(x)

(C)  x3x sin(x) cot (x)

(D)  3 + 3ln (x) + cot (x)

186. The value of   is :

(A)

(B)

(C)  loge 2

(D)  0

187. If then

(A)  0

(B)  2

(C)  1

(D)  −1

188. If y = (loge x)x, then

189. There are 200 students in a class. In the examination, 100 of them failed in Mathematics, 90 failed in Physics, 80 failed in Biology and 64 failed in exactly two of the three subjects. Only two students passed in all the subjects. Then, the number of students failing in all the three subjects is :

(A)  2

(B)  6

(C)  4

(D)  8

190. Consider the following statements :

P : Pranav is skilled

Q : Pranav is poor

R : Pranav is honest

The negation of the “Pranav is Skilled and dishonest if and only if Pranav is poor” can be expressed as :

(A)  ~(P ^ ~R) ↔ Q

(B)  ~ (Q ↔ (P ^ ~ R))

(C)  ~ p ^ (Q ↔ ~ R)

(D)  ~ Q ↔ ~ P ^ R

191. The remainder obtained when

(n2 + 5n + 4) . (n2 + 5n + 6) + 31 is divided by 24 is :

(A)  9

(B)  7

(C)  25

(D)  32

192. If the function f : R → R defined by  find f(x) + (1 – x)

(A)  0

(B)  2

(C)  1

(D)  22

193. The centre and radius of the circle x2 + y2 – 4x – 4y – 1 = 0 is :

(A)  (1, 1) and 3

(B)  (1, −2) and 3

(C)  (2, −2) and 2

(D)  (2, 2) and 3

194. If the first three terms in AP are 3, 7, 11 then the sum of the first 10 terms is :

(A)  222

(B)  211

(C)  223

(D)  210

195. The sequence of numbers  are in :

(A)  GP

(B)  None of these

(C)  HP

(D)  AP

196. Match the column A with column B based on permutation and combination

 Column A Column B 1. There are 6 candidates for 3 posts. In how many ways can the posts be filled. P. 180 Ways 2. From among the 36 teachers in a school one principal and one vice-principal and one vice-principal are to be appointed. In how many ways can this be done. Q. 1260 ways 3. There are 15 buses running between Delhi and Mumbai. In how many ways can a man go to Mumbai and return by a different bus R. 120 ways 4. A teacher of a class wants to set on question from each of the two exercise in a book. If there are 15 and 12 questions in the two exercises respectively, then in how many ways can the two questions be selected. S. 210 ways

(A)  1 → Q; 2 → R; 3 → S; 4 → P

(B)  1 → R; 2 → Q; 3 → S; 4 → P

(C)  1 → R; 2 → R; 3 → S; 4 → P

(D)  1 → R; 2 → Q; 3 → P; 4 → P

197. In a college tournament, in which the participants were to play one game with another, two class players did not participate, after having played 2 games each. If the total number of games played is 82, then the number of participants at the beginning, was :

(A)  15

(B)  22

(C)  25

(D)  10

198. The equation of line which makes the intercepts 1 and 2 on x and y axis is :

(A)  3x – y – 2 = 0

(B)  3x + y – 2 = 0

(C)  2x – y – 2 = 0

(D)  2x + y – 2 = 0

199. Let f be the subset of R × R defined by f = {(x, y) + x2 + y2 = 9}. Here, f is :

(A)  one-one

(B)  onto

(C)  none of these

(D)  bijective

200. Cosine of the angle between the lines whose vector equations are

R = 5i + 3j – 6k + λ)(2i + j + 2k) and

r = 7i – 6k + μ(i + 2j + 8k);

(λ, μ being parameters,) is :

(A)  23/3√69

(B)  23/√69

(C)  20/3√69

(D)  20/√69

BIOLOGY

Question : 68

133. Animals in which sexes are separate, that is, males and females are distinct are known as :

(A)  dioecious

(B)  hermaphrodite

(C)  transgender

(D)  monoecious

134. Identify the INCORRECT statement.

(A)  For bacteria to take up plasmid, the cells must be rendered DNA – competent.

(B)  Microparticles of platinum are utilized in gene gun.

(C)  Biolistics allows for the direct injection of recombinant DNA.

(D)  Disarmed pathogen vectors deliver recombinant DNA to hosts.

135. Which RNA acts as genetic material?

(A)  rRNA

(B)  mRNA

(C)  tRNA

(D)  TMV RNA

136. Match the items given in column I with their functions in column II.

(A)  a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

(B)  a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

(C)  a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

(D)  a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

137. Which chlorophyll type is a primary, universal photosynthetic pigment and acts as reaction centre?

(A)  Chlorophyll d

(B)  Chlorophyll c

(C)  Chlorophyll b

(D)  Chlorophyll a

138. Arrange the following events of an action potential in the proper sequence.

(a) Repolarisation            (b) Influx of Na+

(c) Efflux of Na+             (d) Depolarisation

(A)  c, d, b, a

(B)  b, a, c, d

(C)  b, d, c, a

(D)  b, c, d, a

139. Which genetic disorder is sex-linked (X chromosome) and shows effect in the defective form of blood clotting factor VIII/IX ?

(A)  Sikle-cell anaemia

(B)  Haemophilia A/B

(C)  Phenylketonuria

(D)  Huntington’s disease

140. Rod-like structure, called notochord, is not present in animals belonging to Porifera to Echinodermata, they are called :

(A)  chordates

(B)  non-chordates

(C)  fishes

(D)  vertebrates

141. How many ATP are required for the synthesis of one glucose molecule in C3 pathway?

(A)  12 ATP

(B)  38 ATP

(C)  12 ATP

(D)  30 ATP

142. The matrix of mitochondria has :

(A)  Single circular DNA

(B)  Double stranded straight DNA

(C)  Double stranded circular DNA

(D)  Single straight DNA

143. What is the shape of a simple stirred-tank bioreactor?

(A)  A rectangular tank

(C)  Cylindrical tank

144. In prokaryotic cells mesosomes do not help in :

(A)  Hormone formation

(B)  Respiration

(C)  Cell wall formation

(D)  DNA replication

145. Which of the following symptoms is true about elephantiasis?

(A)  Obstructed intestinal passage

(B)  Respiratory problems

(C)  Genital organs are also frequently affected

(D)  Various parts of the body are covered in scaly lesions

146. Eggs and sperms are produced by the same individual are called :

(A)  heterosexual

(B)  intersex

(C)  dioecious

(D)  hermaphrodite

147. Mitochondria divides by:

(A)  fusion

(B)  budding

(C)  fission

(D)  vegetative propagation

148. In which of the following organisms – blood pumped by the heart is always circulated through a closed network of blood vessels?

(A)  Periplanata and Balanoglossus

(B)  Ascaris and Taenia

(C)  Pheretima and Rana

(D)  Rana and Balanoglossus

149. Sponges have a water canal system, in which water enters through ostia and goes out through :

(A)  coelom

(B)  pseudocoelom

(C)  osculum

(D)  coelenteron

150. The property of contact inhibition of cells is lost in ______ patients.

(A)  HIV

(B)  allergy

(C)  cancer

(D)  diabetes

151. Select the correctly matched set from the following options.

(A)  Birth canal : Uterus, cervical canal, vagina

(B)  Tertiary follicle : Antrun, theca layers, secondary oocyte

(C)  Female accessory ducts : Ovulation, fertilization, implanation.

(D)  Female external genitalia : Vagina, mons pubis, hymen, clitoris

152. Which syndrome arises due to translocation of the major portion of chromosome 21 to chromosome 14?

(A)  Klinefelter syndrome

(B)  Turner syndrome

(C)  Down’s syndrome

(D)  Phenylketonuria

153. The gaps between two adjacent myelin sheaths of a myelinated nerve fibre is called :

(A)  chemical synapse

(B)  synaptic cleft

(C)  nodes of Ranvier

(D)  electrical synapse

154. Select the INCORRECT combination.

(A)  Free nuclear endosperm – Ground nut

(B)  Cellular endosperm – Datura

(C)  Non endospermic seed – Bean

(D)  Endospermic seed – Castor

155. The prokaryotic cells are NOT represented by :

(A)  mycoplasma

(B)  blue-green algae

(C)  amoeba

(D)  bacteria

156. During reflex action, signal from a sensory organ transmits the impulse via a _____ into the spinal cord (CNS).

(A)  ventral nerve root

(B)  inter neuron

(C)  efferent pathway

(D)  dorsal nerve root

157. Chondrichthyes and Osteichthyes are classes in which fins are present for locomotion. They belong to the group :

(A)  Reptilia

(B)  Tetrapoda

(C)  Amphibia

(D)  Pisces

158. Which of the following statements regarding human reproduction are INCORRECT ?

(a)   The placenta develops within the ovarian cavity.

(b)   The placenta is present between the umbilical cord and the embryo.

(c)   Relaxin is an exclusive secretion of the placenta

(d)   Placenta is formed due to inter digitation of chorionic villi and myometrial tissue.

(A)  a, b and c

(B) a, b, c and d

(C)  b and d

(D)  b, c and d

159. Identify the invertebrate

(A)  Fishes

(B)  Insects

(C)  Amphibians

(D)  Reptiles

160. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

(A)  Lysine – basic amino acid

(B)  Uridylic acid – nucleotides

(C)  Valine – neutral amino acid

(D)  Glycerol – disaccharide

161. Osmolality of the glomerular filtrate can be 1200m Osmoi L1 in which of the following part

(A)  DCT in cortex

(B)  Bowman’s capsule in outer medulla

(C)  Hair pin bend of Henle’s loop in inner medulla

(D)  PCT in contex

162. Which part of the pituitary is under the direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus?

(A)  Pars distalis

(B)  Pars intermedia

(C)  Neurophypophysis

163. Electron hole is formed in which chlorophyll reaction centre of photosynthesis?

(A)  Chlorophyll a675

(B)  Chlorophyll a683 (P680)

(C)  Chlorophyll a673

(D)  Chlorophyll a703(P700)

164. In leucoplasts of plant cells, elaioplasts store :

(A)  Carbohydrates

(B)  Oils and fats

(C)  Starch

(D)  Proteins

165. In which of the following places can antigens bind?

(A)  Place : 1 and 2

(B)  Place : 1, 2 and 3

(C)  Place : 1 and 3

(D)  Place : 2 and 3

166. Organisms having dorso-ventrally flattened body and known as ‘flatworms’ are classified under the phylum:

(A)  Annelida

(B)  Mollusca

(C)  Platyhelminthes

(D)  Porifera

167. Match the terms in column I with their descriptions in column II.

(A)  a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii

(B)  a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

(C)  a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

(D)  a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

168. Mendel proposed four postulates, where postulate 4 is referred to as the :

(A)  purity of gametes

(B)  principal of independent assortment of factors

(C)  dominant unit factor

(D)  principal of segregation

169. Which of the following bacteria is capable of producing DNA polymerase?

(A)  Thermus aquaticus

(B)  Escherichia coli

(C)  Bacillus thurengensis

(D)  Agrobacterium tumifaciens

170. Sella turcica is the depression in the sphenoid bond which lodges:

(A)  pituitary gland

(B)  thyroid

(C)  pineal gland

(D)  thymus

171. Second messengers generates response to all EXCEPT :

(A)  Cortisol

(B)  Thyrocalcitonin

(C)  Parathyroid hormone

(D)  Erythropoietin

172. Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya is an example of ______.

(A)  biosphere reserves

(B)  wildlife safari parks

(C)  zoological parks

(D)  sacred groves

173. What is the major RBC producing organ in our body ?

(A)  Tonsils

(B)  Bone marrow

(C)  Thymus

(D)  Spleen

174. Which genetic disorder results in mental retardation and is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait?

(A)  Phenylketonuria

(B)  Sickle-cell anaemia

(C)  Klinefelter syndrome

(D)  Down’s syndrome

175. The primary acceptor molecule Ribulose1, 5-biphosphate (RuBP) of Co2 fixation cycle was found by which scientist?

(A)  Basham

(B)  CR Slack

(C)  Dicker

(D)  MD Hatch

176. In conditions of low intensity of light and increases in temperature, the rate of photosynthesis will :

(A)  remain constant

(B)  decrease

(C)  rapidly increase

(D)  increase

177. Lysosomal vesicles do NOT contain :

(A)  Proteases

(B)  insulin

(C)  carbohydrates

(D)  lipases

178. In which place in 1856, Mendel started his experiments on controlled hybridization in garden peas?

(A)  Monstery garden at Heinzen Dorf

(B)  Monsastery garden of Bruno

(C)  Monastery garden at Hopkins University

(D)  Monastery garden at Vienna

179. When breathing causes wheezing it is a symptom of which of the following disease?

(A)  Emphysema

(B)  Gout

(C)  Jaundice

(D)  Asthma

180. In the context of reproductive health, ART refers to :

(A)  artificial method and techniques to prevent pregnancy.

(B)  intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term.

(C)  special techniques which assist infertile couples to have children

(D)  methods for the prevention and treatment of STIs.

181. Which of the following hormonal disorders is associated with the formation of harmful compounds known as ketone bodies?

(A)  Diabetes insipidus

(B)  Cretinism

(C)  Diabetes mellitus

(D)  Dwarfism

182. Which cell organelle is ABSENT in almost all plant cells ?

(A)  Centrioles

(B)  Ribosomes

(C)  Plastids

(D)  Mitochondria

183. The ultimate goal of practically all recombinant technologies is to generate a desirable_____.

(A)  DNA

(B)  bacteria

(C)  vectors

(D)  protein

184. Then +1 gamete is formed by the failure of paired homologus to separate at anaphase, process known as non-disjunction, appeared in :

(A)  Phenylketonuria

(B)  Down’s syndrome

(C)  Sickle-cells anaemia

(D)  Turner syndrome

(A)  Many adaptations are genetically predetermined.

(B)  Some desert plants, such as Opuntia, do not have leaves.

(C)  Leaf surfaces of many desert plants are covered in a thick layer of cuticle.

(D)  Penguin may concentrate their urine to require less water to excrete

186. ______ are areas allocated for wildlife where they can freely utilize their habitats and natural resources.

(A)  Wildlife Sanctuaries

(B)  National parks

(C)  Protected forests

(D)  Biosphere Reserves

187. Chitinase can be found in which organism?

(A)  Bacteria

(B)  Virus

(C)  Fungi

(D)  Protozoa

188. During photosynthesis, assimilatory power ATP only synthesizes in which process of photosynthesis?

(A)  cyclic photophosphorylation

(B)  Non-cyclic photophosphorylation

(C)  Photolysis

(D)  Photosystem-II

189. Identify the true statement related to immunity.

(A)  There are eight peptide chains in each antibody molecule

(B)  A non-specific form of defence is acquired immunity

(C)  Interferons are proteins secreted by virus-infected cells.

(D)  T-lymphocytes are responsible for the production of antibodies.

190. Which of the following is NOT a part of innate immunity?

(A)  Cellular barriers

(B)  Blood-brain barriers

(C)  Physical barriers

(D)  Cytokine barriers

191. GIFT is an assisted reproductive technology indicated for a woman :

(A)  Who wants to get rid of unwanted pregnancy

(B)  Who cannot provide a suitable environment for fertilization

(C)  Whose uterus does not support implantation

(D)  Who cannot produce an ovum

192. Which of the following is NOT an altitude sickness symptom ?

(A)  Heart palpitations

(B)  Nausea

(C)  Fatigue

(D)  Anaemia

193. In an aquatic plant like water lily pollination is brought about by :

(A)  Water

(B)  Insects only

(C)  Wind or insects

(D)  Wind only

194. The characteristic feature of some animals, in which body is divided externally and internally into segments with serial repetition of some organs, is called :

(A)  coelenteron

(B)  spongocoel

(C)  mesoderm

(D)  metamerism

195. In which phase of the uterine cycle does implantation occurs ?

(A)  Menstrual phase

(B)  Proliferative phase

(C)  Ovulatory phase

(D)  Secretory phase

196. Which plants can tolerate high temperature and have greater productivity of biomass?

(A)  C3 plants

(B)  CAM plants

(C)  C2 plants

(D)  C4 plants

197. Which cycle plants are adapted to overcome photorespiration and deliver Co2 directly to the enzyme RuBisCo ?

(A)  CAM cycle plants

(B)  C2 cycle plants

(C)  C4 cycle plants

(D)  C3 cycle plants

198. How many hormones given below are increased several fold in the maternal blood during pregnancy?

(a) Thyroxine       (b) Progesterone

(c) Cortisol           (d) Oestrogens

(e) Prolactin

(A)  5

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  2

199. Which genetic disorder is inherited as a dominant trait?

(A)  Cystic fibrosis

(B)  Colour blindness

(C)  Huntington’s disease

(D)  Phenylketonuria

1. The structure similar to notochord that is present in the collar region of Balanoglossus is called :

(A)  cartilage

(B)  vertebrae

(C)  stomochord

(D)  nerve chord

## OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key

 Go to all OUAT Previous Year Question Papers 2022, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012,2011, 2010, 2009, 2008, 2007

OUAT Previous Question Paper-2021

PHYSICS

1. An automobile engine of mass N accelerates and constants power p is applied by the engine. The instantaneous speed of the engine will be

2. A constant torque acting on a uniform circular wheel changes its angular momentum from L to 4L in 4 second. The magnitude of this torque will be

(a)   L

(b)   4L

(c)   3L/4

(d)   12L

3. The resultant force on the current loop. PQRS due to along current carrying conductor will be

(a)   104N

(b)   3.5 × 104N

(c)   1.8 × 104N

(d)   5 × 104N

4. A capacitor with plate separation ‘d’ is charged to ‘V’ volts. The battery is disconnected and a dielectric slab of thickness d/2 and dielectric constant ‘2’ is inserted between the plates. The potential difference across its terminals becomes

(a)   V

(b)   2V

(c)   4V/2

(d)   3V/4

5. The total energy, stored in the condenser system, shown in the figure below is

(a)   2 mJ

(b)   4 mJ

(c)   8 mJ

(d)   16 mJ

6. Two slits separated by a distance of 1 mm are illuminated with red light of wavelength 6.5 × 107 The interference fringes are observed on a screen placed 1 m from the slits. The distance between the third dark fringe and the fifth bright fringes on the same side of central maxima is

(a)   0.65 mm

(b)   1.62 mm

(c)   3.25 mm

(d)   4.88 mm

7. A spherical ball is falling with a uniform velocity v through a viscous medium of coefficient of viscosity n. If the viscous force acting on the spherical ball is F then

(a)   F ∝ η and F ∝ 1/v

(b)   F ∝ η and F ∝ v

(c)   F ∝ 1/η and F ∝ 1/v

(d)   F ∝ 1/η and F ∝ v

8. Determine the r.m.s value of a semicircular current wave which has a maximum value of a

9. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are:

(a)   FV1T1

(b)   FVT1

(c)   FV1T

(d)   FVT2

10. During charging a capacitor, the variation of potential V of the capacitor with time t is

11. A force of 0.5 N is applied on upper block as shown in figure. The work done by lower block on upper for a displacement 3m of the upper block is

(Take g = 10 m/s2)

(a)   1 joule

(b)   −1 joule

(c)   2 joule

(d)   −2 joule

12. A photon of wavelength 900 nm behaves like a particle of mass

(a)   5.53 × 1036 kg

(b)   0 kg

(c)   2.46 × 1036 kg

(d)   1.84 × 1044 kg

13. Three point masses m1, m2 and m3 are placed at the corners of a thin rectangular sheet (1.2m ×0m) as shown. Centre of mass will be located at the point.

(a)   (0.8, 0.6)m

(b)   (0.6, 0.8)m

(c)   (0.4, 0.4)m

(d)   (0.5, 0.6)m

14. The resistance across A and B in the figure below will be

(a)   3R

(b)   R

(c)   R/3

(d)   None

15. A straight wire of length 2 m carries a current of 10A. If this wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.15T making an angle of 45 with the magnetic field, the applied force on the wire will be

(a)   1.5N

(b)   3√2N

(c)   3N

(d)   3/√2

16. An electron is placed on X-axis where the electric potential depends on x as shown in the figure (the potential does not depend on y and z). What is the electric force on the electron?

(a)   4.0 × 1018 N

(b)   8.0× 1018 N

(c)   3.0 × 1016 N

(d)   4.0 × 1016 N

17. A carrier was is modulated by n number of sine wave with modulation indices μ1, μ2, μ3 … The total modulation index (μ) of the wave is

(a)   μ1 + μ2 + μ3 . + …

18. A solid cylinder first rolls without sliding and then slides without rolling down the same inclined plane. The ratio of velocities in the two cases, at the bottom of the plane, is

(a)   1 : 2

(b)   1 : 3

(c)   √6 : 3

(d)   √3 : 1

19. An automobile engine of mass M accelerates and a constant power p is applied by the engine. The instantaneous speed of the engine will be

20. A charge +q is placed at the origin O of X-Y axes as shown in figure below. The work done in taking a charge Q from A to B along the straight line AB is

21. A particle is projected from the ground with kinetic energy E at an angle of 60° with the horizontal. Its kinetic energy at the highest point of its motion will be:

(a)   E/√2

(b)   E/2

(c)   E/4

(d)   E/8

22. Refer to the figure, Potential difference between A and B is

(a)   zero

(b)   5 V

(c)   10 V

(d)   15 V

23. In the following diagrams, all the charges have equal magnitude. Electric field is zero at the centre of

24. In an LCR series a-c circuit, the voltage across LC combination is

(a)   50 V

(b)   50√2 V

(c)   100 V

(d)   zero

25. A block of mass ‘m’ as shown the figure is pulled by a force 40 N. The tension at the middle of the block is

(a)   10 N

(b)   20 N

(c)   25 N

(d)   30 N

26. Some water drops of radius r each coalesce to form a big drop of radius R. The rise in temperature is given by

(a)   rT/J

(b)   3T/Jr

(c)

(d)

27. An air bubble is contained inside water. It behaves as a:

(a)   concave lens

(b)   convex lens

(c)   neither concave nor convex

(d)   none of these

28. A ray of light travelling in glass (μ = 3/2) is incident on a horizo glass-air surface at the critical angle. If a thin layer of water (μ = 4/3) is poured on the glass-air surface. The angle at which the ray emerges into air at the water-air surface is

(a)   0

(b)   π/4

(c)   π/3

(d)   π/2

29. Which one of the following is the correct graph between energy and wavelength for a given photon?

30. A 5F capacitor has potential difference across its plates of 200 volt. The charge on the capacitor is

(a)   2.5 × 108 C

(b)   10 to 5C

(c)   103C

(d)   4 × 103C

31. If ϕ1 and ϕ2 are the angels of dip in two vertical planes at right angles to each other and ϕ is the true angle of dip then

(a)   cot2 ϕ = cot2 ϕ1 + cot2 ϕ2

(b)   tan2 ϕ = tan2 ϕ1 + tan2 ϕ2

(c)   cot ϕ = cot ϕ1 + cot ϕ2

(d)   tan ϕ = tan ϕ1 + tan ϕ2

32. A radioactive substance decays to 1/16th of its initial activity in 40 days. The half-life of the radioactive substance expressed in days is

(a)   2.5

(b)   5

(c)   10

(d)   20

33. If a charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges Q such that the system is in equilibrium, then the value of q is

(a)   Q/2

(b)   −Q/2

(c)   −Q/4

(d)   Q/4

34. Two coherent sources S1 and S2 are separated by a small distanced as shown. The fringes obtained on the screen will be

(a)   points

(b)   straight lines

(c)   semi-circle

(d)   concentric circles

35. In Young’s double slits experiment, the length of band is 1 mm. The fringe width is 0.021 mm. The number of fringes is

(a)   45

(b)   46

(c)   47

(d)   48

36. If power dissipated in 9Ω resistor in the circuit shown is 36 Watt, the potential difference across 2Ω resistor is

(a)   2 volt

(b)   4 volt

(c)   8 volt

(d)   10 volt

37. The position time graphs of two cars ‘A’ and ‘B’ are straight lines making angles 30° and 60° with time axis respectively. The ratio of velocities of ‘A’ and ‘B’ is

(a)   1 : √2

(b)   1 : 3

(c)   √3 : 1

(d)   3 : 1

38. Water is flowing in streamline motion through a horizontal tube. The pressure at a point in the tube is p where the velocity of flow is ν. At another point, where the pressure is p/2, the velocity of flow is [density of water = ρ]

39. If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, its de Broglie wavelength changes by the factor

(a)   1/√2

(b)   √2

(c)   1/2

(d)   2

40. A composite slab made up of two different material having thickness 2x and 8x, thermal conductivity 2K and 4K respectively and temperatures T2 and T1 (T2 > T1). The rate of heat transfer through the slab, in a steady state is  with f equals to

(a)   1

(b)   1/2

(c)   2/3

(d)   1/3

41. The amount of heat generated in 500 Ω resistance when the keys is thrown over from constant 1 to 2, as shown in figure is

(a)   40 × 103 J

(b)   50 × 103 J

(c)   60 × 103 J

(d)   30 × 103 J

42. Effective capacitance between A and B in the figure shown below, is (capacitance are in μF)

(a)   21 μF

(b)   23 μF

(c)

(d)

43. In a conical pendulum the length of strings is ‘l’ and ‘θ’ is the angle of strings with vertical. The time period of revolution is

44. The magnetic field at the point of intersection of diagonals of a square wire loop of side L carrying a current is

45. An electric motor operating on 15V supply draws a current of 5A and yields mechanical powers of 60W. The energy lost as heat in one hour (in kJ) is :

(a)   0.54

(b)   5.4

(c)   54

(d)   540

46. Four persons are initially at the four corners of a square whose side is equal to d. Each person now moves with a uniform speed V in such a way that the first move directly towards the second, the second directly towards the third, the third directly towards the fourth and the fourth directly towards the first. The four persons meet after a time equals to

(a)   d/V

(b)   2d/3V

(c)   2d/√3V

(d)   d/√3V

47. In the given graph, adiabatic and isothermal curves are shown:

(a)   the curve A is isothermal

(b)   the curve B is isothermal

(c)   the curve A is adiabatic

(d)   Both (b) and (c) are correct

48. Which is the value of emf E in the figure below?

VL = 40 V, VR = 80 V

VC = 100 V, E1 = 50 Hz

(a)   200 V

(b)   140 V

(c)   100 V

(d)   20 V

49. In semiconductors which of the following relations is correct at thermal equilibrium?

(a)   n = ne = nh

(b)   n12 = nenh

(c)   n1 = ne/nh

(d)   n1 = ne + nh

50. A body is moving along a circular path with constant speed. If the direction of rotation is reversed and the speed is doubled, then

(a)   the direction of centripetal acceleration is doubled

(b)   the magnitude of centripetal acceleration is doubled

(c)   the direction of centripetal acceleration remains unchanged

(d)   the magnitude of centripetal acceleration is halved

51. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V and bounces back with the same velocity. The impulse experienced by the body is:

(a)   MV

(b)   1.5 MV

(c)   2 Mv

(d)   Zero

52. In a common emitter configuration with suitable bias, it is given that RL is the load resistance and RBE is small signal dynamic resistance (input side). Then voltage gain, current gain and power gain are given respectively (β is current gain IB, IC, IE are respectively base, collector and emitter currents).

53. A weight W is suspended from the midpoint of a rope, whose ends are at the same level. In order to make the rope perfectly horizontal, the force applied to each of its ends must be

(a)   less than W

(b)   equal to W

(c)   equal to 2W

(d)   infinitely large

54. The critical speed of an artificial satellite is

(a)   8 km/s

(b)   8.1 km/s

(c)   7.9 km/s

(d)   8 m/s

55. By increasing temperature of a gas by 6°C its pressure increases by 0.4% at constant volume. Then initial temperature of gas is

(a)   1000 K

(b)   1500 K

(c)   2000 K

(d)   750 K

56. In a given process of an ideal gas, dW = 0 and dQ < 0. Then for the gas

(a)   the temperature will decrease

(b)   the volume will increase

(c)   the pressure will remain constant

(d)   the temperature will increase

57. The charge on the capacitor in steady state in the circuit shown is

(a)   0.5 μC

(b)   1 μC

(c)   2 μC

(d)   4 μC

58. Six point charges are arranged at the vertices of a regular hexagon of side length a (shown in figure). The magnitude of electric field at the centre of regular hexagon is

(a)   q/4πε0a2

(b)   Zero

(c)   q/2πε0a2

(d)   None

59. The ratio of minimum wavelength of Lyman and Balmer series will be

(a)   1.25

(b)   0.18

(c)   5

(d)   10

60. A square frame of side ‘l’ carries a current ‘t’. The magnetic fields at its centre is B. The same current is passed through a circular coil having the same perimeter as the square. The field at the centre of the circular coil is Bʹ. The ratio of B and Bʹ is

(a)   8√2/π2

(b)   8√2/π3

(c)   8√2/π

(d)   4√2/π

61. In the figure below, the capacitance of each capacitor is 3 μF. The effective capacitance between A and B is

(a)

(b)   −3μF

(c)   6μF

(d)   5μF

62. Two satellites of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are revolving around the earth in orbits of radii r1 and r2(r1 > r2) with velocities v1 and v2 In this case

(a)   v1 = v2

(b)   v1 < v2

(c)   v1 > v2

(d)   v1/r1 = v2/r2

63. The amplitude of a wave represented by displacement equation  will be

64. Which one of the following diagrams correctly represents the energy levels in the p-type semiconductor?

65. A heater coil is cut into two equal parts and only one part is now used in the heater. The heat generated will now be

(a)   one fourth

(b)   halved

(c)   doubled

(d)   four times

66. Springs of spring constant K, 3K, 9K, 2K, … ∞ are connected in series. Equivalent spring constant of the combination is

(a)   3K/2

(b)   K/2

(c)   2K/3

(d)   ∞

CHEMISTRY

67. What is the major product obtained from the following reaction?

H2N−CH2−CH2−OH+CH3Na (one mole)→

(a)   CH3−NH−CH2−OH

(b)   H2N−CH2−CH2−O−CH3

(c)   CH4−NaNH−CH2−CH2−OH

(d)   CH4+H2N−CH2−CH2−ONa

68. The no. of H+ in 10 ml of a solution with pH = 13 is :

(a)   1013

(b)   6.023 × 108

(c)   6.023 × 1010

(d)   6.023 × 1013

69. The enthalpy of vaporization of liquid water using the date.

(a)   +43.93 kJ/mol

(b)   −43.93 kJ/mol

(c)   +527.61 kJ/mol

(d)   −527.61 kJ/mol

70. In the relation, Electronegativity  r is

71. The equivalent conductance of an aqueous solution of 1.0283 × 103 g equivalent acetic acid per litre is 48.15Ω1 cm2 equiv1 at 25°C and at infinite dilution value is 390.7Ω1 cm2 equiv1. Calculate the degree of ionization and ionization constant of acetic acid.

(a)   0.1232, 1.78×105

(b)   0.223, 10.2×105

(c)   0.229, 1.78×105

(d)   0.531, 2.85×105

72. The maximum number of molecules is present in

(a)   15 L of H2 gas at STP

(b)   5L of N2 gas at STP

(c)   0.5g of H2 gas

(d)   10g of O2 gas

73. IUPAC name for the following compound is

(a)   1, 3-pentamethyl propane

(b)   1, 1, 3, 3-tetramethyl butane

(c)   2, 4, 4, 5-trimethyl pentane

(d)   2, 2, 4-trimethyl pentane

(a)   Phynyl side chain

(b)   Aromatic side chain

(c)   Normal unbranched side chain

(d)   Branched side chain

75. Which of the following is correct regarding the I-effect of the substituents?

(a)   −NR2 < −OR < −F

(b)   −NR2 > −OR < −F

(c)   −NR2 < −OR > −F

(d)   −NR2 > −OR > −F

76. Consider the following reaction:

The product Z is

(a)   Benzaldehyde

(b)   Benzene

(c)   Benzoic acid

(d)   Toluene

77. The total number of π-bond electrons in the following structure is

(a)   4

(b)   8

(c)   12

(d)   16

78. Which plot represents an exothermic reaction?

79. The hydrocarbon which can react with sodium in liquid ammonia is

(a)   CH3CH = CHCH3

(b)   CH3CH3C = CCHCH3

(c)   CH3CH3C = CCH3CH3CH3

(d)   CH3CH3C = CH

80. Which of the following statement is TRUE?

(a)   Molarity of solution is independent of temperature

(b)   Molality of solution is independent of temperature

(c)   Mole fraction of solute is dependent on temperature

(d)   The unit of molality is mol dm3

81. The IUPAC name Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] the IUPAC name is

(a)   sodium pentacyanonitrate

(b)   sodium pentacyanonitrosy lferous(II)

(c)   sodium pentacyanonitrosylferrate (II)

(d)   disodium pentacyanonitrosylferrate (II)

82. Bond lengths of C−H, C−O, C−C and C=C follow the sequence

(a)   C – H < C – O < C – C < C = C

(b)   C – H < C = C < C – O < C − C

(c)   C – C < C = C < C – O < C − H

(d)   C – O < C – H < C – C < C = C

83. For the non-stoichiometric reaction, 2A+B→C + D the following kinetic data were obtained in three separate experiments, all at 298 K.

The rate law for the formation of C is

84. Which of the functional groups on the following molecule are susceptible to nucleophilic attack?

(a)   ‘a’ and ‘b’

(b)   a’ and ‘c’

(c)   ‘b’ and ‘c’

(d)   ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’

85. What is the correct increasing order of liquefiability of the gas?

(a)   H2 < N2 < CH4 < CO2

(b)   H2 < CO2 < CH4 < N2

(c)   CO2 < CH4 < N2 < H2

(d)   CO2 < CH­4 < H2 < N2

86. The reaction of an ester ROORʹ with an alcohol RʹʹOH is presence of an acid gives.

(a)   RʹCOOR

(b)   RʹCOOH

(c)   RCOORʹʹ

(d)   RʹʹCOOR

87. Which of the following substance form a colloidal solution in water?

(a)   Glucose

(b)   Urea

(c)   BaSO4

(d)   Starch

88. Copper crystallises in FCC lattice with a u nit cell edge of 361 pm. The radius of copper atom is

(a)   181 pm

(b)   108 pm

(c)   128 pm

(d)   157 pm

89. In the extraction of cooper from its sulphide ore, the metal is formed by the reduction of Cu2O with

(a)   FeS

(b)   CO

(c)   Cu2S

(d)   SO2

90. What is the formal charge of the oxygen atom of the following compound?

(a)   +3

(b)   +1

(c)   −2

(d)   −3

91. Dimer Al2Cl6 is formed because

(a)   aluminium is electron rich

(b)   aluminium is having lone pair of electron

(c)   aluminium forms coordinate bonds with chlorine to complete its octet

(d)   aluminium donates lone pair to form bridge

92. The standard reduction potential for Fe2+|Fe and Sn2+|Sn electrodes are −44 and −0.14 V respectively for the cell reaction:

Fe2+ + 2n → Fe + Sn2+, the standard emf is

(a)   +0.30 V

(b)   −0.58 V

(c)   +0.58 V

(d)   −0.30 V

93. When 800 g of a 40% solution by weight was cooled, 10g of solute was precipitated. The percentage composition of the remaining solution is

(a)   20.0%

(b)   25.0%

(c)   31.4%

(d)   50.0%

94. For the gas phase reaction,

C2H4 + H2 – C2H6; (∆H = −32.7 Kcal) carried out in a vessel, the equilibrium concentration of C2H4 can be increased by

(a)   decreasing the pressure

(b)   increasing the temperature

(c)   removing some C2H6

95. On which factors interface depends?

(a)   Size of the molecules in the bulk phase

(b)   Weight of the molecules in the bulk phase

(c)   Numbers of molecules in the bulk phase

(d)   Physical state of molecules in the bulk phase

96. The Gibbs energy for decomposition Al2O3 at 500°C is as follows:

The potential difference needed for electrolytic reduction of Al2O3 at 500°C is at latest

(a)   5V

(b)   4.5V

(c)   3V

(d)   2.5V

97. Which of the following carbohydrate CANNOT be digested by human body?

(a)   Starch

(b)   Cellulose

(c)   Glycogen

(d)   All of these

98. For a weak acid with α, as its degree of dissociation, the value of dissociation constant is given by

[C is concentration of acid in mole per litre).

(a)   Ka = Cα

(b)   Ka = Cα2

(c)   Ka = C2α

(d)   Ka = C2α2

99. Which of the following nitrogen oxides is ionic?

(a)   Nitrogen trioxide

(b)   Nitrogen pentoxide

(c)   Dinitrogen tetroxide

(d)   Nitric oxide

100. 1 M solution each of Cu(NO3)2, AgNO3, Hg2(NO3)2 and Mg(NO3)2 is electrolyzed using Pt-electrodes. The values of standard electrode potentials in volts are Ag+/ASg = +0.08V, Cu2+/Cu = +0.34 V, Hg22+/Hg = +0.79 V, Mg2+/Mg = −37V. The sequence of deposition of metals on the cathode will be

(a)   Mg > Ag > Cu

(b)   Mg > Cu > Ag

(c)   Ag > Hg > Cu

(d)   Cu > Hg > Ag

101. Which bond is the smallest?

102. Among the alkenes which one produces tertiary butyl alcohol on acid hydration?

(a)   (CH3)2C = CH2

(b)   CH3 – CH = CH – CH3

(c)   CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH2

(d)   CH3 – CH = CH2

103. Which of the following is used as fire extinguisher under the name pyrene?

(a)   CO2

(b)   CCl4

(c)   CH2 = CH−Cl

(d)   Cl−CH=CH−Cl

104. Zn(s) + Cl2 (1 atm) → Zn2+ + 2Cl, The E° of the cell is 2.12 V. To increase E

(a)   Zn2+ concentration should be increased

(b)   Zn2+ concentration should be decreased

(c)   Cl concentration should be increased

(d)   partial pressure of Cl2 should be decreased

105. In a reversible process, if the changes in entropy of the system and its surroundings are ∆S1 and ∆S2 respectively then

(a)   ∆S1 + ∆S2 > 0

(b)   ∆S1 + ∆S2 > 0

(c)   ∆S1 + ∆S2 = 0

(d)   ∆S1 + ∆S2 ≥ 0

106. Which of the following statements is NOT true for hydrolysis of XeF6?

(a)   XeOF4 is formed

(b)   XeO2F2 is formed

(c)   It is a redox reaction

(d)   XeO3 is formed

107. Which of the following will NOT affect the value of the equilibrium constant of a reaction?

(a)   Change in the concentration of the reactants

(b)   Change in temperature

(d)   All of these

108. The IUPAC name of

is

(a)   2-methyl-3-bromohexanal

(b)   2-methyl-3-bromobutanal

(c)   3-bromo-2-methylbutanal

(d)   3-bromo-2-methylpentanal

109. An electrochemical cell has two half cell reactions as,

A2+ + 2e → A       E° = 0.34 V

X → X2 + 2e        E° = 2.37 V

The cell voltage will be

(a)   2.71 V

(b)   2.03 V

(c)   −2.71 V

(d)   −2.03 V

110. The electronic configuration of gadolinium (At No. 64) is

(a)   [Xe]4f85d06s2

(b)   [Xe]4f75d16s2

(c)   [Xe]4f35d56s2

(d)   [Xe]4f65d26s2

111. The compound which is used to extinguish fire caused by combustion of alkali metals is

(a)   CCl4

(b)   Sand

(c)   Water

(d)   Kerosene

112. In the following reaction

The product ‘P’ is :

(a)   RCHO

(b)   R2CHOEt

(c)   R3CH

(d)   RCH(OEt)2

113. A crystal lattice with alternate +ve and –ve ions has radius ratio 0.524. Its co-ordination number is

(a)   4

(b)   3

(c)   6

(d)   12

114. Which of the following alkenes would have the largest Imax­?

115. At 25°C and 730 mm pressure, 380 ml of dry oxygen was collected. If the temperature is constant what volume will the oxygen occupying at 760 mm pressure?

(a)   569 ml

(b)   365 ml

(c)   265 ml

(d)   621 ml

116. Number of atoms of oxygen present in 10.6 g Na2CO3 will be

(a)   6.02 × 1022

(b)   12.04 × 1022

(c)   1.806 × 1023

(d)   31.80 × 1028

117. In strong acidic and alkaline medium, p-amonophenol exists in (X) an d(Y) forms respectively

Thus, in acidic and alkaline medium, electrophilic substitution occurs at

(a)   a, c

(b)   a, d

(c)   b, c

(d)   b, d

118. When glycerol is heated with KHSO4 it gives

(a)   CH2 = CH – CH3

(b)   CH2 = CH – CH2OH

(c)   CH2 = CH – CHO

(d)   CH2 = C = CH2

119. The phenomenon of optical activity will be shown by

120. Which of the following would NOT be reasonable nucleophile in SN2 reaction?

(a)   NH3

(b)   NC

(c)   H2O

(d)   HO

121. Exothermic reaction among the following is

(a)   combustion of N2 from NO

(b)   decomposition of H2O

(c)   conversion of diamond to graphite

(d)   dehydrogenation of ethane to ethane

122. Isoprene is the monomeric unit of which of the following polymers?

(a)   Dacron

(b)   Natural rubber

(c)   Bakelite

(d)   Polyvinyl chloride

123. A mixture containing N2 and H­2 in a mole ratio 1 : 3 is allowed to attain equilibrium when 50% of the mixture has reacted. If P is the pressure a equilibrium, then the partial pressure of NH3 formed is

(a)   P/2

(b)   P/3

(c)   P/5

(d)   P/9

124. Two aromatic compounds having formula C7H8O which easily identifiable by FeCl3 solution test (violet coloration) are

(a)   0-cresol and benzyl alcohol

(b)   m-cresol and p-cresol

(c)   o-cresol and p-cersol

(d)   methyl phenyl ether and benzyl alcohol

125. Which graph will show equilibrium condition ?

126. Calculate the standard heat of reaction for Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Zn+2(aq) + Cu(s)

(a)   −217 KJ/mole

(b)   +217 KJ/mole

(c)   −88 KJ/mole

(d)   +88 KJ/mole

127. The reaction of CH3CH = CH2 with HOCL will yield.

(a)   2-chloro-1-propanol

(b)   3-chloro-2-propanol

(c)   1-chloro-2-propanol

(d)   1-chloro-1-propanol

128. Out of the following compounds, which one would have a zero dipole moment?

(a)   1, 1-Dichloroethylene

(b)   cis-1, 2-Dichloroethylene

(c)   tans-1, 2-Dichloroethylene

(d)   None of these compounds

129. At 250°C, the correct order of molar ionic conductances of the ions H+, Li+, Na+ and K+ in infinite dilute aqueous solution is

(a)   H+ < Li+ < Na+ < K+

(b)   K+ < Na+ < Li+ < H+

(c)   Li+ < Na+ < K+ < H+

(d)   Li+ < K+ < H+ < Na+

130. Which one of the following is an example of homogeneous catalysis?

(a)   Manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process

(b)   Manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process

(c)   Hydrogenation of oil

(d)   Hydrolysis of sucrose in presence of dilute hydrochloric acid

131. When one coulomb’ of electricity is passed through an electrolytic solution, the mass deposited on the electrode is equal to

(a)   equivalent weight

(b)   molecular weight

(c)   electrochemical equivalent

(d)   one gram

132. Which of the following compound shows optical isomerism?

(a)   [Cu(NH3)4]2+

(b)   [ZnCl4]2

(c)   [Cr(C2O4)2]3

(d)   None

MATHEMATICS

133. The sum of the series  is

134. The equation (cop-1) x2 + (cos p) x + sin p = 0, where x is a variable, has real roots the p lies in

(a)   (0, 2π)

(b)   (−π, 0)

(c)   (−π/2, π/2)

(d)   (0, π)

135. What is the value of

(a)   0

(b)   1/6

(c)   1/3

(d)   1

136. Let A = {a, b, c, d} and f : A → A be defined by, f(a) = d, f(b) = a, f(d) = c. State which of the following is equal to f(b)?

(a)   {a}

(b)   {b}

(c)   {c}

(d)   {d}

137. If  then

(a)   Re(z) = 0

(b)   lm(z) = 0

(c)   Re(z) > 0, lm(z) < 0

(d)   Re(z) < 0, lm(z) > 0

138. The value of  is

(a)   π

(b)   π/6

(c)   π/3

(d)   π/4

139. Area of the greatest rectangle that can be inscribed in an ellipse  is

(a)   2ba

(b)   ab

(c)   √ab

(d)   a/b

140. If the three points (3q, 0), (0, 3p) and (1, 1) are collinear, then which one is TURE?

141. If the position vector  of the point (5, n) is such that  then what is the value of n?

(a)   ±12

(b)   0

(c)   ±1

(d)   4

142. Let A be a square matrix of order 3 × 3, then |KA| is equal to

(a)   K|A|

(b)   K2|A|

(c)   K3|A|

(d)   3K|A|

143. If the coefficients of x7 and x8 in  are equal, then value of n is

(a)   56

(b)   55

(c)   47

(d)   19

144. Let  satisfied A2 + aA + bI = 0, then a, b are respectively equal to

(a)   −4, 2

(b)   −3, 3

(c)   −4, 1

(d)   −3, 1

145. If the angle θ between the line  and the plane 2x – y + √λx + 4 = 0, is such that θ = 1/3, then the value of λ is

(a)   5/3

(b)   −3/5

(c)   3/4

(d)   −4/3

146. The derivative of  is

(a)   1/8

(b)   1/4

(c)   1/2

(d)   1

147. Which of the following is ODD function?

148. The smallest positive integer n for which  holds is

(a)   1

(b)   2

(c)   3

(d)   4

149. If  then f(x) is equal to

150. The equations of perpendicular bisectors of the sides AB and AC of a triangle ABC are x – y + 5 = 0 and equation of the line BC is

(a)   23x + 14y – 40 = 0

(b)   23x + 14y + 40 = 0

(c)   14x + 23y – 40 = 0

(d)   14x + 23y + 40 = 0

151. If x + |y| = 2y, then y as a function of x is

(a)   defined for all real x

(b)   continuous at x = 0

(c)   such that  for x < 0

(d)   All of these

152. Value of  is

153. Consider the matrices X4×3, y4×3 and P2×3. The order of [P(XTY)1PT]T will be

(a)   (2 × 2)

(b)   (3 × 3)

(c)   (4 × 3)

(d)   (3 × 4)

154. The sum of the series  is equal to

(a)   2 loge2

(b)   loge2 – 1

(c)   loge2

(d)   loge(4/e)

155. Three positive numbers form an increasing GP. If the middle term in this GP, is tripled, the new numbers are in A.P. Then the common ratio of GP, is

(a)   3 + 2√2

(b)   2√2 – 3

(c)   2 + 2√3

(d)   2√2 + √3

156. The least value of n so that y n = yn+1 where y = x2 + ex is

(a)   4

(b)   3

(c)   5

(d)   2

157. If  lies on

(a)   an ellipse

(b)   a circle

(c)   a straight line

(d)   a parabola

158. If the function f(x) satisfy  is

(a)   1

(b)   2

(c)   3

(d)   π

159. The value of tan 75° − cot 75° = ?

(a)   2√3

(b)   2 + √3

(c)   2 – √3

(d)   1

160. The equation of the perpendicular bisector of the line joining the points A(2, 3) and B(6, −9) is

(a)   x + 2y – 6 = 0

(b)   x – 2y – 6 = 0

(c)   x + 2y + 6 = 0

(d)   x – 2y + 6 = 0

161. If x = k(t – sin t), y = k( 1 – cos t) (k ≠ 0) then  is equal to

(a)   −1/k

(b)   1/2k

(c)   1/k2

(d)   2k

162. The unit vector which is orthogonal to the vector 5i + 2j + 6k and is coplanar with the vectors 2i + j + k and i – j + k is

163. The value of  is

(a)   0

(b)   π

(c)   π/2

(d)   π/4

164. ∫cos3 xelog(sin x) dx =

165. Which of the following is NOT correct?

(a)   A – (B ∪ C) = (A – B) ∩ (A – C)

(b)   A ∪ (B – C) = (A ∪ B) – (A ∪ C)

(c)   A × (B – C) = (A × B) – (A × C)

(d)   None of these

166. The slope of the tangent to the ellipse  at the point (a cos θ, b sin θ) is

167. Two flag staffs stand on a horizontal plane. A and B are two points on the line joining their feet and between them. The angles of elevation of the tops of the flag staffs a seen from A are 30° and 60° and as seen from B are 60° and 45°. If AB is 30 m, the distance between the flag staffs in meters is

(a)   30 + 15√3

(b)   45 + 15√3

(c)   60 – 15√3

(d)   60 + 15√3

168. If n is a positive integer greater than unity and z is a complex number satisfying the equation zn = (z + 1)n, then

(a)   lm(z) < 0

(b)   Im(z) > 0

(c)   lm(z) = 0

(d)   None of these

169. The domain of definition of the function y(x) as given by the equation 2x + 2y = 2 is

(a)   0 < x ≤ 1

(b)   0 ≤ x ≤ 1

(c)   −∝ < x ≤ 1

(d)   −∝ < x < 1

170. is

(a)   π

(b)   −2π

(c)   −π

(d)   2π

171. The distance between the lines y = mx + c1, and y = mx + c2 is

172. One focus of hyperbola is at (0, 4) and the length of its transverse axis is 6. The equation of the hyperbola is

173. The integral  is equal to

174. equals

(a)   1 + √5

(b)   −1 + √5

(c)   −1 + √2

(d)   1 + √2

175. If A and B are two events such that P(A) > 0 and P(B) ≠ 1 then  is equal to

176. If tan pθ + cos qθ = 0, then the general value of θ is

177. The general solution of the differential equation  is

(a)   x – cy + 5 = 0

(b)

(c)

(d)   None of these

178. The mean and the variance of a binomial distribution are 4 and 2 respectively. Then the probability of 2 successes is

(a)   37/256

(b)   219/256

(c)   128/256

(d)   28/256

179. A ray of light passing through the point (3, 7) reflects on the X-axis at a point A and the reflected ray passes through the point (2, 5), the coordinates of A are

(a)   (29/10, 0)

(b)   (1/2, 0)

(c)   (−1/2, 0)

(d)   (−29/10, 0)

180. Let

Then the real roots of the equation x2 – f(x) = 0 are

(a)   ±1

(b)   ±1/√2

(c)   ±1/2

(d)   0 and 1

181. The complex number sin x + icos 2x and cos x – isin 2x are conjugate to each other for

(a)   x = πn

(b)   x = 0

(c)

(d)   no value of x

182. The range of the function  is

(a)   [1/5, 1]

(b)   [1/3, 1/3]

(c)   [1/3, 1]

(d)   [1/5, 1/3]

183. The value of in + in+1 + in+2 + in+3 (where i = √−1, n ≥ 1) is

(a)   1

(b)   −1

(c)   0

(d)   None of these

184. The lines  and

(a)   coincident

(b)   skew

(c)   intersecting

(d)   parallel

185. Cosine of the angle between the lines whose vector equations are

r = 3i + 2j – 4k + λ(i + 2j + 2k) and

r = 5i – 2k + μ(3i + 2j + 6k) : λ, μ being parameters, is

(a)   −1/3√29

(b)   3/7√29

(c)   23/29

(d)   29/21

186. The value of  is ([x] is the greatest integer function)

187. If A = sin2θ + cos4θ, then for all real value at θ.

188. The value of (tan 70° − tan 50° + tan 10°) is

(a)   2

(b)   √3

(c)   1

(d)   √3/2

189. If X is a tautology and Y is any other formula, then (X V Y) is a

(a)   Tautology

(c)   Well-formed formula

(d)   None of these

190. If the roots of the quadratic equation x2 + px + q = 0 are tan 30° and tan 15° respectively, then the value of 2 + q – p is

(a)   0

(b)   1

(c)   3

(d)   2

191. n ∈ N then n(n + 1) (n + 2) and n(n + 1) (n + 5) both are divisible by:

(a)   5, 4, 2

(b)   2, 3, 6

(c)   3, 4, 5

(d)   5, 3, 2

192. If  then at x = 0

(a)   f(x) has no limit

(b)   f(x) is discontinuous

(c)   f(x) is continuous but not differentiable

(d)   f(x) is  differentiable

193. For real value of x, the function  will assume all real values provided

(a)   a > b > c

(b)   b > a > c

(c)   a > c > b

(d)   None of these

194. If S1, S2 and S3 denote the sum of first n1, n2, n3 terms of an A.P. respectively, then the value of  is

(a)   S1 + S2 + S3

(b)   2(S1 + S2 + S3)

(c)   (n1 + n2 + n3) (S1 + S2 + S3)

(d)   0

195. The order and degree of the differential equation  are

(a)   4, 2

(b)   1, 4

(c)   2, 4

(d)   1, 2

196. If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 ≤ n ≤ 5}, then the number of subsets of A is

(a)   16

(b)   15

(c)   4

(d)   None

197. If y = cosec(cot1 x) then  at x = 1 is equal to

(a)   1/√2

(b)   1

(c)   −√2

(d)   −1/√2

198. The solution of the equation (2x + y + 1)dx + (4x + 2y – 1) dy = 0 is

(a)   log|2x + y – 1| = C + x + y

(b)   log(4x + 2y – 1) = C + 2x + y

(c)   log(2x + y + 1) + x + 2y = C

(d)   log|2x + y + 1| + x + 2y = C

199. The value of

(a)   zero

(b)   1/4

(c)   1/5

(d)   1/30

200. The sin θ of the angle between the straight line  and the plane 2x – 2y + z = 5 is

(a)   2√3/5

(b)   √2/10

(c)   4/5√2

(d)   10/6√5

BIOLOGY

133. Hb value for a healthy adult male is

(a)   100 g/100 ml

(b)   11 g/100 ml

(c)   12 g/100 ml

(d)   14-15 g/100 ml

134. Which of the following relations is correct

(a)   Ψw = Ψs – Ψp

(b)   Ψw = Ψm + Ψs

(c)   Ψw = Ψs + Ψp

(d)   Ψw = Ψm – Ψs + Ψp

135. The greatest threat to genetic diversity in agricultural crops is

(a)   extensive mixed cropping

(b)   introduction of high  yielding varieties

(c)   extensive use of fertilizers

(d)   extensive use of insecticides and pesticides

136. The functions of the collaterial gland in cockroach is to

(a)   store eggs

(b)   store sperms

(c)   keep vagina moist

(d)   secretate the egg case

137. Find the sequence of binding of the following amine acyl t = RNa complexes during translation to a m-RNA transcribed by a DNA segment having the base sequence ‘3TACATGGGTCCG5’. Choose the answer showing the correct order of numerals.

(i) AUG               (ii) UAC

(iii) CCG              (iv) GGU

(a)   (ii), (i), iv), (iii)

(b)   (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

(c)   (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)

(d)   (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

138. Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from

(a)   effector organs to CNS

(b)   receptors to CNS

(c)   CNS to receptors

(d)   CNS to muscles

139. Which hormones are essential for induced breeding of fishes?

(a)   TSH and ACTH

(b)   Ostrogen and Progesterone

(c)   FSH and LH

(d)   Vasopressin

140. Assertion : A widely used diagnostic test for AIDs is enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).

Reason : “Western blotting test is employed for confirmation of ELIZS negative cases.

(a)   Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

(b)   Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

(c)   Assertion is true but reason is false

(d)   Both assertion and reason are false

141. Hair, nails, hoots and horns are formed with the help of protein, known as

(a)   Keratin

(b)   Globulin

(c)   Chitin

(d)   Histone

142. Which of the following hormones causes reabsorption of Na+ and excretion of K+, H+ and H2O?

(a)   LH

(b)   FSH

(c)   TSH

(d)   Aldosterone

143. Column-I is the part of human brain and Column-II is its function. Match the two columns.

(a)   (a) – (s), (b) – (t), (c) – (p), (d) – (q)

(b)   (a) – (t), (b) – (s), (c) – (q), (d) – (p)

(c)   (a) – (s), (b) – (t), (c) – (q), (d) – (p)

(d)   (a) – (t), (b) – (s), (c) – (p), (d) – (r)

144. Farmers have reported over 50% higher yields of rice by using which of the following biofertilizer?

(a)   Mycorrhiza

(b)   Azollapinnata

(c)   Cyanobacteria

(d)   Legume-Rhizobium symbiosis

145. Km value of enzyme is substrate concentration at

(a)   1/2 Vmax

(b)   2 Vmax

(c)   1/4 Vmax

(d)   4 Vmax

146. Which of the following combination represents the vector of cloniq capacity of DNA from smaller to bigger?

(a)   BAC, YAC, Plasmid, Cosmid

(b)   Plasmid, BAC, YAC, Cosmid

(c)   YAC, Plasmid, BAC, Cosmid

(d)   Plasmid, Cosmid, BAC, YAC

147. When a fresh water protozoan is placed in marine water

(a)   the contractile vacuole disappears

(b)   the contractile vacuole increases in size

(c)   a number of contractile vacuoles appear

(d)   the contractile vacuole remains unchanged

148. represents

(a)   Natality

(b)   Growth rate

(c)   Mortality

(d)   All of these

149. Antibiotics inhibit the growth of or destroy

(a)   bacteria and fungi

(b)   bacteria and viruses

(c)   bacteria, algae and viruses

(d)   bacteria, fungi and viruses

150. Total number of bones in the hind limb of man is

(a)   14

(b)   30

(c)   24

(d)   21

151. Name of the following having oxygen storage capacity.

(a)   Myoglobin

(b)   Prophase II

(c)   Anaphase I

(d)   Metaphase II

152. Given below is the ECG of a normal human, which one of its components is correctly interpreted below?

(a)   Complex QRS-one complete pulse

(b)   Peak T-initiation of total cardiac concentration

(c)   Peak P and Peak R together systolic and diastolic blood pressure

(d)   Peak P-initiation of left atrial contraction only

153. Which of the following is the correct pathway for propagation of cardiac impulse?

(a)   SA node – AV node – Bundle of His – Purkinje fibers

(b)   AV node – Bundle of His – SA node – Purkinje fibers

(c)   SA node – Purkinje fibers – AV node – Bundle of His

(d)   Purkinje fibers – AV node – SA node – Bundle of His

154. Diploid chromosome number being 8, what shall be the number of chromatids in each daughter after Meiosis-I?

(a)   2

(b)   4

(c)   8

(d)   16

155. Cellulose, the most important constituent of plant cell wall is made of

(a)   Unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by β-1, 4-glycosidic

(b)   Branched chain of glucose molecules linked by a α-1, 6-glycosidic bond at the site of branching

(c)   Unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by α-1, 4-glycosidic bond

(d)   Branched chain of glucose molecules linked by β-1, 4-glycosidic bond in straight chain and α-1, 6-glycosidic bond at the site of branching

156. Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?

(a)   Hashish causes alter thought perceptions and Hallucinations

(b)   Opium stimulates nervous system and causes Hallucinations

(c)   Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed

(d)   barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary Euphoria

157. Ornithophily refers to the pollination by which of the following?

(a)   Snails

(b)   Birds

(c)   Insects

(d)   Air

158. Consider the given diagram and identify the lebels A, B, C, D and E.

Choose the correct option identifying the lebels.

(a)   A-illium, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis

(b)   A-Stapes, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-Ischium, E-Pubis

(c)   A-Incus, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-Ischium, E-Pubis

(d)   A-Coccyx, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-Ischium, E-Pubis

159. Which one of the following reactions is an example of oxidative decarboxylation?

(a)   Conversion of succinate to fumerate

(b)   Conversion of fumerate to malate

(c)   Conversion of private to acetyl CoA

(d)   Conversion of citrate to isocitrate

160. Most primitive number in which roots are NOT present in

(a)   Rhynia

(b)   Psilotum

(c)   Lycopidium

(d)   Selaginella

161. Miller synthesized simple amino acids from one of the following mixtures in an experiment.

(a)   H2, O2, N2 (1 : 2 : 1) and water vapour

(b)   H2, O2, N2 (2 : 1 : 2) and water vapour

(c)   CH4, NH2, H2 (2 : 1 : 2) and water vapour

(d)   CH4, NH3, H2 (1 : 2 : 1) and water vapour

162. Which is employed for artificial ripening of banana fruits?

(a)   Auxin

(b)   Cumarin

(c)   Ethylene

(d)   Cytokinin

163. Balbiani rings occur in

(a)   Autosome

(b)   Hetersome

(c)   Lampbrush chromosome

(d)   Polytene chromosome

164. In haemoglobin, which amino acids acts as a blood buffer?

(a)   Histidine

(b)   Glutamine

(c)   Aspartic acid

(d)   Lysine

165. By the statement ‘survival of the fittest’, Darwin meant that

(a)   the strongest of all species survives

(b)   the most intelligent of the species survives

(c)   the cleverest of the species survives

(d)   the most adaptable of the species to changes survives

166. Genetic drift operates in …. population

(a)   small

(b)   large

(c)   island

(d)   mendelian

167. What is TRUE about haemoglobin?

(a)   It is a dipeptide and present in red blood corpuscles in  blood worm

(b)   It is present in the dissolved state in blood plasma in earth worm

(c)   It is a dipeptide in mammals and localized in RBC

(d)   It is present in dissolved state in blood plasma in Scorpion

168. Iris is part of

(a)   sclerotic

(b)   choroid/uvula

(c)   choroid and retina

(d)   sclerotic and choroid

169. In man which organisms cause abscesses on the skin of arms or legs?

(a)   Abcaris

(b)   Bacteria

(c)   Suinea worm

(d)   Ring worm

170. In the pedigree shown in the figure, individuals with the solid symbols suffer from a genetic disease caused by a recessive allele at an autosomal locus. You would counsel the couple marked A and B, that the probability that each of their children will have the disease is

(a)   0%

(b)   25%

(c)   50%

(d)   75%

171. Angiosperms differ from gymnosperms

(a)   being ever green

(b)   being smaller size

(c)   having compounds leaves

(d)   having ovules enclosed in ovary

172. A common bio control agent for the control of plant diseases is

(a)   Bacillus

(b)   Trichoderma

(c)   baculovirus

(d)   Glomus

173. A person suffering from a disease caused by plasmodium experiences recurring chill and fever at the time when

(a)   the sporozoites released from RBCs are being rapidly killed and broken down inside spleen

(b)   the trophozoites reach maximum growth and give out certain toxins

(c)   the parasite after its rapid multiplication inside RBCs ruptures them, releasing the stage to enter fresh RBCs

(d)   The microgametocytes and megagametocytes are being destroyed by the WBCs

174. One of the following is the correct sequence to make a Transgenic animals.

(a)   Transomics – Transfection Micro infection Electro portion -Retroviral vectors

(b)   Micro injection Transfection Electro portion

(c)   Retroviral vectors Transomics Transfection – Micro injection – Transomics Electroportion – Retroviral vectors

(d)   None of these

175. Which of the following cellular structure always disappear during mitosis and metosis?

(a)   Plasma membrane

(b)   Nucleolus and nuclear envelope

(c)   Plastids

(d)   None of these

176. During prolonged fastings, in what sequence are the following organic compounds used up by the body?

(a)   First carbohydrates, next fats and lastly proteins

(b)   First fats, next carbohydrates and lastly proteins

(c)   First carbohydrates, next proteins and lastly carbohydrates

(d)   First proteins, next lipid and lastly carbohydrates

177. Cosmopolites stordidus is the pest of

(a)   sugarcane

(b)   jowar

(c)   banana

(d)   cotton

178. The correct sequence of arrangement of segments in the leg of cockroach is

(a)   Coxa, Femur, Trochanter, Tibia, Tarsus

(b)   Coxa, Trochanter, Femur, Tibia, Tarsus

(c)   Trochanter, Coxas, Tibia, Femur, Tarsus

(d)   Trochanter, Coxas, Femur, Tibia, Tarsus

179. Suppression of reproduction of one type of organism by utilizing some features of its biology or physiology to destroy it or by use of another organism is known as

(a)   Competition

(b)   Predation

(c)   Biological control

(d)   Physiological control

180. Which one is bacteria fertilizer?

(a)   Anabaena

(b)   Nostoe

(c)   Rhizobium

(d)   Phycomyces

181. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATP ase activity is

(a)   troponin

(b)   tropomyosin

(c)   myosin

(d)   a-actinin

182. In genetic code, 61 codons code for 20 different types of amino acids. This is called

(a)   Colinearity

(b)   commaless

(c)   degeneracy

(d)   non-ambiguity

183. Down’s syndrome is a typical case of

(a)   Nullisomy

(b)   Monosomy

(c)   Gene mutation

(d)   Trisomy

184. C4 plants have higher net photosynthetic rate because

(a)   they have no photorespiration

(b)   they can photosynthesize in low light intensity

(c)   they have PEP as CO2 acceptor

(d)   they have Kranz type of anatomy

185. In general, in the developmental history of a mammalian heart, it is observed that it passes through a two-chambered fish like heart, three-chambered frog like hear and finally to four-chambered stage. To which hypothesis can this above cited statement by approximated?

(a)   Hardy-Weinberg law

(b)   Lamarck’s principle

(c)   Biogenetic law

(d)   Mendelian principles

186. The non-sister chromatids twist around and exchange segments with each other during

(a)   Leptotene

(b)   Diakinesis

(c)   Diplotene

(d)   Pachytene

187. Proton gradient is very important across the membrane because

(a)   building up of protein gradient release energy

(b)   building up of proton gradient increase the pH towards human side of thylakoid membrane

(c)   breakdown of proton gradient release CO2

(d)   breakdown of proton gradient release energy

188. What is a genophore?

(a)   DNA in prokaryotes

(b)   DNA and RNA in prokaryotes

(c)   DNA and protein in prokaryotes

(d)   RNA in prokaryotes

189. The intermediate between Glycolysis and TCA cycle is

(a)   Oxaloacetate

(b)   Glucose-1-6 diphosphate

(c)   Pyruvic acid

(d)   Acetyl Co-A

190. How many ova and sperms will be produced from 100 secondary oocytes and 100 secondary spermatocytes during gametogenesis in man?

(a)   50 ova, 100 sperms

(b)   100 ova, 100 sperms

(c)   200 ova 200 sperms

(d)   100 ova, 200 sperms

191. Removal of apical bud results in

(a)   formation of new apical bud

(b)   elongation of main stem

(c)   death of plant

(d)   formation of lateral branching

192. How much frequency of ultrasound, can be beamed in human body for sonography?

(a)   15-30 MHz

(b)   30-45 MHz

(c)   45-70 MHz

(d)   1-15 MHz

193. If for some reason our goblet cells are non-functional, this will adversely affect

(a)   production of somatostatin

(b)   secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands

(c)   maturation of sperms

(d)   stop movement of foods down the intestine

194. Which group is meant for Endemic species of birds?

(a)   Nilgiri pipit, Rofous babler, Lesser-Florican

(b)   Lesser-Florican, Nilgiri wood pigeon, Malabar parakeet

(c)   Malabar parakeet, Niligiri pipit, Rofous babbler

(d)   Flycatcher, Jungle babbler, Nilgiri pipit

195. Genital warts STD is a viral disease and is caused by

(a)   Trichomonas vaginalis

(b)   Treponema pallidum

(c)   Human papiloma virus

(d)   Chamydia treachomatis

196. Match the following

I-Helophytes, II-Psammophytes

III-Oxylophytes, IV-Chasmophytes

A-Saline soil, B-Sandy soil,

C-Rockcrevices, D-Acidic soil

(a)   I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C

(b)   I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-C

(c)   I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D

(d)   I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A

197. Darwin’s finches provide an excellent evidence in Favour of evolution. This evidence comes from the field of

(a)   Biogeography

(b)   Anatomy

(c)   Embryology

(d)   Paleontology

198. In an ecosystem Biotic factors affect the survival of an organism in that ecosystem. They include

(a)   competition for water

(b)   competition for shelter

(c)   co-operation to help find food

(d)   All of these

199. The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small bronchi are known as

(a)   squamous epithelium

(b)   columnar epithelium

(c)   ciliated epithelium

(d)   cubical epithelium

200. Gametophyte is the dominant phase in the lifecycle of

(a)   Hibiscus

(b)   Nephrolepis

(c)   Cycas

(d)   Funaria

## OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2020 With Answer Key

 Go to all OUAT Previous Year Question Papers 2022, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012,2011, 2010, 2009, 2008, 2007

OUAT Previous Question Paper-2020

PHYSICS

(Questions 1-66)

1. A particle is moving on a straight line path with constant acceleration directed along the directions of instantaneous velocity. Which of the following statements are FALSE about the motion of particle?

(A)  Particle may reverse the direction of motion.

(B)  Distance covered is not equal magnitude of displacement.

(C)  The magnitude of average velocity is less than average speed.

(D)  All of these

2. In photoelectric effect, work function of material is 3.5 eV. By applying −2 V potential, photoelectric current becomes zero, so

(A)  Energy of incident photon is 4.74 eV.

(B)  Energy of incident photon is 2.3 eV.

(C)  If photon having higher frequency is used, photoelectric current is produced.

(D)  When energy of photon is 2.3 eV, photoelectric current becomes maximum.

3. A conducting ring is placed around the core of an electromagnet as shown in figure. When ket K is pressed, the ring

(A)  remains stationary

(B)  is attracted towards the electromagnet

(C)  jumps out the core

(D)  None of these

4. The height of the building is 50 ft. The same in millimeter is

(A)  560 mm

(B)  285 mm

(C)  1786.8 mm

(D)  15240 mm

5. In the following diagrams, all the charges have equal magnitude. Electric field is zero at the centre of

6. If 20 V battery is connected to primary coil of a transformer, then output voltage is

(A)  zero

(B)  20V

(C)  10 V

(D)  None of these

7. Mean kinetic energy per gm. Molecule of a gas is given by

(A)

(B)  kT

(C)

(D)

8. A hollow sphere is filled with water. There is a hole at the bottom of this sphere. This sphere is suspended with a string from a rigid support and given an oscillation. During oscillation, the hole is opened up and the periodic time of this oscillating system is measured. The periodic time of the system.

(A)  will remain constant.

(B)  will increase upto a certain time.

(C)  increases initially and then decreases to attain its initial periodic time.

(D)  initially decreases and then will attain the initial periodic time value.

9. The amount of heat generated in 500 Ω resistance, when the key is thrown over from constant 1 to 2, as shown in figure is

(A)  40 × 103 J

(B)  50 × 103 J

(C)  60 × 103 J

(D)  30 × 103 J

10. In the given figure, the convex lens is cut into two pieces and displace along the axes for small distance. The shape of fringe formed on the screen is

(A)  elliptical

(B)  hyperbolic

(C)  circular

(D)  None of these

11. Two point charges A and B of same charge having magnitude of momenta p1 and p2 respectively and having same charge are moving in a plane containing uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the plane. Then (Trajectories as shown in figure).

(A)  p1 = p2

(B)  p1 > p2

(C)  p1 < p2

(D)  None of these

12. carrier wave is modulated by n number of sine wave with modulation indices μ1, μ2 , μ3 ……. The total modulation index (μ) of the wave is

(A)  μ1 + μ2 + μ3 +……

(B)

(C)

(D)

13. Which of the following quantities is NOT dimensionless?

(A)  Reynold’s number

(B)  Strain

(C)  Angle

14. Which one of the following diagrams correctly represents the energy levels in the p-type semi-conductor?

15. A wire of cross-section 4 mm2 is stretched by 0.1 mm by a certain weight. How far (length) will be wire of same material and length but of area 8 mm2 stretched under the action of same force.

(A)  0.05 mm

(B)  0.10 mm

(C)  0.15 mm

(D)  0.20 mm

16. An iron rod is subjected to cycles of magnetization at the rate of 50 Hz. Given the density of the rod is 8 × 103 kg/m3 and specific heat is 0.11 × 103 cal/Kg° The rise in temperature per minute, if the area inclosed by the B-H loop corresponds to energy of 10−2 J, is [Assume there is not radiation losses]

(A)  78°C

(B)  88°C

(C)  8.1°C

(D)  None of these

17. Which one of the following is the correct graph between energy and wavelength for given photon?

18. A coil of wire of radius R has 200 turns and a self-inductance of 108 mH. The self-inductance of a similar coil of 500 turns will be

(A)  375 mH

(B)  527 mH

(C)  675 mH

(D)  None of these

19. de-Broglie wavelength of atom at T k absolute temperature will be

(A)  h/mkT

(B)  h/√3mkT

(C)  √2mkT/h

(D)  √2mkT

20. A glass ball is dropped from height 10m. If there is 20% loss of energy due to impact, then after one impact, the ball will go upto

(A)  2 m

(B)  4 m

(C)  6 m

(D)  8 m

21. The breaking stress of wire of length 1 and radius is 5 kgwtm2. The length and radius of wire are doubled, the breaking stress in kgwtm2 is

(A)  5

(B)  10

(C)  20

(D)  80

22. Mark correct option:

(A)  The root mean square speeds of the molecules of different ideal gases, maintained at the same temperature are the same.

(B)  Electrons in a conductor have no motion in the absence of a potential difference across it.

(C)  One mole of a monoatomic ideal gas is mixed with one mole of a diatomic ideal gas. The molar specific heat of the mixture at constant volume is 2R.

(D)  The pressure exerted by an enclosed ideal gas depends on the shape of t he container.

23. The current is resistance R at resonance is

(A)  zero

(B)  minimum but finite

(C)  maximum but finite

(D)  infinite

24. In Young’s double slits experiment, the length of band is 1 mm. The fringe width is 0.021 mm. The number of fringes is

(A)  45

(B)  46

(C)  47

(D)  48

25. A block is released from top of a smooth inclined plane. It reaches the bottom of the plane is 6 sec. The time taken by the body to cover the first half of the inclined plane is

(A)  3 sec

(B)  4 sec

(C)  3√2 sec

(D)  5 sec

26. Hailstone at 0°C falls from a height of 1 km on an insulating surface converting whole of its kinetic energy into heat. What part of it will melt ? (g = 10 m/s2)

(A)  1/33

(B)  1/8

(C)  1/33 × 104

(D)  All of it will melt

27. Deuterium atoms in the ground state are radiated by photons of energy 12.8 eV. What will be the energy of induced radiation of longest wavelength? Ionisation energy of deuterium is 14.4 eV.

(A)  12.8 eV

(B)  10.8 eV

(C)  1.6 eV

(D)  2.0 eV

28. If both the length of an antenna and the wave length of the signal to be transmitted are doubled, the power radiated by the antenna

(A)  is doubled

(B)  is halved

(C)  increases 16 times

(D)  remains constant

29. A particle of mass 100g tied to a string is rotated along a circle of radius 0.5 m. The breaking rension of string is 10 N. The maximum speed with which particle can be rotated without breaking the string is

(A)  10 m/s

(B)  9.8 m/s

(C)  7.7 m/s

(D)  7.07 m/s

30. A particular nucleus in a large population of identical radioactive nuclei survives 10 half lives of that isotope. The probability that this surviving nucleus will survive the next half-life is

(A)  1/10

(B)  2/5

(C)  1/2

(D)  1/210

30. A 50 mH coil carries a current of 2 amp, the energy stored in joule is

(A)  1

(B)  0.05

(C)  0.1

(D)  0.5

32. A gas expands under constant pressure P from volume V1 to V2, the work done by the gas is

(A)  P(V1 – V2)

(B)  Zero

(C)  P(V1 + V2)

(D)

33. One 10V, 60W bulb is to be connected to 100V line. The required self-inductance of inductance coil will be (f = 50 Hz)

(A)  0.052 H

(B)  2.42 H

(C)  16.2 H

(D)  16.2 mH

34. As shown in figure, a body having mass m is attached with two springs having spring constants k1 and k2. The frequency of oscillation is f. Now, if the springs constants of both the springs are increased 4 times, then the frequency of oscillation will be equal to

(A)  2f

(B)  f/2

(C)  f/4

(D)  4f

35. An isolated solid metallic sphere is given +Q charge. The charge will be distributed on the sphere

(A)  uniformly but only on surface.

(B)  only on surface but non-uniformly

(C)  uniformly inside the volume.

(D)  non-uniformly inside the volume

36. At constant volume temperature is increased then

(A)  collision walls will be less

(B)  collision frequency will increase

(C)  collision will be in straight line

(D)  collision will not change

37. Minimum excitation potential of Bohr’s first obrbit in hydrogen atom is

(A)  13.6 V

(B)  3.4 V

(C)  10.2 V

(D)  3.6 V

38. A battery of emf 1.2 V and internal resistance 0.5Ω is connected to resistance of 0.5 Ω the P.D. across the resistor is

(A)  1.2 volt

(B)  1.1 volt

(C)  1.05 volt

(D)  1 volt

39. As shown in figure, two masses of 3.0 k.g and 1.0 kg are attached at the two ends of a spring having force constant 300 Nm1. The natural frequency of oscillation for the system will be ______ hz. (Ignore friction)

(A)  1/4

(B)  1/3

(C)  4

(D)  3

40. A gas is taken in a sealed container at 300 K. It is heated at constant volume to a temperature 600 K. The mean K. E. of its molecules is

(A)  halved

(B)  doubled

(C)  tripled

(upled.0

41. A wire of diameter 1 mm breaks under a tension of 100N. Another wire of same materials as that of the first one, but of diameter 2 mm breaks under a tension of

(A)  500 N

(B)  1000 N

(C)  10,000 N

(D)  4000 N

42. If the total magnetic field due to the earth is 28 Am1 then the total magnetic induction due to the earth is

(A)  3.52 × 107 T

(B)  3.52 × 105 T

(C)  3.52 × 102 T

(D)  3.52 × 104 T

43. Kinetic energy of emitted ray is dependent on

(A)  voltage only

(B)  work function only

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  It does not depend upon physical quantity

44. How many photons are emitted by a laser source of 5 × 103 W operating at 632.2 nm in 2 second ? (ft = 6.63 × 1034 Js)

(A)  3.2 × 1016

(B)  1.6 × 1016

(C)  4. × 1016

(D)  None of these

45. In a tangent galvanometer, a current of 01 A produces a deflection of 30°. The current required to produce a deflection of 60°, is

(A)  0.2 A

(B)  0.3 A

(C)  0.4 A

(D)  0.5 A

46. When a rubber cord is stretched, the change in volume with respect to change in its linear dimension is negligible, the Poisson’s ratio for rubber is

(A)  1

(B)  0.25

(C)  0.5

(D)  0.75

47. Choose the correct order of the root mean square velocity (υrms), the average velocity (υav) and the most probable velocity (υmp).

(A)  υmp > υav > υrms

(B)  υrms > υav > υmp

(C)  υav > υmp > υrms

(D)  υmp > υrms > υav

48. A block of mass 100g slides on a rough horizontal surface. If the speed of the block decreases from 10 m/s to 5 m/s, the thermal energy developed in the process is

(A)  3.75 J

(B)  37.5 J

(C)  0.375 J

(D)  0.75 J

49. In order to obtain time constant of 10 second in an R-C circuit containing a resistance of 103 Ω, the capacity of the condenser should be

(A)  10 μF

(B)  100 μF

(C)  1000 μF

(D)  10000 μF

50. A conducting circular loop of radius r carries constant current i. It is placed in a uniform magnetic field B0 such that B0 is magnitude of magnetic field to a plane of the loop, the magnetic force acting on the loop is

(A)  irB0

(B)  2πirB0

(C)  πirB0

(D)  Zero

51. In the figure three identical springs are shown. From spring A, a mass of 4 kg is hung and spring shows elongation of 1 cm. But when a weight of 6 kg is hung on B, the Hook’s descends

(A)  1 cm

(B)  2 cm

(C)  3 cm

(D)  4 cm

52. A planet is moving in an elliptical orbit. If T, V, E and L are respectively the kinetic energy, potential energy, total energy and the magnitude of the angular momentum of the planet then the TRUE statement out of the following is

(A)  T is conserved

(B)  V is always positive

(C)  E is always negative

(D)  L is conserved but the direction vectr L continuously changes

53. In the given graph, adiabatic and isothermal curves are shown:

(A)  the curve A is isothermal

(B)  the curve B is isothermal

(C)  the curve A is adiabatic

(D)  Both (B) and (C) are correct

54. Light of wavelength λ is incident on a slit of width d and distance between screen and slit is D. Then width of maxima and width of slit will be equal, if D is

(A)  d2/ λ

(B)  2d/ λ

(C)  2d2/ λ

(D)  d2/ 2λ

55. The gravitational potential difference between the surface of a planet and a point 20 m above it is 16 J/kg. Then the work done in moving a 2kg mass by 8m on

(A)  11.1 J

(B)  5.55 J

(C)  16 J

(D)  27.7 J

56. A particle of mass m is attached to one end of a string of length l while the other end is fixed to point h above the horizontal table, the particle is made to revolve in a circle on the table, so as to make P revolutions per second. The maximum value of P if the particle is to be in contact with the table will be

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

57. The alpha and beta particles cause ionization because of

(A)  photoelectric emission

(B)  Compton collision

(C)  pair production

(D)  the electrostatic force

58. force of 0.5 is applied on upper block as shown in figure. The work done by lower block on upper block for displacement 3m of the upper block is

(Take g = 10 m/s2)

(A)  1 joule

(B)  −1 joule

(C)  2 joule

(D)  −2 joule

59. Figure shown a block of mass m kept on inclined plane with inclination θ. The tension in the string is

(A)  8 N

(B)  10 N

(C)  0.8 N

(D)  Zero

60. A train starts from station with an acceleration 1 m/s2. A boy who is 48 m behind the train with a constant velocity 10 m/s, the minimum time after which the boy will catch the train is

(A)  4.8 sec

(B)  8 sec

(C)  10 sec

(D)  12 sec

61. In an elastic string whose natural length is equal to that of a uniform rod by attached to the rod at both ends and suspended by the middle point

(A)  the rod will sink until the total work done is non-zero.

(B)  the rod will sink until the total work done is zero.

(C)  sinking of rod is not determined or the basis of work done.

(D)  sinking of rod is not possible.

62. A weight W is suspended from the midpoint of a rope, whose ends are at the same level. In order to make the rope perfectly horizontal, the force applied to each of its ends must be

(A)  less than W

(B)  equal to W

(C)  equal to 2W

(D)  infinitely large

63. The current gain of transistor is 100, if the base current changes by 10 μ What is the change in collector current?

(A)  0.2 mA

(B)  2 mA

(C)  1 mA

(D)  0.5 mA

64. Which of the following physical quantities has Neither dimensions Nor unit?

(A)  Angle

(B)  Luminous intensity

(C)  Coefficient of friction

(D)  Currents

65. Which of the following mode of propagation is used to send radio-waves from one place to another?

(A)  Space wave propagation

(B)  Sky wave propagation

(C)  Ground wave propagation

(D)  All of these

66. Six point charges are arranged at the vertices of a regular hexagon of side length a (shown in figure). The magnitude of electric field at the centre of regular hexagon is

(A)

(B)  Zero

(C)

(D)  None of these

CHEMISTRY

(Questions-67-132)

67. The half-life period of a first order reaction is 10 minutes. The time required for the concentration of the reactant to change from 0.08 M to 0.02 M is

(A)  10 min.

(B)  20 min.

(C)  30 min.

(D)  40 min.

68. Which bond is the smallest?

69. The distance between two electrodes of a cell is 2.5 cm and area of each electrode is 5 cm2. The cell constant is

(A)  2

(B)  12.5

(C)  7.5

(D)  0.5

70. The conversion of PbO into Pb(NO3)2 involves

(A)  oxidation

(B)  reduction

(C)  neither (A) nor (B)

(D)  both (A) and (B)

71. A 0.6% urea solution would be isotonic with

(A)  0.1 M glucose solution

(B)  0.1 MKCI solution

(C)  0.6% glucose solution

(D)  0.6% NaCl solution

72. The direct change from solid to gaseous state is referred to as

(A)  dissociation

(B)  decomposition

(C)  sublimation

(D)  deliquescence

73. The maximum number of molecules present in

(A)  15 bL of H2 gas at STP

(B)  5L of N2 gas at STP

(C)  0.5 g of H2 gas

(D)  10g of O2 gas

74. Which of the following statements is (are) WRONG?

(A)  If the value of 1 = 0, the electron distribution is spherical.

(B)  The shape of the orbital is given by magnetic quantum no.

(C)  Angular moment of 1s, 2s, 3s electrons are equal

(D)  In an atom, all electrons travel with the same velocity.

75. Chloroform

(A)  if exposed to air and light forms poisonous compound.

(B)  if inhaled for long time effects central nervous system.

(C)  is used to prepare chlorofluoromethane a Freon refrigerant.

(D)  All of these

76. Aspirin is a(n)

(A)  narcotic

(B)  antipyretic

(C)  tranquillizer

(D)  anaesthetic

77. Which of the following is (are) NOT true?

(A)  The most radioactive element present in pitchblende is uranium.

(B)  32P is used for the treatment of leukaemia.

(C)  CO2 present in the air contains 12C only.

(D)  None of these

78. On which factors interface depends?

(A)  Size of the molecules in the bulk phase.

(B)  Weight of the molecules in the bulk phase.

(C)  Numbers of molecules in the bulk phase.

(D)  Physical state of molecules in the bulk phase.

79. According to kinetic theory of gases

(A)  the pressure exerted by gas is proportional to mean square velocity of the molecules.

(B)  the pressure exerted by the gas is proportional t the root mean square velocity of the molecules.

(C)  the mean translational KE of the molecule is directly proportional to the absolute temperature

(D)  Both (B) and (C).

80. When copper ore is mixed with silica, in a reverberatory furnace copper matte is produced. The copper matte contains

(A)  sulphides of copper (II) and iron (II)

(B)  sulphides of copper (II) and iron (III)

(C)  sulphides of copper (I) and iron (II)

(D)  sulphides of copper (I) and iron (III)

81. Which plot represents an exothermic reaction?

82. Which statement about aspirin is NOR true?

(A)  Aspirin belongs to narcotic analgesics.

(B)  It is effective in relieving pain.

(C)  It has antiblood clotting action.

(D)  It is a neurologically active drug.

83. In a first order reaction A→B, if k is rate constant and initial concentration of the reactant A is 0.5 M then half-life is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

84. Which of the following will NOT affect the value of equilibrium constant of a reaction?

(A)  Change in the concentration of the reactants

(B)  Change in temperature

(D)  All of these

85. Glucose reacts with excess of phenylhydrazine and forms

(A)  sorbitol

(B)  glucose phenylbyrazone

(C)  glucosaszone

(D)  glucose oxime

86. The entropy of a crystalline substance at absolute zero on t he basis of third law of thermodynamics should be taken as

(A)  100

(B)  50

(C)  zero

(D)  different of different substances

87. Which of the following would undergo Hofniann’s reaction to give a primary amine?

(A)  RCONH2

(B)  RCONHCH3

(C)  RCOCI

(D)  RCOOR

88. Propene reacts with carbon monoxide and hydrogen in presence of cobalt carbonyl catalyst at high temperature and pressure, to form

(A)  propanal

(B)  butanal

(C)  butanone

(D)  butanoic acid

89. The hybrid state of central oxygen atom in diethylether is

(A)  sp2

(B)  sp3

(C)  sp

(D)  sp3d

90. The general molecular formula, which represents the homologous series of alkanol is

(A)  CnH2nO

(B)  CnH2n – 1O

(C)  CnH2n – 2O

(D)  CnH2nO2

91. The phenomenon of optical activity will be shown by

92. The compound used in enrichment of uranium for nuclear power plant is

(A)  U3O8

(B)  UF6

(C)  UO2(NO3)2

(D)  UCl4

93. The sweetest of all sugars is

(A)  glucose

(B)  lactose

(C)  sucrose

(D)  fructose

94. In which case, the carbon-carbon bond length is same?

(A)  2-butene

(B)  benzene

(C)  I-butene

(D)  I-propyne

95. Which is a correct relationship?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)  All of these

96. A crystal lattice with alternative +ve and –ve ions has radius ratio 0.52, its coordination number is

(A)  4

(B)  3

(C)  6

(D)  12

97. ______bond is the most polar

(A)  C – O

(B)  C – Br

(C)  C – S

(D)  C – F

98. Blood cells do NOT shrink in blood because blood is

(A)  hypertonic

(B)  isotonic

(C)  equimolar

(D)  hypotonic

99. Which of the following is known as Freon which is used as a refrigerant?

(A)  CCl2F

(B)  CHCl3

(C)  CH2F2

(D)  CF4