UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam-2010
General Studies
1. A geographic area with an altitude of 400 metres has following characteristics:
If this geographic area were to have a natural forest, which one of the following would it most likely be?
(A) Moist temperate coniferous forest
(B) Montane subtropical forest
(C) Temperate forest
(D) Tropical rain forest
2. If a potato is placed on a pure paper plate which is white and unprinted and put in a microwave oven, the potato heats up but the paper plate does not. This is because-
(A) Potato is mainly made up of starch whereas paper is mainly made up of cellulose
(B) Potato transmits microwaves whereas paper reflects microwaves
(C) Potato contains water whereas paper does not contain water
(D) Potato is a fresh organic material whereas paper is a dead organic material
3. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:
(1) Fundamental Rights
(2) Fundamental Duties
(3) Directives Principles of State Policy.
Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?
(A) 1 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
4. A new type of El Nino called El Nino Modoki appeared in the news. In this context, consider the following statements:
(1) Normal El Nino forms in the Central Pacific ocean whereas El Nino Modoki forms in Eastern Pacific ocean.
(2) Normal El Nino results in diminished hurricanes in the Atlantic ocean but El Nino Modoki results in a greater number of hurricanes with greater frequency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Mon 863 is a variety of maize. It was in the news for the following reason-
(A) It is genetically modified dwarf variety which is resistant to drought
(B) It is a genetically modified variety which is pest resistant
(C) It is genetically modified variety with ten times higher protein content than regular maize crop
(D) It is a genetically modified variety used exclusively for bio-fuel production
6. A cuboid has six sides of different colours. The red side is opposite to black. The blue side is adjacent to white. The brown side is adjacent to blue. The red side is face down. Which one of the following would be the opposite to brown?
(A) Red
(B) Black
(C) White
(D) Blue
7. Consider the following statements:
The satellite Oceansat-2 launched by India helps in-
(1) estimating the water vapour content in the atmosphere
(2) predicting the onset of monsoons.
(3) monitoring the pollution of coastal waters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
8. Genetically modified ‘golden rice’ has been engineered to meet human nutritional requirements. Which one of the following statements best qualifies golden rice?
(A) The grains have been fortified with genes to provide three times higher grain yield per acre than other high yielding varieties.
(B) Its grain contain provitamin A which upon ingestion is converted to vitamin A in the human body
(C) Its modified genes cause the synthesis of all the nine essential amino acids
(D) Its modified genes cause the fortification of its grains with vitamin D
9. In a tournament 14 teams play league matches. If each team plays against every other team once only then how many matches are played?
(A) 105
(B) 91
(C) 85
(D) 78
10. Consider the following statements:
The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact.
(1) on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
(2) it he seeks such an advice.
(3) only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1 and 2
11. Chlorination is a process used for water purification. The disinfecting action of chlorine is mainly due to-
(A) The formation of hydrochloric acid when chlorine is added to water
(B) The formation of hypochlorous acid when chlorine is added to water
(C) The formation of nascent oxygen when chlorine is added to water
(D) The formation of hydrogen when chlorine is added to water
12. With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Lok Adalats have the jurisidiction to settle the matters at pre-litigative stage and not those matters pending before any court
(B) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature
(C) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person
(D) None of the statements given above is correct
13. Consider the following:
(1) Bluetooth device
(2) Cordless phone
(3) Microwave oven
(4) Wi-Fi device
Which of the above can operative between 2.4 and 2.5 GHz range of radio frequency band?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
14. Though coffee and tea both are cultivated on hill slopes, there is some difference between them regarding their cultivation. In this context, consider the following statements:
(1) Coffee plant requires a hot and humid climate of tropical areas whereas tea can be cultivated in both tropical and subtropical areas.
(2) Coffee is propagated by seeds but tea is propagated by stem cuttings only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
15. In the context of the affairs of which of the following is the phrase ‘Special Safeguard Mechanisms’ mentioned in the news frequently?
(A) United Nations Environment Programme
(B) World Trade Organigation
(C) ASEAN-India Free Trade Agreement
(D) G-20 Summits
16. Which of the following terms indicates a mechanism used by commercial banks for providing credit to government?
(A) Cash Credit Ratio
(B) Debt Service Obligation
(C) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
(D) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
17. In order to comply with TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999. The difference/differences between a ‘Trade Mark’ and a Geographical Indication is/are:
(1) A trade Mark is an individual or a company’s right whereas a Geographical Indication is a community’s right.
(2) A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a Geographical Indication cannot be licensed.
(3) A Trade Mark is assigned to the manufactured goods whereas the Geographical Indication is assigned to the agricultural goods/products and handicrafts only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
18. The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives, in this context, consider the following:
(1) Development of infrastructure facilities.
(2) Promotion of investment from foreign sources.
(3) Promotion of exports of services only
Which of the above are the objective of this Act?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
19. Which one of the following statements is an appropriate description of deflation?
(A) It is a sudden fall in the value of a currency against other currencies
(B) It is a persistent recession in both the financial and real sectors of economy
(C) It is a persistent fall in the general price level of goods and services
(D) It is a fall in the rate of inflation over a period of time
20. Consider the following statements:
(1) Biodiversity hotspots are located only in tropical regions.
(2) India has four biodiversity hotspots i.e., Eastern Himalayas, Western Himalayas, Western Ghats and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
21. Widespread resistance of malarial parasite to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine?
(A) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium
(B) Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection
(C) Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria
(D) Main is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host
22. Consider the following statements:
(1) The boundaries a National Park are defined by legislation.
(2) A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve a few specific species of flora and fauna.
(3) In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited biotic interference is permitted.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
23. A pesticide which is a chlorinated hydrocarbon is sprayed on a food crop. The food chain is : Food crop-Rat-Snake-Hawk. In this food chain the highest concentration of the pesticide would accumulate in which one of the following?
(A) Food crop
(B) Rat
(C) Snake
(D) Hawk
24. With reference to soil conservation, consider the following practices :
(1) Crop rotation
(2) Sand fences
(3) Terracing
(4) Wind breaks
Which of the above are considered appropriate methods for soil conservation in India?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
25. With reference to the Non-banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India, consider the following statements:
(1) They cannot engage in the acquisition of securities issued by the government.
(2) They cannot accept demand deposits like Savings Account.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
26. Which one of the following was not stipulated in the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003?
(A) Elimination of revenue deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2007-08
(B) Non-borrowing by the central government from Reserve Bank of India except under certain circumstances
(C) Elimination of primary deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2008-09
(D) Fixing government guarantees in any financial year as a percentage of GDP
27. Two trains leave New Delhi at the same time. One travels north at 60 kmph and the other travels south at 40 kmph. After how many hours will the trains be 150 km apart?
(A) 3/2
(B) 4/3
(C) 3/4
(D) 15/2
28. A question paper had ten question. Each question could only be answered as True (T) or False (F). Each candidate answered all the questions. Yet, no two candidates wrote the answers in an identical sequence. How many different sequences of answers are possible?
(A) 20
(B) 40
(C) 512
(D) 1024
29. In the parlance of financial investments, the term ‘bear’ denotes-
(A) An investors who feels that the price of a particular security is going to fall
(B) An investor who expects the price of particular shares to rise
(C) A shareholder or a bond-holder who has an interest in a company, financial or otherwise
(D) Any lender whether by making a loan or buying a bond.
30. A great deal of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) to India comes from Mauritius than from many major and mature economies like UK and France. Why?
(A) India has preference for certain countries as regards receiving FDI
(B) India has double taxation avoidance agreement with Mauritius
(C) Most citizens of Mauritius have ethnic identity with India and so they feel secure to invest in India
(D) Impending dangers of global climatic change prompt Mauritius to make huge investments in India
31. Six books A, B, C, D, E and F are placed side by side. B, C and E have blue cover and the other books have red cover. Only D and F are new books and the rest are old. A, C and D are law reports and others are Gazetteers. What book is a new law report with a red colour?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
32. Following are the characteristics of an area in India:
(1) Hot and humid climate.
(2) Annual rainfall 200 cm.
(3) Hill slopes up to an altitude of 1100 metre
(4) Annual range of temperature 15°C to 30°C
Which one among the following crops are you most likely to find in the area described above?
(A) Mustard
(B) Cotton
(C) Pepper
(D) Virginia tobacco
33. Running at a speed of 60 km per hour, a train passed through a 1.5 km long tunnel in two minutes. What is the length of the train?
(A) 250 m
(B) 500 m
(C) 1000 m
(D) 1500 m
34. India-based Neutrino Observatory is included by the planning Commission as a mega science project under the 11th Five-Year Plan. In this context, consider the following statements-
(1) Neutrinos are chargeless elementary particles that travel close to the speed of light.
(2) Neutrinos are created in nuclear reactions of beta decay.
(3) Neutrinos have a negligible, but nonzero mass.
(4) Trillions of Neutrinos pass through human body every second.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
35. The ‘Instrument of Instructions’ contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as-
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Extent Executive Power of State
(D) Conduct of Business of the Government of India
36. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles produce one of the following as ‘exhaust’-
(A) NH3
(B) CH4
(C) H2O
(D) H2O2
37. Recently, LASIK (Laser Assisted in situ Keratomileusis) procedure is being made popular for vision correction. Which one of the following statements in this context is not correct?
(A) LASIK procedure is used to correct refractive errors of the eye
(B) It is a procedure that permanently changes the shapes of the cornea
(C) It reduces a person’s dependence on glasses or contact lenses
(D) It is a procedure that can be done on the person of any age
38. Consider the following:
(1) Oxides of Hydrogen
(2) Oxides of Nitrogen
(3) Oxides of Sulphur
Which of the above causes/cause acid rain?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
39. Six persons, M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting in two rows, three in each. Q is not at the end of any row. P is second to the left of R. O is the neighbour of Q and is sitting diagonally opposite to P. N is the neighbour of R. on the basis of above information, who is facing N?
(A) R
(B) Q
(C) P
(D) M
40. A person X has four notes of Rupee 1, 2, 5 and 10 denomination. The number of different sums of money she can form from them is-
(A) 16
(B) 15
(C) 12
(D) 8
41. Consider the following countries:
(1) Brazil
(2) Mexico
(3) South Africa
According to UNCTAD, which of the above is/are categorized as ‘Emerging Economies’?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
42. Which one of the following is not related to United Nations?
(A) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
(B) International Finance Corporation
(C) International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes
(D) Bank of International Settlements
43. In the context of Indian economy, consider the following pairs :
Term Most appropriate description
(1) Melt down -Fall in stock prices
(2) Recession -Fall in growth rate
(3) Slow down -Fall in GDP
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
44. With reference to BRIC countries consider the following statements:
(1) At present, China’s GDP is more than the combined GDP of all the three other countries.
(2) China’s population is more than the combined population of any two other countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
45. Which of the following is/are treated as artificial currency?
(A) ADR
(B) GDR
(C) SDR
(D) Both ADR and SDR
46. Stiglitz Commission established by the President of the United Nations General Assembly was in the international news. The commission was supposed to deal with-
(A) The challenges posed by the impending global climate change and prepare a road map
(B) The workings of the global financial systems and to explore ways and means to secure a more sustainable global order
(C) Global terrorism and prepare a global action plan for the mitigation of terrorism
(D) Expansion of the United Nations Security Council in the present global scenario
47. With reference to the mineral resources of India, consider the following pairs :
Mineral 90% Natural sources in
(1) Copper -Jharkhand
(2) Nickel -Orissa
(3) Tungsten -Kerala
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
48. As regards the use of international food safety standards as reference point for the dispute settlements, which one of the following does WTO collaborate with?
(A) Codex Alimentarius Commission
(B) International Federation of Standards Users
(C) International Organizations for Standardization
(D) World Standards Cooperation
49. An objective of the National Food Security Mission is to increase the production of certain crops through area expansion and productivity enhancement in a sustainable manner in the identified districts of the country. What are those crops?
(A) Rice and wheat only
(B) Rice, wheat and pulses only
(C) Rice, wheat, pulses and oil-seeds only
(D) Rice, wheat, pulses, oilseeds and vegetables
50. In India, the interest rate on savings accounts in all the nationalized commercial banks is fixed by-
(A) Union Ministry of Finance
(B) Union Finance Commission
(C) Indian Banks’ Association
(D) None of the above
51. With reference to Simon Commission’s recommendations, which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) It recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government in the provinces
(B) It proposed the setting up of interprovincial council under the Home Department
(C) It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature at the Centre
(D) It recommended the creation of Indian Police Service with a provision for increased pay and allowances for British recruits as compared to Indian recruits
52. Four resolutions were passed at the famous Calcutta session of Indian National Congress in 1906. The question of either retention OR of rejection of these four resolutions became the cause of a split in Congress at the next Congress session held in Surat in 1907. Which one of the following was not one of those resolutions?
(A) Annulment of partition of Bengal
(B) Boycott
(C) National education
(D) Swadeshi
53. Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than a third number Z. By what percentage is the number Y less than the number X ?
(A) 8%
(B) 9%
(C) 10%
(D) 12%
54. After Quit India Movement, C. Rajagopalachari issued a pamphlet entitled ‘The Way Out’. Which one of the following was a proposal in this pamphlet?
(A) The establishment of a ‘War Advisory Council’ composed of representatives of British India and Indian States
(B) Reconstitution of the Central Executive Council in such a way that all its members, except the Governor General and the Commander-in-Chief should be Indian leaders
(C) Fresh elections to the Central and Provincial Legislatures to be held at the end of 1945 and the Constitution making body to be convened as soon as possible
(D) A solution for the constitutional deadlock
55. There are only two known examples of cave paintings of the Gupta period in ancient India. One of these is paintings of Ajanta caves. Where is the other surviving example of Gupta paintings?
(A) Bagh caves
(B) Ellora caves
(C) Lomas Rishi cave
(D) Nasik caves
56. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an international treaty drawn at-
(A) United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, Stockholm, 1972
(B) UN Conference on Environment and Development, Rio de Janeiro, 1992
(C) World Summit on Sustainable Development, Johannesburg, 2002
(D) UN Climate Change Conference Copenhagen, 2009
57. Which bacterial strain, developed from natural isolates by genetic manipulations, can be used for treating oil spills?
(A) Agrobacterium
(B) Clostridium
(C) Nitrosomonas
(D) Pseudomonas
58. Which feature of some species of blue-green algae helps promote them as bio-fertilizers?
(A) They convert atmospheric methane into ammonia which the crop plants can absorb readily
(B) They induce the crop plants to produce the enzymes which help convert atmospheric nitrogen to nitrates
(C) They have the mechanism to convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form that the crop plants can absorb readily
(D) They induce the roots of the crop plants to absorb the soil nitrates in larger quantities
59. India is a party to the Ramsar Convention and has declared many areas as Ramsar Sites. Which of the following statements best describes as to how we should maintain these sites in the context of this Convention?
(A) Keep all the sites completely inaccessible to man to that they will not be exploited
(B) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach and permit tourism and recreation only
(C) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach for a period without any exploitation, with specific criteria and specific period for each site, and then allow sustainable use of them by future generations
(D) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach and allow their simultaneous sustainable use
60. Other than Jatropha curcas, why is Pongamia pinnata also considered a good option for the production of bio-diesel in India?
(1) Pongamia pinnata grows naturally in most of the arid regions of India.
(2) The seeds of Pongamia pinnata are rich in lipid content of which rearly half is oleic acid.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
61. Due to their extensive rice cultivation, some regions may be contributing to global warming. To what possible reason/reasons is this attributable?
(1) The anaerobic conditions associated with rice cultivation cause the emission of methane.
(2) When nitrogen based fertilizers are used, nitrous oxide is emitted from the cultivated soil.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
62. Sustainable development is described as the development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In this perspective, inherently the concept of sustainable development is intertwined with which of the following concepts?
(A) Social justices and empowerment
(B) Inclusive Growth
(C) Globalization
(D) Carrying capacity
63. Given below are the names of four energy crops. Which one of them can be cultivated for ethanol?
(A) Jatropha
(B) Maize
(C) Pongamia
(D) Sunflower
64. Consider the following pairs:
Protected area Well-known for
(1) Bhiterkanika, Orissa-Salt Water Crocodile
(2) Desert National Park, Rajasthan-Great Indian Bustard
(3) Eravikulam, Kerala- Hoolak Gibbon
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
65. Some species of plants are insectivorous. Why?
(A) Their growth in shady and dark places does not allow them to undertake sufficient photo-synthesis and thus they depend on insects for nutrition
(B) They are adapted to grow in nitrogen deficient soils and thus depend on insects for sufficient nitrogenous nutrition
(C) They cannot synthesize certain vitamins themselves and depend on the insects digested by them
(D) They have remained in that particular stage of evolution as living fossils, a link between autotrophs and heterotrophs
66. A person travelled a distance of 50 km in 8 hours. He covered a part of the distance on foot at the rate of 4 km per hour and a part on a bicycle at the rate of 10 km per hour. How much distance did he travel on foot?
(A) 10 km
(B) 20 km
(C) 30 km
(D) 40 km
67. In the next of governance, consider the following:
(1) Encouraging Foreign Direct Investment inflows.
(2) Privatization of higher educational Institutions
(3) Down-sizing of bureaucracy.
(4) Selling/offloading the shares of Public Sector Undertakings.
Which of the above can be used as measures to control the fiscal deficit in India?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 4 only
68. As per the UN-Habitat’s Global Report on Human Settlements 2009, which one among the following regions has shown the fastest growth rate of urbanization in the last three decades?
(A) Asia
(B) Europe
(C) Latin America and Caribbean
(D) North America
69. In India, which type of forest among the following occupies the largest area?
(A) Montane Wet Temperate Forest
(B) Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen Forest
(C) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest
(D) Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest
70. Inclusive growth as enunciated in the Eleventh Five Year Plan does not include one of the following-
(A) Reduction of poverty
(B) Extension of employment opportunities
(C) Strengthening of capital market
(D) Reduction of gender inquality
71. How many numbers from 0 to 999 are not divisible by either 5 or 7?
(A) 313
(B) 341
(C) 686
(D) 786
72. Tamil Nadu is a leading producer of mill-made cotton yarn in the country. What could be the reason?
(1) Black cotton soil is the predominant type of soil in the state.
(2) Rich pool of skilled labour is available.
Which of the above is/are the correct reasons?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
73. Consider the following statements:
(1) One the planet Earth, the fresh water available for use amounts to about less than 1% of the total water found.
(2) Of the total fresh water found on the planet Earth 95% is bound up in polar ice caps and glaciers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
74. Which one of the following reflects back more sunlight as compared to other three?
(A) Sand desert
(B) Paddy crop land
(C) Land covered with fresh snow
(D) Prairie land
75. Rivers that pass through Himachal Pradesh are-
(A) Beas and Chenab only
(B) Beas and Ravi only
(C) Chenab, Ravi and Satluj only
(D) Beas, Chenab, Ravi, Satluj and Yamuna
76. Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament?
(A) The President of India
(B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) The Prime Minister of India
(D) The Union Finance Minister
77. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget to the Parliament?
(A) Department of Revenue
(B) Department of Economic Affairs
(C) Department of Financial Services
(D) Department of Expenditure
78. In a group of five persons A, B, C, D and E there is a professor, a doctor and lawyer. A and D are unmarried ladies, and do not work. Of the married couple in the Group, E is the husband. B is the brother of A and is neither a doctor nor a lawyer. Who is the professor?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) A
(D) Cannot be determined with the available data
79. Consider the following actions by the Government:
(1) Cutting the tax rates.
(2) Increasing the government spending.
(3) Abolishing the subsidies
In the context of economic recession, which of the above actions can be considered a part of the ‘fiscal stimulus’ package?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
80. Half of the villagers of a certain village have their own houses. One-fifth of the villagers cultivate paddy. One-third of the villagers are literate. Four-fifth of the villagers are below twenty five. Then, which one of the following is certainly true?
(A) All the villagers who have their own houses are literate
(B) Some villagers under twenty five are literate
(C) A quarter of the villagers who have their own houses cultivate paddy
(D) Half of the villagers who cultivate paddy are literate
81. When the Reserve Bank of India announces an increase of the Cash Reserve Ratio, what does it mean?
(A) The commercial banks will have less money to lend
(B) The Reserve Bank of India will have less money to lend
(C) The Union Government will have less money to lend
(D) The commercial banks will have more money to lend
82. Who among the following Governor Generals created the Covenanted Civil Service of India which later came to be known as the Indian Civil Service?
(A) Warren Hastings
(B) Wellesley
(C) Cornwallis
(D) William Bentinck
83. What was the immediate cause for the launch of the Swadeshi movement?
(A) The partition of Bengal done by Lord Curzon
(B) A sentence of 18 months rigorous imprisonment imposed on Lokmanya Tilak
(C) The arrest and deportation of Lala Lajpat Rai and Ajit Singh; and passing of the Punjab Colonization Bill
(D) Death sentence pronounced on the Chapekar brothers
84. Consider the following statements:
(1) Dr. Rajendra Prasad persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to come to Champaran to investigate the problem of peasants.
(2) Acharya J. B. Kriplani was one of Mahatma Gandhi’s colleagues in his Champaran investigation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
85. By a regulation in 1793, the District Collector was deprived of his judicial powers and made the collecting agent only. What was the reason for such regulation?
(A) Lord Cornwallis felt that the District Collector’s efficiency of revenue collection would enormously increase without the burden of other work
(B) Lord Cornwallis felt that Judicial power should compulsorily be in the hands of Europeans while Indians can be given the job of revenue collection in the districts
(C) Lord Cornwallis was alarmed at the extent of power concentrated in the District Collector and felt that such absolute power was undesirable in one person
(D) The judicial work demanded a deep knowledge of India and a good training in law and Lord Cornwallis felt that District Collector should be only a revenue collector
86. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
(1) The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is available on a monthly basis only.
(2) As compared to Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers [CPI(IW)], the WPI gives less weight to food articles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
87. Each person’s performance compared with all other persons is to be done to rank them subjectively. How many comparisons are needed in total, if there are 11 persons?
(A) 66
(B) 55
(C) 54
(D) 45
88. What is the principle by which a cooling system (Radiator) in a motor car works?
(A) Conduction only
(B) Convection
(C) Radiation only
(D) Both conduction and radiation
89. Which among the following do/ does not belong/belongs to the GSM family of wireless technologies?
(A) EDGE
(B) LTE
(C) DSL
(D) Both EDGE and LTE
90. With reference to the treatment of cancerous tumours, a tool called cyberknife has been making the news. In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) It is a robotic image guided, system
(B) It delivers an extremely precise dose of radiation
(C) It has the capability of achieving sub-millimetre accuracy
(D) It can map the spread of tumour in the body
91. When you travel in certain parts of India, you will notice red soil. What is the main reason for this colour?
(A) Abundance of magnesium
(B) Accumulated humus
(C) Presence of ferric oxides
(D) Abundance of phosphates
92. Which one of the following is the appropriate reason for considering the Gondwana rocks as most important of rock systems of India?
(A) More than 90% of limestone reserves of India are found in them
(B) More than 90% of India’s coal reserves are found in them
(C) More than 90% of fertile black cotton soils are spread over them
(D) None of the reasons given above is appropriate in this context
93. Which one of the following can one some across if one travels through the Strait of Malacca?
(A) Bali
(B) Brunei
(C) Java
(D) Singapore
94. With reference to the river Luni, which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) It flows into Gulf of Khambhat
(B) It flows into Gulf of Kuchchh
(C) It flows into Pakistan and merges with a tributary of Indus
(D) It is lost in the marshy land of the Rann of Kuchchh
95. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Dam/Lake River
(A) Govind Sagar -Satluj
(B) Kolleru Lake -Krishna
(C) Ukai Reservoir -Tapi
(D) Wular Lake -Jhelum
96. A geographic region has the following distinct characteristics:
(1) Warm and dry climate.
(2) Mild and wet winter.
(3) Evergreen oak trees.
The above features are the distinct characteristics of which one of the following regions?
(A) Mediterranean
(B) Eastern China
(C) Central Asia
(D) Atlantic coast of North America
98. With reference to the National Rehabilitation and Resettlement Policy, 2007, consider the following statements:
(1) This policy is applicable only to the persons affected by the acquisition of land for projects and not to the involuntary displacement due to any other reason.
(2) This policy has been formulated by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
98. In the context of India’s Five Year Plans, a shift in the pattern of industrialization, with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in-
(A) Fourth Plan
(B) Sixth Plan
(C) Eighth Plan
(D) Tenth Plan
99. Two of the schemes launched by the Government of India for Women’s development are Swadhar and Swayam Siddha. As regards the difference between them, consider the following statements:
(1) Swayam Siddha is meant for those in difficult circumstances such as women survivors of natural disasters or terrorism, women prisoners released from jails, mentally challenged women etc. whereas Swadhar is meant for holistic empowerment of women through Self help Groups.
(2) Swayam Siddha is implemented through Local Self Government bodies or reputed Voluntary Organizations whereas Swadhar is implemented through the ICDS units set up in the states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
100. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child, consider the following:
(1) The Right to Development.
(2) The Right to Expression.
(3) The Right to Recreation.
Which of the above is/are the Rights of the child?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
101. Three men start together to travel the same way around a circular track of 11 km. Their speeds are 4, 5.5 and 8 kmph respectively. When will they meet at the starting point for the first time?
(A) After 11 hours
(B) After 21 hours
(C) After 22 hours
(D) After 33 hours
102. With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in India, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) A State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it deems fit
(B) One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman
(C) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs
(D) A complaint in relation to any goods sold or any service provided may be filed with a District Forum by the State Government as a representative of the interests of the consumers in general
103. King Cobra is the only snake that makes its own nest. Why does it make its nest?
(A) It is a snake-eater and the nest helps attract other snakes
(B) It is a viviparous snake and needs a nest to give birth to its offspring
(C) It is an oviparous snake and lays its eggs in the nest and guards the nest until they are hatched
(D) It is a large, cold blooded animal and needs a nest to hibernate in the cold season
104. As a result of their annual survey, the National Geographic Society and an international polling firm Globe Scane gave India top rank in Greendex 2009 score. What is this score?
(A) It is a measure of efforts made by different countries in adopting technologies for reducing carbon footprint
(B) It is measure of environmentally sustainable consumer behaviour in different countries
(C) It is an assessment of programmes/schemes undertaken by different countries for improving the conservation of natural resources
(D) It is an index showing the volume of carbon credits sold by different countries
105. Consider the following statements:
(1) The Taxus tree naturally found in the Himalayas.
(2) The Taxus tree is listed in the Red Data Book.
(3) A drug called ‘taxol’ is obtained from Taxus tree is effective against Parkinson’s disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
106. P, Q, R and S are four men. P is the oldest but not the poorest. R is the richest but not the oldest. Q is older than S but not than P or R. P is richer than Q but not than S. The four men can be ordered (descending) in respect of age and richness, respectively, as-
(A) PQRS,RPSQ
(B) PRQS,RSPQ
(C) PRQS, RSQP
(D) PRSQ,RSPQ
107. What causes wind to deflect towards left in the Southern hemisphere?
(A) Temperature
(B) Magnetic field
(C) Rotation of the earth
(D) Pressure
108. Indiscriminate disposal of used fluorescent electric lamps causes mercury pollution in the environment. Why is mercury used in the manufacture of these lamps?
(A) A mercury coating on the inside of the lamp makes the light bright white
(B) When the lamp is switched on, the mercury in the lamp causes the emission of ultraviolet radiations
(C) When the lamp is switched on, it is the mercury which converts the ultraviolet energy into visible light
(D) None of the statement given above is correct about the use of mercury in the manufacture of fluorescent lamps
109. If there were no Himalayan ranges, what would have been the most likely geographical impact of India?
(1) Much of the country would experience the cold waves from Siberia.
(2) Indo-gangetic plain would be devoid of such extensive alluvial soils.
(3) The pattern of monsoon would be different from what it is at present.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
110. In the context of space technology, what is ‘Bhuvan’, recently in the news?
(A) A mini satellite launched by ISRO for promoting the distance education in India
(B) Then name given to the next Moon Impact Probe, for Chandrayaan-II
(C) A geoportal of ISRO with 3D imaging capabilities of India
(D) A space telescope developed by India
111. The latitudes that pass through Sikkim also pass through-
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Punjab
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Jammu & Kashmir
112. A man fills a basket with eggs in such a way that the number of eggs added on each successive day is the same as the number already present in the basket. This way the basket gets completely filled in 24 days. After how many days the basket was 1/4th full?
(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 17
(D) 22
113. The diameters of two circular coins are in the ratio of 1 : 3. The smaller coin is made to roll around the bigger coin till it returns to the position from where the process of rolling started. How many times the smaller coin rolled around the bigger coin?
(A) 9
(B) 6
(C) 3
(D) 1.5
114. The difference between the simple interest received from two banks on Rs. 500 for two years is Rs. 2.50. What is the difference between their rates?
(A) 0.25%
(B) 0.5%
(C) 1%
(D) 2.5%
115. When ten persons shake hands with one another, in how many ways is it possible?
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 40
(D) 45
116. A candidate attempted 12 question and secured full marks in all of them. If he obtained 60% in the test and all questions carried equal marks, then what is the number of questions in the test?
(A) 36
(B) 30
(C) 25
(D) 20
117. In how many ways can four children be made to stand in a line such that two of them, A and B are always together?
(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 24
118. In a meeting, the map of the village was placed in such a manner that south-east becomes north, north-east becomes west and so on. What will south become?
(A) North
(B) North-east
(C) North-west
(D) West
119. Consider the following statements:
(1) The ‘Bombay Manifesto’ signed in 1936 openly opposed the preaching of socialist ideals.
(2) It evoked support from a large section of business community from all across India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
120. Among the following, who was not a proponent of bhakti cult?
(A) Nagarjuna
(B) Tukaram
(C) Tyagaraja
(D) Vallabhacharya
121. For the Karachi session of Indian National Congress in 1931 presided over by Sardar Patel, who drafted the Resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Programme?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
122. Who among the following were official Congress negotiators with Cripps Mission?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Patel
(B) Acharya J. B. Kripalani and C. Rajagopalachari
(C) Pandit Nehru and Maulana Azad
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Rafi Ahmed Kidwai
123. Which one of the following processes in the bodies of living organisms is a digestive process?
(A) Breakdown of proteins into amino acids
(B) Breakdown of glucose into CO2 and H2O
(C) Conversion of glucose into glycogen
(D) Conversion of amino acids into proteins
124. From the point view of evolution of living organisms, which one of the following is the correct sequence of evolution?
(A) Otter-Tortoise-Shark
(B) Shark-Tortoise-Otter
(C) Tortoise-Shark-Otter
(D) Shark-Otter-Tortoise
125. Consider the following statements:
(1) Hepatitis B is several times more infectious than HIV/AIDS
(2) Hepatitis B can cause liver cancer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
126. Excessive release of the pollutant carbon monoxide (CO) into the air may produce a condition in which oxygen supply in the human body decreases. What causes this condition?
(A) When inhaled into the human body, CO is converted into CO2
(B) The inhaled CO has much higher affinity for haemoglobin as compared to oxygen
(C) The inhaled CO destroys the chemical structure of haemoglobin
(D) The inhaled CO Adversely affects the respiratory centre in the brain
127. Consider the following statements:
(1) Every Individual in the population is equally susceptible host for Swine Flu.
(2) Antibiotics have no role in the primary treatment of Swine Flu.
(3) To prevent the future spread of swine Flu in the epidemic area, the swine (pigs) must all be culled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
128. With regard to the transmission of the Human Immunodeficiency Virus, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) The chances of transmission from female to male are twice as likely as from male to female
(B) The chances of transmission are more if a person suffers from other sexually transmitted infections
(C) An infected mother can transmit the infection to her baby during pregnancy.
(D) The risk of contracting infection from transfusion of infected blood is much higher than an exposure to contaminated needle
129. What are the possible limitations of India in mitigating the global warming at present and in the immediate future?
(1) Appropriate alternate technologies are not sufficiently available.
(2) India cannot invest huge funds in research and development.
(3) Many developed countries have already set up their polluting industries in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
130. Consider the following statements:
(1) The Commonwealth has no charter, treaty or constitution.
(2) All the territories/countries once under the British empire (jurisdiction/rule/mandate) automatically joined the Commonwealth as its members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
131. Examine the following statements:
(1) All colours are pleasant.
(2) Some colours are pleasant.
(3) No colour is pleasant
(4) Some colours are not pleasant.
Given that the statement 4 is true, what can be definitely concluded?
(A) 1 and 2 are true
(B) 1 is false
(C) 2 is false
(D) 3 is true
132. In the context of bilateral trade negotiations between India and European Union, what is the difference between European Commission and European Council?
(1) European Commission represents the EU in trade negotiations whereas European Council participates in the legislation of matters pertaining to economic policies of the European Union.
(2) European Commission comprises the Heads of State of government of member countries whereas the European Council comprises of the persons nominated by European Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
133. The approximate representation of land use classification in India is-
(A) Net area sown 25%; forests 33%; other areas 42%
(B) Net area sown 58%; forests 17%; other areas 25%
(C) Net area sown 43%; forests 29%; other areas 28%
(D) Net area sown 47%; forests 23%; other areas 39%
134. With reference to the National Investment Fund to which the disinvestment proceeds are rou ted, consider the following statements:
(1) The assets in the National Investment Fund are managed by the Union Ministry of Finance.
(2) The National Investment Fund is to be maintained within the Consolidated Fund of India.
(3) Certain Asset Management Companies are appointed as the fund managers.
(4) A certain proportion of annual income is used for financing select social sectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 3 only
135. In India, which of the following is regulated by the Forward Markets Commission?
(A) Currency Futures Trading
(B) Commodities Futures Trading
(C) Equity Futures Trading
(D) Both Commodities Futures and Financial Futures Trading
136. Which one of the following is not a feature of Limited Liability Partnership firm?
(A) Partners should be less than 20
(B) Partnership and management need not be separate
(C) Internal governance may be decided by mutual agreement among partners
(D) It is corporate body with perpetual succession
137. With reference to the institution of Banking Ombudsman in India, which one of the statements is not correct?
(A) The Banking Ombudsman is appointed by the Reserve Bank of India
(B) The Banking Ombudsman can consider complaints from Non-Resident Indians having accounts in India
(C) The orders passed by the Banking Ombudsman are final and binding on the parties concerned
(D) The service provided by the Banking Ombudsman is free of any fee
138. With reference to India, consider the following:
(1) Nationalization of Banks.
(2) Formation of Regional Rural Banks.
(3) Adoption of villages by Bank Branches.
Which of the above can be considered as steps taken to achieve the ‘financial inclusion’ in India?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
139. What was the immediate reason for Ahmad Shah Abdali to invade India and fight the Third Battle of Panipat?
(A) He wanted to avenge the expulsion by Marathas of his viceroy Timur Shah form Lahore
(B) The frustrated governor of Jullundhar Adina Beg Khan invited him to invade Punjab
(C) He wanted to punish Mughal administration for non-payment of the revenues of the Chahar Mahal (Gujarat, Aurangabad, Sialkot and Pasrur)
(D) He wanted to annex all the fertile plains of Punjab up to the borders of Delhi to his kingdom
140. With reference to Pondicherry (now Puducherry), consider the following statement:
(1) The first European power of occupy Pondicherry were the Portuguese.
(2) The second European power to occupy Pondicherry were the French.
(3) The English never occupied Pondicherry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
141. Why did Buddhism starts declining in India in the early medieval times?
(1) Buddha was by that time considered as one of the incarnations of Vishnu and thus became a part of Vaishnavism.
(2) The invading tribes from Central Asia till the time of last Gupta king adopted Hinduism and persecuted Buddhists.
(3) The Kings of Gupta dynasty were strongly opposed to Buddhism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
142. Consider the following statements:
The functions of commercial bank in India include-
(1) Purchase and sale of shares and securities on behalf of customers.
(2) Acting as executors and trustee of wills.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
143. In India, the tax proceeds of which one of the following as a percentage of gross tax revenue has significantly declined in the last five years?
(A) Service tax
(B) Personal income tax
(C) Excise duty
(D) Corporation tax
144. Which one of the following authorities makes recommendations to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State?
(A) District Planning Committees
(B) State Finance Commission
(C) Finance Ministry of that State
(D) Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State
145. Consider the following statements:
In India, taxes on transactions in Stock Exchanges and Futures Markets are-
(1) levied by the Union.
(2) collected by the States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
146. In India, during the last decade the total cultivated land for which one of the following crops has remained more or less stagnant?
(A) Rice
(B) Oilseeds
(C) Pulses
(D) Sugarcane
147. Consider the following statements:
(1) The Union Government fixes the Statutory Minimum Price of sugarcane for each sugar season.
(2) Sugar and sugarcane are essential commodities under the Essential Commodities Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
148. With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements:
(1) The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has increased by four times in the last 10 years.
(2) The percentage share of Public Sector in GDP has declined in the last 10 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
149. Consider the following which can be found in the ambient atmosphere:
(1) Soot
(2) Sulphur hexafluoride
(3) Water vapour
Which of the above contribute to the warming up of the atmosphere?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
150. The International Development Association, a lending agency, s administered by the-
(A) International Bank of Reconstruction and Development
(B) International Fund for Agricultural Development
(C) United Nations Development Programme
(D) United Nations Industrial Development Organization