VITEEE Examination Previous Year Question Paper 2022 With Answer Key



1. The root mean square speed of smoke particles of mass 5 × 1017 kg in their Brownian motion in air at NTP is approximately

[Given k = 1.38 × 1023 JK1]

(a)   60 mms−1

(b)   12 mms−1

(c)   15 mms−1

(d)   36 mms−1

Answer: (c)

2. The equation of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by  At t = 1s, the speed of particle will be (Given : π = 3.14)

(a)   0 cms1

(b)   157 cms1

(c)   272 cms1

(d)   314 cms1

Answer: (b)

3. Following are expressions for four plane simple harmonic waves

The paris of waves which will produce destructive interference and stationary waves respectively in a medium, are

(a)   (iii, iv), (i, ii)

(b)   (i, iii), (ii, iv)

(c)   (i, iv), (ii, iii)

(d)   (i, ii), (iii, iv)

Answer: (d)

4. If a charge q is placed at the centre of a closed hemispherical non-conducting surface, the total flux passing through the flat surface would be :

(a)   zero

(b)   q/2ε0

(c)   q/4ε0

(d)   q/2πε0

Answer: (a)

5. The electric potential V(x) in a region around the origin is given by V(x) = 4x2 The electric charge enclosed in a cube of 1 m side with its centre at the origin is (in coulomb)

(a)   8ε0

(b)   −4ε0

(c)   0

(d)   −8ε0

Answer: (d)

6. A heater coil is cut into two equal parts and only one part is now used in the The heat generated will now be

(a)   four times

(b)   doubled

(c)   halved

(d)   one fourth

Answer: (b)

7. In a region, steady and uniform electric and magnetic fields are present. These two fields are parallel to each other. A charged particle is released from rest in this region. The path of the particle will be a

(a)   helix

(b)   straight line

(c)   ellipse

(d)   circle

Answer: (b)

8. An object is thrown vertically upwards. At its maximum height, which of the following quantity becomes zero?

(a)   Momentum

(b)   Potential energy

(c)   Acceleration

(d)   Force

Answer: (a)

9. The self induced emf of a coil is 25 volts. When the current in it is changed at uniform rate from 10 A to 25 A in 1s, the change in the energy of the inductance is:

(a)   740 J

(b)   437.5 J

(c)   540 J

(d)   637.5 J

Answer: (b)

10. Alternating current can not be measured by D.C. ammeter because

(a)   Average value of current for complete cycle is zero

(b)   A.C. Changes direction

(c)   A.C. can not pass through D.C. Ammeter

(d)   D.C. Ammeter will get damaged.

Answer: (a)

11. The magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic wave is given by:

The amplitude of the electric field would be:

(a)   6 Vm1 along x-axis

(b)   3 Vm1 along z-axis

(c)   6 Vm1 along z-axis

(d)   2 × 108 Vm1 along z-axis

Answer: (a)

12. An ideal gas is expanding such that PT3 = constant. The coefficient of volume expansion of the gas is:

(a)   1/T

(b)   2/T

(c)   4/T

(d)   3/T

Answer: (c)

13. Two light beams of intensities in the ratio of 9 : 4 are allowed to interfere. The ratio of the intensity of maxima and minima will be:

(a)   2 : 3

(b)   16 : 81

(c)   25 : 169

(d)   25 : 1

Answer: (d)

14. The deBroglie wavelength of a proton and α-particle are equal. The ratio of their velocities is :

(a)   4 : 3

(b)   4 : 1

(c)   4 : 2

(d)   1 : 4

Answer: (b)

15. The recoil speed of a hydrogen atom after it emits a photon in going from n = 5 state to n = 1 state will be

(a)   4.34 m/s

(b)   2.19 m/s

(c)   4.17 m/s

(d)   3.25 m/s

Answer: (c)

16. Which of the following figure represents the variation of ln(R/R0) with ln A(If R = radius of a nucleus and A = its mass number)?

Answer: (b)

17. Zener breakdown occurs in a p-n junction having p and n both :

(a)   lightly doped and have wide depletion layer

(b)   heavily doped and have narrow depletion layer

(c)   lightly doped and have narrow depletion layer

(d)   heavily doped and have side depletion layer

Answer: (b)

18. If E and H represents the intensity of electric field and magnetizing field respectively, then the unit of E/H will be:

(a)   ohm

(b)   mho

(c)   joule

(d)   newton

Answer: (a)

19. A stone of mass m, tied to a string is being whirled in a vertical circle with a uniform speed. The tension in the string is :

(a)   the same throughout the motion

(b)   minimum at the highest position of the circular path

(c)   minimum at the lowest position of the circular path

(d)   minimum when the rope is in the horizontal position

Answer: (b)

20. A particle is moving with a velocity  where K is a constant. The general equation for its path is :

(a)   y = x2 + constant

(b)   y2 = x + constant

(c)   y2 = x2 + constant

(d)   xy = constant

Answer: (c)

21. A particle of mass M originally at rest is subjected to a force whose direction is constant but magnitude varies with time according to the relation

Where F0 and T are constants. The force acts only for the time interval 2T. The velocity v of the particle after time 2T is:

(a)   2F0T/M

(b)   F0T/2M

(c)   4F0T/3M

(d)   F0T/3M

Answer: (c)

22. The magnetic moment of an electron (e) revolving in an orbit around nucleus with an orbital angular momentum is given by:

Answer: (b)

23. Angular momentum of the particle rotating with a central force is constant due to

(a)   constant torque

(b)   constant force

(c)   constant linear momentum

(d)   zero torque

Answer: (d)

24. The escape velocity of a body depends upon mass as

(a)   m0

(b)   m1

(c)   m2

(d)   m3

Answer: (a)

25. A Potential energy as a function of r is given by  where r is the interatomic distance, A and B are positive constants. The equilibrium distance between the two atoms will be:

(a)   (A/B)1/5

(b)   (B/A)1/5

(c)   (2A/B)1/5

(d)   (B/2A)1/5

Answer: (c)

26. If two soap bubbles of different radii are connected by a tube

(a)   air flows from the smaller bubble to the bigger

(b)   air flows from bigger bubble to the smaller bubble till the sizes are interchanged

(c)   air flows from the bigger bubble to the smaller bubble till the sizes become equal

(d)   there is no flow of air.

Answer: (a)

27. The focal length f is related to the radius of curvature r of the spherical convex mirror by :


(b)   f = −r


(d)   f = r

Answer: (a)

28. A thermodynamic system is taken from an original state D to an intermediate state E by the linear process shown in the figure. Its volume is then reduced to the original volume from E to F by an isobaric process. The total work done by the gas from D to E to F will be

(a)   −450 J

(b)   450 J

(c)   900 J

(d)   1350 J

Answer: (b)

29. A vertical electric field of magnitude 4.9 × 105 N/C just prevents a water droplet of a mass 0.1 g from falling. The value of charge on the droplet will be:

(Given g = 9.8 m/s2)

(a)   1.6 × 109 C

(b)   2.0 × 109 C

(c)   3.2 × 109 C

(d)   0.5 × 109 C

Answer: (b)

30. In the circuit shown in the figure, the total charge is 750 μC and the voltage across capacitor C2 is 20 V. Then the charge on capacitor C2 is :

(a)   450 μC

(b)   590 μC

(c)   160 μC

(d)   650 μC

Answer: (b)

31. For a transistor α and β are given as  Then the correct relation between α and β will be:

Answer: (b)

32. A current I flows along the length of an infinitely long, straight, thin walled pipe. Then

(a)   the magnetic field at all points inside the pipe is the same, but not zero

(b)   the magnetic field is zero only on the axis of the pipe

(c)   the magnetic field is different at different points inside the pipe

(d)   the magnetic field at any point inside the pipe is zero

Answer: (d)

33. A Carnot engine has efficiency of 50%. If the temperature of sink is reduced by 40°C, its efficiency increases by 30%. The temperature of the source will be :

(a)   166.7 K

(b)   255.1 K

(c)   266.7 K

(d)   367.7 K

Answer: (c)

34. When you walk through a metal detector carrying a metal object in your pocket, it raises an alarm. This phenomenon works on

(a)   Electromagnetic induction

(b)   Resonance in ac circuits

(c)   Mutual induction in ac circuits

(d)   interference of electromagnetic waves

Answer: (b)

35. An electron moving with speed v and a photon moving with speed c, have same D-Broglie wavelength. The ratio of kinetic energy of electron to that of photon is :

(a)   3c/v

(b)   v/3c

(c)   v/2c

(d)   2c/v

Answer: (c)


36. Assuming fully decomposed, the volume of CO2 released at STP on heating 9.85 g of BaCO3 (Atomic mass, Ba = 137) will be

(a)   1.12 L

(b)   2.24 L

(c)   4.06 L

(d)   0.84 L

Answer: (a)

37. Among the following, the species having the smallest bond is

(a)   NO

(b)   NO+

(c)   O2

(d)   NO

Answer: (b)

38. The oxidation number of phosphorus in Ba(H2PO2)2 is

(a)   +3

(b)   +2

(c)   +1

(d)   −1

Answer: (c)

39. The correct order of thermal stability of hydroxides is:

(a)   Ba(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2

(b)   Mg(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Ba(OH)2

(c)   Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Ba(OH)2

(d)   Ba(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2

Answer: (d)

40. Which of the following has correct increasing basic strength?

(a)   MgO < BeO < CaO < BaO

(b)   BeO < MgO < CaO < BaO

(c)   BaO < CaO < MgO < BeO

(d)   CaO < BaO < BeO < MgO

Answer: (b)

41. Water sample is reported to be highly polluted if BOD (Biological Oxygen Demand) value of sample becomes

(a)   more than 17 ppm.

(b)   equal to 10 ppm.

(c)   equal to 5 ppm.

(d)   less than 5 ppm.

Answer: (a)

42. 200 mL of an aqueous solution of a protein contains its 1.26 g. The osmotic pressure of this solution at 300 K is found to be 2.57 × 103 The molar mass of protein will be

(R = 0.083 L bar mol1 K1)

(a)   51022 g mol1

(b)   122044 g mol1

(c)   31011 g mol1

(d)   61038 g mol1

Answer: (d)

43. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because:

(a)   the colloidal particles have positive charge

(b)   the colloidal particles have negative charge

(c)   the colloidal particles are solvated

(d)   there is strong electrostatic repulsion between the colloidal particles

Answer: (c)

44. Which of the following is not permissible arrangement of electrons in an atom?

(a)   n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = +1/2

(b)   n = 3, l = 2, m = −3, s = −1/2

(c)   n = 3, l = 2, m = −2, s = −1/2

(d)   n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = −1/2

Answer: (b)

45. The value of van der Waals constant ‘a’ for gases O2, N2, NH3 and CH4 are 1.360, 1.390, 4.170 and 2.253 litre2 atm mol2 The gas which can most easily be liquefied is :

(a)   O2

(b)   N2

(c)   NH3

(d)   CH4

Answer: (c)

46. Which one of the following does not have a pyramidal shape?

(a)   (CH3)3N

(b)   (SiH3)3N

(c)   P(CH3)3

(d)   P(SiH3)3

Answer: (b)

47. Boric acid is polymeric due to

(a)   its acidic nature

(b)   the presence of hydrogen bonds

(c)   its monobasic nature

(d)   its geometry

Answer: (b)

48. Which of the following order is not correct?

(a)   MeBr > Me2CHBr > Me3CBr > Et3CBr(SN2)

(b)   PhCH2Br > PhCHBrMe2 > PhCBrMePh(SN1)

(c)   MeI > MeBr > MeCl > MeF (SN2)

(d)   All are correct

Answer: (b)

49. A catalyst is a substance which :

(a)   is always in the same phase as in the reaction

(b)   alters the equilibrium in a reaction

(c)   does not participate in the reaction but alters the rate of reaction

(d)   participates in the reaction and provides an easier pathway for the same

Answer: (a)

50. Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?

(a)   Lactose

(b)   Fructose

(c)   Sucrose

(d)   Maltose

Answer: (c)

51. An ideal gas expands against a constant external pressure of 2.0 atmosphere from 20 litre to 40 litre and absorbs 10 kJ of heat from surrounding. What is the change in internal energy of the system?

(given : 1 atm-litre = 101.3 J)

(a)   4052 J

(b)   5948 J

(c)   14052 J

(d)   9940 J

Answer: (b)

52. The polymer used for optical lenses is:

(a)   polypropylene

(b)   polyvinyl chloride

(c)   polythene

(d)   polymethyl methacrylate

Answer: (d)

53. Which of the following arrangements represents the increasing order (smallest to largest) of ionic radii of the given species O2, S2, N3, P3?

(a)   O2− < N3− < S2− < P3−

(b)   O2− < P3− < N3− < S2−

(c)   N3 < O2− < P3− < S2−

(d)   N3− < S2− < O2− < P3−

Answer: (a)

54. The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(a)   (E)-2-hepten-4-yne

(b)   (Z)-5-hepten-3-yne

(c)   (E)-5-hepten-3-yne

(d)   (Z)-2-hepten-4-yne

Answer: (a)

55. In CsCl type structure, the co-ordination number of Cs+ and Cl respectively are

(a)   6, 6

(b)   6, 8

(c)   8, 8

(d)   8, 6

Answer: (c)

56. Which one of the following reactions will not result in the formation of carbon-carbon bond?

(a)   Reimer-Tiemann reaction

(b)   Friedel Craft’s acylation

(c)   Wurtz reaction

(d)   Cannizzaro reaction

Answer: (d)

57. Water is :

(a)   more polar than H2S

(b)   more or less identical in polarity with H2S

(c)   less polar than H2S

(d)   None of these

Answer: (a)

58. Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenol and alcohol because of

(a)   intermolecular hydrogen bonding

(b)   formation of dimers

(c)   highly acidic hydrogen

(d)   resonance stabilization of their conjugate

Answer: (d)

59. The order of increasing sizes of atomic radii among the elements O, S, Se and As is:

(a)   As < S < O < Se

(b)   Se < S < As < O

(c)   O < S < As < Se

(d)   O < S < Se < As

Answer: (d)

60. Bauxite ore is generally contaminated with impurity of oxides of two elements X and Y. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a)   X is a non-metal and belongs to the third period while Y is a metal and belongs to the fourth period.

(b)   One of two oxides has three-dimensional polymeric structure.

(c)   Both (a) and (b) are correct.

(d)   None of the above

Answer: (c)

61. The partial pressure of CH­3OH(g), CO(g) and H2(g) in equilibrium mixture for the reaction, CO(g) + 2H2(g) ⇌ CH3OH(g) are 2.0, 1.0 and 0.1 atm respectively at 427° The value of Kp for the decomposition of CH3OH to CO and H2 is

(a)   102 atm

(b)   2 × 102 atm−1

(c)   50 atm2

(d)   5 × 10−3 atm2

Answer: (d)

62. The conjugate base of (CH3)2NH2+ is

(a)   (CH3)2NH

(b)   (CH3)2N+

(c)   (CH3)3N+

(d)   (CH3)2N

Answer: (a)

63. Which of the following is not present in a nucleotide?

(a)   Guanine

(b)   Cytosine

(c)   Adenine

(d)   Tyrosine

Answer: (d)

64. The shape of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is

(a)   tetrahedral

(b)   square planar

(c)   pyramidal

(d)   octahedral

Answer: (b)

65. Heroin is a derivative of

(a)   cocaine

(b)   morphine

(c)   caffeine

(d)   nicotine

Answer: (b)

66. The limiting equivalent conductivity of NaCl, KCl and KBr are 126.5, 150.0 and 151.5 S cm2 eq1, respectively. The limiting equivalent ionic conductivity for Br is 78 Scm2eq1. The limiting equivalent ionic conductivity for Na+ ions would be :

(a)   128

(b)   125

(c)   49

(d)   50

Answer: (d)

67. Rate of dehydration of alcohols follows the order:

(a)   2° > 1° > CH3OH > 3°

(b)   3° > 2° > 1° > CH3OH

(c)   2° > 3° > 1° > CH3OH

(d)   CH3OH > 1°> 2° > 3°

Answer: (b)

68. An alkene having molecular formula C7H14 was subjected to ozonolysis in the presence of zinc dust. An equimolar amount of the following two compounds was obtained

The IUPAC name of the alkene is

(a)   3, 4-dimethyl-3-pentene

(b)   3, 4-dimethyl-2-pentene

(c)   2, 3-dimethyl-3-pentene

(d)   2, 3-dimethyl-2-pentene

Answer: (d)

69. Lanthanoid contraction can be observed in

(a)   At

(b)   Gd

(c)   Ac

(d)   Lw

Answer: (b)

70.  The form of iron obtained from blast furnace is:

(a)   Steel

(b)   Cast Iron

(c)   Pig Iron

(d)   Wrought Iron

Answer: (b)


71. A class has 175 students. The following data shows the number of students opting one or more subjects. Maths-100, Physics-70, Chemistry-40, Maths and Physics-30, Maths and Chemistry-28, Physics and Chemistry-23, Maths, Physics and Chemistry-18. How many have offered Maths alone?

(a)   35

(b)   48

(c)   60

(d)   22

Answer: (c)

72. Let R be a relation on the set N be defined by |(x, y)|x, y ∈ N, 2x + y = 41}. Then, R is

(a)   Reflexive

(b)   Symmetric

(c)   Transitive

(d)   None of these

Answer: (d)

73. The function f : R → R defined by f(x) = x2 + x is.

(a)   one-one

(b)   onto

(c)   many-one

(d)   None of these

Answer: (c)

74. If 12 cot2 θ – 31 cosec 0 + 32 = 0, then the value of sin θ is

(a)   3/5 or 1

(b)   2/3 or −2/3

(c)   4/5 or 3/4

(d)   ±1/2

Answer: (c)

75. The modulus of  is

(a)   2

(b)   4

(c)   3√2

(d)   2√2

Answer: (d)

76. If α, β are the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, then 

(a)   2/a

(b)   2/b

(c)   2/c

(d)   −2/a

Answer: (d)

77. The solution set of the inequality 37 – (3x + 5) ≥ 9x – 8 (x – 3) is

(a)   (−∞, 2)

(b)   (−∞, −2)

(c)   (−∞, 2]

(d)   (−∞, −2]

Answer: (c)

78. If n+2C8 : n – 2 P4 = 57 : 16, then the value of n is:

(a)   20

(b)   19

(c)   18

(d)   17

Answer: (b)

79. The middle term in the expansion of  is

(a)   10C5

(b)   10C6


(d)   10C5x10

Answer: (a)

80. The fourth, seventh and tenth terms of a GP. Are p, q, r respectively. then :

(a)   p2 = q2 + r2

(b)   q2 = pr

(c)   p2 = qr

(d)   pqr + pq + 1 = 0

Answer: (b)

81. The point (t2 + 2t + 5, 2t2 + t – 2) lies on the line x + y = 2 for

(a)   All real values of t

(b)   Some real values of t


(d)   None of these

Answer: (d)

82. The equations of the lines which cuts off an intercept −1 from y-axis and equally inclined to the axes are

(a)   x – y + 1 = 0, x + y + 1 = 0

(b)   x – y – 1 = 0, x + y – 1 = 0

(c)   x – y – 1 = 0, x + y + 1 = 0

(d)   None of these

Answer: (c)

83. The distance between the parallel lines 3x – 4y + 7 = 0 and 3x – 4y + 5 = 0 is a/b. Value of a + b is

(a)   2

(b)   5

(c)   7

(d)   3

Answer: (c)

84. For what value of k, does the equation

9x2 + y2 = k(x2 – y2 – 2x)

represent equation of a circle?

(a)   1

(b)   2

(c)   −1

(d)   4

Answer: (d)

85. A parabola has the origin as its focus and the line x = 2 as the directrix. Then the vertex of the parabola is at

(a)   (0, 2)

(b)   (1, 0)

(c)   (0, 1)

(d)   (2, 0)

Answer: (b)

86. Equation of the ellipse whose axes are the axes of coordinates and which passes through the point (−3, 1) and has eccentricity  is

(a)   5x2 + 3y2 – 48 = 0

(b)   3x2 + 5y2 – 15 = 0

(c)   5x2 + 3y2 – 32 = 0

(d)   3x2 + 5y2 – 32 = 0

Answer: (d)

87. The co-ordinates of the point which divides the join of the points (2, −1, 3) and (4, 3, 1) in the ratio 3 : 4 internally are given by :

(a)   (2/7, 20/7, 10/7)

(b)   (10/7, 15/7, 2/7)

(c)   (20/7, 5/7, 15/7)

(d)   (15/7, 20/7, 3/7)

Answer: (c)

88. The relationship between a and b, so that the function f defined by

is continuous at x = 3, is

(a)   a = b + 2/3

(b)   a – b = 3/2

(c)   a + b = 2/3

(d)   a + b = 2

Answer: (a)

89. at x = 0 is

(a)   continuous as well as differentiable

(b)   differentiable but not continuous

(c)   continuous but not differentiable

(d)   neither continuous nor differentiable

Answer: (c)

90. The variance of the data 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 is

(a)   8

(b)   7

(c)   6

(d)   None of these

Answer: (a)

91. Find the probability of getting the sum as a perfect square number when two dice are thrown together.

(a)   5/12

(b)   7/18

(c)   7/36

(d)   None of these

Answer: (c)

92. The principal value of  is

(a)   −5π/3

(b)   5π/3

(c)   −π/3

(d)   4π/3

Answer: (c)

93. If the system of linear equations

x + ky + 3z = 0

3x + ky – 2z = 0

2x + 4y – 3z = 0

Has a non-zero solution (x, y, z), then xz/y2 is equal to :

(a)   10

(b)   −30

(c)   30

(d)   −10

Answer: (a)

94. The value of definite integral 

(a)   0

(b)   π/4

(c)   π/2

(d)   π

Answer: (a)

95. The area enclosed between the graph of y = x3 and the lines x = 0, y = 1,  y = 8 is

(a)   45/4

(b)   14

(c)   7

(d)   None of these

Answer: (a)

96. The total number of 3-digit numbers, the sum of whose digits is even, is equal to

(a)   450

(b)   350

(c)   250

(d)   325

Answer: (a)

97. To fill 12 vacancies, there are 25 candidates of which five are from scheduled caste. If 3 of the vacancies are reserved for scheduled caste candidates while the rest are open to all, then the number of ways in which the selection can be made

(a)   5C3 × 22C9

(b)   22C95C3

(c)   22C3 + 5C3

(d)   None of these

Answer: (a)

98. are in A.P. then,

(a)   p, q, r are in A.P.

(b)   p2, q2, r2 are in A.P

(c)   1/p, 1/q, 1/r are in A.P

(d)   p + q + r are in A.P

Answer: (b)

99. The sum of the first n terms of the series 12 + 2.22 + 32 + 2.42 + 52 + 2.62 + … is  when n is even. When n is odd the sum is

Answer: (b)

100. The locus of a point that is equidistant from the lines x + y – 2√2 = 0 and x + y – √2 = 0 is

(a)   x + y – 5√2 = 0

(b)   x + y – 3√2 = 0

(c)   2x + 2y – 3√2 = 0

(d)   2x + 2y – 5√2 = 0

Answer: (c)

101. The point diametrically opposite to the point P(1, 0) on the circle x2 + y2 + 2x + 4y – 3 = 0 is

(a)   (3, −4)

(b)   (−3, 4)

(c)   (−3, −4)

(d)   (3, 4)

Answer: (c)

102. For the parabola y2 = −12x, equation of directrix is x = a. The value of ‘a’ is

(a)   3

(b)   4

(c)   2

(d)   6

Answer: (a)

103. The eccentricity of the curve 2x2 + y2 – 8x – 2y = 0 is :

(a)   1/2

(b)   1/√2

(c)   2/3

(d)   3/4

Answer: (b)

104. The equation of the hyperbola with vertices at (0, ±6) and e = 5/3 is

Answer: (b)

105. is equal to:

(a)   0

(b)   12 cos2x − 10 sin2x

(c)   12 cos2x – 10 sin2x – 2

(d)   10 sin 2x

Answer: (a)

106. The function  is

(a)   differentiable at x = 2

(b)   not differentiable at x = 2

(c)   continuous at x = 2

(d)   None of these

Answer: (b)

107. The local minimum value of the function f given by f(x) = 3 + |x|, x ∈ R is

(a)   1

(b)   2

(c)   3

(d)   0

Answer: (c)

108. Value of  is

(a)   π/2

(b)   −π/2

(c)   π/4

(d)   None of these

Answer: (c)

109. The equation of the plane which bisects the angle between the planes 3x – 6y + 2z + 5 = 0 and 4x – 12y + 3z – 3 = 0 which contains the origin is

(a)   33x – 13y + 32x + 45 = 0

(b)   x – 3y + z – 5 =0

(c)   33x + 13y + 32x + 45 = 0

(d)   None of these

Answer: (d)

110. An urn contains five balls. Two balls are drawn and found to be white. The probability that all the balls are white is

(a)   1/10

(b)   3/10

(c)   3/5

(d)   1/2

Answer: (d)


Directions (Qs. 111-113): Study the following table to answer the given questions:

111. What is the total marks obtained by Meera in all the subject?

(a)   448

(b)   580

(c)   470

(d)   74.67

Answer: (c)

112. What is the average marks obtained by these seven students in History? (rounded off to two digits)

(a)   72.86

(b)   27.32

(c)   24.86

(d)   29.14

Answer: (a)

113. How many students have got 60% or more marks in all the subjects?

(a)   One

(b)   Two

(c)   Three

(d)   Four

Answer: (b)

114. A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

5, 11, 24, 51, 106, _____?

(a)   122

(b)   217

(c)   120

(d)   153

Answer: (b)

115. In a certain code BANKER is written as LFSCBO. How will CONFER be written in that code?

(a)   GFSDPO

(b)   FGSDOP

(c)   GFSEPO

(d)   FHSDPO

Answer: (a)

116. Kailash faces towards north. Turnings to his right, he walks 25 metres. He then turns to his left and walks 30 metres. Next, he moves 25 metres to his right. He then turns to the right again and walks 55 metres. Finally, he turns to the right and moves 40 metres. In which direction is he now from his starting point?

(a)   South-West

(b)   South

(c)   North-West

(d)   South-East

Answer: (d)

117. An accurate clock shows 8 O’clock in the morning. Through how many degrees will the hour hand rotate when the clock shows 2 O’clock in the afternoon?

(a)   144°

(b)   150°

(c)   168°

(d)   180°

Answer: (d)

118. Two statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.


All utensils are spoons.

All bowls are spoons.


(I) No utensil is a bowls.

(II) Some utensils are bowls

(III) No spoon is a utensil.

(a)   Only conclusions I follows

(b)   Conclusions I and III follow

(c)   Either conclusion I or II follows

(d)   Only conclusion III follows

Answer: (c)

Directions (Qs. 119-120) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Read both the statements and Give answer

(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data is statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c) if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(d) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

119. What was the ratio between the ages of P and Q four years ago?

(I) The ratio between the present ages of P and Q is 3:4.

(II) The ratio between the present ages of Q and R is 4:5.

Answer: (c)

120. What was the cost price of the suitcase purchased by Samir?

(I) Samir got 25 percent concession on the labeled price.

(II) Samir sold the suitcase for Rs. 2000 with 25 percent profit on the labeled price:

Answer: (d)


121. Read the following passage and answer the question that follows. Choose the correct answer.

His instrument struck against something hard, dangerously near the kidney…. “ It is not quite at the kidney my friend,” Sadao murmured…. “My friend,” he always called his parents and so he did now, forgetting that this was his enemy.

To whom does Sadao attend to in the lines above?

(a)   A relative

(b)   His friend

(c)   His enemy

(d)   A patient

Answer: (c)

122. Choose the correct pronunciation for the word ‘sorbet’ from the following options:

(a)   sore-bet

(b)   sore-bay

(c)   sore-bye

(d)   shore-bay

Answer: (b)

123. What is the correct syllable division of the word ‘indomitable’?

(a)   in – do – mit – able

(b)   in – dom-i – t  – ble

(c)   in – do – mo – ta – be

(d)   in – dom – i – table

Answer: (b)

124. Read the following passage and the question below. Choose the correct answer.

Gandhi never contented himself with large political or economic solutions. He saw the cultural and social backwardness in the Champaran villages and wanted to do something about it immediately. He appealed to teachers.

Which of the following statements is true about the passage?

(a)   Gandhi was dissatisfied with political or economic solutions

(b)   Gandhi was interested in the welfare of teachers of Champaran villages

(c)   Gandhi was happy about the cultural and social backwardness of Champaran villages

(d)   Gandhi was hopeful that teachers could save villages from cultural and social backwardness

Answer: (d)

125. Choose the correct meaning of the idiom ‘a bolt out of the blue’ from the given options:

(a)   Something totally unexpected

(b)   Lightning and thunderstorm

(c)   To do something kind

(d)   To mourn after someone

Answer: (a)

VITEEE Examination Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key



1. The distance of the centres of moon and earth is D. The mass of earth is 81 times the mass of the moon. At what distance from the centre of the earth, the gravitational force will be zero?

(a)   D/2

(b)   2D/3

(c)   4D/3

(d)   9D/10

Answer: (d)

2. Two wires A and B are of the same material. Their lengths are in the ratio of 1 : 2 and the diameter are in the ratio 2 : 1. If they are pulled by the same force, then increase in length will be in the ratio of

(a)   2 : 1

(b)   1 : 4

(c)   1 : 8

(d)   8 : 1

Answer: (c)

3. If x = at + bt2, where x is the distance travelled by the body in kilometers while t is the time in seconds, then the unit of b is

(a)   km/s

(b)   kms

(c)   km/s2

(d)   kms2           

Answer: (c)

4. A soap bubble of radius r1 is placed on another soap bubble of radius r2(r1 < r2). The radius R of the soapy film separating the two bubbles is

Answer: (c)

5. A charge q is moving with a velocity v parallel to a magnetic field B. Force on the charge due to magnetic field is

(a)   q v B

(b)   q B/v

(c)   zero

(d)   B v/q

Answer: (c)

6. Two spheres A and B of masses m and 2m and radii 2R and R respectively are placed in contact as shown. The COM of the system lies

(a)   inside A

(b)   inside B

(c)   at  the point of contact

(d)   None of these

Answer: (c)

7. Identify the correct statement.

(a)   Static friction depends on the area of contact

(b)   Kinetic friction depends on the area of contact

(c)   Coefficient of kinetic friction is more than the coefficient of static friction

(d)   Coefficient of kinetic friction is less than the coefficient of static friction

Answer: (d)

8. The distance travelled by a particle starting from rest and moving with an acceleration 4/3 ms2, in the third second is:

(a)   6m

(b)   4m

(c)   10/3 m

(d)   19/3 m

Answer: (c)

9. Photoelectric work function of a metal is 1 eV. Light of wavelength λ = 3000 Å falls on it. The photo electrons come out with a maximum velocity of :

(a)   10 metres/sec

(b)   102 metres/sec

(c)   104 metres/sec

(d)   106 metres/sec

Answer: (d)

10. The coefficient of apparent expansion of mercury in a glass vessel is 153 × 106/°C and in a steel vessel is 144 × 106/° If α for steel is 12 106/°C, then that of glass is

(a)   9 × 106/°C

(b)   6 × 106/°C

(c)   36 × 106/°C

(d)   27 × 106/°C

Answer: (a)

11. A step-up transformer operates on a 230 V line and supplies a load of 2 ampere. The ratio of the primary and secondary windings is 1 : 25. The current in the primary is

(a)   15 A

(b)   50 A

(c)   25 A

(d)   12.5 A

Answer: (b)

12. Two bodies of same mass are projected with the same velocity at an angle 30° and 60° The ratio of their horizontal ranges will be

(a)   1 : 1

(b)   1 : 2

(c)   1 : 3

(d)   2 : √2

Answer: (a)

13. Two point charges +3 μC and +8 μC repel each other with a force of 40 N. If a charge of −5 μC is added to each of them, then the force between them will become

(a)   −10N

(b)   +10N

(c)   +20N

(d)   −20N

Answer: (a)

14. A sphere rolls down on an inclined plane of inclination θ. What is the acceleration as the sphere reaches the bottom?

Answer: (a)

15. A given ray of light suffers minimum deviation in an equilateral prism P. Additional prisms Q and R of identical shape and of same material as that of P are now combined as shown in figure. The ray will now suffer

(a)   greater deviation

(b)   no deviation

(c)   same deviation as before

(d)   total internal reflection

Answer: (c)

16. The current in the 1Ω resistor shown in the circuit is

(a)   2/3 A

(b)   3 A

(c)   6 A

(d)   2 A

Answer: (d)

17. The root mean square velocity of hydrogen molecules at 300 K is 1930 metre/sec. Then the r.m.s velocity of oxygen molecules at 1200 K will be

(a)   482.5 metre/sec

(b)   965 metre/sec

(c)   1930 metre/sec

(d)   3860 metre/sec

Answer: (b)

18. Lenz’s law gives

(a)   the magnitude of the induced e.m.f.

(b)   the direction of the induced current

(c)   both the magnitude and direction of the induced current

(d)   the magnitude of the induced current

Answer: (b)

19. A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 8 pF. Calculate the capacitance if the distance between the plates is reduced by half and the space between them is filled with a substance of dielectric constant. (k = 6)

(a)   72 pF

(b)   81 pF

(c)   84 pF

(d)   96 pF

Answer: (d)

20. For a particle executing S.H.M. the displacement x is given by x = A cos ω Identify the graph which represents the variation of potential energy (P.E.) as a function of time t and displacement x.

(a)   I, III

(b)   II, IV

(c)   II, III

(d)   I, IV

Answer: (a)

21. A radioactive sample contains 103 kg each of two nuclear species A and B with half-life 4 days and 8 days respectively. The ratio of the amounts of A and B after a period of 16 days is

(a)   1 : 2

(b)   4 : 1

(c)   1 : 4

(d)   2 : 1

Answer: (c)

22. A string of 7 m length has a mass of 0.035 kg. If tension in the string is 60.5 N, then speed of a wave on the string is

(a)   77 m/s

(b)   102 m/s

(c)   110 m/s

(d)   165 m/s

Answer: (c)

23. The following circuit represents

(a)   OR gate

(b)   AND gate

(c)   NAND gate

(d)   None of these

Answer: (d)

24. A straight section PQ of a circuit lies along the X-axis from x = −a/2 to x = a/2 and carries a steady current i. The magnetic field due to the section PQ at a point = +a will be

(a)   proportional to a

(b)   proportional to a2

(c)   proportional to 1/a

(d)   zero

Answer: (d)

25. A source producing sound of frequency 170 Hz is approaching a stationary observer with a velocity 17 ms1. The apparent change in the wavelength of sound heard by the observer is (speed of sound in air = 340 ms1)

(a)   0.1 m

(b)   0.2 m

(c)   0.4 m

(d)   0.5 m

Answer: (a)


26. Consider the following reactions:

NaCl + K2Cr2O7 (Conc.) → (A) + Side products

(A) + NaOH → (B) + Side products

(B) + H2SO4 (dilute) + H2O2 → (C) + Side products

The sum of the total number of atoms in one molecule each of (A), (B) and (C) is ______.

(a)   18

(b)   15

(c)   21

(d)   20

Answer: (a)

27. Xenon hexafluoride on partial hydrolysis produces compounds ‘X’ and ‘Y’. Compounds ‘X’, ‘Y’ and the oxidation state of Xe are respectively :

(a)   XeOF4(+6) and XeO3(+6)

(b)   XeO2(+4) and XeO3 (+6)

(c)   XeOF4(+6) and XeO2F2(+6)

(d)   XeO2F2(+6) and XeO2(+4)

Answer: (c)

28. The edge length of unit cell of a metal having molecular weight 75 g/mol is 5 Å which crystallizes in cubic lattice. If the density is 2g/cc then find the radius of metal atom. (NA = 6 × 1023). Give the answer in pm.

(a)   217 pm

(b)   210 pm

(c)   220 pm

(d)   205 pm

Answer: (a)

29. Consider the following statements :

(I) Increase in concentration of reactant increases the rate of a zero order reaction.

(II) Rate constant k is equal to collision frequency A if Ea = 0.

(III) Rate constant k is equal to collision frequency A if Ea = ∞.

(IV) In k vs T is a straight line.

(V) In k vs 1/T is a straight line.

Correct statements are

(a)   I and IV

(b)   II and V

(c)   III and IV

(d)   II and III

Answer: (b)

30. To deposit 0.634 g of copper by electrolysis of aqueous cupric sulphate solution, the amount of electricity required (in coulombs) is

(a)   1930

(b)   3960

(c)   4825

(d)   9650

Answer: (a)

31. In the following skew conformation of ethane, Hʹ−C−C−Hʹʹ dihedral angle is :

(a)   58°

(b)   149°

(c)   151°

(d)   120°

Answer: (b)

32. What is the product of following reaction?

Answer: (d)

33. In the following sequence of reactions,

the compound D is

(a)   propanal     

(b)   butanal

(c)   n-butyl alcohol

(d)   n-propyl alcohol.

Answer: (d)

34. Which of the following reactions can produce aniline as main product?

(a)   C6H5NO2 + Zn/KOH

(b)   C6H5NO2 + Zn/NH4Cl

(c)   C6H5NO2 + LiAlH4

(d)   C6H5NO2 + Zn/HCl

Answer: (d)

35. Secondary structure of protein refers to

(a)   mainly denatured proteins and structure of prosthetic groups

(b)   three-dimensional structure, especially the bond between amino acid residues that are distinct from each other in the polypeptide chain

(c)   linear sequence of amino acid residues in the polypeptide chain

(d)   regular folding patterns of continuous portions of the polypeptide chain

Answer: (d)

36. The increasing order for the values of e/m (charge/mass) is

(a)   e, p, n, α

(b)   n, p, e, α

(c)   n, p, α, e

(d)   n, α, p, e

Answer: (d)

37. In which of the following pairs both the ions are coloured in aqueous solutions?

(a)   Sc3+, Ti3+

(b)   Sc3+, Co2+

(c)   Ni2+, Cu+

(d)   Ni2+, Ti3+

Answer: (d)

38. The total number of possible isomers for square-planar [Pt(Cl)(NO2)(NO3)(SCN)]2 is:

(a)   16

(b)   12

(c)   8

(d)   24

Answer: (b)

39. For the reaction,

2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g),

∆H = −57.2 kJ mol1 and Kc = 1.7 × 1016

Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?

(a)   The equilibrium constant is large suggestive of reaction going to completion and so no catalyst is required.

(b)   The equilibrium will shift in forward direction as the pressure increases.

(c)   The equilibrium constant decreases as the temperature increases.

(d)   The addition of inert gas at constant volume will not affect the equilibrium constant.

Answer: (a)

40. The half-life of a reaction is inversely proportional to the square of the initial concentration of the reactant. Then the order of the reaction is

(a)   0

(b)   1

(c)   2

(d)   3

Answer: (d)

41. A galvanic cell is set up from electrodes A and B

Electrode A : Cr2O72/Cr3+, E°red = +1.33 V

Electrode B : Fe3+/Fe2+, E°red = 0.77 V

Which of the following statements is false?

(a)   Standard e.m.f of the cell is 0.56 V

(b)   Current will flow from electrode A to B in the external circuit

(c)   A will act as cathode and have positive polarity

(d)   None of these

Answer: (d)

42. Keto-enol tautomerism is observed in :

Answer: (d)

43. In a set of reactions, ethylbenzene yield a product D.

Answer: (d)

44. What will be the final product in the following reaction sequence –

(a)   CH3CH2CONH2

(b)   CH3CH2COBr

(c)   CH3CH2NH2

(d)   CH3CH2CH2NH2

Answer: (c)

45. In a set of reactions acetic acid yielded a product D.

The structure of (D) would be –

Answer: (d)

46. In fructose, the possible optical isomers are

(a)   12

(b)   8

(c)   16

(d)   4

Answer: (b)

47. The position of both, an electron and a helium atom is known within 1.0 nm. Further the momentum of the electron is known within 5.0 × 1026 kg ms1. The minimum uncertainty in the measurement of the momentum of the helium atom is

(a)   50 kg ms1

(b)   80 kg ms1

(c)   8.0 × 1026 kg ms1

(d)   5.0 × 1026 kg ms1

Answer: (d)

48. The value of log10K for a reaction A ⇌ B is

(Given : ∆r298 K = −54.07 kJ mol1,

r298K = 10 JK1 mol1 and R = 8.314 JK1 mol1; 2.303 × 8.314 × 298 = 5705)

(a)   5

(b)   10

(c)   95

(d)   100

Answer: (b)

49. If C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g); ∆H = R and

then heat of formation of CO is:

(a)   R + S

(b)   R – S

(c)   R × S

(d)   S – R

Answer: (b)

50. Which of the following compounds does not follow Markownikoff’s law?

(a)   CH3CH = CH2

(b)   CH2CHCl

(c)   CH3CH = CHCH3

(d)   None

Answer: (c)


51. The value of c in Rolle’s Theorem for the function f(x) = ex sin x, x ∈ [0, π] is

(a)   π/6

(b)   π/4

(c)   π/2

(d)   3π/4

Answer: (d)

52. The equations 2x + 3y + 4 = 0; 3x + 4y + 6 = 0 and 4x + 5y + 8 = 0 are

(a)   consistent with unique solution

(b)   inconsistent

(c)   consistent with infinitely many solutions

(d)   None of the above

Answer: (a)

53. The shortest distance between the lines x = y + 2 = 6z – 6 and x + 1 = 2y = −12z is

(a)   1/2

(b)   2

(c)   1

(d)   3/2

Answer: (b)

54. If the tangent at P(1, 1) on y2 = x(2 – x)2 meets the curve again at Q, then Q is

(a)   (2, 2)

(b)   (−1, −2)

(c)   (9/4, 3/8)

(d)   None of these

Answer: (c)

55. If  then at x = 0, f(x)

(a)   has no limit

(b)   is discontinuous

(c)   is continuous but not differentiable

(d)   is differentiable

Answer: (b)

56. Radius of the circle (x + 5)2 + (y – 3)2 = 36 is

(a)   2

(b)   3

(c)   6

(d)   5

Answer: (c)

57. If  and  is equal to :

Answer: (b)

58. If (−4, 5) is one vertex and 7x – y + 8 = 0 is one diagonal of a square, then the equation of second diagonal is

(a)   x + 3y = 21

(b)   2x – 3y = 7

(c)   x + 7y = 31

(d)   2x + 3y = 21

Answer: (c)

59. p ⇒ q can also be written as

(a)   p ⇒ ~ q

(b)   ~p ⋁ q

(c)   ~ q ⇒ ~ p

(d)   None of these

Answer: (b)

60. Let  then

(a)   f(x) = √x

(b)   f(x) = x3/2 and g(x) = sin1x

(c)   f(x) = x2/3

(d)   None of these

Answer: (b)

61. Which one of the following is an infinite set?

(a)   The set of human beings on the earth

(b)   The set of water drops in a glass of water

(c)   The set of trees in a forest

(d)   The set of all primes

Answer: (d)

62. The domain of the function


(a)   [2, 3]

(b)   [−2, 4]

(c)   [−2, 2] ⋃ [3, 4]

(d)   [−2, 1] ⋃ [2, 4]

Answer: (c)

63. Area bounded by the curve y = log x and the coordinate axes is

(a)   2

(b)   1

(c)   5

(d)   2√2

Answer: (b)

64. The angle of intersection to the curve y = x2, 6y = 7 – x3 at(1, 1) is :

(a)   π/2

(b)   π/4

(c)   π/3

(d)   π

Answer: (a)

65. Angle formed by the positive Y-axis and the tangent to y = x2 + 4x – 17 at (5/2, −3/4) is

(a)   tan1 9



(d)   π/2

Answer: (b)

66. The value of  is

(a)   12

(b)   2

(c)   8

(d)   16

Answer: (d)

67. The relation R defined on the set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} by R = {(x, y) : |x2 – y2| < 16} is given by

(a)   {(1, 1), (2, 1), (3, 1), (4, 1), (2, 3)}

(b)   {(2, 2), (3, 2), (4, 2), (2, 4)}

(c)   {(3, 3), (4, 3), (5, 4), (3, 4)}

(d)   None of these

Answer: (d)


Answer: (a)

69. The value of tan1 (1) + tan1(0) + tan1(2) + tan1(3) is equal to

(a)   π

(b)   5π/4

(c)   π/2

(d)   None of these

Answer: (a)

70. In a culture the bacteria count is 1,00,000. The number is increased by 10% in 2 hours. In how many hours will the count reach 2,00,000 if the rate of growth of bacteria is proportional to the number present.

Answer: (b)

71. What is the angle between the two straight lines y = (2 – √3)x + 5 and y = (2 + √3) x – 7?

(a)   60°

(b)   45°

(c)   30°

(d)   15°

Answer: (a)

72. If the angle θ between the line  and the plane 2x – y + √λz + 4 = 0 is such that sin θ = 1/3 then the value of λ is

(a)   5/3

(b)   −3/5

(c)   3/4

(d)   −4/3

Answer: (a)

73. The distance of the point (−5, −5, −10) from the point of intersection of the line  and the plane  is

(a)   13

(b)   12

(c)   4√15

(d)   10√2

Answer: (a)

74. is equal to :

(a)   √3

(b)   1/√3

(c)   3√3/2

(d)   1/2√3

Answer: (a)

75. If  then x ∈

(a)   (−5, −2)

(b)   (−1, ∞)

(c)   (−5, −2) ∪ (−1, ∞)

(d)   None of these

Answer: (c)


Directions (76-78): Study the paragraph and answer the questions that follow.

A training calendar and schedule for Fire Agency Specialties Team (F.A.S.T) membership is available in this office to all applicants for F.A.S.T. membership. Training will take place the third week of each month. Classes will be taught on Monday afternoons, Wednesday evenings, and Saturday afternoons.

So that the F.A.S.T. can maintain a high level of efficiency and preparedness for emergency response situations, its members must meet certain requirements.

First, in order for you to be considered for membership on F.A.S.T., your department must be a member of the F.A.S.T. organization, and you must have written permission from your fire chief or your department’s highest ranking administrator.

Once active, you must meet further requirements to maintain active status. These include completion of technician-level training and certification in hazardous material (hazmat) operations. In addition, after becoming a member, you must also attend a minimum of 50% of all drills conducted by F.A.S.T. and go to at least one F.A.S.T. conference. You may qualify for alternative credit for drills by proving previous experience in actual hazmat emergency response.

If you fail to meet minimum requirements, you will be considered inactive, and the director of your team will be notified. You will be placed back on active status only after you complete the training necessary to meet the minimum requirements.

76. Potential F.A.S.T. members can attend less than half of F.A.S.T. drills if they

(a)   complete technician-level training requirements.

(b)   indicate prior real emergency experience.

(c)   receive permission from their fire chief.

(d)   enroll in three weekly training sessions.

Answer: (b)

77. Which of the following is the main subject of the passage?

(a)   preparing for hazmat certification

(b)   the main goal of F.A.S.T.

(c)   completing F.A.S.T. membership requirements

(d)   learning about your department’s F.A.S.T. membership

Answer: (c)

78. Applicants must be available for training

(a)   three days each months.

(b)   three days each week.

(c)   every third month.

(d)   for 50% of classes.

Answer: (a)

79. Jatin starting from a fixed point, goes 15 m towards North and then after turning to his right, he goes 15 m. Then, he goes 10 m, 15 m and 15 m after turning to his left each time. How far is he from this starting point?

(a)   15 m

(b)   5 m

(c)   10 m

(d)   20 m

Answer: (c)

80. Examine the following statements:

(1) All members of Mohan’s family are honest.

(2) Some members of Mohan’s family are not employed.

(3) Some employed persons are not honest.

(4) Some hones persons are not employed.

Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

(a)   All members of Mohan’s family are employed

(b)   The employed members of Mohan’s family are honest

(c)   The honest members of Mohan’s family are not employed

(d)   The employed member of Mohan’s family are not honest

Answer: (b)

© Copyright Entrance India - Engineering and Medical Entrance Exams in India | Website Maintained by Firewall Firm - IT Monteur