SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination (1st Shift) Tier-I Held on 21 October, 2012 Question Paper With Answer Key

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination (1st Shift) Tier-I Held on 21 October, 2012
SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination (1st Shift) Tier-I Held on 21 October, 2012 Question Paper With Answer Key

Staff Selection Commission Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

(1st Shift) Tier-I Held on 21 October, 2012

Part-I

General Intelligence

Directions-(Q. 1-6) select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives.

1. Jewellery : Gold : : Furniture : ?

(A)  Table

(B)  Tree

(C)  Wood

(D)  Paint

Answer: (C)

2. Author : Novel : : Choreographer : ?

(A)  Music

(B)  Picture

(C)  Make-up

(D)  Dance

Answer: (D)

3. Rig : Ofd : : Met : ?

(A)  Jbq

(B)  Kcr

(C)  Jer

(D)  Kbq

Answer: (A)

4. BDAC : FHEG : : NPMO : ?

(A)  RQTS

(B)  QTRS

(C)  RTQS

(D)  TRQS

Answer: (C)

5. 49 : 64 : : 144 : ?

(A)  186

(B)  121

(C)  256

(D)  169

Answer: (D)

6. SHOE : NCJZ : : REWA : ?

(A)  WJBF

(B)  CITY

(C)  MZRV

(D)  CAAR

Answer: (C)

   Directions-(Q. 7 to 10) Select the one which is different from the other three responses.

7.

(A)  Tongue

(B)  Teeth

(C)  Nose

(D)  Ear

Answer: (B)

8.

(A)  Petrol – Car

(B)  Electricity – Television

(C)  Ink – Pen

(D)  Dust – Vacuum cleaner

Answer: (D)

9.

(A)  Light – Heavy

(B)  Crime – Blame

(C)  Short – Long

(D)  Man – Woman

Answer: (B)

10.

(A)  343

(B)  512

(C)  729

(D)  144

Answer: (D)

   Directions-(Q. 11 and 12) Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?

11. (1) Destination (2) Booking

(3) Boarding      (4) Travel

(5) Planning

(A)  1, 2, 3, 4, 5

(B)  3, 4, 5, 1, 2

(C)  4, 3, 1, 2, 5

(D)  5, 2, 3, 4, 1

Answer: (D)

12. (1) Diagnosis (2) Doctor

(3) Sick              (4) Treatment

(5) Recovery

(A)  1, 2, 3, 4, 5

(B)  3, 2, 1, 4, 5

(C)  2, 1, 3, 4, 5

(D)  4, 5, 1, 3, 2

Answer: (B)

13. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary-

(1) Genuine        (2) Genesis

(3) Gender         (4) Gentle

(5) General

(A)  4, 5, 3, 2, 1

(B)  1, 5, 4, 3, 2

(C)  3, 5, 2, 4, 1

(D)  2, 5, 3, 1, 4

Answer: (C)

   Directions-(Q. 14 to 17) A series is given, with one term/number/letters missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

14. V, VIII, XI, XIV, ?, XX

(A)  IX

(B)  XXIII

(C)  XV

(D)  XVII

Answer: (D)

15.

3463       (2218)              1245

5324       ( ? )                  3626

(A)  2312

(B)  1142

(C)  1698

(D)  1592

Answer: (C)

16. XGH, WIJ, VKL, UMN, ?

(A)  HOW

(B)  UJI

(C)  TOP

(D)  SOP

Answer: (C)

17. SCD, TEF, UGH, ?, WKL

(A)  CMN

(B)  UJI

(C)  VIJ

(D)  VJI

Answer: (C)

18. K is more beautiful than B. B is not as beautiful as Y. J is not as beautiful as B or Y. Whose beauty is in the least degree?

(A)  Y

(B)  K

(C)  B

(D)  J

Answer: (D)

19. A person’s present age is two-fifth of the age of his mother. After 8 He will be one-half of the age of his mother. How old is the mother at present?

(A)  32 years

(B)  36 years

(C)  40 years

(D)  48 years

Answer: (C)

20. Raghu and Babu are twins. Babu’s sister is Reema. Reema’s husband is Rajan. Raghu’s mother is Lakshmi. Lakshmi’s husband is Rajsh. How is Rajesh related to Rajan?

(A)  Uncle

(B)  Son-in-law

(C)  Father-in-law

(D)  Cousin

Answer: (C)

21. If – stands for ÷, + stands for ×, ÷ stands for – and × stands for +, find out which one is correct?

(A)  49 + 7 – 3 × 5 ÷ 8 = 20

(B)  49 – 7 + 3 ÷ 5 × 8 = 24

(C)  49 × 7 + 3 ÷ 5 – 8 = 16

(D)  49 ÷ 7 ×3 + 5 – 8 = 26

Answer: (B)

   Directions-(Q. 22 and 23) From the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

22. ANNIVERSARY

(A)  SAVE

(B)  VIEW

(C)  YARN

(D)  VERY

Answer: (B)

23. REMEMBRANCE

(A)  REMEMBER

(B)  MEMBRANE

(C)  NUMBER

(D)  EMBRACE

Answer: (C)

24. If MADRAS is written as DAMSAR, how can MUMBAI be written in that code?

(A)  BAIUMM

(B)  MUMIAB

(C)  IABMUM

(D)  MBIAUM

Answer: (B)

25. If DREAM is coded as 78026 and CHILD is coded as 53417, how can LEADER be coded?

(A)  102078

(B)  102708

(C)  102087

(D)  102780

Answer: (B)

26. If Rat is called Dog, Dog is called Mongoose, Mongoose is called Lion, Lion is called Snake and Snake is called Elephant, which is reared as a pet?

(A)  Rat

(B)  Dog

(C)  Mongoose

(D)  Lion

Answer: (C)

   Directions-(Q. 27 to 31) Select the missing number from the given responses.

27. 7, 8, 10, 13, 17, ?

(A)  23

(B)  20

(C)  22

(D)  21

Answer: (C)

28. 69, 72, 78, 87, ?, 114

(A)  93

(B)  96

(C)  111

(D)  99

Answer: (D)

29. 1 8  ?  2  7

(A)  41

(B)  64

(C)  35

(D)  61

Answer: (B)

30. 48, 82, 44, 77, 40, 72, ?

(A)  36

(B)  40

(C)  76

(D)  70

Answer: (A)

31. If 36   (146)  437

then        574   (?)     641

(A)  236

(B)  356

(C)  250

(D)  134

Answer: (D)

32. The number of students in a course increases every year in a college. Find out the number in 2010 from the following information-

(A)  55

(B)  65

(C)  70

(D)  75

Answer: (B)

33. Prakash travelled 6 km northward, then turned left and travelled 4 km, then turned left and travelled 6 km. How far was Prakash from the starting point?

(A)  10 km

(B)  8 km

(C)  6 km

(D)  4 km

Answer: (D)

34. Two cars leave the same place at the same time. One runs at 20 km/hr towards north and the other at 15 km/hr towards east. What will be the distance between them (in km) after 2 hours of travelling?

(A)  70

(B)  10

(C)  25

(D)  50

Answer: (D)

35. If Police is called Teacher, Teacher is called Politician, Politician is called Doctor, Doctor is called Surgeon, who will arrest the criminals?

(A)  Police

(B)  Lawyer

(C)  Teacher

(D)  Doctor

Answer: (C)

   Directions-(Q. 36 and 37) Two statements are given followed by two/four conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.

36. Statements :

(1) Some buses are four wheelers.

(2) All four wheelers are vans.

Conclusions:

(I) Some vans are buses.

(II) Some buses are vans.

(A)  Only conclusion I follows

(B)  Only conclusion II follows

(C)  Either conclusion I or II follows

(D)  Both conclusions I and II follow

Answer: (D)

37. Statements:

(1) All peacocks are lions.

(2) Some tigers are peacocks.

Conclusions:

(I) Some lions are not tigers.

(II) All tigers are lions.

(III) Some tigers are lions.

(IV) All peacocks are tigers

(A)  Only conclusion I follows

(B)  Only conclusion II follows

(C)  Only conclusion III follows

(D)  Only conclusion IV follows

Answer: (A)

   Directions –(Q. 38 and 39) If a mirror is placed on the line XY, then which of the answer figures is the correct image of the given question figure?

38. 

Answer: (B)

39. 

Answer: (C)

40. How many cubes are there in this diagram?

(A)  16

(B)  12

(C)  10

(D)  8

Answer: (B)

41. How many educated people are employed?

(A)  18

(B)  26

(C)  24

(D)  16

Answer: (A)

42. From the details, find out the number of people who do not read any newspaper-

(A)  195

(B)  135

(C)  175

(D)  75

Answer: (A)

43. Find out the number of people who do not play any game-

(A)  9

(B)  24

(C)  18

(D)  15

Answer: (A)

44. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Answer: (D)

   Directions-(Q. 45 to 47) From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

45. 

Answer: (A)

46. 

Answer: (B)

47. 

Answer: (C)

48. If the following pattern is drawn on a transparent rectangular sheet and folded along the dotted line, how does it appear?

Answer: (D)

49. A triangular sheet of paper has been folded and punched as shown in the following series of figures. How will it appear when opened?

Answer: (D)

50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., M can be represented by 14, 21, etc. and P can be represented by 59, 78, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word MIST.

(A)  02, 58, 03, 86

(B)  40, 77, 34, 98

(C)  14, 89, 22, 88

(D)  40, 58, 03, 56

Answer: (D)

For Visually Handicapped Candidates Only

Directions-(Q. 38 and 39) Select the related word from the given alternatives.

38. Peacock : India : : Bear : ?

(A)  Australia

(B)  Russia

(C)  America

(D)  England

Answer: (B)

39. Menu : Food : : Catalogue : ?

(A)  Library

(B)  Newspaper

(C)  Rack

(D)  Books

Answer: (D)

   Directions-(Q. 40 and 41) Select the missing number/letters from the given responses.

40. 544, 509, 474, 439, ?

(A)  404

(B)  414

(C)  420

(D)  445

Answer: (A)

41. prt, ?, bdf, hjl, npr

(A)  vwc

(B)  vya

(C)  xzb

(D)  vxz

Answer: (D)

   Directions-(Q. 42 and 43) Select the one which is different from the other three responses.

42.

(A)  Scythe

(B)  Knife

(C)  Pillar

(D)  Saw

Answer: (C)

43.

(A)  Guitar

(B)  Violin

(C)  Veena

(D)  Keyboard

Answer: (D)

44. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary-

(1) Devious        (2) Devout

(3) Devolution   (4) Devotional

(5) Development

(A)  2, 5, 1, 3, 4

(B)  4, 2, 3, 5, 1

(C)  5, 2, 3, 1, 4

(D)  5, 1, 3, 4, 2

Answer: (D)

45. Which will appear third in the dictionary?

(A)  Serif

(B)  Sergeant

(C)  Serous

(D)  Serjeant

Answer: (D)

46. How is my brother’s grandfather’s only son’s only boy related to me?

(A)  Brother

(B)  Sister

(C)  Cousin

(D)  Mother

Answer: (B)

   Directions-(Q. 47 and 48) From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

47. MISCELLANEOUS

(A)  MISCHIEF

(B)  CELL

(C)  CANE

(D)  MISS

Answer: (A)

48. SUBORDINATE

(A)  NEAT

(B)  BORDER

(C)  EAT

(D)  SEAT

Answer: (B)

49. If STAMPEDE can be written as PESTAMDE, then TAMPERED can be written as-

(A)  ERTAMPED

(B)  RETAMPED

(C)  RETAMPDE

(D)  ERTAMPDE

Answer: (A)

50. In a certain code, RAINTREE is written as ARNIRTEE. How is DAHLIA written in that code?

(A)  DALHAI

(B)  HADLAI

(C)  ADLHAI

(D)  LADHAI

Answer: (C)

Part-II

English Language

   Directions-(Q. 51-56) Some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the oval (•) corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the oval corresponding to (D) in the Answer Sheet.

51. India has got (A)/ freedom (B)/in 1947. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (A)

52. Every scientific invention (A)/ has proved (B)/ much harmful to society than beneficial. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (C)

53. She is preparing (A)/ for this examination (B)/ since 2004. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (A)

54. I can depend upon (A)/ your help, (B)/ can I? (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (A)

55. I am tired (A)/ so I’ll lay down (B)/ and take rest. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (B)

56. If her grandfather (A)/ would have lived three more days (B)/ he would have been 100 years old. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (B)

   Directions-(Q. 57-61) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval (•) in the Answer Sheet.

57. She thanked Vishal as she could reach the station on time ……. .his help.

(A)  since

(B)  for

(C)  with

(D)  in

Answer: (C)

58. My …….. brother is called Arhaan.

(A)  older

(B)  oldest

(C)  senior

(D)  elder

Answer: (D)

59. The lawyer has plenty of ……….

(A)  criminals

(B)  buyers

(C)  customers

(D)  clients

Answer: (D)

60. “I have brought the book. It’s ……. !” Ravi said assertively to all the boys present.

(A)  mine

(B)  my

(C)  me

(D)  myself

Answer: (A)

61. “The project is good, but there is ……… missing to make it an excellent work,” the engineer commented.

(A)  everything

(B)  anything

(C)  something

(D)  nothing

Answer: (C)

   Directions-(Q. 62-64) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

62. Fortitude

(A)  Prudence

(B)  Support

(C)  Courage

(D)  Sincerity

Answer: (C)

63. Imply

(A)  Conclude

(B)  Connote

(C)  Confirm

(D)  Comply

Answer: (B)

64. Vigilant

(A)  Intelligent

(B)  Ambitious

(C)  Smart

(D)  Watchful

Answer: (D)

   Directions-(Q. 65-67) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

65. Feeble

(A)  Rickety

(B)  Weak

(C)  Infirm

(D)  Robust

Answer: (D)

66. Adulterate

(A)  Contaminate

(B)  Purify

(C)  Wash

(D)  Stain

Answer: (B)

67. Vain

(A)  Conceited

(B)  Egotistic

(C)  Humble

(D)  Proud

Answer: (C)

   Directions-(Q. 68-72) Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

68. A cry in wilderness

(A)  a cry in vain

(B)  an unpleasant situation

(C)  a cry in disgrace

(D)  a cry with a laughter

Answer: (A)

69. To rock the boat

(A)  to conspire against

(B)  to create difficulties

(C)  to agitate against

(D)  to upset the balance

Answer: (B)

70. To beat the air

(A)  to make a great effort

(B)  to act intelligently

(C)  to make efforts that are useless and/or vain

(D)  to make every possible effort

Answer: (C)

71. See through

(A)  to persist with something

(B)  to see off

(C)  to detect the true nature

(D)  to ignore something

Answer: (C)

72. To give airs

(A)  exhale

(B)  inhale

(C)  boast

(D)  humble

Answer: (C)

   Directions-(Q. 73-79) A part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (A), (B), (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D). Mark  your answer in the Answer Sheet.

73. She is my better half.

(A)  wife

(B)  Mrs.

(C)  partner

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (A)

74. The Prime Minister has gone to Brazil, isn’t it?

(A)  has he ?

(B)  hasn’t he?

(C)  didn’t he?

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (B)

75. They were congratulated him for his birthday.

(A)  congratulated him for

(B)  were congratulated him on

(C)  congratulated him on

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (C)

76. My cousin sister is a teacher.

(A)  cousin

(B)  cousin’s sister

(C)  cousin brother

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (A)

77. The news is so good but it can’t be true.

(A)  too good to

(B)  very good to

(C)  rather good to

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (A)

78. I had lived in this house since 2005.

(A)  am living

(B)  have been living

(C)  have lived

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (A)

79. Keeping away from controversy is best policy.

(A)  a better policy

(B)  the best policy

(C)  most best policy

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (B)

   Directions-(Q. 80-83) Out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

80. Impossible to decipher, make out or read-

(A)  eligible

(B)  intelligible

(C)  illegible

(D)  ambiguous

Answer: (D)

81. Careful not to harm or inconvenience others-

(A)  humble

(B)  considerate

(C)  obstinate

(D)  rash

Answer: (B)

82. One who finds it easy to produce new and original ideas and things.

(A)  impulsive

(B)  creative

(C)  hospitable

(D)  bright

Answer: (B)

83. Done with good judgement-

(A)  eminent

(B)  judicious

(C)  enviable

(D)  judicial

Answer: (B)

   Directions-(Q. 84 and 85) There are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval (•) in the Answer Sheet.

84. 

(A)  grammar

(B)  gramer

(C)  grammer

(D)  gramar

Answer: (A)

85.

(A)  imidate

(B)  imidiate

(C)  immediate

(D)  imidiat

Answer: (C)

   Directions-(Q. 86-100) You have following two brief passage with 10 questions in passage I and 5 questions in passage II. Read the passages carefully and fill in the blanks with suitable words out of the four alternatives given.

Passage I

(Q. 86-95)

   Beggars have found a new way of making money. They seek …(86)… via SMS, requesting to credit sums …(87)… from Rs 10 to Rs 100. They explain their …(88)… and end the message with a statement of …(89)…  “Those who are God fearing will definitely …(90)… to their request and will be heaped with …(91)… as a reward for their good …(92)…” Many also send heavenly pictures of …(93)… Quite a few people …(94)… and give away alms. They …(95)… that they are giving money in the name of God, irrespective of who the receiver is.

86.

(A)  donation

(B)  loan

(C)  alms

(D)  favour

Answer: (C)

87.

(A)  differing

(B)  ranging

(C)  fluctuating

(D)  producing

Answer: (B)

88.

(A)  problem

(B)  difficulty

(C)  task

(D)  duty

Answer: (A)

89.

(A)  dependence

(B)  morality

(C)  immorality

(D)  faith

Answer: (B)

90.

(A)  leap

(B)  heed

(C)  forward

(D)  think

Answer: (B)

91.

(A)  curse

(B)  cruelty

(C)  blessings

(D)  tensions

Answer: (C)

92.

(A)  deed

(B)  work

(C)  task

(D)  job

Answer: (A)

93.

(A)  river

(B)  hell

(C)  garden

(D)  paradise

Answer: (D)

94.

(A)  take action

(B)  respond

(C)  argue

(D)  quarrel

Answer: (B)

95.

(A)  argue

(B)  consider

(C)  believe

(D)  imagine

Answer: (C)

Passage II

(Q. 96-100)

   Left-handed persons can do certain things better than those who are right-handed. They generally find it more …(96)… to learn languages and mathematics, but have an advantage when it …(97)… to music or sports. Recent research shows that the reason for …(98)… or right-handedness, and the qualities …(99)… go with each of these, …(100)… lie in differences in the construction of the brain.

96.

(A)  easy

(B)  difficult

(C)  hard

(D)  rigid

Answer: (B)

97.

(A)  come

(B)  came

(C)  comes

(D)  coming

Answer: (C)

98.

(A)  left

(B)  right

(C)  lame

(D)  handicapped

Answer: (A)

99.

(A)  those

(B)  these

(C)  who

(D)  that

Answer: (D)

100.

(A)  might

(B)  must

(C)  may

(D)  need

Answer: (C)

Part-III

Quantitative Aptitude

101. The wrong number in the series is 2, 9, 28, 65, 126, 216, 344

(A)  9

(B)  65

(C)  216

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

102. Eight consecutive numbers are given. If the average of the two numbers that appear in the middle is 6, then the sum of the eight given numbers is-

(A)  36

(B)  48

(C)  54

(D)  64

Answer: (B)

103. If  then  is equal to-

(A) 

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (A)

104. A and B together can do a piece of work in 12 days, while B alone can finish it in 30 days. A alone can finish the work in-

(A)  15 days

(B)  18 days

(C)  20 days

(D)  25 days

Answer: (C)

105. A and B can do a job together in 12 days. A is 2 times as efficient as B. In how many days can B alone complete the work?

(A)  36

(B)  12

(C)  18

(D)  9

Answer: (A)

106. The marked price is 20% higher than cost price. A discount of 20% is given on the marked price. By this type of sale, there is-

(A)  no loss or gain

(B)  4% gain

(C)  4% loss

(D)  2% loss

Answer: (C)

107. A chair listed at Rs 350 is available at successive discounts of 25% and 10%. The selling price of the chair is-

(A)  Rs 240.25

(B)  Rs 242.25

(C)  Rs 236.25

(D)  Rs 230.25

Answer: (C)

108. A tradesman marks his goods at such a price that after allowing a discount of 15%, he makes a profit of 20%. What is the marked price of an article whose cost price is Rs 170?

(A)  Rs 220

(B)  Rs 200

(C)  Rs 240

(D)  Rs 260

Answer: (C)

109. In two types of stainless steel, the ratio of chromium and steel are 2 : 11 and 5 : 21 respectively. In what proportion should the two types be mixed so that the ratio of chromium to steel in the mixed type become 7 : 32?

(A)  1 : 2

(B)  1 : 3

(C)  2 : 3

(D)  3 : 4

Answer: (A)

110. A sum of Rs 7,000 is divided among A, B, C in such a way that the shares of A and B are in the ratio 2 : 3 and those of B and C are in the ratio 4 : 5. The share of B is-

(A)  Rs 1,600

(B)  Rs 2,000

(C)  Rs 2,400

(D)  Rs 3,000

Answer: (C)

111. Tea worth Rs 126 per kg and Rs 135 per kg are mixed with a third variety in the ratio 1 : 1 : 2. If the mixture is worth Rs 153 per kg, the price of the third variety per kg will be-

(A)  Rs 169.5

(B)  Rs 170.0

(C)  Rs 175.5

(D)  Rs 180.0

Answer: (C)

112. In the afternoon, a student read 100 pages at the rate of 60 pages per hour. In the evening, when she was tired, she read 100 more pages at the rate of 40 pages per hour. What was her average rate of reading, in pages per hour?

(A)  48

(B)  50

(C)  60

(D)  70

Answer: (A)

113. The mean weight of 34 students of a school is 42 kg. If the weight of the teacher be included, the mean rises by 400 gram. Find the weight of the teacher (in kg).

(A)  66

(B)  56

(C)  55

(D)  57

Answer: (B)

114. A cricketer has a mean score of 60 runs in 10 innings. Find out how many runs are to be scored in the eleventh innings to raise the mean score to 62?

(A)  80

(B)  81

(C)  83

(D)  82

Answer: (D)

115. A trader purchases a watch and a wall clock for Rs 390. He sells them making a profit of 10% on the watch and 15% on the wall clock. He earns a profit of Rs 51.50. The difference between the original prices of the wall clock and the watch is equal to-

(A)  Rs 110

(B)  Rs 100

(C)  Rs 80

(D)  Rs 120

Answer: (A)

116. A salesman expects a gain of 13% on his cost price. If in a month his sale was Rs 7,91,000, what was his profit?

(A)  Rs 91,000

(B)  Rs 97,786

(C)  Rs 85,659

(D)  Rs 88,300

Answer: (A)

117. A merchant fixed the selling price of his articles at Rs 700 after adding 40% profit to the cost price. As the sale was very low at this price level, he decided to fix the selling price at 10% profit. Find the new selling price.

(A)  Rs 450

(B)  Rs 490

(C)  Rs 500

(D)  Rs 550

Answer: (D)

118. A saves 20% of his monthly salary. If his monthly expenditure is Rs 6,000, then his monthly savings is-

(A)  Rs 1,200

(B)  Rs 4,800

(C)  Rs 1,500

(D)  Rs 1,800

Answer: (A)

119. From 2008 to 2009, the sales of a book decreased by 80%. If the sales in 2010 were the same in 2008, by what percent did it increase from 2009 to 2010?

(A)  80%

(B)  100%

(C)  120%

(D)  400%

Answer: (D)

120. The speed of a bus is 72 km/hr. The distance covered by the bus in 5 seconds is-

(A)  50 m

(B)  74.5 m

(C)  100 m

(D)  60 m

Answer: (C)

121. Two men start together to walk a certain distance, one at 4 km/h and another at 3 km/h. The former arrives half an hour before the latter. Find the distance-

(A)  6 km

(B)  9 km

(C)  8 km

(D)  7 km

Answer: (A)

122. A person invests Rs 12,000 as fixed deposit at a bank at the rate of 10% per annum simple interest. But due to some pressing needs he has to withdraw the entire money after 3 years, for which the bank allowed him a lower rate of interest. If he gets Rs 3,320 less than what he would have got at the end of 5 years, the rate of interest allowed by the bank is-

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (D)

123. The compound interest on Rs 30,000 at 7% per annum for a certain time is Rs 4,347. The time is-

(A)  2 years

(B)  2.5 years

(C)  3 years

(D)  4  years

Answer: (A)

124. A prism has as the base a right-angled triangle whose sides adjacent to the right angles are 10 cm and 12 cm long. The height of the prism is 6 gm/cubic cm. The weight of the prism is-

(A)  3.4 kg

(B)  4.8 kg

(C)  6.4 kg

(D)  7.2 kg

Answer: (D)

125. Three circles of radii 4 cm, 6 cm and 8 cm touch each other pairwise externally. The area of the triangle formed by the line segments joining the centres of the three circles is-

(A)  6√6 sq. cm

(B)  24√6 sq. cm

(C)  144√13 sq. cm

(D)  12√105 sq. cm

Answer: (B)

126. The radius of the base of a right circular cone is doubled. To keep the volume fixed, the height of the cone will be-

(A)  half of the previous height

(B)  one-third of the previous height

(C)  one-fourth of the previous height

(D)  1/√2 times of the previous height

Answer: (C)

127. The base of a cone and a cylinder have the same radius 6 cm; they have also the same height 8 cm. The ratio of the curved surfaces of the cylinder to that of the cone is-

(A)  4 : 3

(B)  5 : 3

(C)  8 : 5

(D)  8 : 3

Answer: (C)

128. The ratio of length of each equal side and the third side of an isosceles triangle is 3 : 4. If the area of the triangle is 18√5 square unit, the third side is-

(A)  8√2 unit

(B)  12 unit

(C)  16 unit

(D)  5√10 unit

Answer: (B)

129. In a circle of radius 21 cm, an arc subtends an angle of 72° at the centre. The length of the arc is-

(A)  13.2 cm

(B)  19.8 cm

(C)  21.6 cm

(D)  26.4 cm

Answer: (D)

130. The x-intercept of the graph of 7x – 3y = 2 is-

(A)  2/5

(B)  2/7

(C)  3/4

(D)  3/7

Answer: (B)

131. If x = √3 + √2, then the value of  is-

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  2√2

(D)  2√3

Answer: (D)

132. If p + q = 10 and pq = 5, then the numerical value of  will be-

(A)  22

(B)  18

(C)  16

(D)  20

Answer: (B)

133. If  then the value of  will be-

(A)  3√3

(B)  5

(C)  1

(D)  2

Answer: (D)

134. An equilateral triangle TQR is drawn inside a square PQRS. The value of the angle PTS, in degrees, is-

(A)  75

(B)  90

(C)  120

(D)  150

Answer: (D)

135. If a, b and c are the sides of a triangle and a2 + b2 + c2 = ab + bc + ca, then the triangle is-

(A)  equilateral

(B)  isosceles

(C)  right-angled

(D)  obtuse-angled

Answer: (A)

136. The distance between the centres of two equal circles, each of radius 3 cm, is 10 cm. The length of a transverse common tangent is-

(A)  4 cm

(B)  6 cm

(C)  8 cm

(D)  10 cm

Answer: (C)

137. If the perimeter of a right-angled triangle is 56 cm and area of the triangle is 84 sq. cm, then the length of the hypotenuse is (in cm) –

(A)  7 cm

(B)  24 cm

(C)  25 cm

(D)  50 cm

Answer: (C)

138. In ∆ ABC, ∠A = 30°, ∠B = 60°. Find ∠C in circular measure-

(A)  πc/6

(B)  πc/2

(C)  2πc/3

(D)  3πc/4

Answer: (B)

139. If cos θ + sec θ = 2, the value cos6θ + sec6θ is-

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  4

(D)  8

Answer: (B)

140. A man standing at a point P is watching the top of a tower, which makes an angle of elevation of 30°. The man walks some distance towards the tower and then his angle of elevation of the top of the tower is 60°. If the height of the tower is 30 m, then the distance he moves is-

(A)  20 m

(B)  20√3 m

(C)  22 m

(D)  22√3 m

Answer: (B)

   Directions-The following pie-chart shows the performance in an examination in a particular year for 360 students. Study the pie-chart and answer the questions no. 141-145.

141. The number of students who passed in first division is-

(A)  45

(B)  54

(C)  64

(D)  74

Answer: (B)

142. The number of students who passed in second division is more than those in first division by-

(A)  111

(B)  112

(C)  109

(D)  108

Answer: (D)

143. The ratio of successful students to the failed students is-

(A)  9 : 1

(B)  5 : 1

(C)  1 : 9

(D)  2 : 7

Answer: (A)

144. The percentage of students who have failed in the examination is-

(A)  20%

(B)  36%

(C)  10%

(D)  30%

Answer: (C)

145. The total number of students who have passed in 2nd or 3rd division is-

(A)  162

(B)  270

(C)  108

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

   Directions: The following is a horizontal bar diagram showing the accidents in which two-wheelers are involved with other objects. Study the diagram and answer the questions no. 146-150.

146. The percentage of accidents in which pedestrians and cyclists are involved is-

(A)  60

(B)  20.4

(C)  24

(D)  6

Answer: (C)

147. The percentage by which the accidents involving buses is less than the accidents involving tanker lorry is-

(A)  40

(B)  28

(C)  6

(D)  4

Answer: (D)

148. The difference in percentage between the accidents involving two-wheelers and two-wheelers and two-wheelers and other objects is respectively.

(A)  54, more

(B)  54, less

(C)  77, more

(D)  77, less

Answer: (B)

149. 60% of the accidents are involved due to-

(A)  two-wheelers, cars, buses and stationary vehicles

(B)  two-wheelers, cars, buses and tanker lorry

(C)  cars, buses, tanker lorry and pedestrians

(D)  cars, tanker, lorry, bicycles and stationary vehicles

Answer: (A)

150. If the data of the bar diagram is represented by a pie-chart, and the angle of a sector of the pie-chart is 36°, then this sector represents the accidents involving-

(A)  buses

(B)  stationary vehicles

(C)  pedestrians

(D)  bicycles

Answer: (B)

For Visually Handicapped Candidates Only

141. A number on subtracting 12 from it, reduces to its 80%. 30% of that number is-

(A)  18

(B)  24

(C)  30

(D)  36

Answer: (A)

142. If a, b, c are in continued proportion, then the value of  is-

(A)  2

(B)  1/2

(C)  1

(D)  1/3

Answer: (C)

143. A shopkeeper sells all articles at a discount of 7.5% but increases the selling price of each article by 20%. His gain on each article is-

(A)  5%

(B)  9.5%

(C)  11%

(D)  12.5%

Answer: (C)

  1. A train 220 metres long is running at a speed of 60 km/hr. In how many seconds will it pass a man who is running at 6 km/hr in the direction opposite to that in which the train is going?

(A)  6 second

(B)  9 second

(C)  12 second

(D)  15 second

Answer: (C)

145. If x + y = √3 and x – y = √2, then the value of 8xy(x2 + y2) will be-

(A)  5/2

(B)  √6

(C)  5/9

(D)  5

Answer: (D)

146. The average of consecutive odd numbers up to 300 is-

(A)  300

(B)  100

(C)  150

(D)  250

Answer: (C)

147. If  is-

(A)  3/4

(B)  2/3

(C)  −2/3

(D)  −3/4

Answer: (A)

148. In the series 2 + 5 + 8 … + 152, what will be the middle term?

(A)  77

(B)  71

(C)  74

(D)  80

Answer: (C)

149. PT is a tangent at T of a circle with centre at O. TA is diameter. AP cuts the circle at B. If PT = 6 cm, PB = 3 c, then AB is-

(A)  3 cm

(B)  3√3 cm

(C)  9 cm

(D)  6 cm

Answer: (C)

150. The length of the minute hand of a wall clock is 7 cm. The area swept by it in 30 minutes is-

(A)  147 cm2

(B)  154 cm2

(C)  77 cm2

(D)  210 cm2

Answer: (C)

Part-IV

General Awareness

151. The basic characteristic off a capitalistic economy is-

(A)  Full employment

(B)  The private ownership of the means of production

(C)  Absence of monopoly

(D)  Large-scale production in primary industries

Answer: (B)

152. Which one of the following taxes is not a direct tax?

(A)  Gift tax

(B)  Wealth tax

(C)  Sales tax

(D)  Estate duty

Answer: (C)

153. UNDP prepares-

(A)  Index Number of Price Level

(B)  Physical Quality Index

(C)  Human Development index

(D)  Standard of living index

Answer: (C)

154. Fiscal policy refers to-

(A)  Sale and purchase of securities by RBI

(B)  Government taxes, expenditure and borrowings

(C)  Government borrowings from abroad

(D)  Sharing of its revenue by Central Government with States

Answer: (B)

155. Public opinion gets an authoritative expression in a democracy through-

(A)  Newspapers

(B)  Parliament

(C)  Pressure groups

(D)  Public meetings

Answer: (B)

156. Which one of the following is not a determining factor of a country’s foreign policy?

(A)  National interests

(B)  Interdependence

(C)  Cultural conditions

(D)  Religious conditions

Answer: (B)

157. Who will act as the Chairman of Public Accounts Committee?

(A)  The Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha

(B)  The Leader of the House

(C)  The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(D)  The Vice-President of India

Answer: (A)

158. Who was the chosen unanimously as the President of India?

(A)  Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

(B)  Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

(C)  K. R. Narayanan

(D)  Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

Answer: (B)

159. The Constitution of India was passed by the Constituent Assembly on-

(A)  17th October, 1949

(B)  14th November, 1949

(C)  26th November, 1949

(D)  26th January, 1949

Answer: (C)

160. The power to decide an election petition is vested in the-

(A)  Parliament

(B)  Supreme Court

(C)  High Court

(D)  Election Commission

Answer: (C)

161. The 1857 Mutiny failed mainly because-

(A)  the British got French support

(B)  the British numbered more

(C)  of lack of planning and leadership

(D)  it was premature

Answer: (C)

162. The Story of ‘My Experiments with Truth’ is the autobiography of-

(A)  Lala Lajpat Rai

(B)  Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(C)  Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(D)  Mahatma Gandhi

Answer: (D)

163. Who among the following made the Ganapati festival very popular in Maharashtra?

(A)  Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(B)  Annie Besant

(C)  Mahadev Ranade

(D)  Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Answer: (D)

164. The Mughal ruler who built the Buland Darwaza was-

(A)  Akbar

(B)  Babur

(C)  Humayun

(D)  Bahadur Shah

Answer: (A)

165. Diarchy in the provinces was introduced through the-

(A)  Indian Councils Act, 1861

(B)  Indian Councils Act, 1892

(C)  Government of India Act, 1919

(D)  Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: (C)

166. Which of the following is the world’s largest desert?

(A)  Gobi

(B)  Sahara

(C)  The Great Australian Desert

(D)  Arabian Desert

Answer: (B)

167. The rate of erosion in a stream is lowest where-

(A)  breadth is greater

(B)  velocity is more

(C)  the river joins  the sea

(D)  depth is greater

Answer: (B)

168. The name ‘Sahyadri’ is related to-

(A)  Western Ghats

(B)  Cyclone hazards

(C)  A rain-bearing wind

(D)  Himalayan Peak

Answer: (A)

169. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(A)  Himachal Pradesh – Shillong

(B)  Andhra Pradesh – Hyderabad

(C)  Uttar Pradesh – Lucknow

(D)  Arunachal Pradesh – Itanagr

Answer: (A)

170. Tides in the sea have stored in them-

(A)  Hydraulic energy

(B)  Kinetic energy

(C)  Gravitational potential energy

(D)  A combination of all the three forms of energy

Answer: (D)

171. Delivery of developed fetus is scientifically called as-

(A)  Parturition

(B)  Oviposition

(C)  Abortion

(D)  Ovulation

Answer: (A)

172. Thyroxine hormone is secreted by-

(A)  Pituitary gland

(B)  Thyroid gland

(C)  Adrenal gland

(D)  Testes

Answer: (B)

173. The digestive juice which has no enzyme is-

(A)  Bile

(B)  Saliva

(C)  Intestinal juice

(D)  Gastric juice

Answer: (A)

174. An essential feature of seed germination is the presence of-

(A)  Minerals

(B)  Water

(C)  Light

(D)  Temperature

Answer: (B)

175. Plants that grow on stones and rocks are-

(A)  Halophytes

(B)  Aerophytes

(C)  Psammophytes

(D)  Lithophytes

Answer: (D)

176. Tactile hair is found in the body of-

(A)  Insects

(B)  Mammals

(C)  Reptiles

(D)  Birds

Answer: (A)

177. The source of energy in the Sun is-

(A)  nuclear fission

(B)  nuclear fusion

(C)  radioactivity

(D)  electrical energy

Answer: (B)

178. Which one of the following materials is used as controller in a nuclear reactor power generator?

(A)  Cadmium

(B)  Beryllium

(C)  Graphite

(D)  Heavy water

Answer: (A)

179. Banking of curves on road or railway track is done to provide-

(A)  centripetal force

(B)  centrifugal force

(C)  gravitational force

(D)  angular velocity

Answer: (A)

180. ………. Is a type of application software used for communication.

(A)  FTP

(B)  Word processing

(C)  Database

(D)  Image editing

Answer: (A)

181. A floppy disk is-

(A)  a semiconductor random-access memory

(B)  an EPROM

(C)  used as the primary memory in computer systems

(D)  made up of magnetic material

Answer: (D)

182. MDI stands for-

(A)  Multiple Document Interface

(B)  Multiple Design Interface

(C)  Multiple Design Interaction

(D)  Multiple Document Interaction

Answer: (A)

183. People die in an atmosphere of carbon dioxide because-

(A)  it is a poisonous gas

(B)  it destroys tissues

(C)  of want of oxygen

(D)  of suffocation

Answer: (C)

184. Which of the following acts as photosensitizer during photosynthesis?

(A)  Oxygen

(B)  Nitrogen

(C)  Chlorophyll

(D)  Chlorine

Answer: (C)

185. What happens when bleaching powder is left exposed to air?

(A)  It turns dark brown in colour

(B)  It turns yellow in colour

(C)  It gradually loses its oxygen

(D)  It gradually loses its chlorine

Answer: (D)

186. Arsenic pollution leads to-

(A)  White foot disease

(B)  Black foot disease

(C)  Dyslexia

(D)  Allergy

Answer: (B)

187. Which one of the following does not contribute to pollution?

(A)  Thermal Power Plant

(B)  Nuclear Power Plant

(C)  Hydroelectric Power Plant

(D)  Atomic Power Plant

Answer: (B)

188. Which of the following are the two major components of dry air (by volume)?

(A)  Nitrogen and Oxygen

(B)  Oxygen and Argon

(C)  Nitrogen and Ammonia

(D)  Oxygen and Carbon dioxide

Answer: (A)

189. Which one of the following is not an example of Lotic ecosystem?

(A)  Stream

(B)  Lagoon

(C)  Pond

(D)  Estuary

Answer: (C)

190. Permissible noise level at industrial area during daytime is-

(A)  40 dB (A)

(B)  75 dB (A)

(C)  120 dB (A)

(D)  140 dB (A)

Answer: (B)

191. Benazir Bhutto, the former Pakistan Prime Minister was assassinated in-

(A)  Hyderabad

(B)  Karachi

(C)  Rawalpindi

(D)  Islamabad

Answer: (C)

192. Which of the following is correctly matched?

       Research Institutes      Headquarters

(A)  Leather Research Institute – Lucknow

(B)  Rice Research Institute – Cuttack

(C)  Silk Research Institute – Bangalore

(D)  Sugar Research Institute – Chennai

Answer: (B)

193. Who was affectionately known as the “Grand Old Man of India”?

(A)  Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(B)  Mahatma Gandhi

(C)  Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(D)  Dadabhai Naoroji

Answer: (D)

194. India test fired successfully its Agni-V, surface-to-surface ICBM from Wheeler Island on-

(A)  7th March, 2012

(B)  7th April, 2012

(C)  17th March, 2012

(D)  19th April, 2012

Answer: (D)

195. Find the odd one out.

(A)  IDBI – Industrial Finance

(B)  SIDBI – Financial assistance to small industries

(C)  FCI – Financial assistance to commercial institutions

(D)  EXIM Bank – Financing of export import trade

Answer: (C)

196. The Twelfth Five Year Plan will be operative for the period-

(A)  2010-2015

(B)  2011-2016

(C)  2012-2017

(D)  2013-2018

Answer: (C)

197. The State with largest gap in male and female literacy is-

(A)  Uttar Pradesh

(B)  Madhya Pradesh

(C)  Rajasthan

(D)  Kerala

Answer: (C)

198. “Better to reign in hell than serve in heaven.” Who said these words?

(A)  William Shakespeare

(B)  Milton

(C)  William Wordsworth

(D)  Lord Tennyson

Answer: (B)

199. Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) is associated with the ban on which of the following?

(A)  Ban on certain organizations under UN laws

(B)  Ban on money laundering activities

(C)  Ban on nuclear tests for developing arsenals

(D)  Ban on terrorism

Answer: (C)

200. The Pulitzer Prize is associated with which of the following?

(A)  Environmental Protection

(B)  Civil Aviation

(C)  Journalism

(D)  Olympic Games

Answer: (C)

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination (Second Shift) Tier-I Held on 28 October, 2012 Question Paper With Answer Key

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination (Second Shift) Tier-I Held on 28 October, 2012
SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination (Second Shift) Tier-I Held on 28 October, 2012 Question Paper With Answer Key

Staff Selection Commission Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

(Second Shift) Tier-I Held on 28 October, 2012

Part-I

General Intelligence

Directions-(Q. 1-6) select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives.

1. NMKH : HIKN : : UTRO : ?

(A)  OPQR

(B)  ORTU

(C)  OPRU

(D)  ORPQ

Answer: (C)

2. ACEG : KMOQ : : CEGI : ?

(A)  HILN

(B)  FHJM

(C)  QSUV

(D)  IKMO

Answer: (D)

3. 5 : 124 : : 8 : ?

(A)  65

(B)  64

(C)  512

(D)  511

Answer: (D)

4. 164 : 143 : : 211 : ?

(A)  180

(B)  190

(C)  194

(D)  188

Answer: (B)

5. Never : Seldom : : Always : ?

(A)  Often

(B)  Everytime

(C)  Occasional

(D)  Usual

Answer: (A)

6. Ape : Man : : Cat : ?

(A)  Mouse

(B)  Pet-animal

(C)  Monkey

(D)  Tiger

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 7-10) Select the one which is different from the other three responses.

7.

(A)  Teacher

(B)  Drill Master

(C)  Student

(D)  Registrar

Answer: (C)

8.

(A)  DZ

(B)  AR

(C)  JT

(D)  SK

Answer: (B)

9.

(A)  JIG

(B)  FEB

(C)  TSP

(D)  NMJ

Answer: (A)

10.

(A)  Oliver Twist

(B)  Macbeth

(C)  Othello

(D)  King Lear

Answer: (A)

11. 13, 16, 19, 22, 24, 28.

(A)  24

(B)  28

(C)  19

(D)  13

Answer: (A)

12. 1, 4, 9, 16, 23, 25, 36.

(A)  25

(B)  36

(C)  23

(D)  9

Answer: (C)

13. (1) Ream         (2) Riot

(3)   Ruin              (4) Route

(A)  1, 2, 4, 3

(B)  1, 2, 3, 4

(C)  2, 1, 3, 4

(D)  2, 3, 1, 4

Answer: (A)

14. (1) Appear       (2) Appraise

(3) Approval         (4) Opposite

(A)  1, 3, 2, 4

(B)  1, 2, 3, 4

(C)  1, 4, 3, 2

(D)  1, 4, 2, 3

Answer: (B)

15. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

cb_eb_e_edc_

(A)  dafd

(B)  bbcd

(C)  cbec

(D)  dceb

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 16-18) A series is given, with one term/number missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

16. 4, 7, 11, 18, 29, 47, ?, 123, 199

(A)  84

(B)  102

(C)  76

(D)  70

Answer: (C)

17. ABNO, CDPQ, EFRS, ?

(A)  GHTU

(B)  KLYZ

(C)  IJVW

(D)  TUVW

Answer: (A)

18. 121, 112, ?, 97, 91, 86

(A)  99

(B)  104

(C)  102

(D)  108

Answer: (B)

19. If my mother’s maternal uncle is my wife’s grandfather, in what way is he related to my grandmother?

(A)  Husband

(B)  No direct relation

(C)  Brother

(D)  Cousin

Answer: (B)

20. Five books are placed on a table. E is on A and C is under B. A is above B and D is under C. Which book is lying at the bottom?

(A)  C

(B)  D

(C)  A

(D)  B

Answer: (B)

21. A man is standing facing the sun during sunset. Where will his shadow fall?

(A)  To his left

(B)  To his right

(C)  To his front

(D)  To his back

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 22 and 23) In each question from the given alternatives words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

22. MUSICAL

(A)  LASIUM

(B)  CLAIM

(C)  SLIM

(D)  CALCIUM

Answer: (D)

23. DAUGHTER

(A)  AUGHT

(B)  TRUTH

(C)  GATHER

(D)  DEARTH

Answer: (B)

24. If BRAKE is written as EUDNH, how can BRIDGE be written in that code?

(A)  EUDHLD

(B)  EULGJH

(C)  EUIGH

(D)  EUJNQ

Answer: (B)

25. If A = 1 and CAP = 20, what is HEN = ?

(A)  28

(B)  29

(C)  26

(D)  27

Answer: (D)

26. If ‘MEMORY’ is written as ‘848729’ in a certain code, then hos is ‘ROME’ written in that code?

(A)  4287

(B)  2487

(C)  2874

(D)  2784

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 27 to 29) Select the  missing number from the given responses.

27.

22   32      42

2     2        2

20   ?        34

(A)  28

(B)  30

(C)  23

(D)  22

Answer: (A)

28.

3     5        7          105

4     6        8          192

9     2        3          ?

(A)  297

(B)  87

(C)  54

(D)  14

Answer: (C)

29.

3     5        9

8     6        2

6     ?        6

4     10      3

(A)  5

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (C)

30. A statement is given below, followed by four inferences. Select the appropriate inference.

Statements:

(1) All students are graduates.

(2) Some students are swimmers.

(3) All swimmers are drivers.

Inferences  :

(A)  Some graduates are swimmers

(B)  All swimmers are graduates

(C)  All graduates are swimmers

(D)  All students are drivers

Answer: (A)

31. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation based on a certain system.

6 + 4 + 5 = 465; 7 + 3 + 4 = 374; 9 + 5 + 2 = ?

(A)  592

(B)  295

(C)  925

(D)  952

Answer: (A)

32.

If    0        1          2          3          = 9

1        2          3          4          =15

2        3          4          5          = 23

3        4          5          6          = ?

(A)  37

(B)  36

(C)  26

(D)  33

Answer: (D)

33. If H stands for +, Q stands for −, A stands for × and T stands for ÷, then

14 A 10 H 42 T 2 Q 8 = ?

(A)  153

(B)  251

(C)  158

(D)  216

Answer: (A)

34. A man started from his house and travelled 10 km towards East. He then turned left and travelled 5 km and then again turned left and cycled 10 km. How far is he from his home now?

(A)  15 km

(B)  20 km

(C)  5 km

(D)  10 km

Answer: (C)

35. A man starts from a point and cycles one km North. He then turns right and cycles 3 km and again turns right and cycles 5 km. How far and in which direction is he from his starting point?

(A)  4 km North

(B)  5 km North East

(C)  4 km East

(D)  5 km South East

Answer: (D)

36. Select the correct statement from the given responses.

Statement:

Environment air pollution is a product of modernization due to-

(I) lot of vehicles emitting smoke.

(II) draining of chemical waste into rivers.

(III) drying of animal wastes and fishes on roads.

(IV) drying of animal wastes and fishes on roads.

(A)  III is correct

(B)  IV is correct

(C)  I is correct

(D)  II is correct

Answer: (C)

37. A statement is given with four inferences. Select the correct inference.

Statement :

Spelling errors are common among children with learning abilities.

Inferences:

(I) Auditory reinforcement should be provided to them.

(II) Specialized individualized attention should be given.

(III) Repeat and tell the child to spell the word again and again.

(IV) Tell a sequences and improve speech sound

(A)  Either II or III is correct

(B)  I and II are correct

(C)  Only I is correct

(D)  III and IV are correct

Answer: (D)

38. Which number appears on the face opposite to 5?

(A)  4

(B)  1

(C)  6

(D)  2

Answer: (C)

39. Find the figure that represents the group-

Answer: (D)

40. The diagram represents Players, Teachers and Singers. Study the diagram and fund out how many Singer’s are also Players.

(A)  21

(B)  9

(C)  17

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

41. Find out the number of all those people who can speak English and Telugu.

(A)  62

(B)  22

(C)  34

(D)  4

Answer: (B)

42. Which number appears on the face opposite to 4?

(A)  2

(B)  6

(C)  5

(D)  1

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 43 and 44) Which answer figure will complete the pattern of the question figure?

43. 

Answer: (D)

44. 

Answer: (A)

     Directions-(Q. 45 and 46) In each question from the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden embedded.

45. 

Answer: (A)

46. 

Answer: (C)

47. If a mirror is placed on the line XY, then which of the answer figures is the correct image of the given question figure?

Answer: (D)

48. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

Answer: (A)

49. A sheet of paper when folded, punched and opened will appear as in the question figure. Choose from the answer figures which punched hole pattern gives the question figure.

Answer: (B)

50. Find out from the given alternatives a suitable figure that would complete the figure matrix.

Answer: (B)

For Visually Handicapped Candidates Only

     Directions-(Q. 38 and 39) Each question a series is given, with one term/number missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

38. ABD, EFH, IJL, ?

(A)  OPQ

(B)  SPQ

(C)  UPQ

(D)  OPR

Answer: (D)

39. 109, 74, 46, 25, 11, ?

(A)  11

(B)  4

(C)  3

(D)  36

Answer: (B)

40. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?

(1) Stem               (2) Leaf

(3) Flower            (4) Branch

(5) Fruit

(A)  1, 4, 3, 5, 2

(B)  1, 4, 3, 2, 5

(C)  1, 2, 3, 4, 5

(D)  1, 4, 2, 3, 5

Answer: (D)

41. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary-

(1) succeed           (2) shuffle

(3) subtle              (4) subway

(A)  2, 3, 4, 1

(B)  2, 1, 3, 4

(C)  1, 3, 4, 2

(D)  2, 4, 3, 1

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 42 to 44) Find the odd number/number pair/word from the given alternatives.

42. 6, 11, 16, 17, 21, 26

(A)  21

(B)  26

(C)  17

(D)  16

Answer: (C)

43.

(A)  59-48

(B)  33-27

(C)  68-85

(D)  121-134

Answer: (A)

44.

(A)  Butter

(B)  Curd

(C)  Cheese

(D)  Milk

Answer: (D)

45. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation based on a certain system.

2 + 3 + 6 + 7 = 9, 12 + 13 + 16 + 17 = 99, 102 + 103 + 106 + 107 = ?

(A)  999

(B)  9999

(C)  109

(D)  1009

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 46 to 50) Select the related letters/word/number from the given alternatives.

46. Writer : Book : : ? : Song.

(A)  Singer

(B)  Sound engineer

(C)  Musician

(D)  Composer

Answer: (D)

47. 14 : 9 : : 26 : ?

(A)  31

(B)  15

(C)  12

(D)  13

Answer: (B)

48. DOG : z : : CAT : ?

(A)  x

(B)  y

(C)  v

(D)  w

Answer: (A)

49. KLMN : PONM : : HIJK : ?

(A)  UVWX

(B)  SRQP

(C)  DEFG

(D)  OPQR

Answer: (B)

50. Smile : Laugh : : ? : Shout

(A)  Scream

(B)  Hoot

(C)  Talk

(D)  Whisper

Answer: (D)

Part-II

English Language

     Directions-In questions no. 51 to 56, each sentence has been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D) Some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. If a sentence is free from error, blacken the oval corresponding to (D) in the Answer Sheet.

51. I doubt (A)/ that this is (B)/ acceptable to all. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (B)

52. I have (A)/ a lot of problems, (B)/ haven’t I ? (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (D)

53. We are (A)/ hearing songs (B)/ from the tap-recorder. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (B)

54. A holy man accepts (A)/ with all the humility in the world (B)/ whatever God has provided him. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (B)

55. The teacher asked him (A)/ which English novel (B)/ did he like the most. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (C)

56. Students must (A)/ give the ear to (B)/ what the teacher tells them. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (B)

Directions- In questions no. 57 to 61, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four options given with each of them.

57. In your younger years, our minds are ……….. and soft.

(A)  amenable

(B)  impressionable

(C)  flexible

(D)  pliable

Answer: (A)

58. She doesn’t ………. her money.

(A)  care over

(B)  careful of

(C)  care for

(D)  take care of

Answer: (C)

59. All clothes were soaked ……. water.

(A)  in

(B)  on

(C)  with

(D)  under

Answer: (A)

60. You stand a good chance ………. the match.

(A)  for winning

(B)  in winning

(C)  of winning

(D)  to win

Answer: (D)

61. All shell ……….. broken loose after the bomb blast.

(A)  has

(B)  are

(C)  have

(D)  is

Answer: (D)

Directions-In questions no. 62 to 64, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given words and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

62. Gape

(A)  Struggle

(B)  Exclaim

(C)  Stare

(D)  Hide

Answer: (C)

63. Elude

(A)  Tell

(B)  Create

(C)  Avoid

(D)  Refer

Answer: (C)

64. Innocuous

(A)  Harmless

(B)  Faultless

(C)  Malicious

(D)  Offensive

Answer: (A)

Directions-In questions no. 65 to 67, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark in the Answer Sheet.

65. Repellent

(A)  Repulsive

(B)  Abhorrent

(C)  Attractive

(D)  Offensive

Answer: (C)

66. Gorgeous

(A)  Shabby

(B)  Ordinary

(C)  Untidy

(D)  Beautiful

Answer: (A)

67. Surfeit

(A)  Fullness

(B)  Deficiency

(C)  Redundancy

(D)  Excess

Answer: (B)

Directions-In questions no. 68 to 72, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

68. Hid did me a good turn by recommending for the post of Principal.

(A)  Returned my kindness

(B)  Changed my future

(C)  Did an act of kindness

(D)  Became suddenly good

Answer: (C)

69. If he is lazy, why don’t you turn him off.

(A)  Dismiss

(B)  Warn

(C)  Scold

(D)  Punish

Answer: (A)

70. Having walked twenty miles, I am feeling quite done up.

(A)  Energetic

(B)  Relaxed

(C)  Fresh

(D)  Exhausted

Answer: (D)

71. The sum and substance of our Principal’s speech was that students should learn discipline.

(A)  Outline

(B)  Theme

(C)  Conclusion

(D)  Gist

Answer: (D)

72. He is an honest man, he will take the bull by the horns and handle the management.

(A)  Face the problem boldly

(B)  Run away seeing the bull

(C)  Fight the bull holding its horns

(D)  Face the problem becoming nervous

Answer: (A)

Directions-In questions no. 73 to 79, a part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D). Mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

73. Do you appraise any difficulty in your neighbourhood after the recent theft?

(A)  Apprise

(B)  Approach

(C)  Apprehend

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (C)

74. The driver drove slowly so as not to over-turn his load.

(A)  In order that not to overturn his load

(B)  That he may not overturn his load

(C)  Not to overturn his load

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (D)

75. A bird in a hand is worth two in the bush.

(A)  Hands

(B)  Hand

(C)  The hand

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (B)

76. He nobly acquitted himself in the battle.

(A)  Acquitted himself nobly

(B)  Nobly acquitted in the battle

(C)  Acquitted nobly in the battle

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (A)

77. While at Mumbai I stayed in a hotel and mush of my time was spent in interviewing people.

(A)  Spent much of my time

(B)  I had spent much of my time

(C)  Much of my time had been spent

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (A)

78. None as brave deserve the fair.

(A)  Though

(B)  But

(C)  If

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (B)

79. Where had you been playing since we last played together?

(A)  Are your playing

(B)  Have  you been playing

(C)  Would you play

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (B)

Directions-In questions no. 80 to 83 out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

80. One who possesses many talents.

(A)  Dexterous

(B)  Versatile

(C)  Gifted

(D)  Exceptional

Answer: (B)

81. One who derives pleasure from inflicting pain on others.

(A)  Recluse

(B)  Hedonist

(C)  Sadist

(D)  Maniac

Answer: (C)

82. A person who rides horses in races as an occupation.

(A)  Equestrain

(B)  Horseman

(C)  Horse-racer

(D)  Jockey

Answer: (D)

83. A widely accepted rule of conduct or general truth briefly expressed.

(A)  Maxim

(B)  Tenet

(C)  Syllogism

(D)  Doctrine

Answer: (B)

Directions-In questions no. 84 and 85, there are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt from the given options.

84.

(A)  Heirerchy

(B)  Hierarchy

(C)  Heirarchy

(D)  Hairarchy

Answer: (B)

85.

(A)  Carboretor

(B)  Carburettor

(C)  Carborator

(D)  Carrburator

Answer: (B)

Directions-In questions 86 to 100, you have following two brief passages with 10 questions in Passage 1 and 5 questions in Passage II. Read the passage carefully and fill up the blanks with suitable words out of the four alternatives gives.

Passage-I

(Questions No. 86-95)

     Books are the chief carriers of civilization; because of them ideas …(86)… and spread. How important books are,  you can judge from the …(87)… that very hot countries have …(88)… civilization. There are many …(89)… for this, but one of the most important is that white ants in the tropics eat …(90)… all the books. Where there are no books, there are no …(91)… and no literature. The ideas and knowledge of one …(92)… are not handed …(93)… to the next, and it is much more …(94)… for the race to progress and …(95)… civilized.

86.

(A)  improve

(B)  fall

(C)  live

(D)  extend

Answer: (D)

87.

(A)  thought

(B)  fact

(C)  reason

(D)  feeling

Answer: (B)

88.

(A)  the little

(B)  less

(C)  little

(D)  a little

Answer: (C)

89.

(A)  accounts

(B)  consequences

(C)  effects

(D)  reasons

Answer: (D)

90.

(A)  in

(B)  out

(C)  into

(D)  up

Answer: (D)

91.

(A)  memories

(B)  traces

(C)  records

(D)  ideas

Answer: (C)

92.

(A)  generation

(B)  nation

(C)  culture

(D)  race

Answer: (A)

93.

(A)  out

(B)  on

(C)  in

(D)  off

Answer: (B)

94.

(A)  practicable

(B)  desirable

(C)  easy

(D)  difficult

Answer: (D)

95.

(A)  grow

(B)  become

(C)  go

(D)  stay

Answer: (B)

Passage II

(Questions No. 96-100)

     The gorilla is something of a paradox …(96)… the African scene. One thinks one knows him very well. He has been …(97)… and imprisoned in zoos. His bones have been …(98)… in museums everywhere and he has always exerted a strong …(99)… upon scientists. He is an obvious …(100)… with our past.

96.

(A)  from

(B)  at

(C)  in

(D)  to

Answer: (C)

97.

(A)  captured

(B)  killed

(C)  attacked

(D)  untreated

Answer: (A)

98.

(A)  set up

(B)  kept

(C)  mounted

(D)  installed

Answer: (C)

99.

(A)  attraction

(B)  influence

(C)  effect

(D)  fascination

Answer: (B)

100.

(A)  link

(B)  monster

(C)  attachment

(D)  connection

Answer: (A)

Part-III

Quantitative Aptitude

101. 3 cubes whose edges are 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm respectively are melted to form a single cube. The surface area of the new cube will be-

(A)  215 sq. cm

(B)  216 sq. cm

(C)  115 sq. cm

(D)  150 sq. cm

Answer: (B)

102. There is a rebate of 15% if electric bills are paid in time. A man got a rebate of Rs 54 by paying the bill in time. His electric bill was-

(A)  Rs 360

(B)  Rs 380

(C)  Rs 300

(D)  Rs 350

Answer: (A)

103. After successive discounts of 20%, 10% and 10%, a washing machine was sold for Rs 6,480. Then the original marked price of the washing machine was-

(A)  Rs 10,800

(B)  Rs 12,000

(C)  Rs 8,960

(D)  Rs 10,000

Answer: (D)

104. A dealer allows his customers a discount of 25% and still gains 25%. If the cost price of the article is Rs 720, then the marked price is-

(A)  Rs 1,200

(B)  Rs 1,100

(C)  Rs 1,400

(D)  Rs 1,300

Answer: (A)

105. If ab, bc, x and c2 are in proportion, then find x, if none of these is equal to zero.

(A)  ac

(B)  a2c2

(C)  a2c

(D)  c2a

Answer: (A)

106. A watermelon is cut into two pieces in the ratio of 3 : 5 by weight. The bigger of the two is further cut in the ratio of 5 : 7 by weight. Find the ratio of each of the three pieces.

(A)  15 : 25 : 26

(B)  5 : 7 : 9

(C)  3 : 5 : 7

(D)  36 : 25 : 35

Answer: (D)

107. Divide Rs 450 among A, B and C such that A : B = 2 : 3 and B : C = 6 : 5. Share of C is-

(A)  Rs 150

(B)  Rs 120

(C)  Rs 90

(D)  Rs 100

Answer: (A)

108. The LCM of two given numbers is 6 times the GCD of the numbers. If the smaller of the two numbers is 6, then the other number is-

(A)  15

(B)  18

(C)  9

(D)  12

Answer: (C)

109. The population of a city has been increasing at the rate of 10% every year. If the present population is 4840000, what was it 2 years ago?

(A)  4100000

(B)  4200000

(C)  3600000

(D)  4000000

Answer: (D)

110. (0.98)333333333 + (0.02)3 + 0.98 ×06 – 1 is-

(A)  1.09

(B)  1.98

(C)  0

(D)  1

Answer: (C)

111. A monkey wanted to climb on the smooth vertical pole of height 35 metres. In the first one minute, he climbs up 5 metres, in the next one minute, he slips down by 2 metres. Further, he repeated the same process till he has reached onto the top of the pole. How many times it has to go upward to reach the apex of the pole?

(A)  11

(B)  27

(C)  35

(D)  12

Answer: (A)

112. If a cistern generally takes 20 minutes to be filled by a pipe but due to a leak, it takes 10 extra minutes to be filled, then find the time in w hich the leak can empty the full cistern.

(A)  50 minutes

(B)  60 minutes

(C)  30 minutes

(D)  40 minutes

Answer: (B)

113. The wheel of a bus 0.75 m in radius, makes 84 revolutions in half minute. Then the speed of the bus in km per hour is-

(A)  23.76

(B)  33.26

(C)  17.82

(D)  47.52

Answer: (D)

114. In a vocational course in a college, 15% seats increase annually. If there were 800 students in 2012, how many seats will be there in 2014?

(A)  1058

(B)  1178

(C)  920

(D)  1040

Answer: (A)

115. If I walks at 4 km/hr, I miss the bus by 10 minutes. If I walk at 5 km/hr, I am 5 minutes early. How far do I walk to reach the bus stand?

(A)  4 km

(B)  6 km

(C)  3 km

(D)  5 km

Answer: (D)

116. Two trains 180 metres and 220 metres long are running in opposite directions at a speed of 40 km/hr and 50 km/hr respectively. They cross each other in-

(A)  17 seconds

(B)  20 seconds

(C)  16 seconds

(D)  18 seconds

Answer: (C)

117. The simple interest on a certain sum for 2 years at 10% per annum is Rs 100. The corresponding compound interest is-

(A)  Rs 105

(B)  Rs 85

(C)  Rs 100

(D)  Rs 95

Answer: (A)

118. A man deposits Rs 5,600 in a bank at 15/4% simple interest. After 6 months he withdraws Rs 2400 together with interest and after 6 months, he withdraws the remaining money. The total amount, he gets as interest, is-

(A)  Rs 150

(B)  Rs 180

(C)  Rs 100

(D)  Rs 125

Answer: (A)

119. The diameters of the internal and external surfaces of a hollow spherical shell are 5 cm and 10 cm respectively. If it is melted and recast into a solid cylinder of length 8/3 cm, then the diameter of the cylinder is-

(A)  14 cm

(B)  16 cm

(C)  7 cm

(D)  10 cm

Answer: (A)

120. The average of runs of a cricket player in 15 matches is 33. If the average of the first 10 matches is 45, then the average of the last 5 matches is-

(A)  15

(B)  23

(C)  9

(D)  13.5

Answer: (C)

121. The average of ten numbers is 30. If 5 is added to every number, the new average is-

(A)  30

(B)  30.5

(C)  35

(D)  53

Answer: (C)

122. Average age of 38 students is 14 years. If the age of the teacher is included, the average becomes 14 years and 4 months. Then teacher’s age is-

(A)  25 years

(B)  29 years

(C)  23 years

(D)  27 years

Answer: (D)

123. I bought a picture for Rs 225, spent Rs 15 to decorate it and sold it for Rs 300. My profit percentage is-

(A)  

(B)  25

(C)  52

(D)  50

Answer: (B)

124. Sharma sold his bike to Mr. Kelkar at a loss of 20%. Mr. Kelkar spends Rs 2,000 on its repair and sells it for Rs 22,000, thus making a profit of 10%. Then the cost price of the bike for Mr. Sharma is-

(A)  Rs 22,500

(B)  Rs 15,000

(C)  Rs 18,500

(D)  Rs 25,000

Answer: (A)

125. A dishonest dealer claims that he sells his goods at the cost price but uses a false weight of 920 gm instead of 1 kg. Find his gain per cent.

(A)  9%

(B)  8.5%

(C)  8%

(D)  8.7%

Answer: (D)

126. 75% of a number when added to 75 is equal to the number. The number is-

(A)  225

(B)  300

(C)  150

(D)  200

Answer: (B)

127. If a = (√3 + √2)3 and b = (√3 − √2)3, then the value of (a + 1)1 + (b + 1)1 is-

(A)  48√2

(B)  50√3

(C)  1

(D)  5

Answer: (C)

128. If 5a + 3b : 4a + 7b = 3 : 4, then a : b is equal to-

(A)  9 : 8

(B)  7 : 11

(C)  8 : 9

(D)  11 : 9

Answer: (A)

129. The value of k for which the expression 9x2 – kx + 16 be a perfect square is-

(A)  ±12

(B)  ±24

(C)  ±2

(D)  ±6

Answer: (B)

130. The solution(s) of  is/are-

(A)  +8

(B)  −6

(C)  ±2

(D)  ±4

Answer: (C)

131. The water contained by a hemispherical cup having diameter 13.5 cm is poured into an empty right circular cylindrical glass of diameter 9 cm. Then the depth of the water in the glass is-

(A)  8 cm

(B)  

(C)  

(D)  

Answer: (C)

132. The area of the base of a cuboidal box is 21 sq. cm and the area of one of the faces is 30 sq. cm. The numerical value of each of the dimensions of this box is an integer greater than 1. Then the volume of the cuboidal box, in cu. cm, is-

(A)  210

(B)  630

(C)  105

(D)  120

Answer: (A)

133. A chord of a circle of radius 14 cm makes a right angle at the centre. The area of the minor segment of the circle is (take π = 22/7)

(A)  154 cm2

(B)  252 cm2

(C)  56 cm2

(D)  98 cm2

Answer: (A)

134. Eliminating t from the equations, x = cos t, y = 2 sin t cos t, we get-

(A)  y2 = 2x2 + 4x4

(B)  y2 = 2x2 – 4x4

(C)  y2 = 4x2 + 4x4

(D)  y2 = 4x2 – 4x4

Answer: (D)

135. If tan4 θ + tan2 θ = 1, then value of cos4 θ + cos2 θ is equal to-

(A)  3

(B)  10

(C)  1

(D)  2

Answer: (C)

136. The value of sin(45° + θ) – cos(45° − θ) is equal to-

(A)  1

(B)  0

(C)  2 cos θ

(D)  2 sin θ

Answer: (B)

137. In a ∆ ABC,  is a median. Which is the correct relation?

(A)  AB + AC > 2AD

(B)  AB + AC < 2AD

(C)  AB + AC = 2AD

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

138. If ∆ ABC and ∆ DEF one similar such that 2AB = DE, BC = 8 cm, then EF is-

(A)  4 cm

(B)  8 cm

(C)  16 cm

(D)  12 cm

Answer: (C)

139. From an external point, a tangent to a circle is drawn. If length of this tangent be 8 cm and radius of the circle is 6 cm, the distance of the external point from the centre of the circle is-

(A)  12/√3 cm

(B)  10 cm

(C)  8√3 cm

(D)  6√3 cm

Answer: (B)

140. A chord of length 16 cm is drawn in a circle of radius 10 cm. The distance of the chord from the centre of the circle is-

(A)  9 cm

(B)  12 cm

(C)  6 cm

(D)  8 cm

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 141-145) Study the following frequency polygon showing the family size (i.e. the number of numbers in a family) alongwith the corresponding frequency (i.e. number of the families) and answers these questions.

141. There are 10 families having the family size; the family size is-

(A)  4

(B)  5

(C)  3

(D)  6

Answer: (D)

142. The family size possessed by maximum number of families is-

(A)  3

(B)  8

(C)  4

(D)  5

Answer: (C)

143. The number of families having size ‘4’ or less is-

(A)  50

(B)  40

(C)  35

(D)  45

Answer: (B)

144. The percentage of families having size ‘5’ is-

(A)  20

(B)  25

(C)  30

(D)  15

Answer: (B)

145. The difference between the number of families having size ‘3’ and size ‘6’ is-

(A)  15

(B)  8

(C)  5

(D)  10

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 146-150) Study the following  histogram showing frequency distribution of marks of a group of students and answer these questions.

146. The percentage of students obtaining marks above 60 is-

(A)  

(B)  40

(C)  30

(D)  

Answer: (D)

147. The maximum number of students secured marks between-

(A)  40 and 60

(B)  80 and 100

(C)  20 and 40

(D)  60 and 80

Answer: (A)

148. The proportion of students getting marks in the range 60 to 80 is-

(A)  1/6

(B)  1/5

(C)  2/3

(D)  1/10

Answer: (B)

149. Exactly 100 students have secured their marks above-

(A)  60

(B)  80

(C)  40

(D)  20

Answer: (D)

150. The total number of students is-

(A)  150

(B)  180

(C)  100

(D)  120

Answer: (A)

For Visually Handicapped Candidates Only

141. A florist bought 240 roses at Rs 9 per dozen. If he sells all of them at Rs 1 each, his profit percentage is-

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (D)

142. Equilateral triangles are drawn on one of the sides and one of the diagonals of a square as the box. The ratio of the areas of the two triangles is-

(A)  √3 : 4

(B)  1 : 4

(C)  1 : √2

(D)  1 : 2

Answer: (D)

143. If 13 sin θ – 12 = 0 and θ is an acute angle, then the value of  is-

(A)  1306/159

(B)  1036/195

(C)  1063/195

(D)  1036/159

Answer: (B)

144. One angle of a triangle is 108°, the angle included between the internal bisectors of the two acute angles of the triangle is-

(A)  144°

(B)  54°

(C)  72°

(D)  136°

Answer: (A)

145. The value of 

(A) 

(B)

(C)  1.20

(D)  

Answer: (B)

146. If (3x – 2y) : (x + 3y) = 5 : 6, then the value of x : y is-

(A)  17/13

(B)  5/13

(C)  3/13

(D)  27/13

Answer: (D)

147. If  then the value of  is-

(A)  5

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  8/3

Answer: (C)

148. Three persons X, Y, Z start a partnership business investing Rs 8,000, Rs 6,000 and Rs 4,000. They agree that the profit will be distributed in the ratio of their capitals. If the profit be Rs 15,453, then the share of X is-

(A)  Rs 7,475

(B)  Rs 3,964

(C)  Rs 5,854

(D)  Rs 6,868

Answer: (D)

149. 16 children take 12 days to complete a work which can be completed by 6 adults in 16 days. 16 adults started working and after 3 days, 10 adults left and 4 children joined them. How many days will they take to complete the remaining work?

(A)  12 days

(B)  15 days

(C)  6 days

(D)  9 days

Answer: (C)

150. A fisherman can row 2 km against the stream in 20 minutes and return in 15 minutes. Then the speed of the current is-

(A)  3 km/hr

(B)  4 km/hr

(C)  1 km/hr

(D)  2 km/hr

Answer: (C)

Part-IV

General Awareness

151. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is only for the citizens of India?

(A)  Right to life and liberty

(B)  Freedom of religion

(C)  Right to equality

(D)  Freedom of expression

Answer: (C)

152. The origin of Indian music could be traced back to which of the following Vedic Samhits?

(A)  Sama Veda

(B)  Yajur Veda

(C)  Rig Veda

(D)  Atharva Veda

Answer: (A)

153. Which one of the following was the most famous center of learning during the Mauryan period?

(A)  Ujjain

(B)  Vallabhi

(C)  Nalanda

(D)  Taxila

Answer: (A)

154. Kharvela, the Kalinga ruler patronized-

(A)  Hinduism (Viashnavism)

(B)  Shaivism

(C)  Buddhism

(D)  Janinism

Answer: (D)

155. Which of the following is not a reform measure adopted by Akbar?

(A)  Dag

(B)  Manasbdari System

(C)  Iqta system

(D)  Zabti

Answer: (C)

156. The first Anglo-Maratha War came to an end by the treaty of

(A)  Surat

(B)  Bassein

(C)  Salbai

(D)  Purandar

Answer: (C)

157. The name of India’s Permanent Research Station situated in the Antarctica is-

(A)  Dakshin Bharat

(B)  Dakshin Nivas

(C)  Dakshin Chitra

(D)  Maitri

Answer: (D)

158. The biggest copper producing country in Africa is-

(A)  Kenya

(B)  Tanzania

(C)  Union of South Africa

(D)  Zambia

Answer: (D)

159. Which one of the following is not possible under short-run?

(A)  Increasing the working time

(B)  Technology upgradation

(C)  Hiring additional workers

(D)  Procuring more raw materials

Answer: (D)

160. Value added tax was first introduced in-

(A)  Germany

(B)  Spain

(C)  France

(D)  Russia

Answer: (C)

161. “Supply creates its own demand” is the-

(A)  Law of Market

(B)  Law of Demand and Supply

(C)  Law of Demand

(D)  Law of Supply

Answer: (A)

162. Demand pull inflation is a situation of-

(A)  Excess demand

(B)  Parity between demand and supply

(C)  Excess supply

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

163. Gandhi is known as-

(A)  Philosophical anarchist

(B)  Radical anarchist

(C)  Marxist

(D)  Fabianist

Answer: (A)

164. Indian Federalism is close to-

(A)  Nigeria

(B)  Australia

(C)  Canada

(D)  USA

Answer: (C)

165. Fundamental Rights are enshrined in which Part of the Indian Constitution?

(A)  IV

(B)  V

(C)  II

(D)  III

Answer: (D)

166. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides special status to Jammu and Kashmir?

(A)  371

(B)  390

(C)  370

(D)  369

Answer: (C)

167. Which type of writs are not specifically provided in the Indian Constitution?

(A)  Mandamus

(B)  Quo warranto

(C)  Injunction

(D)  Prohibition

Answer: (C)

168. Which of the following algae is being used in space research?

(A)  Hydrodictyon

(B)  Cladophora

(C)  Chlamydomonas

(D)  Chlorella

Answer: (D)

169. Which one of the following is not a green house gas?

(A)  Ethane

(B)  Water vapour

(C)  Chlorofluorocarbon

(D)  Carbon dioxide

Answer: (A)

170. Which who basic forces are able to provide an attractive force between two neutrons?

(A)  Gravitational and electrostatic

(B)  Some other forces

(C)  Gravitational and nuclear

(D)  Electrostatic and nuclear

Answer: (C)

171. Which of the following phenomenon cannot take place in sound waves?

(A)  Diffraction

(B)  Polarization

(C)  Reflection

(D)  Interference

Answer: (A)

172. Identify the sequential-access media-

(A)  Magnetic tape

(B)  Digital video disk

(C)  Floppy disk

(D)  Optical disk

Answer: (A)

173. Which one of the following is more suitable for objective type examination?

(A)  Optical Mark Reading and Recognition

(B)  Optical Text Recognition

(C)  Magnetic Ink Character Recognition

(D)  Optical Character Recognition

Answer: (A)

174. The _____ service allows as group of Internet users to exchange their views on some common topic.

(A)  Nicnet

(B)  Milnet

(C)  Telnet

(D)  Usenet

Answer: (D)

175. In graphite, layers are held together by-

(A)  van der Waals forces

(B)  metallic bond

(C)  ionic bond

(D)  covalent bond

Answer: (A)

176. Which of the following places is the destination of iron-ore (slurry) carried from Kudremukh through pipeline?

(A)  Koyali

(B)  Jagdishpur

(C)  Mangalore

(D)  Udaipur

Answer: (C)

177. Which of the following geomorphical pairs is not correct?

(A)  Cirque-Glacier

(B)  Tombolo-Wave

(C)  Delta-River

(D)  Sinkholes-Wind

Answer: (D)

178. Sideite is an ore of-

(A)  Copper

(B)  Tin

(C)  Aluminium

(D)  Iron

Answer: (D)

179. Common cold is caused by-

(A)  Virus

(B)  Bacteria

(C)  Protozoa

(D)  Unicellular algae

Answer: (A)

180. Stilt roots are present in-

(A)  Banyan

(B)  Maize

(C)  Mango

(D)  China rose

Answer: (B)

181. Vitamin D is essential for-

(A)  prevention of osteoarthritis

(B)  absorption of magnesium from diet

(C)  absorption of calcium from diet

(D)  making strong and healthy bones

Answer: (C)

182. Which pair of structures are usually found in both plant and animal cells?

(A)  Cell wall and nucleus

(B)  Nucleus and chloroplast

(C)  Endoplasmic reticulum and cell membrane

(D)  Cell membrane and cell wall

Answer: (C)

183. Which of the following are homologous organs?

(A)  Wings of insects and birds

(B)  Tail of fish and cat

(C)  Skin of crocodile and feather of birds

(D)  Forelimb of horse and man

Answer: (A)

184. Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers received “NISHAN-E-PAKISTAN”, the highest civilian award in Pakistan?

(A)  Morarji Desai

(B)  Rajiv Gandhi

(C)  Atal Behari Vajpayee

(D)  Indira Gandhi

Answer: (A)

185. Mohammed Azharuddin, former Indian Cricket Team Captain represents ______ constituency of Uttar Pradesh in the Lok Sabha.

(A)  Mirzapur

(B)  Moradabad

(C)  Meerut

(D)  Mathura

Answer: (B)

186. Which country won the Gold in Sultan Azlan Shah Cup Hockey Tournament in 2012?

(A)  New Zealand

(B)  South Korea

(C)  Argentina

(D)  India

Answer: (A)

187. Where is Netaji Subhash National Institute of Sports?

(A)  Kolkata

(B)  Pune

(C)  Patiala

(D)  Gwalior

Answer: (C)

188. The only leader who got the Bharat Ratna award while holding the office of the Union Home Minister is-

(A)  Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(B)  Gulzari Lal Nanda

(C)  Lal Bahadur Shastri

(D)  Govind Ballabh Pant

Answer: (D)

189. Mullaperiyar Dam is a disputed issue between-

(A)  Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh

(B)  Tamil Nadu and Karnataka

(C)  Kerala and Tamil Nadu

(D)  Kerala and Karnataka

Answer: (C)

190. Margaret Alva is the Governor of-

(A)  Tamil Nadu

(B)  Uttarakhand

(C)  Gujarat

(D)  Sikkim

Answer: (B)

191. The Union Territory of Puducherry does not have a common border with-

(A)  Karnataka

(B)  Tamil Nadu

(C)  Andhra Pradesh

(D)  Kerala

Answer: (A)

192. Fullerene, a newly discovered crystalline carbon allotrope, contains-

(A)  100 C atoms

(B)  80 C atoms

(C)  60 C atoms

(D)  40 C atoms

Answer: (C)

193. The metal which is protected by a layer of its own oxide is-

(A)  Gold

(B)  Iron

(C)  Aluminium

(D)  Silver

Answer: (C)

194. Filaria is caused by-

(A)  Wuchereria bancrofti

(B)  Plasmodium vivax

(C)  Ascaris lubricoides

(D)  Entamoeba histolytica

Answer: (A)

195. The maximum moisture content of the composting mixture for vermicomposting is-

(A)  40%

(B)  65%

(C)  30%

(D)  35%

Answer: (A)

196. The process of ozonation in water treatment is known as-

(A)  Ionization

(B)  Sedimentation

(C)  Precipitation

(D)  Disinfection

Answer: (D)

197. Permissible concentration of residual chlorine in drinking water in mg/L is-

(A)  1.0

(B)  5.0

(C)  0.2

(D)  0.05

Answer: (B)

198. Lead poisoning in vertebrates is not characterized by-

(A)  Anaemia

(B)  Methemoglobinemia

(C)  Neurological defects

(D)  Kidney dysfunction

Answer: (B)

199. Who is the Chief of the Indian Army?

(A)  Gen. J. J. Singh

(B)  Gen. Dalbir Singh

(C)  Gen. V. K. Singh

(D)  Gen. Bikram Singh

Answer: (B)

200. India is not a member of-

(A)  G-20

(B)  G-8

(C)  SAARC

(D)  U.N.

Answer: (B)

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination (1st Shift) Tier-I Held on 04 November, 2012 Question Paper With Answer Key

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination (1st Shift) Tier-I Held on 04 November, 2012
SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination (1st Shift) Tier-I Held on 04 November, 2012 Question Paper With Answer Key

Staff Selection Commission Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

(1st Shift) Tier-I Held on 04 November, 2012

Part-I

General Intelligence

Directions-(Q. 1-6) select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives.

1. Play : Actor : : Concert : ?

(A)  Piano

(B)  Percussion

(C)  Symphony

(D)  Musician

Answer: (D)

2. QDXM : SFYN : : UIOZ : ?

(A)  QNLA

(B)  WKPA

(C)  PAQM

(D)  LPWA

Answer: (B)

3. CDEF : UVWX : : IJKL : ?

(A)  OPQR

(B)  MNOP

(C)  ABCD

(D)  NOPQ

Answer: (A)

4. 5 : 100 : : 7 : ?

(A)  91

(B)  98

(C)  49

(D)  196

Answer: (D)

5. 16 : 22 : : 36 : ?

(A)  44

(B)  26

(C)  24

(D)  46

Answer: (D)

6. Book : Paper : : Bread : ?

(A)  Cake

(B)  Butter

(C)  Flour

(D)  Biscuit

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 7-11) Select the one which is different from the other three responses.

7.

(A)  342

(B)  511

(C)  126

(D)  215

Answer: (C)

8.

(A)  IKN

(B)  MOR

(C)  ACF

(D)  EGI

Answer: (D)

9.

(A)  Energy

(B)  Erg

(C)  Power

(D)  Pressure

Answer: (B)

10.

(A)  NEM

(B)  MAL

(C)  QRP

(D)  RUQ

Answer: (C)

11.

(A)  Kerosene

(B)  LPG

(C)  Petrol

(D)  Diesel

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 12 and 13) Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?

12. (1) wrist (2) arm

(3) shoulder          (4) finger

(5) palm                (6) nail

(A)  5, 4, 6, 1, 2, 3

(B)  3, 2, 1, 5, 4, 6

(C)  6, 4, 5, 2, 1, 3

(D)  3, 2, 5, 1, 4, 6

Answer: (B)

13. (1) Flower (2) Seed

(3) Plant               (4) Fruits

(5) Branches         (6) Tree

(A)  2, 1, 4, 6, 5, 3

(B)  2, 1, 3, 6, 5, 4

(C)  2, 3, 6, 5, 1, 4

(D)  2, 6, 3, 1, 4, 5

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 14 and 15) A series is given, with one number/letter missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

14. ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, ……?………, MLNA

(A)  LLMA         

(B)  KLLA

(C)  OLPA

(D)  KLMA

Answer: (B)

15. 15, 39, 74, 122, …….?……, 265.

(A)  171

(B)  185

(C)  151

(D)  165

Answer: (B)

16. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

l…….b………..ub………ubt…………blu…………..tub

(A)  t u l b u

(B)  b u t l u

(C)  u b t l u

(D)  u t l u b

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 17-21) Select the missing number/letter from the given responses.

17. 

?      27

21   13

(A)  64

(B)  63

(C)  49

(D)  37

Answer: (A)

18.

49   100    64

9     36      4

81   1        25

19   ?        15

(A)  17

(B)  18

(C)  14

(D)  16

Answer: (A)

19. 17, 19, 23, 29, ………

(A)  31

(B)  39     

(C)  33

(D)  35

Answer: (A)

20. 23, 24, 27, 28, 31, 32, ……..

(A)  29

(B)  35

(C)  30

(D)  33

Answer: (B)

21. 

E     G       I

R     U       X

J      N       ?

(A)  O

(B)  Q

(C)  P

(D)  R

Answer: (D)

22. The total number of students in class A and class B is 120. If 15 students from class A are taken and added to class B, the number in class B becomes twice that of A. Find out the number of students in class A in the beginning-

(A)  55

(B)  40

(C)  80

(D)  65

Answer: (A)

23. Kannan is the brother of Kumar. Lakshmi is the daughter of Kumar. Kalai is sister of Kannan and Govind is the brother of Lakshmi. Who is the uncle of Govind?

(A)  Lakshmi

(B)  Kannan

(C)  Kumar

(D)  Kalai

Answer: (B)

24. Find out the pair of numbers that do not belong to the group for each of common property.

(A)  196-121

(B)  100-225

(C)  144-81

(D)  169-600

Answer: (D)

25. Introducing a girl, Vein said, “Her mother

(A)  Brother

(B)  Husband

(C)  Uncle

(D)  Father

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 26 and 27) from the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

26. ‘RECOMMENDATION’

(A)  COMMEND

(B)  MEND

(C)  COMMENTARY

(D)  COMMON

Answer: (C)

27. OPERATION

(A)  RATIO

(B)  NATION

(C)  RATION

(D)  OPERA

Answer: (B)

28. In the morning, I walked 2 kms facing the Sun and stopped, From there, I walked 4 kms on my right hand side, from there I walked I km again facing the Sun, from there I walked on my right hand side. Which direction I will be walking now?

(A)  South West

(B)  Right hand side

(C)  East

(D)  South East

Answer: (B)

29. If ‘+’ and ‘−’ signs are interchanged, similarly ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged, then find the answer of the following equation-

10 – 2 + 12 × 1 ÷ 0

(A)  1

(B)  0

(C)  8

(D)  12

Answer: (D)

30. If ‘BASKET’ is written as ‘TEKSAB’, how can ‘PILLOW’ we written in that code?

(A)  LOWLIP

(B)  WOLPIL

(C)  LOWPIL

(D)  WOLLIP

Answer: (D)

31. In certain code, TOPPER is written as POTREP. In that code, which word will be written as RUBREG?

(A)  BURGET

(B)  BEURGR

(C)  BURGER

(D)  BLURBE

Answer: (C)

32. If EARN is written as GCTP, how NEAR can be written in that code?

(A)  PGCT

(B)  PCGT

(C)  CTGP

(D)  GPTC

Answer: (A)

33. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a circle facing towards centre. D is between F and B. A is second to the left of D and second to the right of E. Who is facing towards D?

(A)  E

(B)  B

(C)  C

(D)  A

Answer: (C)

34. Choose the appropriate combination of signs to solve the equation.

(23 – 5) * (12 ÷ 2) * 3 * 6

(A)  × ÷ =

(B)  + − =

(C)  ÷ + =

(D)  − ÷ =

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 35 to 37) One/two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.

35. Statements : Rakesh is senior to Rajesh.

And Rajesh is senior to Rahul.

Conclusions : (i) Rakesh is senior to Rahul.

(ii) Rahul is not senior to Rakesh.

(A)  Both conclusion (i) and (ii) follow

(B)  Neither conclusion (i) nor (ii) follows

(C)  Only conclusion (i) follows

(D)  Only conclusion (ii) follows

Answer: (C)

36. Statements : (1) All crows are black.

(2) Some black things are beautiful.

Conclusions: (i) Some crows are beautiful.

(ii) Some beautiful things are black.

(A)  Both conclusion (i) and (ii) follow

(B)  Neither conclusion (i) nor (ii) follows

(C)  Only conclusion (i) follows

(D)  Only conclusion (ii) follows

Answer: (D)

37. Statement : Uneducated people are exploited by others in the society.

Conclusions : (i) People take advantage of uneducated people only.

(ii) Educated people exploit uneducated persons in society.

(A)  Both conclusion (i) and (ii) follow

(B)  Neither conclusion (i) nor (ii) follows

(C)  Only conclusion (i) follows

(D)  Only conclusion (ii) follows

Answer: (B)

38. Which number is on the face opposite to 6 in the dice whose four views are given below?

Answer: (C)

39. How many backward uneducated people are employed?

(A)  7

(B)  11

(C)  14

(D)  5

Answer: (D)

40. From the following two different appearances of a dice, find out which colour is opposite to white?

(A)  Yellow

(B)  Red

(C)  Blue

(D)  Black

Answer: (C)

41. Find the best relationship among the three classes in the following diagrams:

Answer: (B)

42. Which of the following answer figure indicates best relation between aeroplanes, train, travel?

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 43 and 44) which answer figure completes the pattern given in the question figure?

43. 

Answer: (D)

44. 

Answer: (A)

45. How many triangles are there in the given question figure?

(A)  16

(B)  20

(C)  15

(D)  14

Answer: (C)

46. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded:

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 47 and 48) A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

47. 

Answer: (D)

48. 

Answer: (A)

49. Find out the mirror image of the given figure :

Answer: (B)

50. Identify the missing figure to complete the matrix :

Answer: (B)

For Visually Handicapped Candidates Only

Directions-(Q 38 to 40) Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives.

38. DONKEY : ENOJFX : : FLOWER : ?

(A)  GKPVFQ

(B)  GMPVDQ

(C)  GMPXFS

(D)  GKNVFQ

Answer: (A)

39. 2 : 32 : : 3 : ?

(A)  183

(B)  143

(C)  243

(D)  293

Answer: (C)

40. Plane : Air : : Car : ?

(A)  Road

(B)  Atmosphere

(C)  Motor cycle

(D)  Engine

Answer: (A)

Directions- (Q. 41 to 42) which one is different from the rest three?

41. 

(A)  24-57

(B)  56-70

(C)  35-66

(D)  71-94

Answer: (D)

42.

(A)  Nose

(B)  Tears

(C)  Eyes

(D)  Ears

Answer: (B)

43. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word?

CHARECTERISATION

(A)  FRICTION

(B)  CHARTER

(C)  ERECTION

(D)  RATION

Answer: (A)

44. Find the missing letters of the series:

ABC, GHI, MNO ……….?………

(A)  RST

(B)  STU

(C)  PQR

(D)  QRS

Answer: (B)

45. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

a a….b c c a a b b c ……a…b….c c

(A)  c c a a

(B)  b c c a

(C)  a b a b

(D)  b c a b

Answer: (D)

46. Arrange the following words according to the dictionary order:

(1) Corporate      (2) Correspond

(3) Correlation    (4) Convenience

(5) Co-operate

(A)  5, 1, 2, 4, 3

(B)  4, 5, 1, 3, 2

(C)  1, 2, 3, 5, 4

(D)  4, 1, 5, 2, 3

Answer: (B)

47. Divide Rs 600 among A : B : C in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7. Then B’s share is:

(A)  Rs 280

(B)  Rs 400

(C)  Rs 120

(D)  Rs 200

Answer: (D)

48. Find the wrong number in the given series :

3, 5, 12, 39, 154, 772, 4634

(A)  39

(B)  154

(C)  5

(D)  3

Answer: (A)

49. If EXAMINATION is written as AMINATIONEX, How can EXTRAPOLATION be written in that code?

(A)  TRAPOLATIONEX

(B)  POLATIONEXTRA

(C)  POLARATIONEX

(D)  NOITALOPARTXE

Answer: (A)

50. If 1 = 6, 2 = 7, 3 = 8, 4 = 9, and 5 = 0, then 786 = ?

(A)  321

(B)  123

(C)  213

(D)  231

Answer: (D)

Part-II

English Language

Directions-(Q. 51-53) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

51. incessant

(A)  continuous

(B)  intermittent

(C)  unceasing

(D)  constant

Answer: (B)

52. eternal

(A)  usual

(B)  active

(C)  realistic

(D)  temporary

Answer: (D)

53. comedy

(A)  tragedy

(B)  trilogy

(C)  limerick

(D)  clergy

Answer: (A)

   Directions-(Q. 54-56) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

54. bliss

(A)  pleasure

(B)  fantasy

(C)  happiness

(D)  laughter

Answer: (C)

55. candid

(A)  able

(B)  quiet

(C)  fearless

(D)  frank

Answer: (D)

56. meagre

(A)  plenty

(B)  inadequate

(C)  sufficient

(D)  limited

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 57-61) Four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

57. I took exception to his remarks and left the meeting.

(A)  objected

(B)  suggested

(C)  heard

(D)  excused

Answer: (A)

58. He turned a deaf ear to his parents’ advice.

(A)  listen carefully

(B)  refused to obey

(C)  big help

(D)  attentively

Answer: (B)

59. Most people live from hand to mouth these days because of inflation.

(A)  lavishly

(B)  happily

(C)  comfortably

(D)  miserably

Answer: (D)

60. There are no hard and fast rules for admission to this college.

(A)  easy

(B)  strict

(C)  fixed

(D)  slow

Answer: (C)

61. Please hold your tongue in this matter, otherwise you will repent.

(A)  be silent

(B)  give advice

(C)  defend

(D)  argue

Answer: (A)

   Directions-(Q. 62-68) A part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (D). Mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

62. He has left for London last night.

(A)  was leaving

(B)  hand left

(C)  left

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (C)

63. I hope we have taught our children to know right from wrong.

(A)  know right and wrong

(B)  understand right and wrong

(C)  see what is right

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (B)

64. He is one of those who believe in God.

(A)  of those who believes

(B)  who believe

(C)  who has believe

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (A)

65. This box of chocolates belonged to me.

(A)  belong

(B)  belongs

(C)  is belonging

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (B)

66. It is not wise to do the work at the eleventh hour.

(A)  on the eleventh hour

(B)  at the moment

(C)  at the end

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (D)

67. Books are ones best friends.

(A)  ones’

(B)  once

(C)  one’s

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (C)

68. The Principal was praised on his fiftieth birthday.

(A)  rewarded

(B)  awarded

(C)  honoured

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (C)

   Directions- (Q. 69-72) Out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

69. Rebellion against lawful authority-

(A)  Mutiny

(B)  Coup

(C)  Revolution

(D)  Dissidence

Answer: (A)

70. Soldiers who fight on horseback-

(A)  Infantry

(B)  Artillery

(C)  Cavalry

(D)  Armoured

Answer: (C)

71. One who speaks for others-

(A)  Spokesman

(B)  Leader

(C)  Supporter

(D)  Naming

Answer: (A)

72. A man who doesn’t know how to read or write-

(A)  Uneducated

(B)  Illiterate

(C)  Ignorant

(D)  Oblivious

Answer: (B)

   Directions-(Q. 73 & 74) There are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval (•) in the Answer Sheet.

73.

(A)  Embraus

(B)  Embarrass

(C)  Embarass

(D)  Embaruss

Answer: (C)

74.

(A)  Release

(B)  Relese

(C)  Rilese

(D)  Releise

Answer: (A)

   Directions- (Q. 75-89) You have following two brief passages with 10 questions in Passage-1 and 5 questions in Passage – II. Read the passages carefully and fill in the blanks with, out of the four alternatives given.

PASSAGE-1

   Without water …(75)… animal can survive. In desert regions, the greatest …(76)… to life is drying  up. But many creatures are able to make use of …(77)… little water that  exists in arid areas. One of nature’s masterpieces …(78)… creatures equipped to …(79)…  with desert life is the hardy camel. There are several stories describing the …(80)… endurance of these animals. It is said that camels can …(81)… a distance of about 800 miles in eight days through continuous travel …(82)… an intake of a single drop of water. The popular …(83)… in a way is …(84)… Water is indeed stored there but in the form of fat.

75. 

(A)  every

(B)  no

(C)  any

(D)  desert

Answer: (B)

76.

(A)  want

(B)  inadequacy

(C)  requirement

(D)  worry

Answer: (C)

77.

(A)  what

(B)  the

(C)  very

(D)  that

Answer: (B)

78.

(A)  for

(B)  about

(C)  among

(D)  with

Answer: (C)

79.

(A)  live

(B)  resist

(C)  bear

(D)  cope

Answer: (D)

80.

(A)  remarkable

(B)  little

(C)  tolerable

(D)  popular

Answer: (A)

81.

(A)  measure

(B)  reduce

(C)  cover

(D)  reach

Answer: (D)

82.

(A)  for

(B)  without

(C)  accepting

(D)  receiving

Answer: (B)

83.

(A)  proverb

(B)  guess

(C)  belief

(D)  version

Answer: (C)

84.

(A)  baseless

(B)  wrong

(C)  misleading

(D)  correct

Answer: (D)

PASSAGE-II

   About a million different species …(85)… insects have been identified. Yet little is …(86)… about some of them. Although insects vary so much in their shape and …(87)… they all have the …(88)… structure. All insects normally …(89)… six legs.

85.

(A)  for

(B)  of

(C)  about

(D)  in

Answer: (B)

86.

(A)  known

(B)  observed

(C)  seen

(D)  found

Answer: (D)

87.

(A)  colour

(B)  height

(C)  size

(D)  habits

Answer: (C)

88.

(A)  different

(B)  alike

(C)  same

(D)  single

Answer: (A)

89.

(A)  has

(B)  have

(C)  had

(D)  got

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 90-95) Some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the oval () corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the oval corresponding to (D) in the Answer Sheet.

90. The teacher told to (A)/ the students that (B)/ they must attend school regularly. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (A)

91. Modern youth pay more attention (A)/ to seeing films (B)/ than to read books. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (B)

92. Old habits (A)/ die (B)/ hardly. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (D)

93. I (A)/ have been studying (B)/ since four hours. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (C)

94. If he had walked (A)/ fast enough (B)/ he will get the bus. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (C)

    

95. Speakers after speakers (A)/ came on the stage (B)/ to perform. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 96-100) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval (•) in the Answer Sheet.

96. He ………. His living by hard work.

(A)  earns

(B)  wins

(C)  creates

(D)  ables

Answer: (A)

97. Bread is usually made …….. wheat.

(A)  of

(B)  from

(C)  with

(D)  by

Answer: (A)

98. Did the child ……….. from the chair?

(A)  fell

(B)  fallen

(C)  falling

(D)  fall

Answer: (D)

99. Do you ………. to see my collection?

(A)  cared

(B)  like

(C)  want

(D)  got

Answer: (C)

100. After initial setback, all ………. Programmes were successful due to the initiative of the new dynamic team.

(A)  consequent

(B)  subsequently

(C)  consequently

(D)  subsequent

Answer: (D)

Part-III

Quantitative Aptitude

101. In a triangle, distance from centroid to vertices are respectively 4 cm, 6 cm and 8 cm. Find medians-

(A)  6 cm, 9 cm, 12 cm

(B)  20 cm, 21 cm, 25 cm

(C)  16 cm, 4 cm, 18 cm

(D)  4 cm, 6 cm, 8 cm

Answer: (A)

102. The numerical values of-

 is-

(A)  9

(B)  1

(C)  4

(D)  5

Answer: (A)

103. If  then the value of  is-

(A)  1/5

(B)  3/5

(C)  2

(D)   

Answer: (A)

104. Three medians  of ∆ ABC Intersect at G. Area of ∆ ABC is 108 sq. cm. The area of ∆ AGB is-

(A)  48 cm2

(B)  24 cm2

(C)  54 cm2

(D)  36 cm2

Answer: (D)

105. A train 150 metres long passes a tree in 12 seconds. It will pass a tunnel of 250 metres long in-

(A)  32 seconds

(B)  26 seconds

(C)  20 seconds

(D)  25 seconds

Answer: (A)

106. ABCD is a rectangle with AB = h2 and AD = 3p. If h is doubled and p is halved, then the-

(A)  area is halved

(B)  area remains the same

(C)  area is multiplied by 4

(D)  area is doubled

Answer: (D)

107. A refrigerator listed at Rs 4000. Due to the festival season a shopkeeper announces a discount of 5%. Then the selling price of refrigerator (in Rs) is-

(A)  3600

(B)  3500

(C)  3800

(D)  3900

Answer: (C)

108. The circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of a square of side 22 cm. The area of the circle is-

(A)  28π cm2

(B)  196π cm2

(C)  49π cm2

(D)  

Answer: (B)

109. When a = 4/3 the value of 27a3 – 108a2 + 144a – 317 is-

(A)  −245

(B)  0

(C)  261

(D)  −253

Answer: (D)

110. If A, B and C denote respectively the number of vertices, edges and faces of a cube, then A + B + C is-

(A)  24

(B)  26

(C)  20

(D)  22

Answer: (B)

111. If a = 1, b = 2 and c = −3, then the value of  is-

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  3

(D)  2

Answer: (A)

112. D and E be two points on the sides  of the ∆ABC, such that  and  Find are  

(A)  4 : 9

(B)  21 : 25

(C)  4 : 25

(D)  2 : 5

Answer: (B)

113. The number of bricks required for a wall which is 8 m long, 6 m high and 22.5 cm thick, if each brick measures 25 cm ×25 cm × 6 cm, is-

(A)  7000

(B)  6400

(C)  6200

(D)  6550

Answer: (B)

114. A shopkeeper offered a discount of 9% for an article, but he marked it at 25% higher than the cost price. Find his profit percentage-

(A)  13.75%

(B)  16%

(C)  12.50%

(D)  13%

Answer: (A)

115. If 1/3 of A = 75% of B = 0.6 of C, then A : B : C is-

(A)  9 : 5 : 4

(B)  9 : 4 : 5

(C)  4 : 5 : 9

(D)  5 : 9 : 4

Answer: (B)

116. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a cistern in 10, 12 and 15 hours respectively, while working alonge. If all the three pipes are opened together, then find the time taken to fill the ccistern-

(A)  5 hours

(B)  6 hours

(C)  3 hours

(D)  4 hours

Answer: (D)

117. A paper is in the form of a rectangle ABCD where AB = 22 cm and BC = 14 cm. A semi-circular portion with BC as diameter is removed. Find the remaining area of the paper, (in cm2)

(A)  241

(B)  211

(C)  221

(D)  231

Answer: (D)

118. A bus can complete a journey in 6 hours if it travels at 60 km/hr. At what speed (km/hr) the bus must travel in order to complete the journey in 9 hours?

(A)  30

(B)  35

(C)  60

(D)  40

Answer: (D)

119. A chord of length 16 cm is at a distance of 6 cm from the centre of a circle. The radius of the circle is-

(A)  16 cm

(B)  22 cm

(C)  8 cm

(D)  10 cm

Answer: (D)

120. If 7n + 9 > 100 and n is an integer, the smallest possible value of n is-

(A)  14

(B)  15

(C)  13

(D)  12

Answer: (A)

121. Two men and 3 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days. While 3 men and 2 boys can do the same work in 8 days. In how many days can 2 men and 1 boy do the work?

(A)  11.5 days

(B)  12.5 days

(C)  11 days

(D)  10.5 days

Answer: (B)

122. The average age of 100 workers in a factory is 36.5. The average age of the men is 45 and that of the women is 28. The no. of women working in the factory is-

(A)  40

(B)  60

(C)  50

(D)  45

Answer: (C)

123. If p = 3/5, q = 7/9, r = 5/7, then which of the following inequality is true?

(A)  p < r < q

(B)  r < q < p

(C)  p < q < r

(D)  q < r < p

Answer: (A)

124. Three-fifth of two-third of three-seventh of number is 150. What is 60% of that

(A)  750

(B)  525

(C)  52.5

(D)  875

Answer: (B)

125. The ratio of father’s age to his son’s age is 7 : 3. The product of their age is 756. The ratio of their ages after 6 years will be-

(A)  11 : 7

(B)  13 : 9

(C)  2 : 1

(D)  5 : 2

Answer: (C)

126. In how many years shall Rs 2500, invested at the rate of 8% simple interest per annum, amount to Rs 3300?

(A)  6

(B)    

(C)  5

(D)  4

Answer: (D)

127. If  is the mean of n observations x1, x2, ……, xn, then the mean of   is-

(A)    

(B)    

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (A)

128. If sec θ + cosec (90° − θ) = 4, (0 < θ < 90°), then the value of tan θ is –

(A)  1/√3

(B)  1

(C)  √3

(D)  1/√2

Answer: (C)

129. Ram sold a cow for Rs 136 and thus lost 15%. At what price he should have sold it to gain 15%.

(A)  Rs 180

(B)  Rs 184

(C)  Rs 204

(D)  Rs 150

Answer: (B)

130. Given that the mean of five numbers is 27; if one of them is excluded, the mean gets reduced by 2. Determine the excluded number-

(A)  25

(B)  35

(C)  45

(D)  55

Answer: (B)

131. A spherical balloon whose radius is r, subtends an angle α at the eye of an observer on the ground, when the angle of elevation of its centre is β. The height of its centre is-

(A)   

(B)  r sin α sin β

(C)  r cosec α sin β

(D)   

Answer: (D)

132. A mixture of milk and water is such that the quantity of milk is 3/5 that of water. The proportion of milk in the mixture is-

(A)  3/8

(B)  5/8

(C)  1/8

(D)  1/2

Answer: (A)

133. A horse is tied with a rope of length 7 m at one corner of a square field having side equal to 10 m. The minimum possible area of the square field that is left ungrazed is- [given π = 22/7]

(A)  56.1 m2

(B)  51.6 m2

(C)  65.1 m2

(D)  61.5 m2

Answer: (D)

134. If p = 99, then value of p(p2 + 3p + 3) is-

(A)  100089

(B)  999999

(C)  10000

(D)  99999

Answer: (B)

135. The compound interest on Rs 1800 at 10% per annum, for a certain period of time is Rs 378. Find the time in years-

(A)  2 years

(B)  3 years

(C)  1.5 years

(D)  2.5 years

Answer: (A)

136. A sells an article to B at a profit of 20%. B sells it to C at a profit of 10%. How much per cent will C pay more than what A pays?

(A)  32%

(B)  35%

(C)  28%

(D)  30%

Answer: (A)

137. A trader allows 10% discount on market price and gains 25%. If the market price of the article is Rs 50, what is its cost price?

(A)  Rs 25

(B)  Rs 55

(C)  Rs 36

(D)  Rs 45

Answer: (C)

138. A certain company has 80 engineers. If the engineers constitute 40% of its workers, then the number of people employed in the company is-

(A)  200

(B)  3200

(C)  150

(D)  800

Answer: (A)

139. A sofa-set is marked at Rs 20,000. The shopkeeper allows successive discount of 10%, 5% and 2% on it. What is the net selling price?

(A)  Rs 17598

(B)  Rs 16758

(C)  Rs 17768

(D)  Rs 16648

Answer: (B)

140. A train running at 36 km/hr crosses a pole in 25 seconds. Length of the train is-

(A)  225 metre

(B)  275 metre

(C)  250 metre

(D)  300 metre

Answer: (C)

Directions-The following pie-charts shows the contents of insects and rodents in an average Indian Household. Examine the chart and answer the questions number 141 to 145-

141. If the percentage of rat is y% of the total percentage of ant and cockroach; then ye is equal to-

(A)  25

(B)  20

(C)  30

(D)  35

Answer: (B)

142. If the difference of the percentage of rat and miscellaneous be z% of the percentage of cockroach, then z is equal to-

(A)  20%

(B)  15%

(C)  25%

(D)  35%

Answer: (C)

143. The total percentage of spider, rat and cockroach is greater than the percentage of ant by-

(A)  28

(B)  24

(C)  34

(D)  32

Answer: (C)

144. The total percentage of common lizard, spider and cockroach is greater than the percentage of rat by-

(A)  35

(B)  25

(C)  37

(D)  47

Answer: (D)

145. If the percentage of spider is x% of the percentage of cockroach, then x is equal to-

(A)    

(B)    

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (A)

Directions- Study the following bar diagram carefully and answer question numbers 146 to 150.

146. The ratio between the number of students passed from University ‘A’ in the year 2007 and that from University ‘B’ in 2004 is-

(A)  5 : 6

(B)  3 : 5

(C)  5 : 4

(D)  5 : 3

Answer: (D)

147. Number of students passed from University ‘B’ in the year 2008 expressed as a percentage of the total number of students passed from University ‘A’ over the 6 years is-

(A)  25

(B)  35

(C)  30

(D)  20

Answer: (A)

148. The difference between the total number of students passed from both the Universities in the year 2008 combined together and the total number of students passed in the year 2004 from both the Universities taken together is-

(A)  20000

(B)  30000

(C)  35000

(D)  25000

Answer: (B)

149. The sum of the students passed from University ‘B’ in  years 2003, 2005 and 2006 combined together is-

(A)  50000

(B)  75000

(C)  80000

(D)  60000

Answer: (C)

150. The respective ratio between the number of students passed in year 2007, 2008 and 2004 from University ‘B’ is-

(A)  3 : 5 : 6

(B)  6 : 3 : 3

(C)  6 : 5 : 3

(D)  6 : 3 : 5

Answer: (C)

For Visually Handicapped Candidates Only

141. The side BC of an equilateral triangle ABC is produced upto D in such a way that BC = CD. Then the value of ∠BAD is-

(A)  90°

(B)  145°

(C)  120°

(D)  135°

Answer: (A)

142. The number of voters in a town is 1,20,000. Out of them, 75% go for poll for an election between A and B. If B gets 45% of the votes polled, votes polled for A is-

(A)  49,000

(B)  47,900

(C)  49,500

(D)  47,000

Answer: (C)

143. If  is-

(A)   

(B)   

(C)  0

(D)    

Answer: (C)

144. There is a loss of 4% if an article is sold at Rs x and gain of 12% if it is sold at Rs y. Then x : y is –

(A)  6 : 7

(B)  8 : 9

(C)  2 : 3

(D)  4 : 5

Answer: (A)

145. The sides of two squares are in the ratio 3 : 4. If their combined area is 12.25 sq. m, the side of larger square in metres is-

(A)  3.5

(B)  2.0

(C)  2.8

(D)  0.7

Answer: (C)

146. A train ‘B’ with a speed of 120 km/h another train ‘C’, running in same direction in 3 minutes. If the lengths of the train B and C be 200 m and 250 m respectively, the speed (in km/h) of the train C is-

(A)  127

(B)  135

(C)  111

(D)  123

Answer: (C)

147. The value of  is-

(A)  2

(B)  1

(C)  4

(D)  3

Answer: (B)

148. If x = ay, y = bx, then the value of  is-

(A)  −1

(B)  2

(C)  0

(D)  1

Answer: (D)

149. A can do a piece of work in 15 days and B alone can do it in 25 days. B works at it for 10 days and then leaves. A alone can finish the remaining work in-

(A)  9 days

(B)  12 days

(C)  6 days

(D)   

Answer: (*)

150. If  then the value of  is-

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  0

(D)  1

Answer: (A)

Part-IV

General Awareness

151. With which fort is Madras associated?

(A)  Fort St. George

(B)  Fort William

(C)  Fort St. David

(D)  Fort St. John

Answer: (A)

152. The longest National Highway that connects Varanasi and Kanya Kumari is-

(A)  NH-7

(B)  NH-10

(C)  NH-17

(D)  NH-14

Answer: (A)

153. The Emergency powers of the Indian president are borrowed from the constitution of-

(A)  Irish

(B)  Weimar Republic Germany

(C)  Australia

(D)  Canada

Answer: (B)

154. Identify the spreadsheet application-

(A)  MS-Access

(B)  MS-Power point

(C)  PL/SQL

(D)  MS-Excel

Answer: (D)

155. Which among the following is no more a fundamental right in India?

(A)  Right to Religion

(B)  Right to Property

(C)  Right to Equality

(D)  Right to Freedom

Answer: (B)

156. The term Khalisa in Mughal administration signified the-

(A)  Religious grants

(B)  Land given in lieu of salary

(C)  The land owned by emperor himself

(D)  Entire imperial establishment

Answer: (C)

157. Water gas is a mixture of-

(A)  Oxygen and carbon dioxide

(B)  Carbondixoide and water vapour

(C)  Carbon monoxide and hydrogen

(D)  Carbon monoxide and nitrogen

Answer: (C)

158. Jute fibres are-

(A)  Fibres of seed

(B)  Bast fibres from secondary phloem

(C)  Bast fibres from stem pericycle

(D)  Fibrous mesocarp

Answer: (C)

159. Microbial utilization of dissolved organics can be accomplished by-

(A)  Hydration

(B)  Carbonation

(C)  Oxidation

(D)  Reduction

Answer: (A)

160. The common plant disease caused by fungus is-

(A)  red not disease of sugarcane

(B)  tobacco mosaic disease

(C)  brown rust of wheat

(D)  citrus cauker

Answer: (C)

161. When a body is disturbed from its position of neutral equilibrium, what happens to its potential energy?

(A)  It decreases

(B)  It increases

(C)  It becomes zero

(D)  It remains constant

Answer: (D)

162. Which is the capital of Myanmar?

(A)  Moulmein

(B)  Naypyidaw

(C)  Yangona

(D)  Mandalaya

Answer: (C)

163. The headquarters of the Central Railway is at-

(A)  Mumbai

(B)  Jaipur

(C)  Nagpur

(D)  Vijayawada

Answer: (A)

164. Which of the following soils is suitable for cotton production?

(A)  Kankar

(B)  Regur

(C)  Bhangar

(D)  Khadar

Answer: (B)

165. Who is the Chief Minister of Maharashtra?

(A)  Sushil Kumar Shinde

(B)  Ashok Chavan

(C)  Shivaraj Singh Chouhan

(D)  Prithviraj Chavan

Answer: (D)

166. The most potent auxin for callus formations is-

(A)  NAA

(B)  2, 4-D

(C)  IAA

(D)  IBA

Answer: (C)

167. Who among the following is not a recipient of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna for shooting?

(A)  Anjali Ved Pathak Bhagwat

(B)  Gagan Narang

(C)  P. Gopichand

(D)  Abhinav Bindra

Answer: (C)

168. The area-wise largest fresh water lake in Africa is-

(A)  Lake Tanganyika

(B)  Lake Malawi

(C)  Lake Victoria

(D)  Lake Rudolf

Answer: (C)

169. Accuracy of vision of is the function of-

(A)  Amacrine cells

(B)  Granuler cells

(C)  Rod cells

(D)  Cone cells

Answer: (D)

170. The presence of starch in a mixture can be detected by-

(A)  Bromine

(B)  Iodine

(C)  Fluorine

(D)  Chlorine

Answer: (B)

171. Car and Petrol are-

(A)  Necessaries

(B)  Luxuries

(C)  Complementaries

(D)  Substitutes

Answer: (C)

172. Who is authorized to impose tax on Interstate trade?

(A)  President

(B)  Finance Minister

(C)  Parliament

(D)  State Legislature

Answer: (D)

173. Where is the International Rice Research Institute?

(A)  Manila

(B)  Dhaka

(C)  Cuttack

(D)  Bangkok

Answer: (A)

174. Which teams of the first Indian Volley League (IVL) secured the I and II Rank Positions?

(A)  Yanam Tigers-I, Chennai Spikers-II

(B)  Chennai Spikers-I, Hyderabad Chargers-II

(C)  Chennai Spikers-I, Kerala Killer-II

(D)  Hyderbad Chargers-I Chennai Spikers-II

Answer: (B)

175. Of the following, which one corresponds to the fixed cost?

(A)  Transportation charges

(B)  Insurance Premium on Property

(C)  Payments for raw materials

(D)  Labour cost

Answer: (B)

176. The aim of Green and cleaner production is-

(A)  Biopesticides

(B)  Waste minimization

(C)  Agricultural productivity

(D)  Afforestation

Answer: (C)

177. Which is the competent authority to create New All-India services?

(A)  Lok Sabha

(B)  Union Public Service Commission

(C)  Parliament

(D)  Rajya Sabha

Answer: (D)

178. Which of the following Article of the Indian constitution prescribes constitution of Panchayats in villages?

(A)  Article-41

(B)  Article-38

(C)  Article-40

(D)  Article-39

Answer: (C)

179. Light appears to travel in straight line since-

(A)  Its wavelength is very small

(B)  Its velocity is very large

(C)  It is not absorbed by the atmosphere

(D)  It is reflected by the atmosphere

Answer: (A)

180. Who was the commander of the Maratha artillery in the third battle of Panipat?

(A)  Malhar Rao Holkar

(B)  Ibrahim Khan Gardi

(C)  Viswasa Rao

(D)  Sadasiva Rao

Answer: (D)

181. Which gas is responsible for Ozone hole?

(A)  Carbon dioxide

(B)  Nitrous oxide

(C)  Chloro fluro carbon

(D)  Carbon monoxide

Answer: (C)

182. Which one of the following place became the bone of contention between Vijayanagar Empire and Bahmani Kingdom?

(A)  The fort of Mudgal

(B)  Goa

(C)  Raichur Doab

(D)  Telengana

Answer: (C)

183. The claim for higher wages would be helped by-

(A)  increases in unemployment

(B)  increases in labour productivity

(C)  decrease in consumers demand

(D)  decrease in company’s profit

Answer: (B)

184. Which was the first state in India to have a woman as Chief Minister?

(A)  Odisha

(B)  Tamil Nadu

(C)  Punjab

(D)  Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (D)

185. The speed of a ship is measured in-

(A)  Horse power

(B)  Angstrom

(C)  Joule

(D)  Knot

Answer: (D)

186. Golgi bodies originated from-

(A)  Mitochondria

(B)  Zymogen granules

(C)  Cell wall

(D)  Endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: (C)

187. Atmospheric pressure generated on the earth surface is due to-

(A)  Revolution of earth

(B)  Gravitational pull of the earth

(C)  Rotation of earth

(D)  Heating by solar radiation

Answer: (B)

188. Western ghats are-

(A)  Plateau

(B)  Hills

(C)  Mountain

(D)  Escarpment of Plateau

Answer: (D)

189. Which one of the following is not included as a world heritage site?

(A)  Kalka-Shimla Railway

(B)  Nilgiri Mountain Railway

(C)  Chennai Central Station

(D)  Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus Station in Mumbai

Answer: (C)

190. Cortisone is a-

(A)  Enzyme

(B)  Hormone

(C)  Protein

(D)  Lipid

Answer: (B)

191. Most of the fuels are carbon compounds with-

(A)  phosphorus

(B)  nitrogen

(C)  hydrogen

(D)  sulphur

Answer: (C)

192. A foreign compound, not normally considered as a constituent of a specified biological system is known as-

(A)  Xenobiotics

(B)  Additive

(C)  Residue

(D)  Substrata

Answer: (A)

193. The natural disease includes two phases as-

(A)  Prepathogenesis and pathogenesis

(B)  Pathogenesis and post pathogenesis

(C)  Contamination and contact

(D)  Incubation and infection

Answer: (A)

194. Meeting point of aggregate demand and aggregate supply is called as-

(A)  equilibrium demand

(B)  effective demand

(C)  market equilibrium

(D)  market demand

Answer: (A)

195. A ………. is pictorial representation of an algorithm.

(A)  flow-chart

(B)  structure chart

(C)  pseudo code

(D)  data flow diagram

Answer: (A)

196. Which of the following recommended on centre state relations?

(A)  Shri Krishna Commission

(B)  Sarkaria Commission

(C)  Sachar Commission

(D)  Kothari Commission

Answer: (B)

197. Which one of the following can perform both translation and execution?

(A)  Interpreter

(B)  Loader

(C)  Assembler

(D)  Compiler

Answer: (A)

198. Where was the first Buddhist council held?

(A)  Patliputra

(B)  Kundalvana

(C)  Rajagriha

(D)  Vaishali

Answer: (C)

199. When did Suu Kyi receive her Nobel Prize for peace awarded in 1991?

(A)  2011

(B)  2012

(C)  1992

(D)  2005

Answer: (C)

200. Where is the Headquarters of WTO?

(A)  Vienna

(B)  Paris

(C)  Berne

(D)  Geneva

Answer: (D)

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) IInd Shift Tier-I Examination Held on 20 October, 2013 Question Paper With Answer Key

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) IInd Shift Tier-I Examination Held on 20 October, 2013
SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) IInd Shift Tier-I Examination Held on 20 October, 2013 Question Paper With Answer Key

Staff Selection Commission Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) IInd Shift

Tier-I Examination Held on 20 October, 2013

Part-I

General Intelligence

Directions-(Q. 1-7) Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives-

1. Squint : Vision : : Stammering : ?

(A)  Mouth

(B)  Hearing

(C)  Speech

(D)  Tongue