OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2022 With Answer Key

OUAT Previous Question Paper-2022


Questions : 66

1. If a heating device is able to melt 2000 gm of ice at −5°C in 10 min, then its power expressed in horse power will be-

(Specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal g1 °C1, latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 cal/g).

(A)  368 hp

(B)  0.368 hp

(C)  1.55 hp

(D)  1155 hp

Answer: (C)

2. The body of mass ‘m’ is rotating about a fixed axis with the radius of the path ‘r’ and linear velocity ‘v’. Its angular momentum is :

(A)  mr/v

(B)  mvr2

(C)  mvr

(D)  mv/r

Answer: (C)

3. The number of significant figures in the following : 5.700 m and 0.006400 kg are, respectively, _____.

(A)  4, 2

(B)  4, 4

(C)  2, 2

(D)  2, 4

Answer: (B)

4. If both the charge and electric field on the capacitor is doubled, then its capacitance :

(A)  becomes double

(B)  remains the same

(C)  becomes four times

(D)  becomes half

Answer: (B)

5. Match Column A with Column B

(A)  p → ii, q → iii and r → i

(B)  p → iii, q → i and r → ii

(C)  p → i, q → iii and r → i

(D)  p → ii, q → i and r → iii

Answer: (A)

6. A free neutron, unlike a free proton, is unstable. It decays into :

(A)  an electron and an antineutrino

(B)  a proton and antineutrino

(C)  a proton, an electron and an antineutrino

(D)  a proton and an electron

Answer: (C)

7. If a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in space has an electric field of amplitude 2.7 × 105 V/m, then the amplitude of the magnetic field is :

(A)  3 × 104 T

(B)  3 × 105 T

(C)  9 × 105 T

(D)  9 × 104 T

Answer: (D)

8. Inertial Mass is _____ and Gravitational Mass is _____.

(A)  The measure of inertia and it follows from Newton’s second law of motion, the measure of gravitational pull and it follows from Newton’s law of Gravitation.

(B)  The measure of gravitational pull and it follows from Newton’s law of Gravitation, the measure of inertia and it follows from Newton’s second law of motion.

(C)  The measure of gravitational pull and it follows from Newton’s second law of motion; the measure of inertia and it follows from Newton’s law of Gravitation.

(D)  The measure of inertia and it follows from Newton’s law of Gravitation; the measure of gravitational pull and it follows from Newton’s second law of motion.

Answer: (A)

9. For unit magnification, the distance of an object from a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm will be :

(A)  −20 cm

(B)  20 cm

(C)  −10 cm

(D)  10 cm

Answer: (A)

10. According to the third law of thermodynamics:

(A)  it is possible to reach 0 K with an ideal refrigerator

(B)  it is possible to reach 0°C in any physical process.

(C)  it is impossible to reach 0°C with an ideal refrigerator

(D)  it is impossible to reach 0 K in any physical process.

Answer: (D)

11. Ohm’s law is NOT applicable in the case of which of the following electrical equipment?

(A)  Filament of a light bulb

(B)  Fan motor

(C)  All ohmic conductors

(D)  Resistors

Answer: (A)

12. Match Column A with Column B

(A)  p-ii, ,q-iv,, r-i and s-iii

(B)  p-iii, ,q-iv,, r-i and s-ii

(C)  p-iii, ,q-i,, r-iv and s-ii

(D)  p-ii, ,q-i,, r-iv and s-iii

Answer: (D)

13. The dimension of the product of surface tension and length is :

(A)  [M L1 T1]

(B)  [M L T2]

(C)  [M L T1]

(D)  [M L0 T2]

Answer: (B)

14. In an electromagnetic wave, the electric and magnetic fields are 200 V m1 and 0.426 A m1. The maximum energy flow is :

(A)  185.2 W/m2

(B)  45.2 W/m2

(C)  850.2 W/m2

(D)  85.2 W/m2

Answer: (D)

15. A 0.5 kg block is pushed against a wall with a horizontal force of 10 N. If the coefficient of static and kinetic friction between the wall and the block are 0.5 and 0.3, respectively, then :

(Take g = 10 m/sec2.)

(A)  the frictional force on the block is 4.0 N

(B)  the block moves down with an acceleration.

(C)  the frictional force on the block is 5.0 N

(D)  the normal force on the block is 5.0 N

Answer: (C)

16. In instrinsic semiconductor, the number of free electrons, ne and number of holes, nh are related as :

(A)  ne < nh

(B)  ne = nh

(C)  ne > nh

(D)  ne = nh = 0

Answer: (B)

17. The slope of stress vs. strain graph for a wire subjected to increasing load, upto proportionality limit gives :

(A)  Poisson’s ratio of the wire

(B)  Rigidity modulus of the wire

(C)  Young’s modulus of the wire

(D)  Bulk modulus of the wire

Answer: (C)

18. If the cabin of an ideal refrigerator is at −4°C, then for its coefficient of performance to be 5, the outside temperature should be nearly _____ °C (Choose the closest value)

(A)  −20

(B)  323

(C)  52

(D)  27

Answer: (C)

19. Consider a tightly wounded 40 turn coil of radius 8 cm, carrying a current of 1 A. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of the coil will be :

(A)  1.57 G

(B)  3.14 G

(C)  12.56 G

(D)  6.28 G

Answer: (B)

20. In which of the following cases the force acting on an object is one newton?

(a)   Object of 1 kg moving with a constant velocity of 1 m/sec.

(b)   Object of 1 g moving with a constant acceleration 1 m/sec2.

(c)   Object of 1 kg moving with a constant acceleration 1 cm/sec2.

(d)   Object of 1 kg moving with a constant

(A)  (a)

(B)  (b)

(C)  (c)

(D)  (d)

Answer: (B)

21. In an arrangement of two rods A and B joined in series, rod A is the upper rod and is of length 2l and radius of cross section r. Rod B is the lower rod and is of length l and radius of cross section 2r. If the upper end of rod A is fixed to a rigid roof and the lower end of rod B is given a twist of θ°, the angle of twist at the joint of the two rods A and B is _____.

Answer: (A)

22. A particle starts from (0m, 0m) at t = 0 s with a velocity of  and moves in x-y plane with a constant acceleration of  Here symbols have their usual  At what time is the x coordinate of the particle 27 m ?

(A)  2.0 s

(B)  4.0 s

(C)  3.0 s

(D)  1.0 s

Answer: (C)

23. In an enclosure two gases A and B, with densities in the ratio 18 units and 44 units are mixed. The volume of gas A is one part and gas B is three part of the total volume of the enclosure. Assuming that they do not react chemically, the speed of sound in gas A and B is the speed of sound in this mixture is 340 m/sec will be___.

(A)  314 m/sec and 419 m/sec

(B)  419 m/sec and 314 m/sec

(C)  708 m/sec and 289 m/sec

(D)  289 m/sec and 708 m/sec

Answer: (B)

24. Match Column A with Column B

(O is Optical Centre, F is first Principal Focus)

(A)  p-ii, q-iv, r-i and s-iii

(B)  p-iii, q-iv, r-i, and s-ii

(C)  p-ii, q-i, r-iv and s-iii

(D)  p-iii, q-i, r-iv and s-ii

Answer: (D)

25. If the force is acting along-X direction on a body moving along +X direction, then work done here :

(A)  does not depends on direction

(B)  is zero

(C)  is negative

(D)  is positive

Answer: (C)

26. The linear velocity of the tip of the second hand in a given all clock is : (Length of the second had is 10 cm.)

(A)  0.001 m/sec

(B)  0.1 m/sec

(C)  10 m/sec

(D)  0.01 m/sec

Answer: (D)

27. Infinitely large number of point charges, each equal to q are placed at positions x = 1, 2, 4, 8….. Calculate the electrostatic potential at the origin.

(A)  πε0/q

(B)  q/2πε0

(C)  2q/πε0

(D)  q/3πε0

Answer: (B)

28. Two wires X and Y are placed parallel to each other at a distance of d carrying the same current in the same direction. At what distance between them, the magnetic field will be zero?

(A)  d/4

(B)  1/d

(C)  d

(D)  d/2

Answer: (D)

29. There are two clocks. The first one works on the basis of oscillations of simple pendulum and the other works on the oscillation of a spring mass system on Earth. If these two are now taken to Pluto, then :

(A)  the pendulum clock beats the same time as on Earth and the spring mass system does not beat same time as on Earth.

(B)  The pendulum clock does not beat the same time as on Earth and the spring mass system does not beat the same time as on Earth.

(C)  The pendulum clock beats the same time as on Earth and the spring mass system beats the same time as on Earth.

(D)  The pendulum clock does not beat the same time as on Earth and spring mass system beats the same time as on Earth.

Answer: (D)

30. A coil having 450Ω resistance is placed in a magnetic field that varies with time t (sec) as ϕ = 45t2 + 2t. The current in the coil at t = 2 sec is :

(A)  0.404 A

(B)  0.54 A

(C)  0.5 A

(D)  0.32 A

Answer: (A)

31. SI unit and dimensions of activity of a radio-active sample is :

(A)  S1, [T1]

(B)  H2, [T1]

(C)  S, [T]

(D)  Bq, [T1]

Answer: (D)

32. For a body executing SHM the distance between the positive and negative extreme is 0.5 m and if it oscillates with a frequency of 40 hertz, the equation for its displacement (y) is ______.

(A)  y = 0.25 sin (40t)

(B)  y = 0.5 sin (40t)

(C)  y = 0.25 sin (80πt)

(D)  y = 0.5 sin (80 πt)

Answer: (C)

33. If the battery and galvanometer positions get interchanged in a Wheatstone bridge, the deflection in the galvanometer will :

(A)  change to lower value

(B)  change to higher value

(C)  not change

(D)  move in either direction

Answer: (C)

34. In an isothermal process, if the volume of 2 moles of a monoatomic gas (Y = 1.4) is explanded from V to 10V at a temperature 1°C, the amount of work done is ____.

(A)  4.6 RT loge10

(B)  4.6 RT

(C)  2.3 RT loge10

(D)  2.3 RT

Answer: (B)

35. On what following factors does Young’s Modulus of a given wire depend on ?

(i) Length

(ii) Area of cross-section

(iii) Tension in the wire

(iv) Material of the wire

(A)  Only (ii) and (iii)

(B)  Only (ii) and (iv)

(C)  Only (iv)

(D)  Only (i) and (iv)

Answer: (C)

36. Lorentz force is the :

(A)  force of attraction or repulsion between two like and unlike charges, respectively.

(B)  force on a point charge moving in presence of both the electric field and the magnetic field.

(C)  force on a point charge at rest in the presence of both the electric field and the magnetic field.

(D)  force that acts between the protons and neutrons of atoms.

Answer: (B)

37. Select the INCORRECT statement regarding electromagnetic waves.

(A)  In free space they travel at the speed of light.

(B)  They are transverse in nature.

(C)  Their speed is same in all mediums.

(D)  They are produced by accelerating charges.

Answer: (C)

38. The position of a particle is given by

Where r is in meters and t in seconds, i, j and k are unit vectors along x-axis, y-axis and z-axis, respectively. The magnitude of the velocity of the particle at t = 0.5 s is :

(A)  6.0 m/sec

(B)  3.0 m/sec

(C)  4.0 m/sec

(D)  5.0 m/sec

Answer: (D)

39. The eddy current magnitude does not depend upon the :

(A)  magnetic flux

(B)  magnetic field

(C)  electric field

(D)  resistance of conductor

Answer: (C)

40. The charge of two-point charges halved and the distance between them made four times, the force between them :

(A)  remains the same

(B)  gets double

(C)  gets four times

(D)  gets 1/64 times

Answer: (C)

41. The capacitance of a capacitor depends on the

(A)  potential of conductors

(B)  shape of conductors

(C)  charge of conductors

(D)  charge of densities

Answer: (B)

42. Change in kinetic energy of a body of mass 1kg moving along a circular path with the constant speed 10 m/s is :

(A)  10 J

(B)  0 J

(C)  1 J

(D)  5 J

Answer: (B)

43. Materials A, B and C have energy band gap (E­­g­) of zero, < 3eV and > 3eV, respectively. Materials A, B and C can be classified as :

(A)  Semiconductor, insulator and metal

(B)  Metal, conductors and insulator

(C)  Insulator, metal and semiconductor

(D)  Metal, semiconductor and insulator

Answer: (D)

44. If an organ pipe closed at one end is suddenly opened, the fundamental frequency in the open pipe formed is found to be increased by 50 Hz. Then the 3rd overtone frequency of the closed pipe is _____.

(A)  350 Hz

(B)  250 Hz

(C)  150 Hz

(D)  50 Hz

Answer: (A)

45. An object 10m away from a concave mirror of focal length 1m, starts moving at a speed of 5m/sec towards the mirror. The average speed of the image is approximately :

(A)  1/7 m/sec

(B)  5 m/sec

(C)  1/5 m/sec

(D)  7 m/sec

Answer: (A)

46. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about errors in measurements?

(a) Imperfections in experimental procedures cause random errors.

(b) Unpredictable fluctuations in temperature cause systematic errors.

(A)  Both (a) and (b)

(B)  Only (a)

(C)  Neither (a) nor (b)

(D)  Only (b)

Answer: (C)

47. If a planet sweeps 2 lakh km2 are in the month of February 2022, then the area swept by it in one week of any month in any year will be ______.

(A)  5 × 106km2

(B)  8 × 1010km2

(C)  5 × 1010km2

(D)  8 × 106km2

Answer: (C)

48. Two circular metal plates with identical dimensions are rotating about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the body and passing through the centre. If mass of the first plate is double the mass of the second plate, then their moments of inertia are in the ratio :

(A)  4 : 1

(B)  1 : 2

(C)  1 : 1

(D)  2 : 1

Answer: (D)

49. The difference between the reciprocals of focal length and image distance is equal to the ______ in a spherical mirror.

(A)  radius of curvature

(B)  object distance

(C)  Inverse of object distance

(D)  Inverse of radius of curvature

Answer: (C)

50. Two coils are placed close to each other. The mutual inductance of the pair of coils depends upon :

(I) the relative position and orientation of the two coils

(II) the cross-section area of the wires of the coils.

(III) the current changing rates of both the coils.

Which of the above statement is/are true?

(A)  I and II

(B)  II and III

(C)  Only III

(D)  Only I

Answer: (D)

51. In two different places on earth, A and B, simple pendulum experiment was conducted with the same pendulum. It is found that in place A, 20 oscillations take 97.8 sec and at place B, 20 oscillations take 100 sec. The ratio of accelerations due to gravity of place B to place A is nearly____.

(A)  0.95

(B)  0.97

(C)  1.02

(D)  1.46

Answer: (A)

52. If 3 moles of diatomic gas are made to dissociate into a monotomic gas at room temperature, then the change in its degrees of freedom will be _____.

(A)  1.8 × 1024

(B)  1.2 × 1024

(C)  0.6 × 1024

(D)  2.4 × 1024

Answer: (A)

53. Consider the velocity (v) and acceleration (a) of a ball thrown vertically upward. During its motion upwards (downward direction taken to be negative) :

(A)  v is positive and a is negative

(B)  both v and are positive

(C)  v is negative and a is positive

(D)  both v and a are negative

Answer: (A)

54. Match Column A with Column B.

(A)  p-iii, q-iv, r-i and s-ii

(B)  p-ii, q-iv, r-i and s-iii

(C)  p-ii, q-i, r-iv and s-iii

(D)  p-iii, q-i, r-iv and s-ii

Answer: (B)

55. Magnetic flux is defined as :

(A)  the total number of magnetic filed lines passing through a given area and perpendicular to it.

(B)  the total current through a plane

(C)  the total charge per unit volume

(D)  the total EMF in a closed loop

Answer: (A)

56. For same increase in volume if WP, WT, WQ are works done in Isobaric, Isothermal and Adiabatic process, ascending order of these works done is _____.

(A)  WQ < WP < WT

(B)  WQ < WT < WP

(C)  WT < WP < WQ

(D)  WP < WT < WQ

Answer: (B)

57. Among the following thermodynamic quantities, the point functions are (i) __ and path functions are (ii) ___.

(a) external work (b) internal energy

(c) heat supplied  (d) entropy

(A)  (i) (a), (b) (ii) (c), (d)

(B)  (i) (a), (d) (ii) (b), (d)

(C)  (i) (b), (d) (ii) (a), (c)

(D)  (i) (a), (c) (ii) (b), (d)

Answer: (C)

58. A fruit falling from the tree is under the action of gravitational force. Here force is :

(A)  viscous force

(B)  non-conservative force

(C)  Elastic force

(D)  Conservative force

Answer: (D)

59. Match Column A with Column B

(A)  p-ii, q-i, r-iv and s-iii

(B)  p-iii, q-iv, r-i and s-ii

(C)  p-ii, q-iv, r-i and s-iii

(D)  p-iii, q-i, r-iv and s-ii

Answer: (B)

60. A particle is in equilibrium under the action of three concurrent forces F1, F2 and F3 are given by :

F2 = (2.0 N)i + (3.0 N)j + (4.0 N)k

F3 = (3.0 N)i – (4.0 N)j – (5.0 N)k

Then F1 is :

(A)  (1.0N)i – (7.0 N)j – (9.0N)k

(B)  −(5.0N)i + (1.0 N)j + (3.0N)k

(C)  −(2.0N)i + (7.0N)j + (9.0N)k

(D)  (5.0N)i – (1.0N)j – (1.0N)k

Answer: (B)

61. A circular disc is rotating about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the body and passing through the centre with angular velocity ‘ω1’. If the angular velocity of the disc is increased to ‘ω’, then moment of inertia of the disc :

(A)  decreases

(B)  increases

(C)  remains same

(D)  varies as a function of time

Answer: (C)

62. A small smooth spherical particle is placed on a smooth concave surface of radius R = 19.6 m. If it is displaced from the mean position, it executes SHM. The time period of oscillation will be _____.

(A)  2π

(B)  2√2π

(C)  π

(D)  √2π

Answer: (B)

63. If a wire is made ‘n’ times shorter than its original length (l), the effect on its elongation will be (a) ____ and the maximum load it can bear will be (b) _____.

(A)  (a) no change (b) 1/n times the initial value.

(B)  (a) 1/n times the initial value (b) no change

(C)  (a) 1/n times (b) n times

(D)  (a) n times (b) 1/n times

Answer: (B)

64. The V-I curve for a conductor is plotted at two different temperatures T1 and T2. If T1 > T2 then the slope of the V-I curve will be more at which temperature?

(A)  Same of both temperatures

(B)  T1

(C)  Does not depend on temperature

(D)  T2

Answer: (B)

65. A box of mass 5.0 kg is lying on a horizontal smooth surface. It is pulled by applying a force of 10.0 N at an angle of 30° to the horizontal. The magnitude of the acceleration of the box is about :

(A)  1.7 m/sec2

(B)  1.0 m/sec2

(C)  2.0 m/sec2

(D)  3.4 m/sec2

Answer: (A)

66. In 50 years, tritium undergoing beta decay reduced to one-sixteenth of its initial amount. The half-life of tritium is :

(A)  6.25 years

(B)  12.5 years

(C)  50 years

(D)  0.25 years

Answer: (B)


Questions : 66

67. Which of the following elements or compounds does NOT dissolve in water ?

(A)  Cane sugar

(B)  Sulphur

(C)  Urea

(D)  Glucose

Answer: (B)

68. Which of the following molecule has bond order two?

(A)  He2

(B)  O21

(C)  C2

(D)  N2

Answer: (C)

69. What will be the ‘spin only’ magnetic moment of M3+ ion in aqueous solution for an element having Z = 26 ?

(A)  3.87 BM

(B)  5.92 BM

(C)  2.82 BM

(D)  4.89 BM

Answer: (B)

70. Which of the following devices is used for determining the resistance of a material?

(A)  Wheatstone bridge

(B)  Salt bridge

(C)  Galvanometer

(D)  Daniell cell

Answer: (A)

71. Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labeled Assertion (A) and Reason (R)

Assertion (A) : Hoffmann’s ammonolysis of alkyl halides gives a mixture of primary, secondary, tertiary mines along with some quaternary ammonium halide.

Reason (R) : Primary amine with its lone pair of electron acts as a nucleophile.

(A)  Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B)  Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(C)  A is false and R is true

(D)  A is true but R is false

Answer: (A)

72. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an amorphous solid?

(A)  They are isotropic

(B)  They are anisotropic

(C)  They do not have a pattern of arrangements

(D)  They do not have a sharp melting point.

Answer: (B)

73. Select the correct statement from the following options.

(A)  Colloids differ from crystalloids in electrical behavior of particles

(B)  Colloids differ from crystalloids in solubility of the particles

(C)  Colloids differ from crystalloids in nature of the particles.

(D)  Colloids differ from crystalloids in size of the particles.

Answer: (D)

74. The functional group, which is NOT present in aspartame is :

(A)  aldehydic group

(B)  amino group

(C)  ester group

(D)  carboxylic group

Answer: (A)

75. What are the main components of phosphate rocks?

(A)  Ca2(PO4)6CaF2

(B)  Ca3(PO4)6CaF2

(C)  Ca2(PO4)8CaF2

(D)  Ca9(PO4)6CaF2

Answer: (D)

76. The ion having the largest size is :

(A)  I

(B)  Br

(C)  Cl

(D)  F

Answer: (A)

77. Which of the following statement is correct for oxides of halogens?

(A)  I2O5 is a good oxidizing agent

(B)  ClO2 is used as washing soda.

(C)  BrO3 exist only at higher temperature

(D)  Bromine oxides are less powerful oxidizing agent.

Answer: (A)

78. The oxidation of p-nitrotoluene with chromic trioxide in acetic anhydride followed by hydrolysis in aqueous acid gives :

(A)  benzoic acid

(B)  benzaldehyde

(C)  p-nitrobenzaldehyde

(D)  p-nitrobenzoic acid

Answer: (C)

79. Which of the following lanthanoids has an abnormally low value of third ionization enthalpy?

(A)  Ytterbium

(B)  Cerium

(C)  Europium

(D)  Lutetium

Answer: (D)

80. What temperature is required in the preparation of low-density polyethylene?

(A)  350-570 K

(B)  150-570 K

(C)  650-970 K

(D)  950-1270 K

Answer: (A)

81. Which of the following polymers is resistant to the action of petrol and lubrication oil?

(A)  Melamine

(B)  Nylon-6, 6

(C)  Buna-N

(D)  Butadiene-styrene polymer

Answer: (C)

82. What will be the hybrid state of BeCl2 in vapour state?

(A)  sp3d

(B)  sp

(C)  sp3

(D)  sp2

Answer: (B)

83. Which of the following crystals is an example of covalent crystal?

(A)  Water

(B)  Potassium Nitrate

(C)  Carborundum

(D)  Carbon dioxide

Answer: (C)

84. The composition of German silver is :

(A)  Cobalt, zinc and silver

(B)  Copper, zinc and tin

(C)  Copper, zinc and silver

(D)  Copper, zinc and nickel

Answer: (D)

85. Which of the following is the correct increasing order with respect to melting points?

(A)  PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < NH3

(B)  SbH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < NH3

(C)  AsH3 < SbH3 < PH3 < NH3

(D)  NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3

Answer: (A)

86. Complete the balanced reaction.

Ca3P2 + 6H2O→

(A)  3CaO + 2PH3

(B)  Ca(OH)2 + 2PH3

(C)  6CaO + 2PH3

(D)  3Ca(OH)2 + 2PH3

Answer: (D)

87. Which of the following coordination entities would have a square planar geometry?

(A)  [Ni(H2O)4]2+

(B)  [Ni(CO)4]

(C)  [Ni(Cl)4]2

(D)  [Ni(CN)4]2

Answer: (D)

88. Match the Column I (Structure) with Column II (IUPAC name) and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A)  a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iii)

(B)  a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii)

(C)  a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii)

(D)  a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii)

Answer: (A)

89. Toulene on oxidation with alkaline potassium permanganate followed by hydrolysis gives compound X. X on reaction with ethanol in presence of conc.

H2SO4 gives Y. Compound X and Y respectively are :

(A)  Benzoic acid; Ethyl-2-methyl benzoate

(B)  2-Methyl Benzoic acid; Ethyl benzoate

(C)  2-Methyl Benzoic acid; Ethyl-2-methyl benzoate

(D)  Benzoic acid; Ethyl benzoate

Answer: (D)

90. Match the Column I with Column II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A)  (a)-I, (b)-II, (c)-III

(B)  (a)-II, (b)-I, (c)-III

(C)  (a)-I, (b)-III, (c)-II

(D)  (a)-III, (b)-II, (c)-I

Answer: (D)

91. Match the Column I with Column II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A)  A-(II), B-(I), C-(III)

(B)  A-(I), B-(III), C-(III)

(C)  A-(III), B-(II), C-(I)

(D)  A-(I), B-(II), C-(III)

Answer: (C)

92. What is the rate constant for the 1st order reaction?

(A)  moll1

(B)  S1

(C)  mol L1s1

(D)  mol1LS

Answer: (B)

93. Which of the following dehydrating agents CANNOT convert ethanol into ethene?

(A)  HCl

(B)  H3PO4

(C)  Conc. H2SO4

(D)  D.Al2O3

Answer: (A)

94. Which of the following a consequence of Lanthanoid contraction?

(A)  Atomic radius of Zn is larger than Ni and Cu.

(B)  ∆a H increases from left to right in first transition series

(C)  Zr and Hf have almost the same atomic radii

(D)  Atomic radius decreases from left to right in second transition series.

Answer: (C)

95. Which of the following compounds has the lowest melting point?

(A)  BaCl2

(B)  NaF

(C)  CaF2

(D)  BeCl2

Answer: (D)

96. How many isomers are possible of dihalogen derivatives of propane?

(A)  Four

(B)  Three

(C)  Five

(D)  Two

Answer: (A)

97. Select the correct statement regarding Li.

(A)  1st ionization energy of Li is equal to Be.

(B)  1st ionization energy of Li is equal to F.

(C)  1st ionization energy of Li is lesser than Be.

(D)  1st ionization energy of Li is greater than to Be.

Answer: (C)

98. Which of the following polymers is NOT an example of synthetic polymer?

(A)  Rayon

(B)  Buna-S

(C)  Polythene

(D)  Nylon-6, 6

Answer: (A)

99. Which of the following is true about galvanic cell?

(A)  It converts electrical energy into chemical energy

(B)  It converts chemical energy into electrical energy.

(C)  It converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.

(D)  It converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.

Answer: (B)

100. How many O-O bonds present in the ozone molecule are identical?

(A)  0

(B)  2

(C)  1

(D)  3

Answer: (B)

101. Chloroform is NOT used as anaesthetic due to the formation of:

(A)  chlorine gas

(B)  carbon-dikoxide gas

(C)  oxygen gas

(D)  phosgene gas

Answer: (D)

102. What will be the change in entropy for the following process?

CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)

(A)  Entropy increases

(B)  Entropy decreases

(C)  Entropy becomes zero

(D)  Entropy remains unchanged

Answer: (A)

103. Which of the following is correct?

(A)  Neutrons = Atomic mass – Atomic number

(B)  Neutrons = Atomic number – Atomic mass

(C)  Protons = Atomic mass – Atomic number

(D)  Electrons = Atomic mass/ atomic number

Answer: (A)

104. In a bomb calorimeter, energy change occurring in a reaction is measured under which of the following conditions?

(A)  At constant temperature

(B)  At constant pressure

(C)  At constant pressure and volume

(D)  At constant volume

Answer: (D)

105. Phenol on treatment with conc. H2SO4 at 373 K given compound A, which on treatment with excess of bromine water gives compound B. Compound A and B are respectively

(A)  4-phenolsulphonic acid; 4-Bromophenol

(B)  2-Phenolsulphoni acid; 2,4,6-Tribromophenol

(C)  2-Phenolsulphonic acid, 2-Bromophenol

(D)  4-Phenolsulphonic acid; 2,4,6-Tribromophenol

Answer: (D)

106. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT regarding the carbonyl group?

(A)  The carbonyl carbon acts as nucleophile

(B)  The carbonyl oxygen acts as a nucleophile

(C)  The carbonyl carbon is sp2 hybridised

(D)  It is polar in nature.

Answer: (A)

107. Which is the following statements is INCORRECT?

(A)  Inductive effect is temporary effect while electrometric effect is permanent effect.

(B)  Inductive effect involves the partial displacement of sigma electrons while in electrometric effect, complete transference of pi-electrons takes place.

(C)  In inductive effect partial charges are developed on atoms and no ions are formed, while in electrometric effect complete transference of electrons takes place

(D)  In this effect the displaced electron pair does not leave its orbitals but in electrometric effect it leaves its orbital.

(A)  C

(B)  B

(C)  A

(D)  D

Answer: (C)

108. What is the numerical value of Avogadro’s number?

(A)  6.022 × 1026

(B)  6.022 × 1023

(C)  6.022 × 1025

(D)  60.22 × 102

Answer: (B)

109. How many number of zero oxidation states of sulphur atoms are present in tetrathionate ion?

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  1

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

110. The slope of plot between ln [R] vs t give ____.

(A)  Concentration of the products

(B)  Molecularity of the reaction

(C)  Rate of the reaction

(D)  Rate constant

Answer: (D)

111. The compound BeCl2 is ____.

(A)  Polymeric

(B)  Ionic

(C)  Co-ordinate

(D)  Covalent

Answer: (D)

112. How many double bonds are present in butane?

(A)  1

(B)  0

(C)  2

(D)  3

Answer: (B)

113. The packing fraction of a simple cubic system is :

(A)  0.524

(B)  0.480

(C)  0.680

(D)  0.740

Answer: (A)

114. Choose the correct differential rate equation for the following reaction:

A + 3B → 2C + D

(A)  r = −d[A]/dt = −1/3[B]dt = 1/2d[C]dt = d[D]/dt

(B)  r = −d[A]/dt = 1/3d [B]/dt = 1/2d[C]/dt = d[D]/dt

(C)  r = −d[A]/dt = 1/3d[B]/dt = −1/2d[C]dt = d[D]/dt

(D)  r = −d[A]/dt = −3d[B]/dt = 1/2d[C]/dt = d[D]/dt

Answer: (A)

115. Which of the following correctly represents Gay Lussac’s law?

(A)  V/T = K

(B)  VT = K

(C)  PT = K

(D)  P/T = K

Answer: (D)

116. The number of primary –OH and secondary –OH group present in ethylene glycol is :

(A)  One primary –OH and one secondary –OH group

(B)  Only two secondary –OH groups

(C)  Only two primary –OH groups

(D)  Two primary –OH and one secondary –OH group

Answer: (C)

117. Which of the following statements is correct about bonding in metal carbonyls?

(A)  The M-C sigma bond is formed by the donation of electron pair from a metal d-orbital into a vacant bonding orbital of a CO molecule.

(B)  The M-C pi bond is formed by donation of electron pair from a metal d-orbital into vacant π* antibonding orbital of CO molecule.

(C)  The M-C pi bond is formed by the donation of lone pair of electrons of carbonyl carbon into a vacant metal d-orbital

(D)  The M-C sigma bond is formed by donation of electron pair from a metal d-orbital into vacant π* antibonding orbital of Co molecule.

Answer: (B)

118. Which of the following is NOT an antacid?

(A)  Aluminium hydroxide

(B)  Lansoprezole

(C)  Ranitidine

(D)  Chlorpheniramine

Answer: (D)

119. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A)  a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

(B)  a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

(C)  a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

(D)  a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

Answer: (A)

120. Select the elements can form d π – d π bond with transition metals.

(A)  Arsenic, nitrogen and phosphorus

(B)  Phosphorus and nitrogen

(C)  Phosphorus and arsenic

(D)  Arsenic and nitrogen

Answer: (C)

121. If the partial pressures of four non interacting gases are p1, p2, p3 and p4, then the pressure of mixture of these gases, P is _____.

(A)  p1 + p2 + p3 + p4

(B)  (p1 + p2) (p3 + p4)

(C)  p1 × p2 × p3 × p4


Answer: (A)

122. Which of the following reagent is used in the preparation of K­3[Fe(CN)6] from K4[Fe(CN)6]?

(A)  O3

(B)  MnO2

(C)  H2O2

(D)  AlH3

Answer: (C)

123. Which of the following is the increasing order of a s-block elements with respect to wavelength?

(A)  Li < Na < K < Rb

(B)  Na < Li < K < Rb

(C)  Rb < K < Na < Li

(D)  Na < K < Li < Rb

Answer: (B)

124. What is the nature of hexaflourides?

(A)  Solid

(B)  Gaseous

(C)  Liquid

(D)  Solid and liquid

Answer: (B)

125. Which of the following molecule will produce 2 moles of AgCl precipitate with an excess of AgNO3 solution?

(A)  [Cr(NH3)5Cl]Cl2

(B)  [Cr(NH3)3Cl3]

(C)  [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Br

(D)  [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3

Answer: (A)

126. The shape and bond angle of 3° amine is :

(A)  Pyramidal, 108°

(B)  Tetrahedral, 108°

(C)  Pyramidal, 107°

(D)  Tetrahedral, 109.28°

Answer: (A)

127. The common name of (CH3)2C = CHCOCH3 is :

(A)  isopropyl ketone

(B)  di-isopropyl ketone

(C)  acrolein

(D)  mesityl oxide

Answer: (D)

128. Under which of the following conditions will a process be spontaneous at all temperature?

(A)  ∆H = +ve, ∆S = +ve

(B)  ∆H = −ve, ∆S = +ve

(C)  ∆H = −ve, ∆S = −ve

(D)  ∆H = +ve, ∆S = −ve

Answer: (B)

129. Select the correct pairs of isobars from the following.

Answer: (A)

130. Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labeled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Tertiary alcohols are less acidic than secondary and primary alcohols.

Reason (R) : An electron releasing group increases the polarity of O-H bond by increasing the electron density on oxygen atom.

(A)  Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(B)  A is false and R is true

(C)  Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(D)  A is true but R is false

Answer: (D)

131. Which of the following is lyophobic in nature?

(A)  Gelatin

(B)  Sulphur

(C)  Starch

(D)  Protein

Answer: (B)

132. Which of the following is used as Tranquillizers?

(A)  Iburofen

(B)  Dichlorofenic sodium

(C)  Veronal

(D)  Naproxen

Answer: (C)


Questions : 68

133. Which of the following is a statement?

(A)  Oh ! we have drawn the match

(B)  May God bless you !

(C)  Jupiter is a planet

(D)  I may live long !

Answer: (C)

134. The value of the integral  is :

(A)  −1

(B)  ∞

(C)  1

(D)  0

Answer: (D)

135. Match the column A with column B

(A)  1 → P; 2 → P; 3 → S; 4 → R

(B)  1 → R; 2 → P; 3 → S; 4 → R

(C)  1 → Q; 2 → P; 3 → S; 4 → R

(D)  1 → Q; 2 → P; 3 → P; 4 → R

Answer: (C)

136. The value of 

Answer: (B)


(A)  n – 1 + 2n

(B)  n – 1 – 2n

(C)  n + 1 – 2n

(D)  n + 1 + 2n

Answer: (C)

138. In how many ways can 16 examination papers be arranged, so that the best and the worst papers never come together?

(A)  14 – 15!

(B)  15 – 14!

(C)  15 – 16!

(D)  16 – 15!

Answer: (A)

139. The value of 

(A)  2

(B)  0

(C)  −2

(D)  1

Answer: (B)

140. The number of elements in a set {x : x ϵ a all alphabets} is :

(A)  12

(B)  5

(C)  26

(D)  30

Answer: (C)

141. If f : R → A defined by f(x) = {x – 2} – 3 is a surjection then A is ____.

(A)  (−∞, 1] ∪ [2, ∞)

(B)  [−3, ∞)

(C)  [1, 2]

(D)  (1, ∞)

Answer: (B)

142. If ω is non-real cube root of unity, x = a + b, y = aω2 + bω and z = bω2 + aω, then x2 + y2 + z2.

(A)  12a2b2

(B)  12ab

(C)  6ab

(D)  6a2b2

Answer: (C)

143. For n ϵ N, 2.3n+1 + 3n + 36 is divisible by :

(A)  2

(B)  8

(C)  6

(D)  3

Answer: (D)

144. The polar form of −√7 + i√21 is :

Answer: (B)

145. Let  then the value of tan(x/2) is :

(A)  15/29

(B)  14/29

(C)  13/25

(D)  −15/29

Answer: (A)

146. The angle between the lines

x + y – 5 = 0, 7x + 5y – 8 = 0 is :

Answer: (D)

147. The product of the slopes of the tangents to the parabola y2 = x drawn from the point (1, −2) is :

(A)  −1/4

(B)  1/4

(C)  −2/4

(D)  2/4

Answer: (B)

148. The product of all the nth roots of unity is :

(A)  1

(B)  0

(C)  −1

(D)  (−1)n1

Answer: (D)

149. The number an = 6n – 5n for n = 1, 2, 3,…. When divided by 25 leaves the remainder

(A)  9

(B)  7

(C)  3

(D)  1

Answer: (D)

150. The 11th term of sequence 3, 2, 4/3, 8/9….is :

(A)  210/69

(B)  910/39

(C)  210/39

(D)  210/310

Answer: (C)

151. The equation of a plane bisecting the angle between the planes 4x – 2y + 4z + 6 = 0 and 6x – 4y + 12z + 16 = 0 is :

(A)  23x + 13y + 32z – 45 = 0

(B)  5x – y – 4z – 3 = 0

(C)  23x – 13y + 32z + 5 = 0

(D)  5x – y – 4z – 45 = 0

Answer: (B)

152. If E is an impossible event, then P(E) is :

(A)  2

(B)  1

(C)  0

(D)  0.1

Answer: (C)

153. The equation of line through (1, 3) with slope 2 is :

(A)  y = x + 2

(B)  y = x – 2

(C)  y = 2x – 1

(D)  y = 2x + 1

Answer: (D)

154. Find the number of 2000th roots of unity which are 2020th roots of unity.

(A)  2

(B)  0

(C)  5

(D)  20

Answer: (D)

155. If 26Pr+6 : 25Pr+3 = 11050 : 1 then r is equal to :

(A)  16

(B)  4

(C)  6

(D)  8

Answer: (B)

156. Let S be the set of people living in India, then the relation R in S defined by ‘aRb if a and b have same father’ is :

(A)  reflexive

(B)  equivalence

(C)  symmetric

(D)  transitive

Answer: (B)

157. If  and  then the value of ∝ for which A2 = B is :

(A)  2

(B)  −1

(C)  1

(D)  0

Answer: (B)

158. Match the columns

(A)  1 → Q, 2 → Q, 3 → R, 4 → P

(B)  1 → S, 2 → Q, 3 → R, 4 → P

(C)  1 → S, 2 → Q, 3 → P, 4 → P

(D)  1 → S, 2 → R, 3 → R, 4 → P

Answer: (B)

159. The solution of the differential equation  is :

Answer: (A)

160. If  & B = adj A & C = 5A, then the value of  is _____.

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  0

(D)  −1

Answer: (A)

161. The exponent of 6 in 100! is :

(A)  45

(B)  48

(C)  13

(D)  22

Answer: (B)

162. In a city 15% are suffering from fever and 10% are suffering from cold and 5% are suffering from both. The probability that they are suffering from either cold or fever is :

(A)  50%

(B)  30%

(C)  20%

(D)  40%

Answer: (C)

163. If A = {−3, 1}, B = {x ∈ R : x2 + 2x – 3 = 0}, and C = {1, 2, 3} and D = {x ∈ R : x2 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0}, then the equal sets are :

(A)  A, B and C

(B)  A and B

(C)  A and C

(D)  A, C and D

Answer: (B)

164. If  such that |A – KI| = 0, then the sum of all the possible values of K is ____.

(A)  0

(B)  2

(C)  6

(D)  4

Answer: (C)

165. If nA = m and nB = 2, then the number of possible surjective mappings from A to B is :

(A)  m!

(B)  2m

(C)  2m – 1

(D)  2m – 2

Answer: (D)

166. A line segment has length 1089 and direction ratios are 6, −2, 9. If the line makes an obtuse angle with x-axis, the components of the line vector are :

(A)  −594, 198, 891

(B)  27, −18, 54

(C)  −27, 18, −54

(D)  18, −6, 27

Answer: (A)

167. The set {x : x is a positive interger less than 5 and 5x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is :

(A)  {2, 4, 6}

(B)  {1, 3, 5}

(C)  {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}

(D)  {1, 2, 3, 4}

Answer: (D)

168. The solution of the differential equation x(x + y) dy – y2dx = 0 is

(A)  y = −x log cy

(B)  y = x log cxy

(C)  y = x log cy

(D)  y = −x log cxy

Answer: (A)

169. The contrapositive of the statement, ‘IF I am not happy, then I will go to the picture’ is :

(A)  I I am happy, then I will not go to the picture

(B)  If I will go to the picture, then I am happy

(C)  If I will go to the picture, then I am not happy

(D)  I I will not go to the picture, then I am happy

Answer: (D)

170. What is the probability of getting a sum as 7 or 8 with two dice ?

(A)  1/36

(B)  1/12

(C)  5/36

(D)  11/36

Answer: (D)

171. If the 4th and 9th term of a GP be 54 and 13122, respectively, then its second term is :

(A)  10

(B)  12

(C)  6

(D)  8

Answer: (C)

172. If f(x) = ex, g(x) = tan1 x and k(x) = f(g(x)) then 

(A)  1 – x2



(D)  1 + x2

Answer: (C)

173. If x = sin1 t, y = log(1 – t2), then  is _____.

(A)  −√3/2

(B)  −2/√3

(C)  2/√3

(D)  √3/2

Answer: (B)

174. If the eccentricity of the hyperbola is √3 then the eccentricity of its conjugate hyperbola is :

(A)  1/2



(D)  3/2

Answer: (B)

175. The eccentricity and length of latus rectum of hyperbola

X2 – 2y2 – 6x + 8y = 36 is :

(A)  √3 and √14

(B)  √13 and √37


(D)  2 and √3

Answer: (C)

176. If A and B are matrices of order 3 × 3 and if |A| − 2, |B| = 3, then |4A2B3| is ____.

(A)  7062

(B)  7612

(C)  6912

(D)  6072

Answer: (C)

177. The solution of the differential equation  is :

Answer: (D)

178. Find the equation of the line through the intersection of x + y – 1 = 0, 2x – y – 2 = 0 and perpendicular to 2x – 3y + 2 = 0 is :

(A)  3x + 2y – 3 = 0

(B)  3x + 2y + 3 = 0

(C)  3x – 2y – 3 = 0

(D)  3x + 2y – 2 = 0

Answer: (A)

179. If R is relation on the set A = {1, 2, 3}, then R = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3)} is a :

(A)  Transitive

(B)  Reflexive

(C)  All the given options

(D)  Symmetric

Answer: (C)

180. The value of 

(A)  100√2

(B)  50 π

(C)  100 π

(D)  50√2

Answer: (D)

181. Let m = tan2(sec12) + cot2(cosec12), then the value of m3 – m is :

(A)  121

(B)  210

(C)  144

(D)  81

Answer: (B)

182. Match the following :

(A)  A-i, B—ii, C-iii, D-iv

(B)  A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

(C)  A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

(D)  A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

Note : For this question, discrepancy is found in question/answer. Full marks is being awarded to all candidates.

Answer: (*)


Answer: (B)

184. If PA. = 0.25 PB. = 0.5, P(A ∪ B) = 0.59, then is :

(A)  1

(B)  0.09

(C)  0.9

(D)  0.2

Answer: (B)

185. The derivative of y = x3x sin(x) is :

(A)  x3xsin(x)(3 + 3 ln(x) + cot (x))

(B)  xx sin(x)

(C)  x3x sin(x) cot (x)

(D)  3 + 3ln (x) + cot (x)

Answer: (A)

186. The value of   is :



(C)  loge 2

(D)  0

Answer: (B)

187. If then 

(A)  0

(B)  2

(C)  1

(D)  −1

Answer: (C)

188. If y = (loge x)x, then 

Answer: (B)

189. There are 200 students in a class. In the examination, 100 of them failed in Mathematics, 90 failed in Physics, 80 failed in Biology and 64 failed in exactly two of the three subjects. Only two students passed in all the subjects. Then, the number of students failing in all the three subjects is :

(A)  2

(B)  6

(C)  4

(D)  8

Answer: (C)

190. Consider the following statements :

P : Pranav is skilled

Q : Pranav is poor

R : Pranav is honest

The negation of the “Pranav is Skilled and dishonest if and only if Pranav is poor” can be expressed as :

(A)  ~(P ^ ~R) ↔ Q

(B)  ~ (Q ↔ (P ^ ~ R))

(C)  ~ p ^ (Q ↔ ~ R)

(D)  ~ Q ↔ ~ P ^ R

Answer: (B)

191. The remainder obtained when

(n2 + 5n + 4) . (n2 + 5n + 6) + 31 is divided by 24 is :

(A)  9

(B)  7

(C)  25

(D)  32

Answer: (B)

192. If the function f : R → R defined by  find f(x) + (1 – x)

(A)  0

(B)  2

(C)  1

(D)  22

Answer: (C)

193. The centre and radius of the circle x2 + y2 – 4x – 4y – 1 = 0 is :

(A)  (1, 1) and 3

(B)  (1, −2) and 3

(C)  (2, −2) and 2

(D)  (2, 2) and 3

Answer: (D)

194. If the first three terms in AP are 3, 7, 11 then the sum of the first 10 terms is :

(A)  222

(B)  211

(C)  223

(D)  210

Answer: (D)

195. The sequence of numbers  are in :

(A)  GP

(B)  None of these

(C)  HP

(D)  AP

Answer: (C)

196. Match the column A with column B based on permutation and combination

Column A Column B
1. There are 6 candidates for 3 posts. In how many ways can the posts be filled. P. 180 Ways
2. From among the 36 teachers in a school one principal and one vice-principal and one vice-principal are to be appointed. In how many ways can this be done. Q. 1260 ways
3. There are 15 buses running between Delhi and Mumbai. In how many ways can a man go to Mumbai and return by a different bus R. 120 ways
4. A teacher of a class wants to set on question from each of the two exercise in a book. If there are 15 and 12 questions in the two exercises respectively, then in how many ways can the two questions be selected. S. 210 ways

(A)  1 → Q; 2 → R; 3 → S; 4 → P

(B)  1 → R; 2 → Q; 3 → S; 4 → P

(C)  1 → R; 2 → R; 3 → S; 4 → P

(D)  1 → R; 2 → Q; 3 → P; 4 → P

Answer: (B)

197. In a college tournament, in which the participants were to play one game with another, two class players did not participate, after having played 2 games each. If the total number of games played is 82, then the number of participants at the beginning, was :

(A)  15

(B)  22

(C)  25

(D)  10

Answer: (A)

198. The equation of line which makes the intercepts 1 and 2 on x and y axis is :

(A)  3x – y – 2 = 0

(B)  3x + y – 2 = 0

(C)  2x – y – 2 = 0

(D)  2x + y – 2 = 0

Answer: (D)

199. Let f be the subset of R × R defined by f = {(x, y) + x2 + y2 = 9}. Here, f is :

(A)  one-one

(B)  onto

(C)  none of these

(D)  bijective

Answer: (C)

200. Cosine of the angle between the lines whose vector equations are

R = 5i + 3j – 6k + λ)(2i + j + 2k) and

r = 7i – 6k + μ(i + 2j + 8k);

(λ, μ being parameters,) is :

(A)  23/3√69

(B)  23/√69

(C)  20/3√69

(D)  20/√69

Answer: (C)


Question : 68

133. Animals in which sexes are separate, that is, males and females are distinct are known as :

(A)  dioecious

(B)  hermaphrodite

(C)  transgender

(D)  monoecious

Answer: (A)

134. Identify the INCORRECT statement.

(A)  For bacteria to take up plasmid, the cells must be rendered DNA – competent.

(B)  Microparticles of platinum are utilized in gene gun.

(C)  Biolistics allows for the direct injection of recombinant DNA.

(D)  Disarmed pathogen vectors deliver recombinant DNA to hosts.

Answer: (B)

135. Which RNA acts as genetic material?

(A)  rRNA

(B)  mRNA

(C)  tRNA


Answer: (D)

136. Match the items given in column I with their functions in column II.

(A)  a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

(B)  a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

(C)  a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

(D)  a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

Answer: (D)

137. Which chlorophyll type is a primary, universal photosynthetic pigment and acts as reaction centre?

(A)  Chlorophyll d

(B)  Chlorophyll c

(C)  Chlorophyll b

(D)  Chlorophyll a

Answer: (D)

138. Arrange the following events of an action potential in the proper sequence.

(a) Repolarisation            (b) Influx of Na+

(c) Efflux of Na+             (d) Depolarisation

(A)  c, d, b, a

(B)  b, a, c, d

(C)  b, d, c, a

(D)  b, c, d, a

Answer: (C)

139. Which genetic disorder is sex-linked (X chromosome) and shows effect in the defective form of blood clotting factor VIII/IX ?

(A)  Sikle-cell anaemia

(B)  Haemophilia A/B

(C)  Phenylketonuria

(D)  Huntington’s disease

Answer: (B)

140. Rod-like structure, called notochord, is not present in animals belonging to Porifera to Echinodermata, they are called :

(A)  chordates

(B)  non-chordates

(C)  fishes

(D)  vertebrates

Answer: (B)

141. How many ATP are required for the synthesis of one glucose molecule in C3 pathway?

(A)  12 ATP

(B)  38 ATP

(C)  12 ATP

(D)  30 ATP

Answer: (A)

142. The matrix of mitochondria has :

(A)  Single circular DNA

(B)  Double stranded straight DNA

(C)  Double stranded circular DNA

(D)  Single straight DNA

Answer: (A)

143. What is the shape of a simple stirred-tank bioreactor?

(A)  A rectangular tank

(B)  Round bottom flask

(C)  Cylindrical tank

(D)  Volumetric flask

Answer: (C)

144. In prokaryotic cells mesosomes do not help in :

(A)  Hormone formation

(B)  Respiration

(C)  Cell wall formation

(D)  DNA replication

Answer: (A)

145. Which of the following symptoms is true about elephantiasis?

(A)  Obstructed intestinal passage

(B)  Respiratory problems

(C)  Genital organs are also frequently affected

(D)  Various parts of the body are covered in scaly lesions

Answer: (C)

146. Eggs and sperms are produced by the same individual are called :

(A)  heterosexual

(B)  intersex

(C)  dioecious

(D)  hermaphrodite

Answer: (D)

147. Mitochondria divides by:

(A)  fusion

(B)  budding

(C)  fission

(D)  vegetative propagation

Answer: (C)

148. In which of the following organisms – blood pumped by the heart is always circulated through a closed network of blood vessels?

(A)  Periplanata and Balanoglossus

(B)  Ascaris and Taenia

(C)  Pheretima and Rana

(D)  Rana and Balanoglossus

Answer: (C)

149. Sponges have a water canal system, in which water enters through ostia and goes out through :

(A)  coelom

(B)  pseudocoelom

(C)  osculum

(D)  coelenteron

Answer: (C)

150. The property of contact inhibition of cells is lost in ______ patients.

(A)  HIV

(B)  allergy

(C)  cancer

(D)  diabetes

Answer: (C)

151. Select the correctly matched set from the following options.

(A)  Birth canal : Uterus, cervical canal, vagina

(B)  Tertiary follicle : Antrun, theca layers, secondary oocyte

(C)  Female accessory ducts : Ovulation, fertilization, implanation.

(D)  Female external genitalia : Vagina, mons pubis, hymen, clitoris

Answer: (B)

152. Which syndrome arises due to translocation of the major portion of chromosome 21 to chromosome 14?

(A)  Klinefelter syndrome

(B)  Turner syndrome

(C)  Down’s syndrome

(D)  Phenylketonuria

Answer: (C)

153. The gaps between two adjacent myelin sheaths of a myelinated nerve fibre is called :

(A)  chemical synapse

(B)  synaptic cleft

(C)  nodes of Ranvier

(D)  electrical synapse

Answer: (C)

154. Select the INCORRECT combination.

(A)  Free nuclear endosperm – Ground nut

(B)  Cellular endosperm – Datura

(C)  Non endospermic seed – Bean

(D)  Endospermic seed – Castor

Answer: (A)

155. The prokaryotic cells are NOT represented by :

(A)  mycoplasma

(B)  blue-green algae

(C)  amoeba

(D)  bacteria

Answer: (C)

156. During reflex action, signal from a sensory organ transmits the impulse via a _____ into the spinal cord (CNS).

(A)  ventral nerve root

(B)  inter neuron

(C)  efferent pathway

(D)  dorsal nerve root

Answer: (D)

157. Chondrichthyes and Osteichthyes are classes in which fins are present for locomotion. They belong to the group :

(A)  Reptilia

(B)  Tetrapoda

(C)  Amphibia

(D)  Pisces

Answer: (D)

158. Which of the following statements regarding human reproduction are INCORRECT ?

(a)   The placenta develops within the ovarian cavity.

(b)   The placenta is present between the umbilical cord and the embryo.

(c)   Relaxin is an exclusive secretion of the placenta

(d)   Placenta is formed due to inter digitation of chorionic villi and myometrial tissue.

(A)  a, b and c

(B) a, b, c and d

(C)  b and d

(D)  b, c and d

Answer: (B)

159. Identify the invertebrate

(A)  Fishes

(B)  Insects

(C)  Amphibians

(D)  Reptiles

Answer: (B)

160. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

(A)  Lysine – basic amino acid

(B)  Uridylic acid – nucleotides

(C)  Valine – neutral amino acid

(D)  Glycerol – disaccharide

Answer: (D)

161. Osmolality of the glomerular filtrate can be 1200m Osmoi L1 in which of the following part

(A)  DCT in cortex

(B)  Bowman’s capsule in outer medulla

(C)  Hair pin bend of Henle’s loop in inner medulla

(D)  PCT in contex

Answer: (C)

162. Which part of the pituitary is under the direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus?

(A)  Pars distalis

(B)  Pars intermedia

(C)  Neurophypophysis

(D)  Adenohypophysis

Answer: (C)

163. Electron hole is formed in which chlorophyll reaction centre of photosynthesis?

(A)  Chlorophyll a675

(B)  Chlorophyll a683 (P680)

(C)  Chlorophyll a673

(D)  Chlorophyll a703(P700)

Answer: (D)

164. In leucoplasts of plant cells, elaioplasts store :

(A)  Carbohydrates

(B)  Oils and fats

(C)  Starch

(D)  Proteins

Answer: (B)

165. In which of the following places can antigens bind?

(A)  Place : 1 and 2

(B)  Place : 1, 2 and 3

(C)  Place : 1 and 3

(D)  Place : 2 and 3

Answer: (D)

166. Organisms having dorso-ventrally flattened body and known as ‘flatworms’ are classified under the phylum:

(A)  Annelida

(B)  Mollusca

(C)  Platyhelminthes

(D)  Porifera

Answer: (C)

167. Match the terms in column I with their descriptions in column II.

(A)  a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii

(B)  a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

(C)  a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

(D)  a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

Answer: (D)

168. Mendel proposed four postulates, where postulate 4 is referred to as the :

(A)  purity of gametes

(B)  principal of independent assortment of factors

(C)  dominant unit factor

(D)  principal of segregation

Answer: (B)

169. Which of the following bacteria is capable of producing DNA polymerase?

(A)  Thermus aquaticus

(B)  Escherichia coli

(C)  Bacillus thurengensis

(D)  Agrobacterium tumifaciens

Answer: (A)

170. Sella turcica is the depression in the sphenoid bond which lodges:

(A)  pituitary gland

(B)  thyroid

(C)  pineal gland

(D)  thymus

Answer: (A)

171. Second messengers generates response to all EXCEPT :

(A)  Cortisol

(B)  Thyrocalcitonin

(C)  Parathyroid hormone

(D)  Erythropoietin

Answer: (A)

172. Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya is an example of ______.

(A)  biosphere reserves

(B)  wildlife safari parks

(C)  zoological parks

(D)  sacred groves

Answer: (D)

173. What is the major RBC producing organ in our body ?

(A)  Tonsils

(B)  Bone marrow

(C)  Thymus

(D)  Spleen

Answer: (B)

174. Which genetic disorder results in mental retardation and is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait?

(A)  Phenylketonuria

(B)  Sickle-cell anaemia

(C)  Klinefelter syndrome

(D)  Down’s syndrome

Answer: (A)

175. The primary acceptor molecule Ribulose1, 5-biphosphate (RuBP) of Co2 fixation cycle was found by which scientist?

(A)  Basham

(B)  CR Slack

(C)  Dicker

(D)  MD Hatch

Answer: (A)

176. In conditions of low intensity of light and increases in temperature, the rate of photosynthesis will :

(A)  remain constant

(B)  decrease

(C)  rapidly increase

(D)  increase

Answer: (B)

177. Lysosomal vesicles do NOT contain :

(A)  Proteases

(B)  insulin

(C)  carbohydrates

(D)  lipases

Answer: (B)

178. In which place in 1856, Mendel started his experiments on controlled hybridization in garden peas?

(A)  Monstery garden at Heinzen Dorf

(B)  Monsastery garden of Bruno

(C)  Monastery garden at Hopkins University

(D)  Monastery garden at Vienna

Answer: (B)

179. When breathing causes wheezing it is a symptom of which of the following disease?

(A)  Emphysema

(B)  Gout

(C)  Jaundice

(D)  Asthma

Answer: (D)

180. In the context of reproductive health, ART refers to :

(A)  artificial method and techniques to prevent pregnancy.

(B)  intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term.

(C)  special techniques which assist infertile couples to have children

(D)  methods for the prevention and treatment of STIs.

Answer: (C)

181. Which of the following hormonal disorders is associated with the formation of harmful compounds known as ketone bodies?

(A)  Diabetes insipidus

(B)  Cretinism

(C)  Diabetes mellitus

(D)  Dwarfism

Answer: (C)

182. Which cell organelle is ABSENT in almost all plant cells ?

(A)  Centrioles

(B)  Ribosomes

(C)  Plastids

(D)  Mitochondria

Answer: (A)

183. The ultimate goal of practically all recombinant technologies is to generate a desirable_____.

(A)  DNA

(B)  bacteria

(C)  vectors

(D)  protein

Answer: (D)

184. Then +1 gamete is formed by the failure of paired homologus to separate at anaphase, process known as non-disjunction, appeared in :

(A)  Phenylketonuria

(B)  Down’s syndrome

(C)  Sickle-cells anaemia

(D)  Turner syndrome

Answer: (B)

185. Identify the INCORRECT statement about adaptation :

(A)  Many adaptations are genetically predetermined.

(B)  Some desert plants, such as Opuntia, do not have leaves.

(C)  Leaf surfaces of many desert plants are covered in a thick layer of cuticle.

(D)  Penguin may concentrate their urine to require less water to excrete

Answer: (D)

186. ______ are areas allocated for wildlife where they can freely utilize their habitats and natural resources.

(A)  Wildlife Sanctuaries

(B)  National parks

(C)  Protected forests

(D)  Biosphere Reserves

Answer: (B)

187. Chitinase can be found in which organism?

(A)  Bacteria

(B)  Virus

(C)  Fungi

(D)  Protozoa

Answer: (C)

188. During photosynthesis, assimilatory power ATP only synthesizes in which process of photosynthesis?

(A)  cyclic photophosphorylation

(B)  Non-cyclic photophosphorylation

(C)  Photolysis

(D)  Photosystem-II

Answer: (A)

189. Identify the true statement related to immunity.

(A)  There are eight peptide chains in each antibody molecule

(B)  A non-specific form of defence is acquired immunity

(C)  Interferons are proteins secreted by virus-infected cells.

(D)  T-lymphocytes are responsible for the production of antibodies.

Answer: (C)

190. Which of the following is NOT a part of innate immunity?

(A)  Cellular barriers

(B)  Blood-brain barriers

(C)  Physical barriers

(D)  Cytokine barriers

Answer: (B)

191. GIFT is an assisted reproductive technology indicated for a woman :

(A)  Who wants to get rid of unwanted pregnancy

(B)  Who cannot provide a suitable environment for fertilization

(C)  Whose uterus does not support implantation

(D)  Who cannot produce an ovum

Answer: (D)

192. Which of the following is NOT an altitude sickness symptom ?

(A)  Heart palpitations

(B)  Nausea

(C)  Fatigue

(D)  Anaemia

Answer: (D)

193. In an aquatic plant like water lily pollination is brought about by :

(A)  Water

(B)  Insects only

(C)  Wind or insects

(D)  Wind only

Answer: (C)

194. The characteristic feature of some animals, in which body is divided externally and internally into segments with serial repetition of some organs, is called :

(A)  coelenteron

(B)  spongocoel

(C)  mesoderm

(D)  metamerism

Answer: (D)

195. In which phase of the uterine cycle does implantation occurs ?

(A)  Menstrual phase

(B)  Proliferative phase

(C)  Ovulatory phase

(D)  Secretory phase

Answer: (D)

196. Which plants can tolerate high temperature and have greater productivity of biomass?

(A)  C3 plants

(B)  CAM plants

(C)  C2 plants

(D)  C4 plants

Answer: (D)

197. Which cycle plants are adapted to overcome photorespiration and deliver Co2 directly to the enzyme RuBisCo ?

(A)  CAM cycle plants

(B)  C2 cycle plants

(C)  C4 cycle plants

(D)  C3 cycle plants

Answer: (C)

198. How many hormones given below are increased several fold in the maternal blood during pregnancy?

(a) Thyroxine       (b) Progesterone

(c) Cortisol           (d) Oestrogens

(e) Prolactin

(A)  5

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  2

Answer: (A)

199. Which genetic disorder is inherited as a dominant trait?

(A)  Cystic fibrosis

(B)  Colour blindness

(C)  Huntington’s disease

(D)  Phenylketonuria

Answer: (C)

  1. The structure similar to notochord that is present in the collar region of Balanoglossus is called :

(A)  cartilage

(B)  vertebrae

(C)  stomochord

(D)  nerve chord

Answer: (C)

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key

OUAT Previous Question Paper-2021


1. An automobile engine of mass N accelerates and constants power p is applied by the engine. The instantaneous speed of the engine will be

Answer: (b)

2. A constant torque acting on a uniform circular wheel changes its angular momentum from L to 4L in 4 second. The magnitude of this torque will be

(a)   L

(b)   4L

(c)   3L/4

(d)   12L

Answer: (c)

3. The resultant force on the current loop. PQRS due to along current carrying conductor will be

(a)   104N

(b)   3.5 × 104N

(c)   1.8 × 104N

(d)   5 × 104N

Answer: (d)

4. A capacitor with plate separation ‘d’ is charged to ‘V’ volts. The battery is disconnected and a dielectric slab of thickness d/2 and dielectric constant ‘2’ is inserted between the plates. The potential difference across its terminals becomes

(a)   V

(b)   2V

(c)   4V/2

(d)   3V/4

Answer: (d)

5. The total energy, stored in the condenser system, shown in the figure below is

(a)   2 mJ

(b)   4 mJ

(c)   8 mJ

(d)   16 mJ

Answer: (c)

6. Two slits separated by a distance of 1 mm are illuminated with red light of wavelength 6.5 × 107 The interference fringes are observed on a screen placed 1 m from the slits. The distance between the third dark fringe and the fifth bright fringes on the same side of central maxima is

(a)   0.65 mm

(b)   1.62 mm

(c)   3.25 mm

(d)   4.88 mm

Answer: (b)

7. A spherical ball is falling with a uniform velocity v through a viscous medium of coefficient of viscosity n. If the viscous force acting on the spherical ball is F then

(a)   F ∝ η and F ∝ 1/v

(b)   F ∝ η and F ∝ v

(c)   F ∝ 1/η and F ∝ 1/v

(d)   F ∝ 1/η and F ∝ v

Answer: (b)

8. Determine the r.m.s value of a semicircular current wave which has a maximum value of a

Answer: (a)

9. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are:

(a)   FV1T1

(b)   FVT1

(c)   FV1T

(d)   FVT2

Answer: (c)

10. During charging a capacitor, the variation of potential V of the capacitor with time t is

Answer: (d)

11. A force of 0.5 N is applied on upper block as shown in figure. The work done by lower block on upper for a displacement 3m of the upper block is

(Take g = 10 m/s2)

(a)   1 joule

(b)   −1 joule

(c)   2 joule

(d)   −2 joule

Answer: (a)

12. A photon of wavelength 900 nm behaves like a particle of mass

(a)   5.53 × 1036 kg

(b)   0 kg

(c)   2.46 × 1036 kg

(d)   1.84 × 1044 kg

Answer: (c)

13. Three point masses m1, m2 and m3 are placed at the corners of a thin rectangular sheet (1.2m ×0m) as shown. Centre of mass will be located at the point.

(a)   (0.8, 0.6)m

(b)   (0.6, 0.8)m

(c)   (0.4, 0.4)m

(d)   (0.5, 0.6)m

Answer: (c)

14. The resistance across A and B in the figure below will be

(a)   3R

(b)   R

(c)   R/3

(d)   None

Answer: (d)

15. A straight wire of length 2 m carries a current of 10A. If this wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.15T making an angle of 45 with the magnetic field, the applied force on the wire will be

(a)   1.5N

(b)   3√2N

(c)   3N

(d)   3/√2

Answer: (d)

16. An electron is placed on X-axis where the electric potential depends on x as shown in the figure (the potential does not depend on y and z). What is the electric force on the electron?

(a)   4.0 × 1018 N

(b)   8.0× 1018 N

(c)   3.0 × 1016 N

(d)   4.0 × 1016 N

Answer: (d)

17. A carrier was is modulated by n number of sine wave with modulation indices μ1, μ2, μ3 … The total modulation index (μ) of the wave is

(a)   μ1 + μ2 + μ3 . + …

Answer: (b)

18. A solid cylinder first rolls without sliding and then slides without rolling down the same inclined plane. The ratio of velocities in the two cases, at the bottom of the plane, is

(a)   1 : 2

(b)   1 : 3

(c)   √6 : 3

(d)   √3 : 1

Answer: (c)

19. An automobile engine of mass M accelerates and a constant power p is applied by the engine. The instantaneous speed of the engine will be

Answer: (b)

20. A charge +q is placed at the origin O of X-Y axes as shown in figure below. The work done in taking a charge Q from A to B along the straight line AB is

Answer: (a)

21. A particle is projected from the ground with kinetic energy E at an angle of 60° with the horizontal. Its kinetic energy at the highest point of its motion will be:

(a)   E/√2

(b)   E/2

(c)   E/4

(d)   E/8

Answer: (c)

22. Refer to the figure, Potential difference between A and B is

(a)   zero

(b)   5 V

(c)   10 V

(d)   15 V

Answer: (d)

23. In the following diagrams, all the charges have equal magnitude. Electric field is zero at the centre of

Answer: (d)

24. In an LCR series a-c circuit, the voltage across LC combination is

(a)   50 V

(b)   50√2 V

(c)   100 V

(d)   zero

Answer: (d)

25. A block of mass ‘m’ as shown the figure is pulled by a force 40 N. The tension at the middle of the block is

(a)   10 N

(b)   20 N

(c)   25 N

(d)   30 N

Answer: (b)

26. Some water drops of radius r each coalesce to form a big drop of radius R. The rise in temperature is given by

(a)   rT/J

(b)   3T/Jr



Answer: (c)

27. An air bubble is contained inside water. It behaves as a:

(a)   concave lens

(b)   convex lens

(c)   neither concave nor convex

(d)   none of these

Answer: (a)

28. A ray of light travelling in glass (μ = 3/2) is incident on a horizo glass-air surface at the critical angle. If a thin layer of water (μ = 4/3) is poured on the glass-air surface. The angle at which the ray emerges into air at the water-air surface is

(a)   0

(b)   π/4

(c)   π/3

(d)   π/2

Answer: (d)

29. Which one of the following is the correct graph between energy and wavelength for a given photon?

Answer: (a)

30. A 5F capacitor has potential difference across its plates of 200 volt. The charge on the capacitor is

(a)   2.5 × 108 C

(b)   10 to 5C

(c)   103C

(d)   4 × 103C

Answer: (c)

31. If ϕ1 and ϕ2 are the angels of dip in two vertical planes at right angles to each other and ϕ is the true angle of dip then

(a)   cot2 ϕ = cot2 ϕ1 + cot2 ϕ2

(b)   tan2 ϕ = tan2 ϕ1 + tan2 ϕ2

(c)   cot ϕ = cot ϕ1 + cot ϕ2

(d)   tan ϕ = tan ϕ1 + tan ϕ2

Answer: (b)

32. A radioactive substance decays to 1/16th of its initial activity in 40 days. The half-life of the radioactive substance expressed in days is

(a)   2.5

(b)   5

(c)   10

(d)   20

Answer: (c)

33. If a charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges Q such that the system is in equilibrium, then the value of q is

(a)   Q/2

(b)   −Q/2

(c)   −Q/4

(d)   Q/4

Answer: (c)

34. Two coherent sources S1 and S2 are separated by a small distanced as shown. The fringes obtained on the screen will be

(a)   points

(b)   straight lines

(c)   semi-circle

(d)   concentric circles

Answer: (d)

35. In Young’s double slits experiment, the length of band is 1 mm. The fringe width is 0.021 mm. The number of fringes is

(a)   45

(b)   46

(c)   47

(d)   48

Answer: (c)

36. If power dissipated in 9Ω resistor in the circuit shown is 36 Watt, the potential difference across 2Ω resistor is

(a)   2 volt

(b)   4 volt

(c)   8 volt

(d)   10 volt

Answer: (d)

37. The position time graphs of two cars ‘A’ and ‘B’ are straight lines making angles 30° and 60° with time axis respectively. The ratio of velocities of ‘A’ and ‘B’ is

(a)   1 : √2

(b)   1 : 3

(c)   √3 : 1

(d)   3 : 1

Answer: (b)

38. Water is flowing in streamline motion through a horizontal tube. The pressure at a point in the tube is p where the velocity of flow is ν. At another point, where the pressure is p/2, the velocity of flow is [density of water = ρ]

Answer: (a)

39. If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, its de Broglie wavelength changes by the factor

(a)   1/√2

(b)   √2

(c)   1/2

(d)   2

Answer: (a)

40. A composite slab made up of two different material having thickness 2x and 8x, thermal conductivity 2K and 4K respectively and temperatures T2 and T1 (T2 > T1). The rate of heat transfer through the slab, in a steady state is  with f equals to

(a)   1

(b)   1/2

(c)   2/3

(d)   1/3

Answer: (d)

41. The amount of heat generated in 500 Ω resistance when the keys is thrown over from constant 1 to 2, as shown in figure is

(a)   40 × 103 J

(b)   50 × 103 J

(c)   60 × 103 J

(d)   30 × 103 J

Answer: (c)

42. Effective capacitance between A and B in the figure shown below, is (capacitance are in μF)

(a)   21 μF

(b)   23 μF



Answer: (d)

43. In a conical pendulum the length of strings is ‘l’ and ‘θ’ is the angle of strings with vertical. The time period of revolution is

Answer: (b)

44. The magnetic field at the point of intersection of diagonals of a square wire loop of side L carrying a current is

Answer: (a)

45. An electric motor operating on 15V supply draws a current of 5A and yields mechanical powers of 60W. The energy lost as heat in one hour (in kJ) is :

(a)   0.54

(b)   5.4

(c)   54

(d)   540

Answer: (c)

46. Four persons are initially at the four corners of a square whose side is equal to d. Each person now moves with a uniform speed V in such a way that the first move directly towards the second, the second directly towards the third, the third directly towards the fourth and the fourth directly towards the first. The four persons meet after a time equals to

(a)   d/V

(b)   2d/3V

(c)   2d/√3V

(d)   d/√3V

Answer: (a)

47. In the given graph, adiabatic and isothermal curves are shown:

(a)   the curve A is isothermal

(b)   the curve B is isothermal

(c)   the curve A is adiabatic

(d)   Both (b) and (c) are correct

Answer: (d)

48. Which is the value of emf E in the figure below?

VL = 40 V, VR = 80 V

VC = 100 V, E1 = 50 Hz

(a)   200 V

(b)   140 V

(c)   100 V

(d)   20 V

Answer: (c)

49. In semiconductors which of the following relations is correct at thermal equilibrium?

(a)   n = ne = nh

(b)   n12 = nenh

(c)   n1 = ne/nh

(d)   n1 = ne + nh

Answer: (b)

50. A body is moving along a circular path with constant speed. If the direction of rotation is reversed and the speed is doubled, then

(a)   the direction of centripetal acceleration is doubled

(b)   the magnitude of centripetal acceleration is doubled

(c)   the direction of centripetal acceleration remains unchanged

(d)   the magnitude of centripetal acceleration is halved

Answer: (c)

51. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V and bounces back with the same velocity. The impulse experienced by the body is:

(a)   MV

(b)   1.5 MV

(c)   2 Mv

(d)   Zero

Answer: (c)

52. In a common emitter configuration with suitable bias, it is given that RL is the load resistance and RBE is small signal dynamic resistance (input side). Then voltage gain, current gain and power gain are given respectively (β is current gain IB, IC, IE are respectively base, collector and emitter currents).

Answer: (d)

53. A weight W is suspended from the midpoint of a rope, whose ends are at the same level. In order to make the rope perfectly horizontal, the force applied to each of its ends must be

(a)   less than W

(b)   equal to W

(c)   equal to 2W

(d)   infinitely large

Answer: (d)

54. The critical speed of an artificial satellite is

(a)   8 km/s

(b)   8.1 km/s

(c)   7.9 km/s

(d)   8 m/s

Answer: (c)

55. By increasing temperature of a gas by 6°C its pressure increases by 0.4% at constant volume. Then initial temperature of gas is

(a)   1000 K

(b)   1500 K

(c)   2000 K

(d)   750 K

Answer: (b)

56. In a given process of an ideal gas, dW = 0 and dQ < 0. Then for the gas

(a)   the temperature will decrease

(b)   the volume will increase

(c)   the pressure will remain constant

(d)   the temperature will increase

Answer: (a)

57. The charge on the capacitor in steady state in the circuit shown is

(a)   0.5 μC

(b)   1 μC

(c)   2 μC

(d)   4 μC

Answer: (b)

58. Six point charges are arranged at the vertices of a regular hexagon of side length a (shown in figure). The magnitude of electric field at the centre of regular hexagon is

(a)   q/4πε0a2

(b)   Zero

(c)   q/2πε0a2

(d)   None

Answer: (d)

59. The ratio of minimum wavelength of Lyman and Balmer series will be

(a)   1.25

(b)   0.18

(c)   5

(d)   10

Answer: (b)

60. A square frame of side ‘l’ carries a current ‘t’. The magnetic fields at its centre is B. The same current is passed through a circular coil having the same perimeter as the square. The field at the centre of the circular coil is Bʹ. The ratio of B and Bʹ is

(a)   8√2/π2

(b)   8√2/π3

(c)   8√2/π

(d)   4√2/π

Answer: (a)

61. In the figure below, the capacitance of each capacitor is 3 μF. The effective capacitance between A and B is


(b)   −3μF

(c)   6μF

(d)   5μF

Answer: (c)

62. Two satellites of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are revolving around the earth in orbits of radii r1 and r2(r1 > r2) with velocities v1 and v2 In this case

(a)   v1 = v2

(b)   v1 < v2

(c)   v1 > v2

(d)   v1/r1 = v2/r2

Answer: (c)

63. The amplitude of a wave represented by displacement equation  will be

Answer: (d)

64. Which one of the following diagrams correctly represents the energy levels in the p-type semiconductor?

Answer: (c)

65. A heater coil is cut into two equal parts and only one part is now used in the heater. The heat generated will now be

(a)   one fourth

(b)   halved

(c)   doubled

(d)   four times

Answer: (b)

66. Springs of spring constant K, 3K, 9K, 2K, … ∞ are connected in series. Equivalent spring constant of the combination is

(a)   3K/2

(b)   K/2

(c)   2K/3

(d)   ∞

Answer: (c)


67. What is the major product obtained from the following reaction?

H2N−CH2−CH2−OH+CH3Na (one mole)→

(a)   CH3−NH−CH2−OH

(b)   H2N−CH2−CH2−O−CH3

(c)   CH4−NaNH−CH2−CH2−OH

(d)   CH4+H2N−CH2−CH2−ONa

Answer: (d)

68. The no. of H+ in 10 ml of a solution with pH = 13 is :

(a)   1013

(b)   6.023 × 108

(c)   6.023 × 1010

(d)   6.023 × 1013

Answer: (b)

69. The enthalpy of vaporization of liquid water using the date.

(a)   +43.93 kJ/mol

(b)   −43.93 kJ/mol

(c)   +527.61 kJ/mol

(d)   −527.61 kJ/mol

Answer: (c)

70. In the relation, Electronegativity  r is

(a)   Metallic radius

(b)   Ionic radius

(c)   van der Walls radius

(d)   Covalent radius

Answer: (d)

71. The equivalent conductance of an aqueous solution of 1.0283 × 103 g equivalent acetic acid per litre is 48.15Ω1 cm2 equiv1 at 25°C and at infinite dilution value is 390.7Ω1 cm2 equiv1. Calculate the degree of ionization and ionization constant of acetic acid.

(a)   0.1232, 1.78×105

(b)   0.223, 10.2×105

(c)   0.229, 1.78×105

(d)   0.531, 2.85×105

Answer: (a)

72. The maximum number of molecules is present in

(a)   15 L of H2 gas at STP

(b)   5L of N2 gas at STP

(c)   0.5g of H2 gas

(d)   10g of O2 gas

Answer: (a)

73. IUPAC name for the following compound is

(a)   1, 3-pentamethyl propane

(b)   1, 1, 3, 3-tetramethyl butane

(c)   2, 4, 4, 5-trimethyl pentane

(d)   2, 2, 4-trimethyl pentane

Answer: (d)

74. Biodegradable detergent should have

(a)   Phynyl side chain

(b)   Aromatic side chain

(c)   Normal unbranched side chain

(d)   Branched side chain

Answer: (c)

75. Which of the following is correct regarding the I-effect of the substituents?

(a)   −NR2 < −OR < −F

(b)   −NR2 > −OR < −F

(c)   −NR2 < −OR > −F

(d)   −NR2 > −OR > −F

Answer: (a)

76. Consider the following reaction:

The product Z is

(a)   Benzaldehyde

(b)   Benzene

(c)   Benzoic acid

(d)   Toluene

Answer: (c)

77. The total number of π-bond electrons in the following structure is

(a)   4

(b)   8

(c)   12

(d)   16

Answer: (b)

78. Which plot represents an exothermic reaction?

Answer: (a)

79. The hydrocarbon which can react with sodium in liquid ammonia is

(a)   CH3CH = CHCH3

(b)   CH3CH3C = CCHCH3

(c)   CH3CH3C = CCH3CH3CH3

(d)   CH3CH3C = CH

Answer: (d)

80. Which of the following statement is TRUE?

(a)   Molarity of solution is independent of temperature

(b)   Molality of solution is independent of temperature

(c)   Mole fraction of solute is dependent on temperature

(d)   The unit of molality is mol dm3

Answer: (b)

81. The IUPAC name Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] the IUPAC name is

(a)   sodium pentacyanonitrate

(b)   sodium pentacyanonitrosy lferous(II)

(c)   sodium pentacyanonitrosylferrate (II)

(d)   disodium pentacyanonitrosylferrate (II)

Answer: (c)

82. Bond lengths of C−H, C−O, C−C and C=C follow the sequence

(a)   C – H < C – O < C – C < C = C

(b)   C – H < C = C < C – O < C − C

(c)   C – C < C = C < C – O < C − H

(d)   C – O < C – H < C – C < C = C

Answer: (b)

83. For the non-stoichiometric reaction, 2A+B→C + D the following kinetic data were obtained in three separate experiments, all at 298 K.

The rate law for the formation of C is

Answer: (d)

84. Which of the functional groups on the following molecule are susceptible to nucleophilic attack?

(a)   ‘a’ and ‘b’

(b)   a’ and ‘c’

(c)   ‘b’ and ‘c’

(d)   ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’

Answer: (b)

85. What is the correct increasing order of liquefiability of the gas?

(a)   H2 < N2 < CH4 < CO2

(b)   H2 < CO2 < CH4 < N2

(c)   CO2 < CH4 < N2 < H2

(d)   CO2 < CH­4 < H2 < N2

Answer: (b)

86. The reaction of an ester ROORʹ with an alcohol RʹʹOH is presence of an acid gives.

(a)   RʹCOOR

(b)   RʹCOOH

(c)   RCOORʹʹ

(d)   RʹʹCOOR

Answer: (b)

87. Which of the following substance form a colloidal solution in water?

(a)   Glucose

(b)   Urea

(c)   BaSO4

(d)   Starch

Answer: (d)

88. Copper crystallises in FCC lattice with a u nit cell edge of 361 pm. The radius of copper atom is

(a)   181 pm

(b)   108 pm

(c)   128 pm

(d)   157 pm

Answer: (c)

89. In the extraction of cooper from its sulphide ore, the metal is formed by the reduction of Cu2O with

(a)   FeS

(b)   CO

(c)   Cu2S

(d)   SO2

Answer: (c)

90. What is the formal charge of the oxygen atom of the following compound?

(a)   +3

(b)   +1

(c)   −2

(d)   −3

Answer: (b)

91. Dimer Al2Cl6 is formed because

(a)   aluminium is electron rich

(b)   aluminium is having lone pair of electron

(c)   aluminium forms coordinate bonds with chlorine to complete its octet

(d)   aluminium donates lone pair to form bridge

Answer: (a)

92. The standard reduction potential for Fe2+|Fe and Sn2+|Sn electrodes are −44 and −0.14 V respectively for the cell reaction:

Fe2+ + 2n → Fe + Sn2+, the standard emf is

(a)   +0.30 V

(b)   −0.58 V

(c)   +0.58 V

(d)   −0.30 V

Answer: (d)

93. When 800 g of a 40% solution by weight was cooled, 10g of solute was precipitated. The percentage composition of the remaining solution is

(a)   20.0%

(b)   25.0%

(c)   31.4%

(d)   50.0%

Answer: (c)

94. For the gas phase reaction,

C2H4 + H2 – C2H6; (∆H = −32.7 Kcal) carried out in a vessel, the equilibrium concentration of C2H4 can be increased by

(a)   decreasing the pressure

(b)   increasing the temperature

(c)   removing some C2H6

(d)   adding some H2

Answer: (a)

95. On which factors interface depends?

(a)   Size of the molecules in the bulk phase

(b)   Weight of the molecules in the bulk phase

(c)   Numbers of molecules in the bulk phase

(d)   Physical state of molecules in the bulk phase

Answer: (a)

96. The Gibbs energy for decomposition Al2O3 at 500°C is as follows:

The potential difference needed for electrolytic reduction of Al2O3 at 500°C is at latest

(a)   5V

(b)   4.5V

(c)   3V

(d)   2.5V

Answer: (d)

97. Which of the following carbohydrate CANNOT be digested by human body?

(a)   Starch

(b)   Cellulose

(c)   Glycogen

(d)   All of these

Answer: (b)

98. For a weak acid with α, as its degree of dissociation, the value of dissociation constant is given by

[C is concentration of acid in mole per litre).

(a)   Ka = Cα

(b)   Ka = Cα2

(c)   Ka = C2α

(d)   Ka = C2α2

Answer: (b)

99. Which of the following nitrogen oxides is ionic?

(a)   Nitrogen trioxide

(b)   Nitrogen pentoxide

(c)   Dinitrogen tetroxide

(d)   Nitric oxide

Answer: (b)

100. 1 M solution each of Cu(NO3)2, AgNO3, Hg2(NO3)2 and Mg(NO3)2 is electrolyzed using Pt-electrodes. The values of standard electrode potentials in volts are Ag+/ASg = +0.08V, Cu2+/Cu = +0.34 V, Hg22+/Hg = +0.79 V, Mg2+/Mg = −37V. The sequence of deposition of metals on the cathode will be

(a)   Mg > Ag > Cu

(b)   Mg > Cu > Ag

(c)   Ag > Hg > Cu

(d)   Cu > Hg > Ag

Answer: (c)

101. Which bond is the smallest?

Answer: (b)

102. Among the alkenes which one produces tertiary butyl alcohol on acid hydration?

(a)   (CH3)2C = CH2

(b)   CH3 – CH = CH – CH3

(c)   CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH2

(d)   CH3 – CH = CH2

Answer: (a)

103. Which of the following is used as fire extinguisher under the name pyrene?

(a)   CO2

(b)   CCl4

(c)   CH2 = CH−Cl

(d)   Cl−CH=CH−Cl

Answer: (b)

104. Zn(s) + Cl2 (1 atm) → Zn2+ + 2Cl, The E° of the cell is 2.12 V. To increase E

(a)   Zn2+ concentration should be increased

(b)   Zn2+ concentration should be decreased

(c)   Cl concentration should be increased

(d)   partial pressure of Cl2 should be decreased

Answer: (a)

105. In a reversible process, if the changes in entropy of the system and its surroundings are ∆S1 and ∆S2 respectively then

(a)   ∆S1 + ∆S2 > 0

(b)   ∆S1 + ∆S2 > 0

(c)   ∆S1 + ∆S2 = 0

(d)   ∆S1 + ∆S2 ≥ 0

Answer: (a)

106. Which of the following statements is NOT true for hydrolysis of XeF6?

(a)   XeOF4 is formed

(b)   XeO2F2 is formed

(c)   It is a redox reaction

(d)   XeO3 is formed

Answer: (c)

107. Which of the following will NOT affect the value of the equilibrium constant of a reaction?

(a)   Change in the concentration of the reactants

(b)   Change in temperature

(c)   Addition of catalyst

(d)   All of these

Answer: (b)

108. The IUPAC name of


(a)   2-methyl-3-bromohexanal

(b)   2-methyl-3-bromobutanal

(c)   3-bromo-2-methylbutanal

(d)   3-bromo-2-methylpentanal

Answer: (d)

109. An electrochemical cell has two half cell reactions as,

A2+ + 2e → A       E° = 0.34 V

X → X2 + 2e        E° = 2.37 V

The cell voltage will be

(a)   2.71 V

(b)   2.03 V

(c)   −2.71 V

(d)   −2.03 V

Answer: (b)

110. The electronic configuration of gadolinium (At No. 64) is

(a)   [Xe]4f85d06s2

(b)   [Xe]4f75d16s2

(c)   [Xe]4f35d56s2

(d)   [Xe]4f65d26s2

Answer: (b)

111. The compound which is used to extinguish fire caused by combustion of alkali metals is

(a)   CCl4

(b)   Sand

(c)   Water

(d)   Kerosene

Answer: (a)

112. In the following reaction

The product ‘P’ is :

(a)   RCHO

(b)   R2CHOEt

(c)   R3CH

(d)   RCH(OEt)2

Answer: (a)

113. A crystal lattice with alternate +ve and –ve ions has radius ratio 0.524. Its co-ordination number is

(a)   4

(b)   3

(c)   6

(d)   12

Answer: (c)

114. Which of the following alkenes would have the largest Imax­?

Answer: (d)

115. At 25°C and 730 mm pressure, 380 ml of dry oxygen was collected. If the temperature is constant what volume will the oxygen occupying at 760 mm pressure?

(a)   569 ml

(b)   365 ml

(c)   265 ml

(d)   621 ml

Answer: (b)

116. Number of atoms of oxygen present in 10.6 g Na2CO3 will be

(a)   6.02 × 1022

(b)   12.04 × 1022

(c)   1.806 × 1023

(d)   31.80 × 1028

Answer: (c)

117. In strong acidic and alkaline medium, p-amonophenol exists in (X) an d(Y) forms respectively

Thus, in acidic and alkaline medium, electrophilic substitution occurs at

(a)   a, c

(b)   a, d

(c)   b, c

(d)   b, d

Answer: (a)

118. When glycerol is heated with KHSO4 it gives

(a)   CH2 = CH – CH3

(b)   CH2 = CH – CH2OH

(c)   CH2 = CH – CHO

(d)   CH2 = C = CH2

Answer: (c)

119. The phenomenon of optical activity will be shown by

Answer: (b)

120. Which of the following would NOT be reasonable nucleophile in SN2 reaction?

(a)   NH3

(b)   NC

(c)   H2O

(d)   HO

Answer: (a)

121. Exothermic reaction among the following is

(a)   combustion of N2 from NO

(b)   decomposition of H2O

(c)   conversion of diamond to graphite

(d)   dehydrogenation of ethane to ethane

Answer: (c)

122. Isoprene is the monomeric unit of which of the following polymers?

(a)   Dacron

(b)   Natural rubber

(c)   Bakelite

(d)   Polyvinyl chloride

Answer: (c)

123. A mixture containing N2 and H­2 in a mole ratio 1 : 3 is allowed to attain equilibrium when 50% of the mixture has reacted. If P is the pressure a equilibrium, then the partial pressure of NH3 formed is

(a)   P/2

(b)   P/3

(c)   P/5

(d)   P/9

Answer: (b)

124. Two aromatic compounds having formula C7H8O which easily identifiable by FeCl3 solution test (violet coloration) are

(a)   0-cresol and benzyl alcohol

(b)   m-cresol and p-cresol

(c)   o-cresol and p-cersol

(d)   methyl phenyl ether and benzyl alcohol

Answer: (a)

125. Which graph will show equilibrium condition ?

Answer: (c)

126. Calculate the standard heat of reaction for Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Zn+2(aq) + Cu(s)

(a)   −217 KJ/mole

(b)   +217 KJ/mole

(c)   −88 KJ/mole

(d)   +88 KJ/mole

Answer: (a)

127. The reaction of CH3CH = CH2 with HOCL will yield.

(a)   2-chloro-1-propanol

(b)   3-chloro-2-propanol

(c)   1-chloro-2-propanol

(d)   1-chloro-1-propanol

Answer: (c)

128. Out of the following compounds, which one would have a zero dipole moment?

(a)   1, 1-Dichloroethylene

(b)   cis-1, 2-Dichloroethylene

(c)   tans-1, 2-Dichloroethylene

(d)   None of these compounds

Answer: (c)

129. At 250°C, the correct order of molar ionic conductances of the ions H+, Li+, Na+ and K+ in infinite dilute aqueous solution is

(a)   H+ < Li+ < Na+ < K+

(b)   K+ < Na+ < Li+ < H+

(c)   Li+ < Na+ < K+ < H+

(d)   Li+ < K+ < H+ < Na+

Answer: (a)

130. Which one of the following is an example of homogeneous catalysis?

(a)   Manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process

(b)   Manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process

(c)   Hydrogenation of oil

(d)   Hydrolysis of sucrose in presence of dilute hydrochloric acid

Answer: (d)

131. When one coulomb’ of electricity is passed through an electrolytic solution, the mass deposited on the electrode is equal to

(a)   equivalent weight

(b)   molecular weight

(c)   electrochemical equivalent

(d)   one gram

Answer: (c)

132. Which of the following compound shows optical isomerism?

(a)   [Cu(NH3)4]2+

(b)   [ZnCl4]2

(c)   [Cr(C2O4)2]3

(d)   None

Answer: (c)


133. The sum of the series  is

Answer: (d)

134. The equation (cop-1) x2 + (cos p) x + sin p = 0, where x is a variable, has real roots the p lies in

(a)   (0, 2π)

(b)   (−π, 0)

(c)   (−π/2, π/2)

(d)   (0, π)

Answer: (c)

135. What is the value of 

(a)   0

(b)   1/6

(c)   1/3

(d)   1

Answer: (a)

136. Let A = {a, b, c, d} and f : A → A be defined by, f(a) = d, f(b) = a, f(d) = c. State which of the following is equal to f(b)?

(a)   {a}

(b)   {b}

(c)   {c}

(d)   {d}

Answer: (c)

137. If  then

(a)   Re(z) = 0

(b)   lm(z) = 0

(c)   Re(z) > 0, lm(z) < 0

(d)   Re(z) < 0, lm(z) > 0

Answer: (c)

138. The value of  is

(a)   π

(b)   π/6

(c)   π/3

(d)   π/4

Answer: (b)

139. Area of the greatest rectangle that can be inscribed in an ellipse  is

(a)   2ba

(b)   ab

(c)   √ab

(d)   a/b

Answer: (a)

140. If the three points (3q, 0), (0, 3p) and (1, 1) are collinear, then which one is TURE?

Answer: (c)

141. If the position vector  of the point (5, n) is such that  then what is the value of n?

(a)   ±12

(b)   0

(c)   ±1

(d)   4

Answer: (a)

142. Let A be a square matrix of order 3 × 3, then |KA| is equal to

(a)   K|A|

(b)   K2|A|

(c)   K3|A|

(d)   3K|A|

Answer: (c)

143. If the coefficients of x7 and x8 in  are equal, then value of n is

(a)   56

(b)   55

(c)   47

(d)   19

Answer: (b)

144. Let  satisfied A2 + aA + bI = 0, then a, b are respectively equal to

(a)   −4, 2

(b)   −3, 3

(c)   −4, 1

(d)   −3, 1

Answer: (c)

145. If the angle θ between the line  and the plane 2x – y + √λx + 4 = 0, is such that θ = 1/3, then the value of λ is

(a)   5/3

(b)   −3/5

(c)   3/4

(d)   −4/3

Answer: (a)

146. The derivative of  is

(a)   1/8

(b)   1/4

(c)   1/2

(d)   1

Answer: (b)

147. Which of the following is ODD function?

Answer: (b)

148. The smallest positive integer n for which  holds is

(a)   1

(b)   2

(c)   3

(d)   4

Answer: (b)

149. If  then f(x) is equal to

Answer: (d)

150. The equations of perpendicular bisectors of the sides AB and AC of a triangle ABC are x – y + 5 = 0 and equation of the line BC is

(a)   23x + 14y – 40 = 0

(b)   23x + 14y + 40 = 0

(c)   14x + 23y – 40 = 0

(d)   14x + 23y + 40 = 0

Answer: (c)

151. If x + |y| = 2y, then y as a function of x is

(a)   defined for all real x

(b)   continuous at x = 0

(c)   such that  for x < 0

(d)   All of these

Answer: (d)

152. Value of  is

Answer: (b)

153. Consider the matrices X4×3, y4×3 and P2×3. The order of [P(XTY)1PT]T will be

(a)   (2 × 2)

(b)   (3 × 3)

(c)   (4 × 3)

(d)   (3 × 4)

Answer: (a)

154. The sum of the series  is equal to

(a)   2 loge2

(b)   loge2 – 1

(c)   loge2

(d)   loge(4/e)

Answer: (d)

155. Three positive numbers form an increasing GP. If the middle term in this GP, is tripled, the new numbers are in A.P. Then the common ratio of GP, is

(a)   3 + 2√2

(b)   2√2 – 3

(c)   2 + 2√3

(d)   2√2 + √3

Answer: (a)

156. The least value of n so that y n = yn+1 where y = x2 + ex is

(a)   4

(b)   3

(c)   5

(d)   2

Answer: (b)

157. If  lies on

(a)   an ellipse

(b)   a circle

(c)   a straight line

(d)   a parabola

Answer: (c)

158. If the function f(x) satisfy  is

(a)   1

(b)   2

(c)   3

(d)   π

Answer: (d)

159. The value of tan 75° − cot 75° = ?

(a)   2√3

(b)   2 + √3

(c)   2 – √3

(d)   1

Answer: (a)

160. The equation of the perpendicular bisector of the line joining the points A(2, 3) and B(6, −9) is

(a)   x + 2y – 6 = 0

(b)   x – 2y – 6 = 0

(c)   x + 2y + 6 = 0

(d)   x – 2y + 6 = 0

Answer: (d)

161. If x = k(t – sin t), y = k( 1 – cos t) (k ≠ 0) then  is equal to

(a)   −1/k

(b)   1/2k

(c)   1/k2

(d)   2k

Answer: (a)

162. The unit vector which is orthogonal to the vector 5i + 2j + 6k and is coplanar with the vectors 2i + j + k and i – j + k is

Answer: (c)

163. The value of  is

(a)   0

(b)   π

(c)   π/2

(d)   π/4

Answer: (d)

164. ∫cos3 xelog(sin x) dx =

Answer: (b)

165. Which of the following is NOT correct?

(a)   A – (B ∪ C) = (A – B) ∩ (A – C)

(b)   A ∪ (B – C) = (A ∪ B) – (A ∪ C)

(c)   A × (B – C) = (A × B) – (A × C)

(d)   None of these

Answer: (b)

166. The slope of the tangent to the ellipse  at the point (a cos θ, b sin θ) is

Answer: (d)

167. Two flag staffs stand on a horizontal plane. A and B are two points on the line joining their feet and between them. The angles of elevation of the tops of the flag staffs a seen from A are 30° and 60° and as seen from B are 60° and 45°. If AB is 30 m, the distance between the flag staffs in meters is

(a)   30 + 15√3

(b)   45 + 15√3

(c)   60 – 15√3

(d)   60 + 15√3

Answer: (d)

168. If n is a positive integer greater than unity and z is a complex number satisfying the equation zn = (z + 1)n, then

(a)   lm(z) < 0

(b)   Im(z) > 0

(c)   lm(z) = 0

(d)   None of these

Answer: (d)

169. The domain of definition of the function y(x) as given by the equation 2x + 2y = 2 is

(a)   0 < x ≤ 1

(b)   0 ≤ x ≤ 1

(c)   −∝ < x ≤ 1

(d)   −∝ < x < 1

Answer: (d)

170. is

(a)   π

(b)   −2π

(c)   −π

(d)   2π

Answer: (c)

171. The distance between the lines y = mx + c1, and y = mx + c2 is

Answer: (b)

172. One focus of hyperbola is at (0, 4) and the length of its transverse axis is 6. The equation of the hyperbola is

Answer: (b)

173. The integral  is equal to

Answer: (a)

174. equals

(a)   1 + √5

(b)   −1 + √5

(c)   −1 + √2

(d)   1 + √2

Answer: (b)

175. If A and B are two events such that P(A) > 0 and P(B) ≠ 1 then  is equal to

Answer: (c)

176. If tan pθ + cos qθ = 0, then the general value of θ is

Answer: (d)

177. The general solution of the differential equation  is

(a)   x – cy + 5 = 0



(d)   None of these

Answer: (b)

178. The mean and the variance of a binomial distribution are 4 and 2 respectively. Then the probability of 2 successes is

(a)   37/256

(b)   219/256

(c)   128/256

(d)   28/256

Answer: (d)

179. A ray of light passing through the point (3, 7) reflects on the X-axis at a point A and the reflected ray passes through the point (2, 5), the coordinates of A are

(a)   (29/10, 0)

(b)   (1/2, 0)

(c)   (−1/2, 0)

(d)   (−29/10, 0)

Answer: (a)

180. Let 

Then the real roots of the equation x2 – f(x) = 0 are

(a)   ±1

(b)   ±1/√2

(c)   ±1/2

(d)   0 and 1

Answer: (a)

181. The complex number sin x + icos 2x and cos x – isin 2x are conjugate to each other for

(a)   x = πn

(b)   x = 0


(d)   no value of x

Answer: (d)

182. The range of the function  is

(a)   [1/5, 1]

(b)   [1/3, 1/3]

(c)   [1/3, 1]

(d)   [1/5, 1/3]

Answer: (d)

183. The value of in + in+1 + in+2 + in+3 (where i = √−1, n ≥ 1) is

(a)   1

(b)   −1

(c)   0

(d)   None of these

Answer: (c)

184. The lines  and 

(a)   coincident

(b)   skew

(c)   intersecting

(d)   parallel

Answer: (d)

185. Cosine of the angle between the lines whose vector equations are

r = 3i + 2j – 4k + λ(i + 2j + 2k) and

r = 5i – 2k + μ(3i + 2j + 6k) : λ, μ being parameters, is

(a)   −1/3√29

(b)   3/7√29

(c)   23/29

(d)   29/21

Answer: (b)

186. The value of  is ([x] is the greatest integer function)

Answer: (c)

187. If A = sin2θ + cos4θ, then for all real value at θ.

Answer: (b)

188. The value of (tan 70° − tan 50° + tan 10°) is

(a)   2

(b)   √3

(c)   1

(d)   √3/2

Answer: (c)

189. If X is a tautology and Y is any other formula, then (X V Y) is a

(a)   Tautology

(b)   Contradiction

(c)   Well-formed formula

(d)   None of these

Answer: (a)

190. If the roots of the quadratic equation x2 + px + q = 0 are tan 30° and tan 15° respectively, then the value of 2 + q – p is

(a)   0

(b)   1

(c)   3

(d)   2

Answer: (c)

191. n ∈ N then n(n + 1) (n + 2) and n(n + 1) (n + 5) both are divisible by:

(a)   5, 4, 2

(b)   2, 3, 6

(c)   3, 4, 5

(d)   5, 3, 2

Answer: (b)

192. If  then at x = 0

(a)   f(x) has no limit

(b)   f(x) is discontinuous

(c)   f(x) is continuous but not differentiable

(d)   f(x) is  differentiable

Answer: (d)

193. For real value of x, the function  will assume all real values provided

(a)   a > b > c

(b)   b > a > c

(c)   a > c > b

(d)   None of these

Answer: (d)

194. If S1, S2 and S3 denote the sum of first n1, n2, n3 terms of an A.P. respectively, then the value of  is

(a)   S1 + S2 + S3

(b)   2(S1 + S2 + S3)

(c)   (n1 + n2 + n3) (S1 + S2 + S3)

(d)   0

Answer: (d)

195. The order and degree of the differential equation  are

(a)   4, 2

(b)   1, 4

(c)   2, 4

(d)   1, 2

Answer: (c)

196. If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 ≤ n ≤ 5}, then the number of subsets of A is

(a)   16

(b)   15

(c)   4

(d)   None

Answer: (a)

197. If y = cosec(cot1 x) then  at x = 1 is equal to

(a)   1/√2

(b)   1

(c)   −√2

(d)   −1/√2

Answer: (d)

198. The solution of the equation (2x + y + 1)dx + (4x + 2y – 1) dy = 0 is

(a)   log|2x + y – 1| = C + x + y

(b)   log(4x + 2y – 1) = C + 2x + y

(c)   log(2x + y + 1) + x + 2y = C

(d)   log|2x + y + 1| + x + 2y = C

Answer: (d)

199. The value of 

(a)   zero

(b)   1/4

(c)   1/5

(d)   1/30

Answer: (a)

200. The sin θ of the angle between the straight line  and the plane 2x – 2y + z = 5 is

(a)   2√3/5

(b)   √2/10

(c)   4/5√2

(d)   10/6√5

Answer: (b)


133. Hb value for a healthy adult male is

(a)   100 g/100 ml

(b)   11 g/100 ml

(c)   12 g/100 ml

(d)   14-15 g/100 ml

Answer: (d)

134. Which of the following relations is correct

(a)   Ψw = Ψs – Ψp

(b)   Ψw = Ψm + Ψs

(c)   Ψw = Ψs + Ψp

(d)   Ψw = Ψm – Ψs + Ψp

Answer: (c)

135. The greatest threat to genetic diversity in agricultural crops is

(a)   extensive mixed cropping

(b)   introduction of high  yielding varieties

(c)   extensive use of fertilizers

(d)   extensive use of insecticides and pesticides

Answer: (b)

136. The functions of the collaterial gland in cockroach is to

(a)   store eggs

(b)   store sperms

(c)   keep vagina moist

(d)   secretate the egg case

Answer: (d)

137. Find the sequence of binding of the following amine acyl t = RNa complexes during translation to a m-RNA transcribed by a DNA segment having the base sequence ‘3TACATGGGTCCG5’. Choose the answer showing the correct order of numerals.

(i) AUG               (ii) UAC

(iii) CCG              (iv) GGU

(a)   (ii), (i), iv), (iii)

(b)   (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

(c)   (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)

(d)   (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Answer: (a)

138. Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from

(a)   effector organs to CNS

(b)   receptors to CNS

(c)   CNS to receptors

(d)   CNS to muscles

Answer: (b)

139. Which hormones are essential for induced breeding of fishes?

(a)   TSH and ACTH

(b)   Ostrogen and Progesterone

(c)   FSH and LH

(d)   Vasopressin

Answer: (c)

140. Assertion : A widely used diagnostic test for AIDs is enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).

Reason : “Western blotting test is employed for confirmation of ELIZS negative cases.

(a)   Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

(b)   Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

(c)   Assertion is true but reason is false

(d)   Both assertion and reason are false

Answer: (b)

141. Hair, nails, hoots and horns are formed with the help of protein, known as

(a)   Keratin

(b)   Globulin

(c)   Chitin

(d)   Histone

Answer: (a)

142. Which of the following hormones causes reabsorption of Na+ and excretion of K+, H+ and H2O?

(a)   LH

(b)   FSH

(c)   TSH

(d)   Aldosterone

Answer: (d)

143. Column-I is the part of human brain and Column-II is its function. Match the two columns.

(a)   (a) – (s), (b) – (t), (c) – (p), (d) – (q)

(b)   (a) – (t), (b) – (s), (c) – (q), (d) – (p)

(c)   (a) – (s), (b) – (t), (c) – (q), (d) – (p)

(d)   (a) – (t), (b) – (s), (c) – (p), (d) – (r)

Answer: (a)

144. Farmers have reported over 50% higher yields of rice by using which of the following biofertilizer?

(a)   Mycorrhiza

(b)   Azollapinnata

(c)   Cyanobacteria

(d)   Legume-Rhizobium symbiosis

Answer: (b)

145. Km value of enzyme is substrate concentration at

(a)   1/2 Vmax

(b)   2 Vmax

(c)   1/4 Vmax

(d)   4 Vmax

Answer: (b)

146. Which of the following combination represents the vector of cloniq capacity of DNA from smaller to bigger?

(a)   BAC, YAC, Plasmid, Cosmid

(b)   Plasmid, BAC, YAC, Cosmid

(c)   YAC, Plasmid, BAC, Cosmid

(d)   Plasmid, Cosmid, BAC, YAC

Answer: (d)

147. When a fresh water protozoan is placed in marine water

(a)   the contractile vacuole disappears

(b)   the contractile vacuole increases in size

(c)   a number of contractile vacuoles appear

(d)   the contractile vacuole remains unchanged

Answer: (a)

148. represents

(a)   Natality

(b)   Growth rate

(c)   Mortality

(d)   All of these

Answer: (b)

149. Antibiotics inhibit the growth of or destroy

(a)   bacteria and fungi

(b)   bacteria and viruses

(c)   bacteria, algae and viruses

(d)   bacteria, fungi and viruses

Answer: (b)

150. Total number of bones in the hind limb of man is

(a)   14

(b)   30

(c)   24

(d)   21

Answer: (d)

151. Name of the following having oxygen storage capacity.

(a)   Myoglobin

(b)   Prophase II

(c)   Anaphase I

(d)   Metaphase II

Answer: (a)

152. Given below is the ECG of a normal human, which one of its components is correctly interpreted below?

(a)   Complex QRS-one complete pulse

(b)   Peak T-initiation of total cardiac concentration

(c)   Peak P and Peak R together systolic and diastolic blood pressure

(d)   Peak P-initiation of left atrial contraction only

Answer: (c)

153. Which of the following is the correct pathway for propagation of cardiac impulse?

(a)   SA node – AV node – Bundle of His – Purkinje fibers

(b)   AV node – Bundle of His – SA node – Purkinje fibers

(c)   SA node – Purkinje fibers – AV node – Bundle of His

(d)   Purkinje fibers – AV node – SA node – Bundle of His

Answer: (a)

154. Diploid chromosome number being 8, what shall be the number of chromatids in each daughter after Meiosis-I?

(a)   2

(b)   4

(c)   8

(d)   16

Answer: (b)

155. Cellulose, the most important constituent of plant cell wall is made of

(a)   Unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by β-1, 4-glycosidic

(b)   Branched chain of glucose molecules linked by a α-1, 6-glycosidic bond at the site of branching

(c)   Unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by α-1, 4-glycosidic bond

(d)   Branched chain of glucose molecules linked by β-1, 4-glycosidic bond in straight chain and α-1, 6-glycosidic bond at the site of branching

Answer: (a)

156. Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?

(a)   Hashish causes alter thought perceptions and Hallucinations

(b)   Opium stimulates nervous system and causes Hallucinations

(c)   Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed

(d)   barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary Euphoria

Answer: (a)

157. Ornithophily refers to the pollination by which of the following?

(a)   Snails

(b)   Birds

(c)   Insects

(d)   Air

Answer: (b)

158. Consider the given diagram and identify the lebels A, B, C, D and E.

Choose the correct option identifying the lebels.

(a)   A-illium, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis

(b)   A-Stapes, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-Ischium, E-Pubis

(c)   A-Incus, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-Ischium, E-Pubis

(d)   A-Coccyx, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-Ischium, E-Pubis

Answer: (a)

159. Which one of the following reactions is an example of oxidative decarboxylation?

(a)   Conversion of succinate to fumerate

(b)   Conversion of fumerate to malate

(c)   Conversion of private to acetyl CoA

(d)   Conversion of citrate to isocitrate

Answer: (c)

160. Most primitive number in which roots are NOT present in

(a)   Rhynia

(b)   Psilotum

(c)   Lycopidium

(d)   Selaginella

Answer: (b)

161. Miller synthesized simple amino acids from one of the following mixtures in an experiment.

(a)   H2, O2, N2 (1 : 2 : 1) and water vapour

(b)   H2, O2, N2 (2 : 1 : 2) and water vapour

(c)   CH4, NH2, H2 (2 : 1 : 2) and water vapour

(d)   CH4, NH3, H2 (1 : 2 : 1) and water vapour

Answer: (c)

162. Which is employed for artificial ripening of banana fruits?

(a)   Auxin

(b)   Cumarin

(c)   Ethylene

(d)   Cytokinin

Answer: (c)

163. Balbiani rings occur in

(a)   Autosome

(b)   Hetersome

(c)   Lampbrush chromosome

(d)   Polytene chromosome

Answer: (d)

164. In haemoglobin, which amino acids acts as a blood buffer?

(a)   Histidine

(b)   Glutamine

(c)   Aspartic acid

(d)   Lysine

Answer: (c)

165. By the statement ‘survival of the fittest’, Darwin meant that

(a)   the strongest of all species survives

(b)   the most intelligent of the species survives

(c)   the cleverest of the species survives

(d)   the most adaptable of the species to changes survives

Answer: (d)

166. Genetic drift operates in …. population

(a)   small

(b)   large

(c)   island

(d)   mendelian

Answer: (a)

167. What is TRUE about haemoglobin?

(a)   It is a dipeptide and present in red blood corpuscles in  blood worm

(b)   It is present in the dissolved state in blood plasma in earth worm

(c)   It is a dipeptide in mammals and localized in RBC

(d)   It is present in dissolved state in blood plasma in Scorpion

Answer: (b)

168. Iris is part of

(a)   sclerotic

(b)   choroid/uvula

(c)   choroid and retina

(d)   sclerotic and choroid

Answer: (d)

169. In man which organisms cause abscesses on the skin of arms or legs?

(a)   Abcaris

(b)   Bacteria

(c)   Suinea worm

(d)   Ring worm

Answer: (d)

170. In the pedigree shown in the figure, individuals with the solid symbols suffer from a genetic disease caused by a recessive allele at an autosomal locus. You would counsel the couple marked A and B, that the probability that each of their children will have the disease is

(a)   0%

(b)   25%

(c)   50%

(d)   75%

Answer: (b)

171. Angiosperms differ from gymnosperms

(a)   being ever green

(b)   being smaller size

(c)   having compounds leaves

(d)   having ovules enclosed in ovary

Answer: (d)

172. A common bio control agent for the control of plant diseases is

(a)   Bacillus

(b)   Trichoderma

(c)   baculovirus

(d)   Glomus

Answer: (a)

173. A person suffering from a disease caused by plasmodium experiences recurring chill and fever at the time when

(a)   the sporozoites released from RBCs are being rapidly killed and broken down inside spleen

(b)   the trophozoites reach maximum growth and give out certain toxins

(c)   the parasite after its rapid multiplication inside RBCs ruptures them, releasing the stage to enter fresh RBCs

(d)   The microgametocytes and megagametocytes are being destroyed by the WBCs

Answer: (c)

174. One of the following is the correct sequence to make a Transgenic animals.

(a)   Transomics – Transfection Micro infection Electro portion -Retroviral vectors

(b)   Micro injection Transfection Electro portion

(c)   Retroviral vectors Transomics Transfection – Micro injection – Transomics Electroportion – Retroviral vectors

(d)   None of these

Answer: (b)

175. Which of the following cellular structure always disappear during mitosis and metosis?

(a)   Plasma membrane

(b)   Nucleolus and nuclear envelope

(c)   Plastids

(d)   None of these

Answer: (b)

176. During prolonged fastings, in what sequence are the following organic compounds used up by the body?

(a)   First carbohydrates, next fats and lastly proteins

(b)   First fats, next carbohydrates and lastly proteins

(c)   First carbohydrates, next proteins and lastly carbohydrates

(d)   First proteins, next lipid and lastly carbohydrates

Answer: (a)

177. Cosmopolites stordidus is the pest of

(a)   sugarcane

(b)   jowar

(c)   banana

(d)   cotton

Answer: (c)

178. The correct sequence of arrangement of segments in the leg of cockroach is

(a)   Coxa, Femur, Trochanter, Tibia, Tarsus

(b)   Coxa, Trochanter, Femur, Tibia, Tarsus

(c)   Trochanter, Coxas, Tibia, Femur, Tarsus

(d)   Trochanter, Coxas, Femur, Tibia, Tarsus

Answer: (b)

179. Suppression of reproduction of one type of organism by utilizing some features of its biology or physiology to destroy it or by use of another organism is known as

(a)   Competition

(b)   Predation

(c)   Biological control

(d)   Physiological control

Answer: (b)

180. Which one is bacteria fertilizer?

(a)   Anabaena

(b)   Nostoe

(c)   Rhizobium

(d)   Phycomyces

Answer: (c)

181. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATP ase activity is

(a)   troponin

(b)   tropomyosin

(c)   myosin

(d)   a-actinin

Answer: (c)

182. In genetic code, 61 codons code for 20 different types of amino acids. This is called

(a)   Colinearity

(b)   commaless

(c)   degeneracy

(d)   non-ambiguity

Answer: (c)

183. Down’s syndrome is a typical case of

(a)   Nullisomy

(b)   Monosomy

(c)   Gene mutation

(d)   Trisomy

Answer: (d)

184. C4 plants have higher net photosynthetic rate because

(a)   they have no photorespiration

(b)   they can photosynthesize in low light intensity

(c)   they have PEP as CO2 acceptor

(d)   they have Kranz type of anatomy

Answer: (a)

185. In general, in the developmental history of a mammalian heart, it is observed that it passes through a two-chambered fish like heart, three-chambered frog like hear and finally to four-chambered stage. To which hypothesis can this above cited statement by approximated?

(a)   Hardy-Weinberg law

(b)   Lamarck’s principle

(c)   Biogenetic law

(d)   Mendelian principles

Answer: (c)

186. The non-sister chromatids twist around and exchange segments with each other during

(a)   Leptotene

(b)   Diakinesis

(c)   Diplotene

(d)   Pachytene

Answer: (d)

187. Proton gradient is very important across the membrane because

(a)   building up of protein gradient release energy

(b)   building up of proton gradient increase the pH towards human side of thylakoid membrane

(c)   breakdown of proton gradient release CO2

(d)   breakdown of proton gradient release energy

Answer: (b)

188. What is a genophore?

(a)   DNA in prokaryotes

(b)   DNA and RNA in prokaryotes

(c)   DNA and protein in prokaryotes

(d)   RNA in prokaryotes

Answer: (a)

189. The intermediate between Glycolysis and TCA cycle is

(a)   Oxaloacetate

(b)   Glucose-1-6 diphosphate

(c)   Pyruvic acid

(d)   Acetyl Co-A

Answer: (d)

190. How many ova and sperms will be produced from 100 secondary oocytes and 100 secondary spermatocytes during gametogenesis in man?

(a)   50 ova, 100 sperms

(b)   100 ova, 100 sperms

(c)   200 ova 200 sperms

(d)   100 ova, 200 sperms

Answer: (d)

191. Removal of apical bud results in

(a)   formation of new apical bud

(b)   elongation of main stem

(c)   death of plant

(d)   formation of lateral branching

Answer: (d)

192. How much frequency of ultrasound, can be beamed in human body for sonography?

(a)   15-30 MHz

(b)   30-45 MHz

(c)   45-70 MHz

(d)   1-15 MHz

Answer: (d)

193. If for some reason our goblet cells are non-functional, this will adversely affect

(a)   production of somatostatin

(b)   secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands

(c)   maturation of sperms

(d)   stop movement of foods down the intestine

Answer: (d)

194. Which group is meant for Endemic species of birds?

(a)   Nilgiri pipit, Rofous babler, Lesser-Florican

(b)   Lesser-Florican, Nilgiri wood pigeon, Malabar parakeet

(c)   Malabar parakeet, Niligiri pipit, Rofous babbler

(d)   Flycatcher, Jungle babbler, Nilgiri pipit

Answer: (c)

195. Genital warts STD is a viral disease and is caused by

(a)   Trichomonas vaginalis

(b)   Treponema pallidum

(c)   Human papiloma virus

(d)   Chamydia treachomatis

Answer: (c)

196. Match the following

I-Helophytes, II-Psammophytes

III-Oxylophytes, IV-Chasmophytes

A-Saline soil, B-Sandy soil,

C-Rockcrevices, D-Acidic soil

(a)   I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C

(b)   I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-C

(c)   I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D

(d)   I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A

Answer: (a)

197. Darwin’s finches provide an excellent evidence in Favour of evolution. This evidence comes from the field of

(a)   Biogeography

(b)   Anatomy

(c)   Embryology

(d)   Paleontology

Answer: (a)

198. In an ecosystem Biotic factors affect the survival of an organism in that ecosystem. They include

(a)   competition for water

(b)   competition for shelter

(c)   co-operation to help find food

(d)   All of these

Answer: (d)

199. The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small bronchi are known as

(a)   squamous epithelium

(b)   columnar epithelium

(c)   ciliated epithelium

(d)   cubical epithelium

Answer: (b)

200. Gametophyte is the dominant phase in the lifecycle of

(a)   Hibiscus

(b)   Nephrolepis

(c)   Cycas

(d)   Funaria

Answer: (d)

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2019 With Answer Key

Go to all OUAT Previous Year Question Papers 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017. 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012,2011, 2010, 2009, 2008, 2007

OUAT Previous Question Paper-2019


Directions for question 1-10:

   In each of these questions, there are two separate figures. The figures on the left are Problems Figures (four figures and one question-marked space) and those on the right are Answer Figures indicated by letters A, B, C and D. A series is established if one of the four Answer Figures is placed at the “question-marked space”. Figures form a series if they change from left to right according to same rule. The letter of the Answer Figure which should be placed in the question-marked space is the answer. All the five figures, i.e., four Problem Figures and one Answer Figure placed in the question-marked space should be considered as forming the series.


Answer: (D)


Answer: (B)


Answer: (D)


Answer: (C)


Answer: (D)


Answer: (A)


Answer: (B)


Answer: (D)


Answer: (C)


Answer: (A)

11. Vivek starts from his home and goes 2 km straight. Then, he turned right and goes 1 km. Again he turns right and covers 1km. If he is north-west from h is house, then in which direction did he go in the beginning?

(A)  North

(B)  South

(C)  East

(D)  West

Answer: (D)

Direction for questions 12-14

   In each of the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative.

12. _a b b _ _bb _ a _ b b a b _ b a

(A)  bababa

(B)  bbabbb

(C)  ababaa

(D)  aaaabb

Answer: (D)

13. b _ a c _ c c _ c b _ a b _ a c

(A)  ababa

(B)  bbaac

(C)  abbbc

(D)  aabba

Answer: (B)

14. _ c _ b d _ c b c d a _ a _ d b _ a

(A)  adabcd

(B)  cdbbca

(C)  daabbc

(D)  bdbcba

Answer: (B)

15. If Bangle is called Cassette, Cassette is called Table, Table is called Game, Game is called Cupboard and Cupboard is called Bangle, then which is played in the tape recorder?

(A)  Table

(B)  Bangle

(C)  Cupboard

(D)  Cassette

Answer: (B)

Direction for question 16-20

   Each question is followed by two statements (1) and (2).


(A) If statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient.

(B) If statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient.

(C) If EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

(D) If Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

16. IS X > y?

(1) x = y  + 2


Answer: (C)

17. Last year the average (arithmetic mean) salary of the 10 employees of Company X was Rs. 42800/-. What is the average salary of the same 10 employees this year?

(1)   For 8 of the 10 employees, this year’s salary is 15 percent greater than last year’s salary.

(2)   For 2 of the 10 employees, this year’s salary is the same as last year’s salary.

Answer: (B)

18. In a certain classroom, there are 80 books, of which 24 are fiction and 23 are written in English. How many of the fiction books are written in English?

(1)   Of the fiction books, there are 6 more that are not written in English than are written in English.

(2)   Of the books written in English, there are 5 more nonfiction books than fiction books.

Answer: (B)

19. If n is an integer, is n + 1 odd?]

(1)   n + 2 is an even integer.

(2)   n – 1 is an odd integer.

Answer: (C)

20. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 10 cm. What is the perimeter, in centimeters, of the triangle?

(1)   The area of the triangle is 25 sq.cm.

(2)   The 2 legs of the triangle are of equal length

Answer: (C)

21. In a certain code ALMIRAH is written as BNPMWGO, which word would be written as DNRWLUA?





Answer: (D)

Direction for question 22-31

   In each of the questions, a related pair of figures (unnumbered) is followed by four numbered pairs of figures. out of these four, three have relationship similar to that in the original pair. Only one pair of figures does not have similar relationship. Select the pair of figures which does NOT have a similar relationship to that in the unnumbered pair. Letter of that figures is your answer.


Answer: (C)


Answer: (D)


Answer: (B)


Answer: (C)


Answer: (B)


Answer: (A)


Answer: (B)


Answer: (C)


Answer: (D)

31. vertical-align: middle; margin-bottom: 1px;

Answer: (C)

32. Pointing to a person a man said to a woman, “His mother is the only daughter of your father”. How was the woman related to the person?

(A)  Aunt

(B)  Mother

(C)  Wife

(D)  Daughter

Answer: (B)

Direction for question 33-37

   Read the following information to answer the given question.

(i) A, B, C, D E and F are six family members.

(ii) There is one doctor, onel lawyer, one engineer, two students and one house wilfe.

(iii) There are two married couples in the family.

(iv) F, who is a doctor, is father of E.

(v) A is a student, and her husband is not a lawyer.

(vi) B is the grandmother of D and is a housewife.

(vii) C is the father-in-law of A and is an engineer.

(viii) D is the sister of E.

33. How is E relate to B?

(A)  Grand-daughter or grand-son

(B)  Daughter or son

(C)  Daughter-in-law or son-in-law

(D)  Sister or brother

Answer: (A)

34. Which of the followings is one of the pairs of married couples?

(A)  FB

(B)  FA

(C)  CF

(D)  FD

Answer: (B)

35. How many female members are there in the family?

(A)  Three

(B)  Two

(C)  Three or four

(D)  Two or Three

Answer: (A)

36. Who is the doctor?

(A)  D

(B)  E

(C)  A’s husband

(D)  C’s wife

Answer: (C)

37. Which of the following statements is definitely TRUE?

(A)  C is the father of the student

(B)  B is the mother of the student.

(C)  D is the sister of the lawyer.

(D)  F is the father of the lawyer.

Answer: (A)

Direction for questions 38-41

   In each of the followings questions, one term in the number series if WRONG. Find out the wrong term.

38. 5, 27, 61, 122, 213, 340, 509

(A)  27

(B)  61

(C)  122

(D)  509

Answer: (C)

39. 46080, 3840, 384, 48, 24, 2, 1

(A)  384

(B)  48

(C)  24

(D)  2

Answer: (D)

40. 15, 16, 22, 29, 45, 70

(A)  16

(B)  22

(C)  45

(D)  70

Answer: (B)

41. 0, 2, 3, 5, 8, 10, 15, 18, 24, 26, 35

(A)  18

(B)  24

(C)  26

(D)  10

Answer: (C)

Direction for questions 42-44

   In each of the following questions, four groups of letters are given; three of them are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the ODD one.


(A)  EBD

(B)  IFH

(C)  QNO

(D)  YVX

Answer: (C)






Answer: (D)






Answer: (B)

45. If 1st February 1996 is Wednesday, what day is 3rd March 1996?

(A)  Monday

(B)  Sunday

(C)  Saturday

(D)  Friday

Answer: (C)

Direction for questions 46-49

   In each of the following questions, a pair of words is given. You are to study the relation existing between them and then find out from the given alternatives, the pair of words that bears the same relation between them and indicate that on the answer sheet.

46. Heart : Cardiology

(A)  Brain : Psychology

(B)  History : Histology

(C)  Civics : Polity

(D)  Fossils : Paleontology

Answer: (D)

47. Horse : Mare

(A)  Duck : Geese

(B)  Dog : Puppy

(C)  Donkey : Pony

(D)  Fox : Vixen

Answer: (D)

48. Flag : Nation

(A)  Emblem : Prosperity

(B)  Insignia : Rank

(C)  Wealth : Prestige

(D)  Honour : Status

Answer: (B)

49. Ornaments : Body

(A)  Murals : Walls

(B)  Painting : Canvas

(C)  Light : Road

(D)  Cleanliness : Hospital

Answer: (C)

50. If + stands for ÷, × stands for +, − stands for and stands ÷ for −, then which of the following equations is correct?

(A)  36 × 6 + 7 ÷ 2 – 6 = 20

(B)  36 ÷ 6 + 3 × 5 – 3 = 45

(C)  36 + 6 – 3 × 5 ÷ 3 = 24

(D)  36 – 6 + 3 × 5 ÷ 3 = 74

Answer: (D)


51. In the circuit shown, current through 25V cell is

(A)  7.2 A

(B)  10A

(C)  12A

(D)  14.2A

Answer: (A)

52. In a meter bridge experiment resistances are connected as shown in the figure. The balancing length is 55 cm. Now an unknown resistance x is connected ins series with P and the new balancing length is found to be 75 cm. The value of x is





Answer: (C)

53. Four persons are initially at the four corners of a square whose side is equal to d. Each person now moves with a uniform speed V in such a way that the first move directly towards the second, the second directly towards the third, the third directly towards the fourth and the fourth directly towards the first. The four persons meet after a time equals to

(A)  d/V

(B)  2d/3V

(C)  2d/√3V

(D)  d/√3V

Answer: (A)

54. In a stack of three polarizing sheets, the first and the third are crossed while the middle one has its axis at 45° to the axes of the other two. The fraction of intensity of an incident unpolarized beam of light that is transmitted by the stack is

(A)  1/2

(B)  1/3

(C)  1/4

(D)  1/8

Answer: (D)

55. When a beam of 10.6 eV photons of intensity 2.0 W/m2 falls on a metallic surface of area 1 × 104 m2 and work function 5.6 eV, 0.53% of incident photons eject photoelectrons. The number of photoelectrons emitted per second is

(A)  1.18 × 1016

(B)  6.25 × 1011

(C)  6.25 × 1013

(D)  6.25 × 1015

Answer: (B)

56. A uniformly charged thin spherical shell of radius R carries uniform surface charge density of σ. It is made of two hemispherical shells, held together by pressing them with force F. F is proportional to





Answer: (A)

57. If mean life of a radioactive sample about___ of the substance disintegrates.

(A)  2/3

(B)  1/3

(C)  90%

(D)  50%

Answer: (C)

58. Refer to the figure, Potential difference between A and B is

(A)  Zero

(B)  5 V

(C)  10 V

(D)  15 V

Answer: (A)

59. A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field, B = 0.025 T with its plane perpendicular to the loop. The radius of the loop is made to shrink at a constant rate of 1 mm S1. The induced emf when the radius is 2 cm, is

(A)  2 π μ V

(B)  π μ V


(D)  2μV

Answer: (B)

60. The charge on the capacitor in steady state in the circuit shown is

(A)  0.5 μ C

(B)  1 μ C

(C)  2 μ C

(D)  4 μ C

Answer: (A)

61. The relation between time t and distance x for a moving particle is t = αx2 + βx, where α and β are constants. If V is the velocity at distance x, then the retardation of the particle is

(A)  2 αV3

(B)  2 βV3

(C)  2 α βV3

(D)  2 β2V2

Answer: (A)

62. Consider an electric field,  where E0 is a constant. The flux through the shaded area (as shown in figure) due to this field is

(A)  2 E0a2

(B)  √2 E0a2

(C)  E0a2

(D)  E0a2/√2

Answer: (C)

63. An Alpha particle accelerated through V volts is fired towards a nucleus. Its distance of closest approach is r. If a proton accelerated through the same potential is fired towards the same nucleus, Its distance of closest approach will be

(A)  r

(B)  2r

(C)  r/2

(D)  r/4

Answer: (A)

64. Determine the r.m.s value of a semicircular current wave which has a maximum value of a.





Answer: (A)

65. For what value of R in the circuit as shown, current through 4Ω will be zero?

(A)  1Ω

(B)  2 Ω

(C)  3 Ω

(D)  4 Ω

Answer: (B)

66. A uniform chain of length L meters is lying over a table. If the coefficient of friction be μ, then the maximum length of the part of this chain which can be over hung the edge without sliding is





Answer: (A)

67. A ball is dropped vertically from a height d above the ground. It hits the ground and bounces up vertically to a height d/2. Neglecting subsequent motion and air resistance, its velocity V varies with height h above the ground, as





Answer: (B)

68. Two coherent sources S1 and S2 are separated by a small distance d as shown. The fringes obtained on the screen will be

(A)  Points

(B)  Straight lines

(C)  Semi-circle

(D)  Concentric circles

Answer: (D)

69. When only carrier is transmitted, antenna current observed is 8A. When it is modulated with 500 Hz sine wave antenna current becomes 9.6 A. The modulation is

(A)  80%

(B)  20%

(C)  94.26%

(D)  83.76%

Answer: (C)

70. An ideal gas is kept in a closed vessel having capacity 0.0083 m3 at a temperature of 300k and a pressure of 1.6 × 106m2. The specific heat of an ideal gas at constant pressure is   If 2.49 × 104 J amount of heat energy is supplied to the gas, then final pressure of the gas will be

(A)  1.6 × 106 N.m2

(B)  2 × 106 N.m2

(C)  2.5 × 106 N.m2

(D)  3.6 × 106 N.m2

Answer: (C)

71. A composite slab made up of two different materials having thickness 2x and 8x, thermal conductivity 2k and 4k respectively and temperatures T2 and T1(T2 > T1). The rate of heat transfer through the slab, In a steady state is  f with f equals to

(A)  1

(B)  1/2

(C)  2/3

(D)  1/3

Answer: (D)

72. A neutron inelastically collide with a single inoised helium atom at rest with kinetic energy = 65 eV, making a scattering angle 90° with respect to the original direction. The allowed values of the energy of the neutron after the collision are

(A)  6.36 eV and 0.312 eV

(B)  17.84 eV and 16.32 eV

(C)  1.8 eV  and 15.8 eV

(D)  16.328 eV and 6.36 eV

Answer: (C)

73. A ray of light is incident on a surface of glass slab at an angle 45°. If the lateral shift Produced per unit thickness is 1/√3 m, the angle of refraction produced is





Answer: (D)

74. During charging a capacitor, the variation of potential V of the capacitor with time t is





Answer: (D)

75. A girl uses a simple pendulum of 1 m length to calculate the acceleration due to gravity g. She uses a stop watch with the least count of 1 sec for this and records 60 sec for 30 oscillations. For this observation, which of the following statements is TRUE?

(A)  Percentage error in g is 2.5%

(B)  Percentage error in g is 3%

(C)  Percentage error in g is 3.3%

(D)  Percentage error in g is 2%

Answer: (C)

76. The amplitude of a wave represented by displacement equation  will be





Answer: (D)

77. The wavelength of the first spectral line of the Balmer series of hydrogen atom is 5461 A. The wavelength of the second spectral line in the Balmer series of singly ionsied helium atom is

(A)  1215 A

(B)  1640 A

(C)  2430 A

(D)  1011.3 A

Answer: (A)

78. In electromagnetic waves travelling in vacuum ⇒

(1)   The electric field is always perpendicular to the magnetic field 

(2)    always gives the direction in which the waves travel

(3)   The fields and vary sinusoidally

(4)   There is a phase difference between and is π/2 The correct statement(s) is (are)

(A)  1, 3

(B)  1, 3, 4

(C)  1, 2, 3, 4

(D)  1, 2, 3

Answer: (A)

79. A potentiometer wire of length 100 cm has a resistance of 10Ω. It is connected in series with a resistance and a cell of emf 2 V and of negligible internal resistance. A source of emf 10 mV is balanced against a length of 40 cm of the potentiometer wire. The value of the external resistance is

(A)  790Ω

(B)  890Ω

(C)  990Ω

(D)  1090Ω

Answer: (A)

80. A ray of light travelling in glass  is incident on a horizontal glass-air surface at the critical angle. If a thin layer of water  is poured on the glass-air surface. The angle at which the ray emerges into air at the water-air surface is

(A)  0

(B)  π/4

(C)  π/3

(D)  π/2

Answer: (D)

81. In the circuit below A and B represent two inputs and C represents the output.

The circuit represents

(A)  NOR gate

(B)  AND gate

(C)  NAND gate

(D)  OR gate

Answer: D

82. In a common emitter configuration with suitable bias, it is given that RL is the load resistance and RBE is small signal dynamic resistance (input side). Then voltage gain, current gain and power gain are given respectively (β is current gain IB, IC, IE are respectively base, collector and emitter currents)





Answer: (D)

83. A particle of charge per unit mass α is released from origin with a velocity  in a magnetic field.  The x coordinate of the particle at time  would be





Answer: (C)

84. A particle of mass m is moving with a constant velocity along a line parallel to the positive direction of X-axis. The magnitude of its angular momentum with respect to the origin.

(A)  is zero

(B)  goes on increasing as x increases

(C)  goes on decreasing as x increases

(D)  remains constant for all positions of the particle

Answer: (D)

85. The angle of prism and refractive index of the material of the prism are A and  The angle of minimum deviation of the prism is


(B)  π – A


(D)  π – 2A

Answer: (D)

86. In a certain mass spectrometer, an ion beam passes through a velocity filter consisting of mutually perpendicular fields  The beam then enters a region of another magnetic field  perpendicular to the beam. The radius of curvature of the resulting ion beam is proportional to

(A)  Eʹ/B

(B)  EB/Bʹ

(C)  BBʹ/E

(D)  E/BBʹ

Answer: (B)

87. In Young’s double slit experiment using monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where path difference is λ, is k units. The intensity of light at a point where path difference is λ/3, is

(A)  k/2

(B)  k/3

(C)  k/4

(D)  2k/3

Answer: (C)

88. Figure shows a thin rectangular copper plate with the centra of mass at origin O and side AB = 2BC = 2m. If a quarter part of the plate (shown as shaded) is removed, the centre of mass of the remaining plate would lie at





Answer: (B)

89. Two solid spheres of the same metal but of mass M and 8M fall simultaneously in a viscous fluid. If their terminal velocities are υ and nυ, then the value of n will be

(A)  16

(B)  8

(C)  4

(D)  2

Answer: (C)

90. A small satellite is in elliptical orbit around the earth as shown in the figure. L denotes the magnitude of its angular momentum and K denotes its kinetic energy. If 1 and 2 denotes two positions of the satellite, then

(A)  L2 = L1, K2 = K

(B)  L2 = L1, K2 > K1

(C)  L2 > L1, K2 < K­1

(D)  L2 = L1, K2 < K1

Answer: (A)

91. The force F is given in terms of time t and displacement x by the equation F = A cos Bx + C sin Dt. The dimensional formula of D/B is

(A)  [M0L0T0]

(B)  [M0L0T1]

(C)  [M0L1T0]

(D)  [M0L1T1]

Answer: (B)

92. Springs of spring constant K, 3K, 9K, 27K,…… ∞ are connected in series. Equivalent spring constant of the combination is

(A)  3K/2

(B)  K/2

(C)  2K/3

(D)  ∞

Answer: (C)

93. Different curves in the figure show the behaviour of gases.

(1) The curve I represents ideal gas behaviour.

(2) Curves II, III and IV also represent ideal gas behaviour at different temperatures T2, T3 and T4

(3) Curves II, III and IV represent behaviour of a real gas at different temperatures T2, T3 and T­4

The correct statements are

(A)  1, 2, 4

(B)  2, 3, 4

(C)  1, 3, 4

(D)  1, 2, 3

Answer: (B)

94. Two bodies of masses m and 4m are attached with a string as shown in the figure below. The body of mass m ranging from a string of length I is executing oscillation of angular amplitude θ while the other body is at rest. The minimum coefficient of friction between the mass 4m and the horizontal surface should be





Answer: (C)

95. A rocket is moving at a speed of 200 ms1 towards a stationary target. While moving it emits a wave of frequency 1000 Hz. Some of the sound reaching the target gets reflected back to the rocket as an echo. The frequency of the echo as detected by the rocket is (velocity of sound = 330 ms1)

(A)  1000 Hz

(B)  1580 Hz

(C)  2504 Hz

(D)  4080 Hz