UGC NET Exam December 2014 Tourism Administration and Management Paper-3 Question Paper With Answer Key

TOURISM ADMINISTRATION AND MANAGEMENT

Paper – III

Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Setting a high price when the market is price – insensitive is referred as

(A) Prestige-pricing

(B) Market-skimming pricing

(C) Market-penetration pricing

(D) Discriminatory pricing

Answer: (A)

2. Name the type of the tour where an organiser accompanies the group for arrangements :

(A) Executive Tour

(B) Entertainer Tour

(C) Escorted Tour

(D) Extra-costed Tour

Answer: (B)

3. When integration occurs between companies offering complementary rather than competitive products, it is known as

(A) Horizontal integration

(B) Backward integration

(C) Forward integration

(D) Concentric diversification

Answer: (B)

4. Assertion (A) : International tourists arrivals grew by 5% worldwide in 2013 reaching 1087 million arrivals.

Reason (R) : China has consolidated its position as number one source market in the world.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

5. When buyers are divided into groups on their knowledge, attitude and use on response to a product, it is known as

(A) Behavioural market segmentation

(B) Psychographic market segmentation

(C) Geographic market segmentation

(D) Demographic market segmentation

Answer: (A)

6. Which of the following drives is not a part of McClelland’s theory of motivation ?

(A) Need for Enrichment

(B) Need for Achievement

(C) Need for Power

(D) Need for Affiliation

Answer: (D)

7. Service providers communicating their level of service through their pricing is termed as

(A) Market Segmentation

(B) Market Targeting

(C) Market Tracking

(D) Market Positioning

Answer: (A)

8. Assertion (A) : Applied research is usually constrained by set time schedules.

Reason (R) : Applied research addresses some particular problems or attempts to achieve a particular set of outcomes.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

9. The flagship of ITDC hotels is

(A) the Brahmputra Ashok

(B) the Kalinga Ashok

(C) the Ashok, Delhi

(D) the Pataliputra Ashok

Answer: (A)

10. What is the difference between a bar chart and a histogram ?

(A) A histogram does not show the entire range of scores in a distribution.

(B) Bar chart is circular where as histogram is square.

(C) There are no gaps between the bars on a histogram.

(D) Bar charts represent numbers, where as histograms represent percentage.

Answer: (B)

11. In the new product development, write down the commercial steps that would be followed in order :

I. Test Marketing

II. Business analysis

III. Generation of new product ideas

IV. Screening and evaluation of Ideas

Codes :

(A) II, I, III, IV

(B) III, IV, I, II

(C) I, II, III, IV

(D) III, IV, II, I

Answer: (D)

12. Suez Canal links the following two Seas :

(A) Atlantic Ocean and Mediterranean Sea

(B) Atlantic and Pacific Oceans

(C) Mediterranean and Red Seas

(D) Pacific and Southern Oceans

Answer: (D)

13. Identify the country to which the High Skilled Migrant Programme (HSMP) VISA is applicable

(A) United Arab Emirates

(B) Australia

(C) United States of America

(D) United Kingdom

Answer: (A)

14. The major achievement of IATA in air-transportation is

(A) one world, one formula and one currency

(B) one phone call, one journey ticket and one currency

(C) one phone call, one organisation and one currency

(D) one world, one regulation and one currency

Answer: (B)

15. Items of List – I and List – II pertain to type of financial ratios and their utility. Candidate has to match an item in one list with the appropriate item in the other list :

Answer: (D)

16. Which of the following statements is false ?

(A) The number of visits to a destination is the best indication of the value of tourism to the destination.

(B) Total tourist nights are a better indication of the impact of tourism on a destination than total tourists arrivals.

(C) Average daily expenditure provides an indication of the quality of tourist traffic to most destination.

(D) Average expenditure per visit is a better indication of the quality of tourist traffic to a destination than average length of stay.

Answer: (D)

17. Rani-ki Vav, one of the finest example of Step Well at Patan, Gujarat was constructed by

(A) Rani Rupmati

(B) Rani Karnavati

(C) Rani Udaimati

(D) Rani Dewal Rani

Answer: (C)

18. Determine the international Sale Indicator for the international journey from LAX-DEL (Los Angeles to Delhi) for which ticket is sold in Chicago and issued in Montreal

(A) SITI

(B) SITO

(C) SOTO

(D) SOTI

Answer: (C)

19. The features of condominium hotels are

(i) Time sharing ownership is similar to condominium.

(ii) Each unit of condominium hotels has multiple owners.

(iii) The condominium management rents units according to the desires of the owners.

(iv) The purchaser does not buy real estate, but the long term right to use it.

The candidate has to find out the correct combination according to the code :

(A) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.

(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

(D) (ii) and (iii) are correct.

Answer: (A)

20. A tour guide should not be a tour guide if he does not know

(A) History of monuments

(B) Travel route of a visiting place

(C) Names of all the members of a tour group

(D) How much fee he will receive

Answer: (A)

21. Tourism is a complex business that depends on the linkages of various components such as

I. Natural Environment and Resources

II. Tourist Arrivals

III. Per Capita Income of Locals

IV. Support Services

Use the following codes given to choose the correct combination of components :

Codes :

(A) I, II, III and IV

(B) I, III, IV and not II

(C) I, II, IV and not III

(D) II, III, IV and not I

Answer: (ALL OPTIONS CORRECT)

22. The term ‘community tourism’ refers to

(A) tourism within the Asian community

(B) an approach to tourism in which local residents participate in its planning and development

(C) tourist group of a single community

(D) group visits between ‘twinned’ town and cities in different countries

Answer: (A)

23. Total number of guests staying in the hotel at a particular time is known as

(A) House limit

(B) In-house limit

(C) Plus position

(D) House count

Answer: (A)

24. Write down the correct order of top destinations in terms of international tourists arrivals in year 2013. Use the codes given below :

I. France

II. China

III. USA

IV. Spain

Codes :

(A) I, III, IV, II

(B) I, IV, III, II

(C) III, I, IV, II

(D) II, IV, III, I

Answer: (D)

25. The process of presenting Airline ticket sales and the payment there of for a week by the travel agencies to the Airlines through an authorised Bank is referred as

(A) Actualised Bank Settlement Plan

(B) Airlines Bank Settlement Plan

(C) Authorised Bank Settlement Plan

(D) Area Bank Settlement Plan

Answer: (A)

26. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Explosive types of volcanic eruptions are associated with the destructive or convergent plate boundaries in which the heavier plate is sub-ducted beneath the lighter plate.

Reason (R) : Materials of the upper mantle lying below the mid-oceanic ridges are melted and move upwards in the form of lava during volcanic eruptions, serve as a resource base for Volcano Adventure Tourism.

Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

27. The ‘Lufthansa Airlines’ belongs to the country

(A) USA

(B) Russia

(C) Germany

(D) Malaysia

Answer: (C)

28. For getting recognition from Department of Tourism as three star hotel the room size and specification should be :

(A) Double room size 140 sq. ft. and bathroom size 36 sq. ft.

(B) Double room size 140 sq. ft. and bathroom size 30 sq. ft.

(C) Double room size 120 sq. ft. and bathroom size 30 sq. ft.

(D) Double room size 120 sq. ft. and bathroom size 36 sq. ft.

Answer: (A)

29. The Ginger brand economy category hotels belong to

(A) Best Western Group of Hotels

(B) Taj Group of Hotels

(C) ITC Group of Hotels

(D) Oberoi Group of Hotels

Answer: (D)

30. The major shareholder in Public Limited Company Tourism Finance Corporation of India (TFCI) is

(A) SBI

(B) LIC

(C) IDBI

(D) IFCI

Answer: (D)

31. From the following sites which one has been nominated for world heritage site by the World Heritage Committee ?

(A) The Great Himalayan National Park

(B) Nishat Bagh, Kashmir

(C) Indian National Archives, Delhi

(D) Rohtas Fort, Rohtas

Answer: (C)

32. Identify the route of Yamuna Express way.

(A) Hyderabad – Secunderabad

(B) Greater Noida – Agra

(C) Greater Cochin – Alleppy

(D) Bangalore – Mysore

Answer: (A)

33. Maximum threat to the World Tourism is from

(A) Eutrophication

(B) Ozone depletion

(C) Bio-fixation and Bio-diversity loss

(D) Global Warming

Answer: (B)

34. Arrange the following Governmental efforts for tourism development in India in the sequence as they happened for the Nation :

I. “Incredible India” – Campaign

II. Formation of Ministry for Tourism, Govt. of India

III. National Tourism Policy

IV. Budgetary Allocation for Tourism by Govt. of India

Codes :

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) IV, II, III, I

(C) IV, III, II, I

(D) II, I, III, IV

Answer: (C)

35. The right of an airline, registered in country ‘X’, to operate entirely outside of country ‘X’ in carrying traffic between two other countries is known as

(A) Fourth Freedom

(B) Fifth Freedom

(C) Sixth Freedom

(D) Seventh Freedom

Answer: (B)

36. The full form of IMTEC is

(A) International Medical Tourist, Experts, Technicians, Exhibition and Convention.

(B) Indian Medical Tourists, Experts, Technicians, Exhibition and Convention

(C) International Medical Tourism, Equipments, Technology, Exhibition and Conference

(D) None of the above

Answer: (D)

37. This consists of two lists. List – I has Beaches of India and List – II has their locations in India. Match List – I with List – II. Use the code given below :

Answer: (C)

38. For international airfare calculation Backhaul Check (BHC) is applied :

I. For one way journey

II. For circle trip journey

III. For all Higher Intermediate (FARE) Points (HIP)

IV. From origin to stop over point with higher NUC than origin to destination NUC.

(A) I, II, III and IV are correct.

(B) Only I is correct.

(C) Only II is correct.

(D) I and IV are only correct.

Answer: (B)

39. Two lists of leadership theories and the contributors of these theories are given below. The candidate has to match an item in List – I with an item in List – II :

Answer: (D)

40. Match List – I with List – II :

Answer: (ALL OPTION CORRECT)

41. A stable dividend policy means

(A) Constant dividend per share

(B) Regularity in paying dividend

(C) Dividend paid is proportional to earnings

(D) Reasonably unpredictable dividend policy

Answer: (C)

42. Two lists are given below with List – I having the names of cities where metro trains are available and List – II are the years when their operations began. The candidate has to match an item in List – I with an item in List – II :

Answer: (D)

43. Kaiser-Meyer-Olkin (KMO) test is used

(A) in factor analysis to determine whether a set of data is appropriate for factor analysis

(B) for assessing whether two variables appear to be related

(C) to compare means from two populations or samples

(D) to measure the degree of association between two distribution

Answer: (C)

44. The term ‘EVA’ is used for

(A) Extra Value Analysis

(B) Economic Value Added

(C) Expected Volume Arbitrage

(D) Engineering Value Accrued

Answer: (B)

45. Process of Financial Planning ends with

(A) informing the employees that projected figures have come true

(B) preparation of projected statements

(C) preparation of actual statements

(D) comparison of actual with projected

Answer: (D)

46. What is considered to be the optimum approach to national tourism planning and development ?

(A) Formulation of a national development plan with tourism as one of the sectors.

(B) Formulation of a tourism development plan.

(C) Formulation of a tourism marketing plan.

(D) Formulation of tourism strategic plan.

Answer: (A)

47. Assertion (A) : Selling concept of marketing management holds that customers will favour products that are available and highly affordable and therefore management should focus on production and distribution efficiency.

Reason (R) : The marketing concepts hold that achieving organizational goals depends on determining the needs and wants of target markets and delivering the desired satisfaction more effectively and efficiently than competitions.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (C)

48. What is the correct order of human needs as given in need-hierarchy theory of Abraham Maslow ? Choose the correct order from the following :

(A) Physiological, security, affiliation, esteem, self-actualisation

(B) Security, affiliation, physiological, esteem, self-actualisation

(C) Affiliation, security, esteem, physiological, self-actualisation

(D) Self-actualisation, esteem, security, affiliation, physiological

Answer: (D)

49. Other name for modified American Plan is

(A) CP

(B) Bermuda Plan

(C) Pension Plan

(D) Demi-Pension Plan

Answer: (C)

50. Which of the following approaches to management determines that managerial practice depends upon circumstances/situations ?

(A) Empirical or case approach

(B) Contingency approach

(C) Decision theory approach

(D) Group Behaviour approach

Answer: (A)

51. The Royal Orient is a joint venture of

(A) The Indian Railway and Rajasthan Tourism Development Corporation

(B) The Indian Railway and Tourism Corporation of Maharashtra

(C) The Indian Railway and Tourism Corporation of Gujarat

(D) The Indian Railway and Tourism Corporation of Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (B)

52. The Break-event Chart portrays the relationship between

(A) Price, cost, profit

(B) Cost, volume, profit

(C) Price, sales, profit

(D) Cost, sales, production

Answer: (A)

53. Which of the following is the largest car-rental service company in India ?

(A) ‘Easycab’

(B) ‘Savaari’

(C) ‘Carzonrent’

(D) ‘Fast-track’

Answer: (C)

54. What is the Excess Mileage Surcharge (EMS) for the Air Itinerary Delhi – Mumbai – Bangkok – Kuala Lumpur – Manila with TPMs for Delhi to Mumbai → 708, Mumbai to Bangkok → 1871, Bangkok to Kuala Lumpur → 748 and Kuala Lumpur to Manila → 1542 ? The MPM from Delhi to Manila is 3656.

(A) 5 M

(B) 10 M

(C) 15 M

(D) 20 M

Answer: (B)

55. When looking at consumer income, marketers are most interested in

(A) discretionary income

(B) deferred income

(C) inflationary income

(D) disposable income

Answer: (A)

56. The Type I – error in Testing of hypothesis is

(A) Classifying Ho for sample mean

(B) Analysing Ho over μ-population mean

(C) Rejection of Ho when Ho is true

(D) Acceptance of Ho when Ho is not true

Answer: (D)

57. What is the acronym of “CAQDAS” stand for ?

(A) Computer Assisted Qualitative Data Analysis Software.

(B) Complicated Analytical Questions Deserving Answer Soon.

(C) Constant Aggravation Queried Directly and Swiftly.

(D) Content Analysis Quantification : Durkheim and Statistics

Answer: (B)

58. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below :

Answer: (A)

59. Affinity Charter comes into play

I. When an organisation decides to offer a trip to its members.

II. Members choose their individual destinations for the trip.

III. Cost-effective ticket prices are given to members.

IV. Organisation enters into a contractual agreement with a charter.

The candidate has to find the correct combination according to the code :

(A) I, II and III are correct.

(B) I and IV are correct.

(C) II and III are correct.

(D) I, III and IV are correct.

Answer: (D)

60. UNWTO Ulysses prize for excellence in the creation and dissemination of knowledge in the year 2013 was awarded to

(A) Prof. T.V. Singh

(B) Prof. Eric Cohen

(C) Prof. Chris Cooper

(D) Prof. Pauline Sheldon

Answer: (B)

61. Purchase of foreign products for the purpose of tourist-satisfaction leads to

(A) Economic leverage

(B) Economic lethargy

(C) Economic leakage

(D) Economic legitimacy

Answer: (C)

62. A type of tourism that may be defined as a form of tourism in which the prime motivation of the tourist involves a desire to experience and interact with exotic peoples is termed as

(A) Ethnic Tourism

(B) Eco Tourism

(C) Space Tourism

(D) Pilgrimage Tourism

Answer: (D)

63. Festivals are great factors of National Integration. Arrange the festivals given below in their order of appearance over English Calender as per the list.

I. Onam

II. Christmas

III. Pongal

IV. Dusshera

Use the following code to choose the correct option.

(A) January, December, August/September, September/October

(B) September/October, January, December, August/September

(C) August/September, December, January, September/October

(D) January, August/September, September/October, December

Answer: (C)

64. Tour operators may keep their prices low by

I. Negotiating low prices from suppliers

II. Reducing profit margins

III. Cutting their cost structure

IV. Avoiding to pay the government taxes

The candidate has to find the correct combination according to the code.

(A) I and II are correct.

(B) I, II and III are correct.

(C) II, III and IV are correct.

(D) I, III and IV are correct.

Answer: (A)

65. Calculate the flying time, if a flight of BA-105 leaves New York (–5 hrs. GMT) at 21 : 00 hrs. local time on Friday and arrives Delhi (+ 5 : 30 hrs. GMT) at 00: 30 hrs. local time on Sunday.

(A) 15 : 00 hours

(B) 15 : 30 hours

(C) 17 : 00 hours

(D) 18 : 00 hours

Answer: (ALL OPTION CORRECT)

66. Transport of passengers or goods between two points in the same country by a foreign carrier is called

(A) Freedom of Air

(B) Cabotage

(C) Self-boarding

(D) Patronage

Answer: (B)

67. If the researcher does not have any control over the variables, then the research is referred as

(A) Clinical research

(B) Longitudinal research

(C) Ex-post facto research

(D) Empirical research

Answer: (A)

68. The Approach paper to the Twelfth Plan released by the Planning Commission emphasized the need for tourism to adopt

(A) development of infrastructure approach

(B) ‘pro-poor tourism’ approach

(C) enriching local people approach

(D) benefit the people of coastal regions

Answer: (C)

69. Assertion (A) : Gross profit of a company XYZ is same but its Net Profit Ratio is decreasing.

Reason (R) : The dividend paid by XYZ company is increasing.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are possible and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are possible and (R) is the correct explanation.

(C) (A) is possible and (R) is not possible.

(D) (A) is not possible and (R) is possible.

Answer: (B)

70. Match List – I with List – II :

Answer: (A)

71. Special functions organised for professionals, socials or state occasions are referred in hotel parlance as

(A) Meetings

(B) Coffee parties

(C) Banquets

(D) Dinners

Answer: (D)

Read the passage given below and answer the questions 72 to 75 :

 The beautiful Kumarakom starting from 1989 was facing the pressure of resort developers towards back-water ecosystem for tourism. Truly, the introduction of backwater tourism enhanced the local Panchayat revenue towards Rs 20 lakhs per year, but the impact was so heavy that the local farmers were tempted to sell their land at an inflated price and get displaced. Sensing the onslaught of tourism development, the locals expressed their displeasure at Kudumba Yogam (family meeting). The local Panchayat swung into action by creating zones exclusively for tourism for residence and for reserve area along with appropriate solid and water pollution clearance management which increased the water table also. Now, tourists and locals use speed boats, house boats and local boats that criss-cross each other without any irritation. Thus a balancing act has been done sustaining Kumarakom for the locals, tourists as well as for tourism service providers.

72. Back water Ecosystem was at the risk of exploitation by the

(A) Local Panchayat

(B) Kudumba Yogam

(C) Resort developers

(D) Tourists

Answer: (A)

73. One of the following is not true with respect to the passage :

(A) Local Panchayat revenue enhanced.

(B) Locals enjoyed enhanced tourism.

(C) Local farmers nearly got displaced.

(D) Local boats and speed boats criss-crossed.

Answer: (D)

74. The environmental efforts are expressed in the words

(A) Zoning and pollution clearance

(B) Enhanced Revenue and inflated price

(C) Displeasure and Displacement

(D) Residence and Reserve

Answer: (A)

75. Who among the following saved Kumarakom ?

(A) Resort Developers

(B) Local Panchayat

(C) Farmers

(D) Locals

Answer: (B)

UGC NET Exam December 2014 Human Rights and Duties Paper-3 Question Paper With Answer Key

HUMAN RIGHTS & DUTIES

PAPER – III

Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. International Human Rights law emerged as a distinct field of international law only in the aftermath of the :

(A) First world war

(B) Second world war

(C) Cold war

(D) Vietnam war

Answer: (B)

2. Who said “Freedom is always the freedom of dissenters” ?

(A) J.S. Mill

(B) Rosa Luxemberg

(C) Karl Marx

(D) Gramsei

Answer: (B)

3. The Paris Principles adopted by the UN General Assembly in December 1993, are related to :

(A) International Human Rights Institutions

(B) National Human Rights Institutions

(C) International Military Tribunals

(D) International Non-governmental Organisations

Answer: (B)

4. Who said that religion is like opium to common man ?

(A) St. Thomas Aquinas

(B) Karl Marx

(C) Mao Tse Dong

(D) Hegel

Answer: (B)

5. A human rights based approach to development makes people

(A) active agents of decision making

(B) passive objects of choices made

(C) static recipients of governments policy decisions

(D) upwardly mobile citizens of a state

Answer: (A)

6. Which article is common to all four Geneva Conventions of 1949 relating to protection of victims of armed conflict ?

(A) Article 1

(B) Article 2

(C) Article 3

(D) Article 4

Answer: (C)

7. Which article of the Universal Declaration on the Human Genome and Human Rights 1997 says that “Human Genome in its natural state shall not give rise to financial gains” ?

(A) Article 3

(B) Article 4

(C) Article 6

(D) Article 8

Answer: (B)

8. Gender budgeting refers to :

(A) budget prepared by women

(B) budget prepared to advocate and crystallize gender specific roles

(C) budget prepared to highlight gender related statistics

(D) budget prepared to accomplish gender equality and gender based human development.

Answer: (D)

9. “Everyone has duties to the community in which alone the free and full development of his personality is possible.” This statement is taken from which article of UDHR ?

(A) Article 28

(B) Article 29

(C) Article 30

(D) Article 31

Answer: (B)

10. Which one of the following provisions of the UDHR is not a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution ?

(A) Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person.

(B) No one shall be subjected to torture or cruel, in human or degrading treatment or punishment.

(C) Everyone has the right to recognise everywhere as a person before the law.

(D) Everyone has the right to own property alone as well as in association with others.

Answer: (D)

11. When the community development programme was launched ?

(A) January 26, 1950

(B) October 2, 1952

(C) August 15, 1952

(D) January 26, 1952

Answer: (B)

12. Convention for the protection of cultural property in the event of armed conflict was adopted at the Hague on 14 May 1954 by an international conference of states convened by :

(A) ICRC

(B) UNICEF

(C) UNESCO

(D) ECOSOC

Answer: (C)

13. The optional protocol to the international covenant on economic, social and cultural rights entered into force on :

(A) 5th May, 2013

(B) 6th May, 2013

(C) 5th May, 2014

(D) 6th May, 2014

Answer: (A)

14. Which provision of the ICCPR was used by the Human Rights Committee in support of progressive development towards the abolition of death penalty ?

(A) Article 1

(B) Article 4

(C) Article 6

(D) Article 8

Answer: (C)

15. India is not signatory to :

(A) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR)

(B) Optional Protocol to the ICCPR

(C) International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR)

(D) Convention on the Rights of the Child.

Answer: (B)

16. Which is not an additional reason for the grant of refugee status as per the OAU Convention governing the specific aspects of refugee problems in Africa ?

(A) External aggression

(B) Occupation

(C) Foreign Domination

(D) Systematic Violation of Human Rights

Answer: (D)

17. According to World Health Organization (WHO), how much of water per person per day is needed to ensure that the most basic needs are met and few health concerns arise ?

(A) Between 50 and 100 litres

(B) Between 100 and 150 litres

(C) Between 150 and 200 litres

(D) Between 200 and 250 litres

Answer: (A)

18. We have borrowed the directive principles of state policy from the constitution of

(A) U.S.A.

(B) U.K.

(C) U.S.S.R.

(D) Ireland

Answer: (D)

19. Which one of the following is a hybrid court ?

(A) International Criminal Tribunal for former Yugoslavia

(B) International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda

(C) International Criminal Court

(D) Special Court for Sierra Leone

Answer: (D)

20. The appeal chamber of the International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda is located in :

(A) Arusha

(B) Geneva

(C) Kigali

(D) The Hague

Answer: (D)

21. Which among the following neighboring countries of India is party to the Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court ?

(A) China

(B) Pakistan

(C) Nepal

(D) Bangladesh

Answer: (D)

22. Which article of the Declaration on the Right to Development adopted by the UN in 1986 states that states shall take resolute steps to eliminate human rights violations arising from apartheid and racial discrimination ?

(A) Article 2

(B) Article 3

(C) Article 4

(D) Article 5

Answer: (D)

23. In which of the following cases was the right to livelihood pronounced as an integral facet of right to life ?

(A) Minerva Mills v/s Union of India, AIR 1980 SC 1789

(B) Waman Rao v/s Union of India, AIR 1981 SC 271

(C) Keswanand Bharati v/s State of Kerala, AIR 1973 SC 1461

(D) Narendra Kumar v/s State of Haryana, JT (1994), 2 SC 94

Answer: (D)

24. Which article of the European Convention for Protection of Human Rights and Biomedicine, 1997 says that the use of techniques of medically assisted procreation shall not be allowed for the purpose of choosing a future child’s sex except where serious hereditary sex-related disease is to be avoided ?

(A) Article 10

(B) Article 11

(C) Article 12

(D) Article 14

Answer: (D)

25. According to Article 8 of the Statute of the ICTY it has jurisdiction over crimes that were committed in the territory of the former Yugoslavia before :

(A) 1st January 1989

(B) 1st January 1990

(C) 1st January 1991

(D) 1st January 1992

Answer: (C)

26. In which situation may the International Criminal Court not exercise its jurisdiction ?

(A) Referral of a case by a state party

(B) Referral of a case by the UN Security Council

(C) Prosecutor initiated case

(D) Referral of a case by a non-state party

Answer: (D)

27. Which one of the following crimes is not listed in elements of crimes against humanity under the ICTY statute ?

(A) Murder

(B) Extermination

(C) Enslavement

(D) Enforced disappearance of person

Answer: (D)

28. Motilal Nehru Committee Report of 1928 made important recommendations regarding

(A) Minorities

(B) Dravidians

(C) Scheduled tribes

(D) Hindus

Answer: (A)

29. The preventive detention regime in India is governed by :

(A) Article 21 of the Constitution.

(B) Article 22 of the Constitution.

(C) Article 23 of the Constitution.

(D) Article 24 of the Constitution.

Answer: (B)

30. Power of the Parliament to legislate for giving effect to international agreement is provided under which article of the Constitution of India ?

(A) Article 250

(B) Article 252

(C) Article 253

(D) Article 248

Answer: (C)

31. Which article of the Constitution is not directly related to the implementation of any international treaty/convention ?

(A) Article 21

(B) Article 51

(C) Article 73

(D) Article 253

Answer: (A)

32. Which one of the following is a constitutionally designated commission ?

(A) National Commission for Minorities

(B) National Commission for Scheduled Castes

(C) National Commission for Women

(D) National Human Rights Commission

Answer: (B)

33. In Aruna Shanbaug case, the Supreme Court allowed a form of euthanasia only after higher judiciary’s consideration of each prospective case :

(A) Involuntary active euthanasia

(B) Involuntary passive euthanasia

(C) Voluntary active euthanasia

(D) Voluntary passive euthanasia

Answer: (D)

34. Bio-ethics is a branch of knowledge concerned with

(A) ethical study of biology

(B) human rights approach to ethics of the body

(C) ethical and human rights approach to medical and scientific experiment

(D) ethical approach to promoting scientific temper

Answer: (C)

35. Which article has prohibited the employment of children under 14 years of age in factories, etc. ?

(A) Article 22

(B) Article 23

(C) Article 24

(D) Article 25

Answer: (C)

36. Arrange the following constitutional developments in sequence of their occurrence :

I. Sapru Committee Report

II. Nehru Committee Report

III. Montague – Chelmsford Reforms

IV. Minto – Marley Reforms

Codes :

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) IV, III, II, I

(C) II, I, IV, III

(D) III, II, I, IV

Answer: (B)

37. Arrange the following European Human Rights instruments chronologically :

I. European Convention on Human Rights

II. European Social Charter

III. European Charter for Regional or Minority Languages

IV. Framework Convention for the Protection of National Minorities

Codes :

(A) IV, III, II, I

(B) II, I, III, IV

(C) I, II, III, IV

(D) III, IV, II, I

Answer: (C)

38. Arrange the following Regional Human Rights instruments in the chronological order of their adoption :

I. American Convention on Human Rights

II. African Charter on Human and People’s Rights

III. Arab Charter on Human Rights

IV. European Convention on Human Rights

Codes :

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) II, III, IV, I

(C) III, II, I, IV

(D) IV, I, II, III

Answer: (D)

39. Arrange the following rights enshrined in the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights in order of sequence :

I. Rights of minorities

II. Right to life

III. Right to liberty and security of person

IV. Right to self-determination

Codes :

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) II, III, I, IV

(C) III, I, II, IV

(D) IV, II, III, I

Answer: (D)

40. Arrange the following crimes in sequence of their listing under the Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court :

I. Crime of aggression

II. Crime of Genocide

III. Crime against humanity

IV. War crimes

Codes :

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) II, III, IV, I

(C) III, I, II, IV

(D) IV, I, II, III

Answer: (B)

41. Arrange the names of the Chairpersons of the National Commission for Women in sequence of their term :

I. V. Mohini Giri

II. Poornima Advani

III. Jayanti Patnaik

IV. Mamta Sharma

Codes :

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) II, I, III, IV

(C) III, I, II, IV

(D) IV, I, II, III

Answer: (C)

42. Arrange the following instruments relating to regulation of armed conflicts in order of their adoption :

I. Optional Protocol on the Involvement of Children in Armed Conflict

II. Geneva Protocol on Asphyxiating or Poisonous Gases

III. Convention on Cluster Munitions

IV. Geneva Convention on the Wound, Sick and Shipwrecked of Armed Forces at Sea.

Codes :

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) IV, III, II, I

(C) III, IV, I, II

(D) II, IV, I, III

Answer: (D)

43. Arrange the following in Indian legislations relating to the rights of disabled people in chronological order :

I. The Persons Disabilities Act

II. The Rehabilitation Council of India Act

III. Mental Health Act

IV. The Juvenile Justice Act

Codes :

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) IV, III, II, I

(C) III, IV, II, I

(D) III, II, I, IV

Answer: (D)

44. Arrange the following revolutions in sequence of their occurrence :

I. French Revolution

II. Russian Revolution

III. American Revolution

IV. Iranian Revolution

Codes :

(A) III, I, II, IV

(B) IV, III, II, I

(C) II, I, IV, III

(D) I, II, III, IV

Answer: (A)

45. Arrange the following in the chronological order and choose the correct code :

I. The Charter of the United Nations

II. Declaration on the granting of independence to colonial countries and peoples

III. Declaration on the protection of all persons from torture and other cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment.

IV. Basic principles for treatment of prisoners

Codes :

(A) II, I, III, IV

(B) I, II, III, IV

(C) I, II, IV, III

(D) I, III, II, IV

Answer: (B)

46. Arrange the following according to the chronology and choose the correct answer :

I. European Social Charter

II. European convention on the legal status of children born out of wedlook

III. European convention on the legal status of migrant workers

IV. European agreement on transfer of responsibility for refugees

Codes :

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) I, II, IV, III

(C) I, III, II, IV

(D) I, IV, III, II

Answer: (A)

47. Arrange the following in the chronological order and choose the correct answer :

I. International convention on the suppression and punishment of the crime of apartheid.

II. International convention on the elimination of all forms of racial discrimination

III. International convention on the protection of the rights of all migrant workers and members of their families.

IV. International convention on the elimination of all forms of discrimination against woman.

Codes :

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) II, III, I, IV

(C) II, I, IV, III

(D) II, I, III, IV

Answer: (C)

From Question Numbers 48 to 60 match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer with the help of codes given :

Answer: (D)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

52.

Answer: (D)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (C)

Question Nos. 61 to 70 contain two statements each. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Examine whether the statements are correct and related to each other with the help of the codes given below :

61. Assertion (A) : Fundamental rights are justiciable but directive principles are not.

Reason (R) : Directive principles impose positive duties on state.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct and (R) is not correct.

(D) (A) is not correct and (R) is correct.

Answer: (B)

62. Assertion (A) : Accused persons shall, have in exceptional circumstances, be segregated from convicted persons and shall be subject to separate treatment appropriate to their status as unconvicted persons.

Reason (R) : A person is innocent unless proved guilty.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct and (R) is not correct.

(D) (A) is not correct and (R) is correct.

Answer: (A)

63. Assertion (A) : The universal declaration of human rights states a common understanding of the peoples of the world concerning the inalienable and inviolable rights of all members of the human family.

Reason (R) : Peace and Justice are the universal aspiration of mankind.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct and (R) is not correct.

(D) (A) is not correct and (R) is correct.

Answer: (B)

64. Assertion (A) : All states shall take effective measures to prevent and eliminate discrimination on the grounds of religion or belief in the recognition, exercise and enjoyment of human rights and fundamental freedoms in all fields of civil, economic, political, social and cultural life.

Reason (R) : One of the basic principles of the UN Charter is that of dignity and equality inherent in all human beings.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct and (R) is not correct.

(D) (A) is not correct and (R) is correct.

Answer: (A)

65. Assertion (A) : Everyone has the right to leave any country, including his own and to return to his country, everyone has the right to seek and enjoy in other countries asylum from prosecution.

Reason (R) : Right to movement is one of the important human rights.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct and (R) is not correct.

(D) (A) is not correct and (R) is correct.

Answer: (B)

66. Assertion (A) : Workers and employers, without distinction what so ever, shall have the right to establish and subject only to the rules of the organisation concerned, to join organisations of their own choosing without previous authorisation.

Reason (R) : Workers and employers have common interests.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct and (R) is not correct.

(D) (A) is not correct and (R) is correct.

Answer: (C)

67. Assertion (A) : Article 4 of the declaration on the right to development proclaims that states have the duty to take steps individually and collectively, to formulate international development policies with a view to facilitating to the full realization
of the right to development.

Reason (R) : The right to development is an inalienable human right.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct and (R) is not correct.

(D) (A) is not correct and (R) is correct.

Answer: (A)

68. Assertion (A) : If death is in a patient’s best interest then death constitutes a moral good.

Reason (R) : Euthanasia, or the right to die with dignity, is a legal right in the Netherlands and Belgium.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(D) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

Answer: (B)

69. Assertion (A) : Although women constitute two-thirds of the refugee population world over, the 1951 refugee convention is gender-blind.

Reason (R) : Women enjoy freedom of movement in all continents of the world.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(D) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

Answer: (B)

70. Assertion (A) : “Human development, if not engendered, is endangered.”

Reason (R) : Participation and empowerment of women in national budget has progressively improved in India.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(D) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

Answer: (A)

Read the passage given below and answer the questions from 71 to 75 that follow, based on your understanding of the passage :

 The complex interface of class, caste and gender is rooted in the way capitalism had grown in India.

 Indian capitalism in the 50 years since Independence grew on the foundations of pockets of Green Revolution and stretches of poverty. This is the foundation for the prevailing structures of deprivation and inequalities. Hence the bulk of the poor are not only landless, poor peasants and unorganized workers, but also are from the scheduled castes, backward classes and scheduled tribes and among the poor households women suffer more and in general women suffer more from poverty. Thus understanding of poverty is incomplete without seeing the interface of caste, class and gender.

 The most significant source of power is no doubt related to class or with the control over means of production such as land and industry. But social history had created patterns of relationship based on certain values and beliefs rooted in social conditions. Caste order and patriarchy embodied values and beliefs operating in the social structure. To treat them purely as ideologies which can be transformed with a change in consciousness is to ignore their social roots. The distinction among castes was also related to division of labour and its justification in ideological and cultural terms. The lower castes (shudras) engaged in manual labour on land and the outcastes (atishudras) performed manual labour which was considered to be of a degrading kind. The upper castes performed activities – intellectual (Brahman), administrative (Kshatriya) and trade related (vaishya) ; all three castes had control over means of production. Thus caste and class were interconnected throughout history. The distinction between them, however, lay in the fact that the ideology of karma provided a justification for the caste order. It was said that those who committed sins in the previous birth were born in the lower castes. On the other hand, mode of production defined a class in terms of its control or lack of control over means of production. The actual social practice related the two.

 Gender too is related to class and caste. Division of labour between men and women evolved in course of history. Alongwith power relations men performed crucial roles in the production system and acquired greater power in the society over centuries of evolution of class and caste society. The status of women as a dependent section on men, they performing mainly household work and producing children and nurturing them was the outcome of a long period of feudal and capitalist social history. Religious and caste ideology reinforced the evolution of this trend. The practice among shudras and the so-called outcastes and tribals already had relatively high degree of equality between men and women. Both participated in productive manual labour
in agriculture and forest economy. Hence the caste order was discriminatory towards women more among the upper and middle castes than among the lower castes. Like racism caste too was a system of social hierarchy and was therefore a target of politics of transformation.

71. The study of interface of class, caste and gender is essential to :

(A) the growth of capitalism in India

(B) the process of policy analysis

(C) the understanding of poverty in India

(D) promote rights based approach and political analysis

Answer: (C)

72. Among the categories of caste, class and gender, which is a significant source of power ?

(A) Caste, because it is based on division of labour and social hierarchy

(B) Class, because of its control over means of production

(C) Gender, because of its control over reproduction

(D) Caste and class, because they combine justification in ideological and cultural terms.

Answer: (B)

73. The prevailing structures of deprivation and inequalities in India are a result of :

(A) inadequate participation of women in agriculture and industry.

(B) intermingling of caste and class

(C) rigid social hierarchy based on division of labour

(D) the lopsided growth of capitalism in India

Answer: (D)

74. Ascendancy of patriarchy in terms of power is because :

(A) women were physically weak.

(B) women were focusing on producing children.

(C) men performed crucial roles in the production system.

(D) men were physically aggressive.

Answer: (C)

75. Discrimination and inequality based on gender is caste specific. It is more evident among :

(A) the rich capitalist classes

(B) the tribal communities

(C) the outcastes and lower castes

(D) the upper and middle castes

Answer: (D)

UGC NET Exam July 2018 Computer Science & Application Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS

PAPER – II

Note : This paper contains hundred (100) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. The definitions in an XML document are said to be __________ when the tagging system and definitions in the DTD are all in compliance.

(1) well-formed

(2) reasonable

(3) valid

(4) logical

Answer: (3)

2. Consider the JavaScript Code :

If M is the number of alert dialog boxes generated by this JavaScript code and D1, D2, …., Drepresents the content displayed in each of the M dialog boxes, then :

(1) M=3; D1 displays ”12”; D2 displays ”6”; D3 displays ”12”.

(2) M=3; D1 displays ”6”; D2 displays ”12”; D3 displays ”6”.

(3) M=2; D1 displays ”6”; D2 displays ”12”.

(4) M=2; D1 displays ”12”; D2 displays ”6”.

Answer: (4)

3. What is the output of the following JAVA program ?

(1) 12 : 15

(2) 15 : 12

(3) 12 : 12

(4) 15 : 15

Answer: (4)

4. What is the output of the following ‘C’ program ? (Assuming little – endian representation of multi-byte data in which Least Significant Byte (LSB) is stored at the lowest memory address.)

(1) 5, 2, 1282

(2) 5, 2, 52

(3) 5, 2, 25

(4) 5, 2, 517

Answer: (4)

5. Given below are three implementations of the swap( ) function in C++ :

Which of these would actually swap the contents of the two integer variables p and q ?

(1) (a) only

(2) (b) only

(3) (c) only

(4) (b) and (c) only

Answer: (2)

6. In Java, which of the following statements is/are True ?

S1 : The ‘final’ keyword applied to a class definition prevents the class from being extended through derivation.

S2 : A class can only inherit one class but can implement multiple interfaces. 

S3 : Java permits a class to replace the implementation of a method that it has inherited. It is called method overloading.

Code :

(1) S1 and S2 only

(2) S1 and S3 only

(3) S2 and S3 only

(4) All of S1, S2 and S3

Answer: (1)

7. Which of the following statements is/are True ?

P : C programming language has a weak type system with static types.

Q : Java programming language has a strong type system with static types.

Code :

(1) P only

(2) Q only

(3) Both P and Q

(4) Neither P nor Q

Answer: (3)

8. A graphic display system has a frame buffer that is 640 pixels wide, 480 pixels high and 1 bit of color depth. If the access time for each pixel on the average is 200 nanoseconds, then the refresh rate of this frame buffer is approximately :

(1) 16 frames per second

(2) 19 frames per second

(3) 21 frames per second

(4) 23 frames per second

Answer: (1)

9. Which of the following statements is/are True regarding the solution to the visibility problem in 3D graphics ?

S1 : The Painter’s algorithm sorts polygons by depth and then paints (scan – converts) each Polygon on to the screen starting with the most nearest polygon.

S2 : Backface Culling refers to eliminating geometry with backfacing normals.

Code :

(1) S1 only

(2) S2 only

(3) Both S1 and S2

(4) Neither S1 nor S2

Answer: (2)

10. Consider the matrix representing a set of planar (2D) geometric transformations in homogeneous coordinates. Which of the following statements about the matrix M is True ?

(1) M represents first, a scaling of vector (2, 1) followed by translation of vector (1, 1)

(2) M represents first, a translation of vector (1, 1) followed by scaling of vector (2, 1)

(3) M represents first, a scaling of vector (3, 1) followed by shearing of parameters (−1, 1)

(4) M represents first, a shearing of parameters (−1, 1) followed by scaling of vector (3, 1)

Answer: (2)

11. Assume the following regarding the development of a software system P :

– Estimated lines of code of P : 33, 480 LOC

– Average productivity for P : 620 LOC per person-month

– Number of software developers : 6

– Average salary of a software developer : Rs 50,000 per month

If E, D and C are the estimated development effort (in person-months), estimated development time (in months), and estimated development cost (in Rs Lac) respectively, then (E, D, C)=_________.

(1) (48, 8, 24)

(2) (54, 9, 27)

(3) (60, 10, 30)

(4) (42, 7, 21)

Answer: (2)

12. Match the following in Software Engineering :

Answer: (3)

13. Which one of the following is not typically provided by Source Code Management Software ?

(1) Synchronisation

(2) Versioning and Revision history

(3) Syntax highlighting

(4) Project forking

Answer: (3)

14. A software system crashed 20 times in the year 2017 and for each crash, it took 2 minutes to restart. Approximately, what was the software availability in that year ?

(1) 96.9924%

(2) 97.9924%

(3) 98.9924%

(4) 99.9924%

Answer: (4)

15. Match the 5 CMM Maturity levels/CMMI staged representations in List- I with their characterizations in List-II :

Answer: (4)

16. Coupling is a measure of the strength of the interconnections between software modules.

Which of the following are correct statements with respect to module coupling ?

P : Common coupling occurs when one module controls the flow of another module by passing it information on what to do.

Q : In data coupling, the complete data structure is passed from one module to another through parameters.

R : Stamp coupling occurs when modules share a composite data structure and use only parts of it.

Code :

(1) P and Q only

(2) P and R only

(3) Q and R only

(4) All of P, Q and R

Answer: (3)

17. A software design pattern often used to restrict access to an object is :

(1) adapter

(2) decorator

(3) delegation

(4) proxy

Answer: (4)

18. Reasons to re-engineer a software include :

P : Allow legacy software to quickly adapt to the changing requirements

Q : Upgrade to newer technologies/platforms/paradigm (for example, object-oriented)

R : Improve software maintainability

S : Allow change in the functionality and architecture of the software

Code :

(1) P, R and S only

(2) P and R only

(3) P, Q and S only

(4) P, Q and R only

Answer: (4)

19. Which of the following is not a key strategy followed by the clean room approach to software development ?

(1) Formal specification

(2) Dynamic verification

(3) Incremental development

(4) Statistical testing of the system

Answer: (2)

20. Which of the following statements is/are True ?

P : Refactoring is the process of changing a software system in such a way that it does not alter the external behavior of the code yet improves the internal architecture.

Q : An example of refactoring is adding new features to satisfy a customer requirement discovered after a project is shipped.

Code :

(1) P only

(2) Q only

(3) Both P and Q

(4) Neither P nor Q

Answer: (1)

21. The solution of the recurrence relation

T(m) = T( 3m 4) + 1 is :

(1) θ (lg m)

(2) θ (m)

(3) θ (mlg m)

(4) θ (lglg m)

Answer: (1)

22. Consider the array A=<4, 1, 3, 2, 16, 9, 10, 14, 8, 7>. After building heap from the array A, the depth of the heap and the right child of max-heap are _________ and _________ respectively. (Root is at level 0).

(1) 3, 14

(2) 3, 10

(3) 4, 14

(4) 4, 10

Answer: (2)

23. A hash function h defined h(key)=key mod 7, with linear probing, is used to insert the keys 44, 45, 79, 55, 91, 18, 63 into a table indexed from 0 to 6. What will be the location of key 18 ?

(1) 3

(2) 4

(3) 5

(4) 6

Answer: (3)

24. Which of the following algorithms solves the single-source shortest paths ?

(1) Prim’s algorithm

(2) Floyd – Warshall algorithm

(3) Johnson’s algorithm

(4) Dijkstra’s algorithm

Answer: (4)

25. A text is made up of the characters A, B, C, D, E each occurring with the probability 0.08, 0.40, 0.25, 0.15 and 0.12 respectively. The optimal coding technique will have the average length of :

(1) 2.4

(2) 1.87

(3) 3.0

(4) 2.15

Answer: (4)

26. A binary search tree in which every non-leaf node has non-empty left and right subtrees is called a strictly binary tree. Such a tree with 19 leaves :

(1) cannot have more than 37 nodes

(2) has exactly 37 nodes

(3) has exactly 35 nodes

(4) cannot have more than 35 nodes

Answer: (2)

27. Match the following with respect to algorithm paradigms :

Answer: (4)

28. The maximum number of comparisons needed to sort 9 items using radix sort is (assume each item is 5 digit octal number) :

(1) 45

(2) 72

(3) 360

(4) 450

Answer: (3)

29. A 5-ary tree is tree in which every internal node has exactly 5 children. The number of left nodes in such a tree with 8 internal nodes will be :

(1) 30

(2) 33

(3) 45

(4) 125

Answer: (All)

30. Consider a Boolean function of ‘n’ variables. The order of an algorithm that determines whether the Boolean function produces a output 1 is :

(1) Logarithmic

(2) Linear

(3) Quadratic

(4) Exponential

Answer: (4)

31. Two finite state machines are said to be equivalent if they :

(1) Have the same number of edges

(2) Have the same number of states

(3) Recognize the same set of tokens

(4) Have the same number of states and edges

Answer: (3)

32. The finite state machine given in figure below recognizes :

(1) any string of odd number of a’s

(2) any string of odd number of b’s

(3) any string of even number of a’s and odd number of b’s

(4) any string of odd number of a’s and odd number of b’s

Answer: (4)

33. A pushdown automata behaves like a Turing machine when the number of auxiliary memory is :

(1) 0

(2) 1

(3) 1 or more

(4) 2 or more

Answer: (4)

34. Pushdown automata can recognize language generated by_________.

(1) Only context free grammar

(2) Only regular grammar

(3) Context free grammar or regular grammar

(4) Only context sensitive grammar

Answer: (3)

35. To obtain a string of n Terminals from a given Chomsky normal form grammar, the number of productions to be used is :

(1) 2n−1

(2) 2n

(3) n+1

(4) n2

Answer: (1)

36. Consider the following two Grammars :

Which of the following option is correct ?

(1) Only G1 is ambiguous

(2) Only G2 is ambiguous

(3) Both G1 and G2 are ambiguous

(4) Both G1 and G2 are not ambiguous

Answer: (3)

37. Context sensitive language can be recognized by a :

(1) Finite state machine

(2) Deterministic finite automata

(3) Non-deterministic finite automata

(4) Linear bounded automata

Answer: (4)

38. The set A={ 0n 1n 2n | n=1, 2, 3, ……… } is an example of a grammar that is :

(1) Context sensitive

(2) Context free

(3) Regular

(4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

39. A bottom-up parser generates :

(1) Left-most derivation in reverse

(2) Right-most derivation in reverse

(3) Left-most derivation

(4) Right-most derivation

Answer: (2)

40. Consider the following statements( ) :

S1 : There exists no algorithm for deciding if any two Turing machines M1 and M2 accept the same language.

S2 : The problem of determining whether a Turing machine halts on any input is undecidable.

Which of the following options is correct ?

(1) Both S1 and S2 are correct

(2) Both S1 and S2 are not correct

(3) Only S1 is correct

(4) Only S2 is correct

Answer: (1)

41. A slotted ALOHA network transmits 200-bit frames using a shared channel with a 200 Kbps bandwidth. Find the throughput of the system, if the system (all stations put together) produces 250 frames per second :

(1) 49

(2) 368

(3) 149

(4) 151

Answer: (1)

42. The period of a signal is 100 ms. Its frequency is _________.

(1) 1003 Hertz

(2) 10−2 KHz

(3) 10−3 KHz

(4) 105 Hertz

Answer: (2)

43. The dotted-decimal notation of the following IPV4 address in binary notation is _________.

10000001 00001011 00001011 11101111

(1) 111.56.45.239

(2) 129.11.10.238

(3) 129.11.11.239

(4) 111.56.11.239

Answer: (3)

44. Which of the following statements are true ?

(a) Advanced Mobile Phone System (AMPS) is a second generation cellular phone system.

(b) IS – 95 is a second generation cellular phone system based on CDMA and DSSS.

(c) The Third generation cellular phone system will provide universal personnel communication.

Code :

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (b) and (c)

(4) (a) and (c) only

Answer: (2)

45. Match the following symmetric block ciphers with corresponding block and key sizes :

Answer: (2)

46. Which of the following statements are true ?

(a) Three broad categories of Networks are

 (i) Circuit Switched Networks

 (ii) Packet Switched Networks

 (iii) Message Switched Networks

(b) Circuit Switched Network resources need not be reserved during the set up phase.

(c) In packet switching there is no resource allocation for packets.

Code :

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (a) and (c) only

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (3)

47. In Challenge-Response authentication the claimant ________.

(1) Proves that she knows the secret without revealing it

(2) Proves that she doesn’t know the secret

(3) Reveals the secret

(4) Gives a challenge

Answer: (1)

48. Decrypt the message “WTAAD” using the Caesar Cipher with key=15.

(1) LIPPS

(2) HELLO

(3) OLLEH

(4) DAATW

Answer: (2)

49. To guarantee correction of upto t errors, the minimum Hamming distance dmin in a block code must be ________.

(1) t+1

(2) t−2

(3) 2t−1

(4) 2t+1

Answer: (4)

50. Encrypt the Message “HELLO MY DEARZ” using Transposition Cipher with

(1) HLLEO YM AEDRZ

(2) EHOLL ZYM RAED

(3) ELHL MDOY AZER

(4) ELHL DOMY ZAER

Answer: (3)

51. At a particular time of computation, the value of a counting semaphore is 10. Then 12 P operations and “x” V operations were performed on this semaphore. If the final value of semaphore is 7, x will be :

(1) 8

(2) 9

(3) 10

(4) 11

Answer: (2)

52. In a paged memory, the page hit ratio is 0.40. The time required to access a page in secondary memory is equal to 120 ns. The time required to access a page in primary memory is 15 ns. The average time required to access a page is ________.

(1) 105

(2) 68

(3) 75

(4) 78

Answer: (4)

53. In a multi-user operating system, 30 requests are made to use a particular resource per hour, on an average. The probability that no requests are made in 40 minutes, when arrival pattern is a poisson distribution, is _________.

(1) e−15

(2) 1−e−15

(3) 1−e−20

(4) e−20

Answer: (4)

54. Normally user programs are prevented from handling I/O directly by I/O instructions in them. For CPUs having explicit I/O instructions, such I/O protection is ensured by having the I/O instructions privileged. In a CPU with memory mapped I/O, there is no explicit I/O instruction. Which one of the following is true for a CPU with memory mapped I/O ?

(1) I/O protection is ensured by operating system routines.

(2) I/O protection is ensured by a hardware trap.

(3) I/O protection is ensured during system configuration.

(4) I/O protection is not possible.

Answer: (1)

55. Which UNIX/Linux command is used to make all files and sub-directories in the directory “progs” executable by all users ?

(1) chmod− R a+x progs

(2) chmod −R 222 progs

(3) chmod−X a+x progs

(4) chmod −X 222 progs

Answer: (1)

56. Which of the following statements are true ?

(a) External Fragmentation exists when there is enough total memory space to satisfy a request but the available space is contiguous.

(b) Memory Fragmentation can be internal as well as external.

(c) One solution to external Fragmentation is compaction.

Code :

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (a) and (c) only

(3) (b) and (c) only

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (3)

57. Page information in memory is also called as Page Table. The essential contents in each entry of a page table is/are _________.

(1) Page Access information

(2) Virtual Page number

(3) Page Frame number

(4) Both virtual page number and Page Frame Number

Answer: (3)

58. Consider a virtual page reference string 1, 2, 3, 2, 4, 2, 5, 2, 3, 4. Suppose LRU page replacement algorithm is implemented with 3 page frames in main memory. Then the number of page faults are_________.

(1) 5

(2) 7

(3) 9

(4) 10

Answer: (2)

59. Consider the following three processes with the arrival time and CPU burst time given in milliseconds :

Process      Arrival Time       Burst Time
P1 0                                7
P2 1                                4
P3 2                                8
The Gantt Chart for preemptive SJF scheduling algorithm is _________.

Answer: (2)

60. In which of the following scheduling criteria, context switching will never take place ?

(1) ROUND ROBIN

(2) Preemptive SJF

(3) Non-preemptive SJF

(4) Preemptive priority

Answer: (3)

61. In RDBMS, which type of Join returns all rows that satisfy the join condition ?

(1) Inner Join

(2) Outer Join

(3) Semi Join

(4) Anti Join

Answer: (1)

62. Consider a relation book (title, price) which contains the titles and prices of different books. Assuming that no two books have the same price, what does the following SQL query list ?

(1) Titles of the six most expensive books.

(2) Title of the sixth most expensive books.

(3) Titles of the seven most expensive books.

(4) Title of the seventh most expensive books.

Answer: (3)

63. In a Hierachical database, a hashing function is used to locate the ________.

(1) Collision

(2) Root

(3) Foreign Key

(4) Records

Answer: (2)

64. Relations produced from E – R Model will always be in ________.

(1) 1 NF

(2) 2 NF

(3) 3 NF

(4) 4 NF

Answer: (3)

65. Consider the following schedules involving two transactions.

Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to above ?

(1) Both S1 and S2 are conflict serializable.

(2) Both S1 and S2 are not conflict serializable.

(3) S1 is conflict serializable and S2 is not conflict serializable.

(4) S1 is not conflict serializable and S2 is conflict serializable.

Answer: (4)

UGC NET Exam July 2018 Forensic Science Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

FORENSIC SCIENCE

PAPER – II

Note : This paper contains hundred (100) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Expert witness :

(1) is nowhere defined in law.

(2) Legally defined U/S 45 IEA (Indian Evidence Act).

(3) Legally defined U/S 176 Cr PC (Criminal Procedure Code).

(4) Legally defined U/S 320 IPC (Indian Penal Code).

Answer: (2)

2. Match the following :

Answer: (4)

3. The Principle of exchange was authored by which of the following ?

(1) Hans Gross

(2) Sir Francis Galton

(3) Henry Faulds

(4) Edmond Locard

Answer: (4)

4. In photography, high ISO numbers are used in which of the following ?

(1) High lighting conditions

(2) Low lighting conditions

(3) Average lighting conditions

(4) Conditions where flash is used

Answer: (2)

5. The “Innocence Project” with the purpose to re-examine post-conviction cases and to provide conclusive proof of guilt or innocence was first carried out in a university located at :

(1) London

(2) New York

(3) Amsterdam

(4) Delhi

Answer: (2)

6. Which of the following explosives was first prepared for medicinal use in 1899 ?

(1) RDX

(2) PETN

(3) ANFO

(4) HMX

Answer: (1)

7. In which language “Tswett” has published his work on chromatography for the first time ?

(1) French

(2) German

(3) Russian

(4) Dutch

Answer: (3)

8. In which year Sir Robert Robinson was awarded Noble Prize in Chemistry “for his investigation on plant products of biological importance, especially the alkaloids” ?

(1) 1946

(2) 1947

(3) 1948

(4) 1949

Answer: (2)

9. Oath is administered to a witness before recording his statement. What purpose does it serve?

(1) It puts the witness under fear of God, so that he speaks the truth.

(2) It is merely a relic of the past which serves no useful purpose today.

(3) It is done mainly to satisfy the lawyer of the opposite party.

(4) It makes a witness liable to perjury if he does not speak truth.

Answer: (4)

10. The term ‘Eddy Diffusion’ is used in which of the following analytical techniques ?

(1) Microscopy

(2) Chromatography

(3) Spectrophotometry

(4) Differential Thermal Analysis

Answer: (2)

11. Write the correct sequence for the set up of a HPLC system :

(a) Solvent reservoir

(b) Recorder

(c) Pump

(d) Guard Column

(e) Detector

(f) Injector

(g) Analytical column

Code :

(1) (a), (f), (c), (g), (d), (b), (e)

(2) (c), (a), (f), (g), (d), (e), (b)

(3) (a), (c), (f), (g), (d), (e), (b)

(4) (a), (c), (f), (d), (g), (e), (b)

Answer: (4)

12. Thermal Conductivity Detector in Gas-Chromatography consists of __________ identical filaments.

(1) Two

(2) Four

(3) Six

(4) Eight

Answer: (2)

13. Assertion (A) : Derivatization prior to gas chromatography is often desirable.

Reason (R) : It improves the thermal stability of compounds, particularly those containing polar functional groups.

Code :

(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(3) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (2)

14. Dark current is associated with which of the following ?

(1) Photomultiplier tube

(2) Diffraction grating

(3) Atomizer

(4) Band pass filter

Answer: (1)

15. In FTIR spectrophotometer DTGS detector operates at __________.

(1) Ambient temperature

(2) Liquid Nitrogen temperature

(3) Liquid Oxygen temperature

(4) Liquid Hydrogen temperature

Answer: (1)

16. In Neutron Activation Analysis, Crompton scattering results in which of the following ?

(1) Interference with the resulting signal

(2) Increase in peak intensity

(3) Increase in signal to noise ratio

(4) High resolution

Answer: (1)

17. In electrophoresis, with the increase in applied voltage there is also increase in flow of current.

The increase in flow of current results in :

(a) More generation of heat.

(b) Increase in buffer viscosity.

(c) Fast movement of ions.

(d) Works best with thermally instable compounds.

Code :

(1) (a) and (b) are correct.

(2) (b) and (d) are correct.

(3) (a) and (c) are correct.

(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

Answer: (3)

18. Performing electrophoresis on agarose gel where two electric fields are applied alternately at different angles for a defined time period, such an electrophoretic technique is known as :

(1) Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis

(2) Capillary electrophoresis

(3) Two dimensional gel electrophoresis

(4) Gradient gel electrophoresis

Answer: (1)

19. Many forensic scientists keep a hand magnifier with them for preliminary examination of some exhibits, such as tattooing around a gun-shot hole in clothes. In connection with hand magnifier, which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) The object is within ‘F’ of the lens and it forms large virtual image.

(2) The object lies between ‘F’ and ‘2F’ and real image is formed at a distance greater than ‘2F’.

(3) The object is at ‘2F’ and the image is also formed at ‘2F’.

(4) The object is beyond ‘2F’ and the image is formed between ‘F’ and ‘2F’.

Where ‘F’ stands for focal length of the hand magnifier.

Answer: (All)

20. Polarising microscope has been used to study which of the following ?

(1) Density of soil particles

(2) Texture of soil particles

(3) Presence of humus in soil

(4) Presence of some minerals in soil

Answer: (4)

21. Which of the following reagents are used for precipitating DNA ?

(1) Ethanol

(2) Methanol

(3) Chloroform

(4) Phenol

Answer: (1)

22. STR DNA analysis can help in determining which of the following ?

(1) Age of an individual

(2) Race of an individual

(3) Sex of an individual

(4) Height of an individual

Answer: (3)

23. Assertion (A) : In cases of mass disaster involving very high temperature incidents, teeth is considered most suitable material for DNA analysis.

Reason (R) : Cellular material present in the pulp cavity may remain unaffected by the extreme conditions.

Code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(3) (A) is correct but not (R).

(4) (R) is correct but not (A).

Answer: (2)

24. Which of the following is correct about the DNA finger print pattern of a child ?

(1) It is exactly similar to the DNA finger print pattern of both the parents.

(2) 50% bands of DNA finger print pattern of the child will be similar to mother and rest similar to father.

(3) 100% similar to the father’s DNA finger print pattern.

(4) 100% similar to the mother’s DNA finger print pattern.

Answer: (2)

25. Which of the following techniques is used in DNA finger printing ?

(1) Northern Blotting

(2) Western Blotting

(3) Flow Cytometry

(4) Southern Blotting

Answer: (4)

26. Which of the following methods is used to locate specific gene in chromosomes ?

(1) In situ hybridization

(2) Colony hybridization

(3) Dot blot technique

(4) Western Blotting

Answer: (1)

27. Which of the following may be categorised as immunogens ?

(a) Hapten S

(b) Antigen A

(c) Anti Rh

(d) Antigen B

Code :

(1) (a), (c) and (d) are correct.

(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

(3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct.

(4) (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

Answer: (3)

28. Which of the following test is used to determine the blood group from a blood stain ?

(1) Haemin crystal test

(2) Kastle-Meyer test

(3) Lattes crust method

(4) Luminol spray test

Answer: (3)

29. The restriction enzymes were discovered by which of the following scientists ?

(1) Watson and Crick

(2) Boyer and Cohen

(3) Nathan, Arber and Smith

(4) Jacob and Monad

Answer: (3)

30. Which of the following can distinguish human salivary amylase and human pancreatic amylase ?

(1) Starch-iodine assay

(2) Phadebas assay

(3) RNA based assay

(4) Use of anti human salivary amylase antibodies

Answer: (3)

31. Cyanide derived from antimortem toxic exposure may be lost rapidly with advanced decomposition of the body. Still in which of the undermentioned organ toxicologically significant levels of cyanide may be found ?

(1) Heart

(2) Kidney

(3) Spleen

(4) Lungs

Answer: (3)

32. N-demethylation of cocaine gives which of the following metabolite ?

(1) Ecgonine methyl ester

(2) Benzoyl ecgonine

(3) Cocaethylene

(4) Norcocaine

Answer: (4)

33. Match the THC content in cannabis plant parts :

Answer: (1)

34. Which of the following drugs of abuse is over 100 times as potent as morphine ?

(1) Fentanyl

(2) Psilocybin

(3) Mescaline

(4) Mandrex

Answer: (1)

35. Pristane and Phythane are present only in which of the following ?

(1) Gasoline

(2) Heavy petroleum distillate

(3) Light petroleum distillate

(4) Medium petroleum distillate

Answer: (2)

36. Heneicosane is a characteristic component of which of the following ?

(1) Kerosene

(2) Diesel

(3) Petrol

(4) Aviation Fuel

Answer: (2)

37. Denarcotized opium is prepared by treating opium with which of the following ?

(1) Petroleum ether

(2) Chloroform

(3) Benzene

(4) Acetone

Answer: (1)

38. After smoking of the opium the left out residue is known as __________.

(1) Raw opium

(2) Opium Dross

(3) Prepared opium

(4) Deodorized opium

Answer: (2)

39. Toddy is manufactured from which of the following ?

(1) Rice

(2) Palm

(3) Wheat

(4) Molasses

Answer: (2)

40. Pyknometer method is used to estimate which of the following property of alcoholic beverage?

(1) Ethyl alcohol content

(2) Total acidity

(3) Volatile acidity

(4) Higher alcohol content

Answer: (1)

41. For the extraction of metallic poison from viscera dry ashing method is not recommended for which of the undermentioned element ?

(1) Copper

(2) Mercury

(3) Lead

(4) Cadmium

Answer: (2)

42. Name the colour test in which the reagent is made up of Selenous acid :

(1) Mecke’s test

(2) Marqui’s Test

(3) Van-Urk’s Test

(4) Chen’s Test

Answer: (1)

43. Which of the following is correctly matched ?

Answer: (1)

44. Parathion is metabolised to which of the following ?

(1) p-nitrophenol and diethyl phosphate

(2) o-nitrophenol and ethyl phosphate

(3) o-nitrophenol and methyl phosphate

(4) m-nitrophenol and dimethyl phosphate

Answer: (1)

45. Blackening around gun-shot holes is clothes, means :

(1) Deposit of smoke

(2) Deposit of lead vapours

(3) Deposit of black powder

(4) Lead ring / Dirt ring around the hole

Answer: (All)

46. Assertion (A) : The firing – pin marks found on a fired cartridge case by a hammerless shotgun are both impressed and striated.

Reason (R) : In a hammerless shotgun, the hammers are hidden from view and move to cocked position when the breech end of the barrel is moved upward for re-loading.

In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(3) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Answer: (4)

47. Florence test for the detection of seminal stains depends on the formation of :

(1) Choline iodide

(2) Hematin

(3) Seminal vesicle specific antigen

(4) Creatine phospho kinase

Answer: (1)

48. Regarding Gustafson’s method :

(a) It can be used to estimate age in both living and dead.

(b) It can be used to estimate age only in living.

(c) One of the criterias are secondary dentin formation.

(d) Single most reliable criteria is root transparency.

Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

(2) (a) and (c) are correct.

(3) (c) and (d) are correct.

(4) (a) and (b) are correct.

Answer: (3)

49. Stack’s method is used for :

(1) determination of age from size and weight of teeth.

(2) determination of sex from size and weight of teeth.

(3) Corroborating the age estimated by Gustafson’s method.

(4) determination of age from long bones.

Answer: (1)

50. Outermost layer of hair is known as :

(1) Medulla

(2) Cortex

(3) Cuticle

(4) Pigment layer

Answer: (3)

51. Consider the following statements regarding Coir :

(a) Comes from husk of coconut.

(b) Dark brown or opaque.

(c) Chemical tests for lignin are negative.

(d) Very light and elastic fibre.

Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

(2) (a) and (c) are correct.

(3) (c) and (d) are correct.

(4) (a) and (b) are correct.

Answer: (4)

52. Assertion (A) : Urine stains can be detected by radio immuno assay.

Reason (R) : Urine contains a high molecular weight glycoprotein Tamm – Horsfall Protein (THP).

In the context of two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(3) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (2)

53. Which type of finger print pattern among the following pattern types is found to be the most common ?

(1) Tented arch

(2) Central pocket loop

(3) Twinned Loop

(4) Whorl

Answer: (4)

54. Assertion (A) : Evidence with individual characteristics can lead to the determination of common origin/single source.

Reason (R) : Sufficient number of individual characteristics common in questioned and standard writings leads to the opinion of common origin.

Code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(3) (A) is correct, but not the (R).

(4) (R) is correct, but not the (A).

Answer: (1)

55. Z comes home unexpectedly and sees his wife in bed with Y. He becomes enraged and kills Y with a scissors, which he finds on the table nearby. Which of the following crimes Z has commited ?

(1) Death by rash and negligent act.

(2) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder.

(3) Culpable homicide amounting to murder.

(4) Voluntary causing of grievous hurt.

Answer: (2)

56. Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) at autopsy may be removed by :

(a) Lumbar Puncture

(b) Withdrawing fluid from cisterna magna

(c) Puncturing the lateral ventricles directly

(d) Passing a plastic catheter in the brain through the nose.

Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

(2) (a) and (c) are correct.

(3) (c) and (d) are correct.

(4) (a) and (b) are correct.

Answer: (1)

57. Which of the following chemical treatment results in white appearance of latent finger prints ?

(1) Iodine fuming

(2) Super glue fuming

(3) Ninhydrin treatment

(4) Crystal violet treatment

Answer: (2)

58. ‘Sear’ is a part of which of the following ?

(1) Lock of firearm

(2) Barrel of firearm

(3) Stock of firearm

(4) Ammunition

Answer: (1)

59. The muzzle-velocity of bullet fired from AK-47 Assault rifle is :

(1) Less than 2000 ft/sec.

(2) More than 3000 ft/sec .

(3) Lies between 2500 and 3000 ft/sec.

(4) Lies between 2250 and 2500 ft/sec.

Answer: (4)

60. Consider following statements about hanging :

(a) Masochistic hanging is a form of suicidal hanging.

(b) Lynching is a form of accidental hanging.

(c) Suicidal hanging is the commonest mode of hanging.

(d) Another name for sexual hanging is Kotzwarrism.

Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

(2) (a) and (c) are correct.

(3) (c) and (d) are correct.

(4) (a) and (b) are correct.

Answer: (3)

61. Consider following statements regarding cause of death in hanging :

(a) Asphyxia is the main cause of death in complete hanging.

(b) Occlusion of neck blood vessels is the main cause in incomplete hanging.

(c) Reflex vagal inhibition theory is no more considered a common cause of death in hanging.

(d) Commonest cause of death in hanging is combined asphyxia and venous congestion.

Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

(2) (a) and (c) are correct.

(3) (c) and (d) are correct.

(4) (a) and (b) are correct.

Answer: (1)

UGC NET Exam July 2018 Social Medicine & Community Health Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

SOCIAL MEDICINE AND COMMUNITY HEALTH

PAPER – II

Note : This paper contains hundred (100) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Exposure to noise above which of the following dB levels causes permanent hearing loss as it may rupture the tympanic membrane :

(1) Over 60 dB

(2) Over 90 dB

(3) Over 100 dB

(4) Over 160 dB

Answer: (4)

2. As per ICRP recommendation the radiation dose to the whole population from all sources additional to the natural background should not exceed :

(1) 3 rems over a period of 10 years

(2) 5 rems over a period of 20 years

(3) 3 rems over a period of 30 years

(4) 5 rems over a period of 30 years

Answer: (4)

3. Corrected effective temperature in which a person feels pleasant and cool is : 

(1) 20°C

(2) 23°C

(3) 26°C

(4) 28°C

Answer: (1)

4. The number of Community Health Centres (CHCs) in the country as on 31/3/17 were :

(1) 4000 – 5000

(2) 5000 – 6000

(3) 6000 – 7000

(4) 7000 – 8000

Answer: (2)

5. The number of sub-centres without both ANMs and Health Workers-Male as on 31 March 2017 in the country are :

(1) 1000 – 3000

(2) 3000 – 5000

(3) 5000 – 7000

(4) 7000 – 9000

Answer: (2)

6. According to WHO 2012 if

Fasting Plasma Glucose is <126 mg/100 ml and 2 hours plasma glucose after ingestion of 75 gm oral glucose load is 140 mg/100 ml to 200 mg/100 ml the diagnosis is :

(1) Diabetes

(2) Impaired Glucose Tolerance

(3) Impaired Fasting Glucose

(4) Normal

Answer: (2)

7. Body mass index (Quetelet’s index) is :

(1) 

(2) 

(3) 

(4) 

Answer: (1)

8. The term ‘Hidden Hunger’ refers to :

(1) Hunger amongst tribal communities

(2) Hunger amongst war torn area residents

(3) Micronutrient deficiency

(4) Severe malnutrition in young children

Answer: (3)

9. Which of the following is correct about type A sub-centre ?

(1) Facilities for conducting deliveries are there in the centre

(2) There is good connectivity with the catchment areas

(3) Case load of deliveries is high > 20 deliveries/month

(4) The ANMs at the centre should mandatorily be Skilled Birth Attendants (SBAs) trained

Answer: (4)

10. In standard normal curve mean ±2 SD covers % of curve :

(1) 50%

(2) 75%

(3) 95%

(4) 99%

Answer: (3)

11. Registration of pregnancy within 12 weeks is primary responsibility of :

(1) ASHA worker

(2) Gram sevika

(3) ANM

(4) AWW

Answer: (3)

12. No. of chromosomes in normal human Karyotype is :

(1) 40

(2) 45

(3) 46

(4) 50

Answer: (3)

13. Jaggery is rich in :

(1) Folic acid

(2) Vit. C

(3) Iron

(4) Calcium

Answer: (3)

14. Which of the following is not a phase in family cycle ?

(1) Formation

(2) Extension

(3) Maturation

(4) Contraction

Answer: (3)

15. Human development index value ranges between :

(1) 0 to 100

(2) 0 to 10

(3) 0 to 1

(4) 0 to 0.5

Answer: (3)

16. Under the National Programme, NCD clinic is established at :

(1) Anganwadi

(2) Sub-centre

(3) PHC

(4) CHC

Answer: (4)

17. Which of the following is dead end infection ?

(1) Rubella

(2) Tetanus

(3) TB

(4) Typhoid

Answer: (2)

18. The Hindu god of medicine is :

(1) Atreya

(2) Charaka

(3) Dhanvantari

(4) Vaghbhatt

Answer: (3)

19. Kyasanur forest disease is transmitted by :

(1) House fly

(2) Sand fly

(3) Hard tick

(4) Soft tick

Answer: (3)

20. MTP act allows aboration upto :

(1) 10 weeks

(2) 12 weeks

(3) 16 weeks

(4) 20 weeks

Answer: (4)

21. Which of the following is true for Live Vaccines ?

(a) Live vaccines are generally more potent than killed vaccines.

(b) Live vaccines have all major antigenic components but may lack in minor antigenic components.

(c) Live vaccines should not be administered to persons with immune deficiency diseases.

(d) All live vaccines require regular administration of booster doses.

Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

(2) (a), (c) and (d) are correct

(3) (a) and (d) are correct

(4) (a) and (c) are correct

Answer: (4)

22. Which of the following epidemiological features are true about AIDS ?

(a) HIV can be transmitted by mosquito bites.

(b) Maternofetal transmission is the most common mode of transmission.

(c) I.V. drug users are at increased risk.

(d) Health-care workers are at higher risk of getting infection.

Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(3) (c) and (d) are correct

(4) (b) and (c) are correct

Answer: (3)

23. Which of the following characteristics are present in mentally healthy persons ?

(a) Able to like and trust others

(b) Able to meet the demands of life

(c) Unable to accept his short-comings

(d) Has self respect

Code :

(1) (a) and (b) are correct

(2) (a) and (d) are correct

(3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

(4) (a), (c) and (d) are correct

Answer: (3)

24. Which of the following statements correctly describe a ‘mob’ ?

(a) A crowd with a leader

(b) It is stable

(c) Lacks internal organization

(d) Has a symbol like a flag

Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(2) (a), (c) and (d) are correct

(3) (b) and (c) are correct

(4) (b) and (d) are correct

Answer: (2

)

25. Vector indices used for malaria are :

(a) Human blood index

(b) Breteau index

(c) Inoculation rate

(d) Chandler’s index

Code :

(1) (a) and (c) are correct

(2) (b) and (d) are correct

(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(4) (c) and (d) are correct

Answer: (1)

26. Indications of platelet transfusion in a case of dengue haemorrhagic fever are :

(a) Platelets lesser than 40,000/cmm

(b) Prolonged shock with coagulopathy

(c) Hematocrit rise more than 10%

(d) Systemic massive bleeding

Code :

(1) (a) and (c) are correct

(2) (b) and (d) are correct

(3) (a), (c) and (d) are correct

(4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

Answer: (2)

27. Vital events include :

(a) Marriage

(b) Adoption

(c) Divorce

(d) Major Surgical Operation

Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(2) (a) and (c) are correct

(3) (b) and (d) are correct

(4) (a) and (b) are correct

Answer: (1)

28. Measures of dispersion include :

(a) Mean deviation

(b) Standard deviation

(c) Range

(d) Sampling error

Code :

(1) (a) and (b) are correct

(2) (b) and (d) are correct

(3) (a) and (c) are correct

(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

Answer: (4)

29. In public health practice the variables in which the data is displayed are :

(a) Discrete variable

(b) Absolute variable

(c) Continuous variable

(d) Positive variable

Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) correct

(2) (a) and (c) correct

(3) (c) and (d) correct

(4) (a) and (b) correct

Answer: (2)

30. Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite index combining the following indicators :

(a) Life expectancy at birth

(b) Infant mortality rate

(c) GNI per capita in Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) in US dollars

(d) Mean years of schooling

Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(2) (b), (c) and (d) are correct

(3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

(4) (a), (c) and (d) are correct

Answer: (4)

31. What is true about SARS ?

(a) Incubation period is commonly 3 – 5 days.

(b) Effective vaccine as 82% protective efficacy.

(c) Ribavirin has been shown to have no activity against the virus in vitro.

(d) Case fatality rate is ninety percent.

Code :

(1) (a) and (c) correct

(2) (a), (b) and (c) correct

(3) (b) and (d) correct

(4) (a), (c) and (d) correct

Answer: (1)

32. Sampling errors could be due to :

(a) Inter-observer variations

(b) Subject specific variations (natural variability)

(c) Inadequate sample size

(d) High refusal rate

Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(2) (b) and (c) are correct

(3) (c) and (d) are correct

(4) (a) and (b) are correct

Answer: (2)

33. Which of the following are true about ‘Janani Suraksha Yojana’ ?

(a) The objective of the scheme is to reduce maternal and infant mortality through encouraging institutional deliveries.

(b) It is only for women below poverty line. 

(c) ASHA would be responsible for making available institutional antenatal as well as post-natal care.

(d) All deliveries in low performing states conducted by the trained birth attendants at home are entitled to cash assistance of ` 1500.

Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) correct

(2) (a) and (c) correct

(3) (c) and (d) correct

(4) (a), (b) and (d) correct

Answer: (2)

34. Primordial prevention is/includes :

(a) Primary prevention in purest sense.

(b) Prevention after risk factors have developed in population.

(c) Efforts directed towards encouraging children from adopting harmful lifestyles.

(d) Main intervention through individual and mass education.

Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(2) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

(3) (a), (c) and (d) are correct

(4) (b), (c) and (d) are correct

Answer: (All)

35. Models of Health Education include :

(a) Regulatory

(b) Primary Health Care

(c) Medical Model

(d) Social Intervention

Code :

(1) (a) and (c) are correct

(2) (b) and (c) are correct

(3) (c) and (d) are correct

(4) (b) and (d) are correct

Answer: (3)

36. Which of the following statements are true about mission Indradhanush ?

(a) It was launched by Govt of India on 25th December 2014.

(b) The goal is to vaccinate all under fives by the year 2020.

(c) 201 high focus districts will be covered in the first phase.

(d) No special vaccination campaigns will be conducted under the programme.

Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) correct

(2) (a) and (c) correct

(3) (c) and (d) correct

(4) (a) and (b) correct

Answer: (1)

37. The following are the dimensions of health which have been suggested/considered (ICSSR and ICMR 1981) :

(a) Education dimension

(b) Creative dimension

(c) Cultural dimension

(d) Anxious dimension

Code :

(1) (a) and (b) are correct

(2) (a) and (c) are correct

(3) (b) and (c) are correct

(4) (c) and (d) are correct

Answer: (2)

38. Table describes screening test results by diagnosis for a disease :

(a) Sensitivity of test is 40%

(b) Specificity of test is 60%

(c) Positive predictive value is 80%

(d) Negative predictive value is 90%

Code :

(1) (a) and (c) are correct

(2) (b) and (d) are correct

(3) (a) and (b) are correct

(4) (c) and (d) are correct

Answer: (2)

39. Table describes screening test results by diagnosis for a disease :

(a) Sensitivity of test is 80%

(b) Specificity of test is 90%

(c) Positive predictive value is 40%

(d) Negative predictive value is 60%

Code :

(1) (a) and (b) are correct

(2) (a) and (c) are correct

(3) (b) and (c) are correct

(4) (c) and (d) are correct

Answer: (2)

40. Following statements regarding newborn with an HBV positive mother are correct :

(a) Risk of transmission to newborn is 20% in HBe Ag negative mother.

(b) Risk of transmission to newborn is 20% in HBe Ag positive mother.

(c) Breast feeding is contraindicated.

(d) 50% severe cases of infantile hepatitis are result of untreated Pre-natal transmission.

Code :

(1) (a) and (c) are correct

(2) (b) and (d) are correct

(3) (a) and (d) are correct

(4) (b) and (c) are correct

Answer: (3)

41. Arrange in increasing order of no. of eggs produced by a female worm in human. 

(a) A. Duodenale

(b) Whipworm

(c) Ascaris lumbricoides

(d) N. Americanus

Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) are correct

(2) (c), (d), (a), (b) are correct

(3) (b), (d), (a), (c) are correct

(4) (d), (a), (b), (c) are correct

Answer: (3)

42. Arrange new infectious diseases recognised in last five decades in chronological order of their recognition :

(a) H1 N1

(b) H5 N1

(c) Hepatitis-C virus

(d) H. Pylori

Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) are correct

(2) (b), (c), (d), (a) are correct

(3) (c), (d), (b), (a) are correct

(4) (d), (c), (b), (a) are correct

Answer: (4)

43. Pick up the correct chronological order for Health Committees given below :

(a) Mudaliar Committee

(b) Bhore Committee

(c) Mukerji Committee

(d) Kartar Singh Committee

Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) are correct

(2) (b), (a), (c), (d) are correct

(3) (a), (b), (d), (c) are correct

(4) (a), (c), (b), (d) are correct

Answer: (2)

44. Arrange the diseases according to implementation of national programmes for their control in India in chronological order :

(a) Trachoma

(b) Malaria

(c) Filaria

(d) Guinea Worm

Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) are correct

(2) (b), (c), (a), (d) are correct

(3) (d), (b), (a), (c) are correct

(4) (b), (d), (a), (c) are correct

Answer: (2)

45. Arrange the following activities according to increasing energy expenditure (kcal/hour) :

(a) Cleaning/mopping

(b) Walking

(c) Watching TV

(d) Gardening

Code :

(1) (c), (a), (b), (d) are correct

(2) (c), (d), (a), (b) are correct

(3) (c), (b), (a), (d) are correct

(4) (d), (c), (a), (b) are correct

Answer: (3)

46. Arrange the countries with increasing infant mortality rates :

(a) Sri Lanka

(b) Bangladesh

(c) Afghanistan

(d) Sweden

Code :

(1) (d), (a), (c), (b) are correct

(2) (a), (d), (b), (c) are correct

(3) (a), (d), (c), (b) are correct

(4) (d), (a), (b), (c) are correct

Answer: (4)

47. Arrange the National Policies according to year of announcement :

(a) National Child Policy

(b) National Policy for older persons

(c) National Health Policy

(d) National Population Policy

Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) are correct

(2) (a), (c), (d), (b) are correct

(3) (a), (b), (d), (c) are correct

(4) (c), (d), (a), (b) are correct

Answer: (All)

48. Arrange the following World Health Day themes in descending order of the year they pertain to :

(a) Antimicrobial resistance : “no action today, no cure tomorrow”

(b) 1000 cities, 1000 lives

(c) Save lives. “Make hospitals safe in emergencies”

(d) Ageing and Health, “Good health adds life to years”

Code :

(1) (a), (c), (d), (b) are correct

(2) (d), (a), (b), (c) are correct

(3) (c), (b), (a), (d) are correct

(4) (a), (d), (b), (c) are correct

Answer: (2)

49. Arrange the following food items in descending order as per their vitamin C content (mg per 100 gm) :

(a) Guava

(b) Lime

(c) Amla

(d) Orange

Code :

(1) (b), (d), (c), (a) are correct

(2) (c), (b), (a), (d) are correct

(3) (c), (a), (b), (d) are correct

(4) (a), (c), (d), (b) are correct

Answer: (3)

50. The mortality due to cancers amongst men in India in 2012 in decreasing order was as follows :

(a) Lung

(b) Colo rectum

(c) Prostrate

(d) Liver

Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) are correct

(2) (a), (b), (d), (c) are correct

(3) (b), (c), (a), (d) are correct

(4) (a), (c), (d), (b) are correct

Answer: (2)

51. Arrange the following blood groups (phenotypes) in ascending order of approximate frequency in Indian population :

Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) are correct

(2) (c), (d), (a), (b) are correct

(3) (c), (a), (b), (d) are correct

(4) (d), (c), (a), (b) are correct

Answer: (3)

52. Arrange in ascending order of average incubation period of respiratory infections :

(a) Measles

(b) Rubella

(c) Influenza

(d) Diptheria

Code :

(1) (c), (d), (a), (b) are correct

(2) (d), (c), (b), (a) are correct

(3) (a), (b), (c), (d) are correct

(4) (b), (c), (a), (d) are correct

Answer: (1)

53. Arrange interventions focussed on newborns under National Health Mission in chronological order :

(a) Facility Based Newborn Care

(b) Navjat Shishu Suraksha Karyakaram

(c) Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram

(d) Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses

Code :

(1) (d), (a), (b), (c) are correct

(2) (a), (c), (b), (d) are correct

(3) (d), (b), (a), (c) are correct

(4) (a), (d), (b), (c) are correct

Answer: (3)

54. Arrange in chronological order according to year of implementation :

(a) Prenatal Diagnostic Technique Act.

(b) MTP Act.

(c) Central Maternity Benefit Act

(d) Prohibition of Child Marriage Act

Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) are correct

(2) (c), (d), (a), (b) are correct

(3) (d), (c), (b), (a) are correct

(4) (c), (b), (a), (d) are correct

Answer: (4)

55. Arrange in chronological order according to year of legislation :

(a) Water (Prevention and control of pollution) Act.

(b) Epidemic Disease Act.

(c) Central Births and Deaths Registration Act.

(d) Environment Protection Act.

Code :

(1) (a), (c), (b), (d) are correct

(2) (c), (a), (d), (b) are correct

(3) (b), (d), (c), (a) are correct

(4) (d), (b), (a), (c) are correct

Answer: (All)

Given below are paired statements, statement A (Assertion) and statement R (Reason). Select appropriate answer using code given below as follows : (Questions 56 to 75)

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

56. Assertion (A) : Lipid disorder screening is recommended in population at high risk for coronary heart disease

Reason (R) : Detecting and properly managing lipid disorders early prevents development of atherosclerotic plaques.

Answer: (1)

57. Assertion (A) : The incubation period of staphylococcal food poisoning is short.

Reason (R) : Staphylococcal food poisoning results from ingestion of preformed exotoxin.

Answer: (1)

58. Assertion (A) : Tracking of blood pressure refers to recording the blood pressure in children, round the clock.

Reason (R) : Population strategy included in primary prevention of blood pressure involves, non-pharmaco-therapeutic interventions.

Answer: (4)

59. Assertion (A) : It is estimated that in 2010 there were 35.6 million. People living with dementia worldwide.

Reason (R) : The main reason for this high prevalence of dementia is better diagnostic facilities.

Answer: (3)

60. Assertion (A) : Traditional societies are best adapted to assimilate rapid changes.

Reason (R) : Traditional societies have a sense of continuity and immutability in patterns of social life.

Answer: (4)

61. Assertion (A) : Cysts are important in the transmission of E. Histolytica.

Reason (R) : Cysts of E. Histolytica remain liable for long and resist chlorination.

Answer: (1)

62. Assertion (A) : The prevalence of diabetes is approximately twice in urban areas than in rural population.

Reason (R) : Unfavourable modification of lifestyle and dietary habits are associated with urbanization.

Answer: (1)

UGC NET Exam July 2018 Geography Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

GEOGRAPHY

PAPER – II

Note : This paper contains hundred (100) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. The concept of geosynctive was propounded by :

(1) Holmes

(2) James Hutton

(3) Hall and Dana

(4) J.W. Powell

Answer: (3)

2. The term ‘Cosmography’ was coined and divided into ‘Uranography’ and Geography by :

(1) Ritter

(2) Peschal

(3) Humboldt

(4) Verinious

Answer: (3)

3. Ice Crystal Theory related to precipitation was postulated by :

(1) Muir

(2) Darwin

(3) Bergeron

(4) Boven

Answer: (3)

4. The subsidence theory related to the coral reef was propounded by :

(1) Davis

(2) Darwin

(3) Dally

(4) Dana

Answer: (2)

5. Gutenberg discontinuity is found between the :

(1) Crust and mantle

(2) Mantle and Core

(3) Upper Core and Lower Core

(4) Upper mantle and lower mantle

Answer: (2)

6. The concept of panplain was propagated by :

(1) C.A. Cotton

(2) Von Rithofen

(3) Crickmay

(4) Alfred Von Wegener

Answer: (3)

7. The direction of a horizontal line on an inclined rock strata is termed as :

(1) Strike

(2) Dip

(3) Anticline

(4) Free face

Answer: (1)

8. Which one of the following scholars is the proponent of the turbidity Current Theory on origin of submarine Canyons ?

(1) Salin

(2) Gregory

(3) Daly

(4) Harry Hen

Answer: (3)

9. Paternoster lakes are :

(1) Lakes formed on glacial stairways

(2) Lakes having volcanic origin

(3) Lakes formed by a shallow stretch of water caused by sea erosion

(4) Crescent shaped lakes formed due to cut-off of a river meander

Answer: (1)

10. “The present in the key to the past.” This phrase is related to the concept of :

(1) Isostasy

(2) Diastrophism

(3) Plate tectonics

(4) Uniformatarianism

Answer: (4)

11. Which one of the following instrument is used for determination of degree of stability or instability of an air parcel ?

(1) Viscometer

(2) Radiosondes

(3) SONAR

(4) pH meter

Answer: (2)

12. Given below are the two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below :

Assertion (A) : Antarctica is constantly snow-covered but receives less than 8 cm annual precipitation.

Reason (R) : Constant speedy wind blow in Antarctica.

Code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

13. Which one of the following types of plate boundaries and motions are exemplified by the San Andreas fault of California ?

(1) Transform boundary with Sinistral motion

(2) Transform boundary with dextral motion

(3) Divergent boundary with sinistral motion

(4) Convergent boundary with dextral motion

Answer: (2)

14. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below :

Answer: (3)

15. Which one of the following latitudes is known as the ‘Calms of Cancer’ ?

(1) 66½° S

(2) 66½° N

(3) 25° N

(4) 25° S

Answer: (3)

16. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below :

Answer: (2)

17. The American climatologist C.W. Thornthwaite revised the scheme of the classification of world climates in which one of the following years ?

(1) 1931

(2) 1934

(3) 1941

(4) 1948

Answer: (4)

18. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below :

Answer: (4)

19. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below :

Answer: (3)

20. Given below are the two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below :

Assertion (A) : The monsoon of southern and eastern Asia driven by the location and size of the Asian landmass and its proximity to the Indian Ocean.

Reason (R) : The wind and pressure patterns in the upper air circulation are associated with generation of monsoonal flows.

Code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

21. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below :

Answer: (2)

22. Which one of the followings is the main source for a vast reservoir of relatively inert nitrogen in homosphere ?

(1) Volcanic activities

(2) Fossil fuel burning

(3) Acid rain

(4) Global Warming

Answer: (1)

23. In which of the following directions the Nazca Plate is moving ?

(1) East

(2) West

(3) South

(4) North

Answer: (1)

24. Which one of the following sequences is the correct one in a littoral zone from land to sea ?

(1) Backshore, Foreshore, Nearshore, Offshore

(2) Foreshore, Backshore, Nearshore, Offshore

(3) Offshore, Nearshore, Foreshore, Backshore

(4) Nearshore, Offshore, Backshore, Foreshore

Answer: (1)

25. Given below are the two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below :

Assertion (A) : In low latitudes, sea water in the deep cold zone does not freeze.

Reason (R) : The deep sea water does not remain under intense pressure because of its high salinity.

Code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

26. Which one of the followings is the correct average range of worldwide variations in sea water salinity ?

(1) 34% to 37%

(2) 27% to 29%

(3) 37% to 39%

(4) 21% to 26%

Answer: (1)

27. Given below are the two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below :

Assertion (A) : Energy flow shifts from production to respiration in the entrophic stage, with oxygen demand exceeding oxygen availability.

Reason (R) : Stratospheric ozone layer depletion causes skin diseases.

Code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

28. Which one of the following groups of natural elements in living matters make up more than 99% of Earth’s biomass ?

(1) H, O, C

(2) N, Ca, K

(3) H, Ca, N

(4) S, H, Na

Answer: (1)

29. Which one of the following phenomena plays a vital role in the dispersion of majestic dinosaurs ?

(1) Volcanic eruption

(2) Zonal faulting

(3) Global cooling

(4) Continental drift

Answer: (4)

30. The U.N. Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janeiro during June 3 – 14, 1992 was chaired by :

(1) George W. Bush

(2) Maurice F. Strong

(3) Tony Blair

(4) Rachel Carson

Answer: (2)

31. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below :

Answer: (2)

32. Who among the following scholars laid down the foundation of dichotomy of general versus species Geography ?

(1) Immanual Kant

(2) Sebastian Munster

(3) Bernhard Varenius

(4) Peter Apian

Answer: (3)

33. Which of the following pairs does not match ? 

   Author          Book

(1) Al – Masudi – Router and Realms

(2) Al – Balaki – Kitabul Ashkal

(3) Al – Biruni – Kitab-al-Hind

(4) Ibn – Khaldun – Muqaddimah

Answer: (1)

34. The Hydraulic Slope Theory was propounded by :

(1) R.E. Horton

(2) Darwin

(3) Penck

(4) Mallot

Answer: (1)

35. Who among the following scholars emphasized on the behavioural approach in Geography ?

(1) Johnston

(2) Kirk

(3) Burton

(4) Gregory

Answer: (2)

36. Which one of the following in the correct sequence of German geographers contributing to the development of geographical thought ?

(1) Ratzel – Troll – Hettner – Peschel

(2) Peschel – Hettner – Ratzel – Troll

(3) Peschel – Ratzel – Hettner – Troll

(4) Troll – Hettner – Peschel – Ratzel

Answer: (3)

37. ‘The same environment carries different meanings to people with different ways of living and culture’. This statement is related to which one of the following concepts ?

(1) Probabilism

(2) Determinism

(3) Possibilism

(4) Stop and Go determinism

Answer: (3)

38. Which school of thought first developed the idea of possibilism ?

(1) Russian school

(2) German School

(3) British School

(4) French School

Answer: (4)

39. “The dominant idea of all geographical progress is that of terrestrial unity”. This statement is attributed to :

(1) Friedrich Ratzel

(2) Vidal-de-la-Blache

(3) Richard Hartshorne

(4) Jean Brunhes

Answer: (2)

40. Which one among the following perspectives was responsible for redicap transformation in the sprit and purpose of geography ?

(1) Structuralism

(2) Post-modernism

(3) Humanism

(4) Quantification

Answer: (4)

41. Which one of the following states in India recorded the lowest sex ratio as per 2011 census ? 

(1) Uttarakhand

(2) Tamil Nadu

(3) West Bengal

(4) Himachal Pradesh

Answer: (3)

42. Which one of the following countries recorded highest population density as per U.N. Demographic Year Book, 2010 ?

(1) India

(2) Japan

(3) Bangladesh

(4) Pakistan

Answer: (3)

43. Which one of the following statements correctly depicts the threshold according to Central Place Model ?

(1) Point at which consumer movement is minimum.

(2) Distance far which consumer will travel for a service.

(3) Minimum number of people needed to support a service.

(4) Economic base of a service centre.

Answer: (3)

44. Which one of the following groups of states in Indian recorded Sex Ratio higher than 950 according to year 2011 census ?

(1) Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Telengana

(2) Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra

(3) Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Andhra Pradesh

(4) Haryana, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh

Answer: (1)

45. Which one of the following Models is explained by the given figure below :

(1) Weber’s Model

(2) Central place Model

(3) Von Thunen Model

(4) Gravity Model

Answer: (2)

46. Which one of the following code is correctly depicting the pattern of distribution of population among cities by ‘d’ curve in the given graph ?

Code :

(1) Primate

(2) Slepped order

(3) Binary

(4) Rank Size Rule

Answer: (3)

47. Match List – I with List – II and select correct answer from the code given below :

Answer: (2)

48. Which one of the following statements indicates to the potential use of a service at a location according to Gravity Model ?

(1) Direct relationship to both population size and distance

(2) Inverse relationship to both population size and distance

(3) Direct relationship to population size and inverse relationship to distance

(4) Direct relationship to distance and inverse relationship to population

Answer: (3)

49. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below :

Answer: (2)

50. Which one of the following groups of states of India recorded more than one fourth of total population of the country in the census year 2011 ?

(1) Uttar Pradesh, Assam, Punjab

(2) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka

(3) Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Punjab

(4) Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Haryana

Answer: (2)

51. Among the following scholars, who introduced the concept of ‘least-transport-cost location’ using the frame of ‘locational triangle’.

(1) W. Isard

(2) M.K. Bandman

(3) D.M. Smith

(4) A. Weber

Answer: (4)

52. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below :

Answer: (2)

53. Which one of the following code is correct showing number of vertices, edges and Diameter for the given network ?

Answer: (2)

54. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below :

Answer: (1)

55. Which one of the following factors most dominants in the localisation of high-tech firms of silicon valley in California ?

(1) Cheap Labour

(2) Access to the market

(3) High speed transportation

(4) Agglomeration economy

Answer: (4)

56. The Rimmer model for the development of land transport system in less developed economics was proposed in which of the following years ?

(1) 1975

(2) 1976

(3) 1977

(4) 1978

Answer: (3)

57. The formula where PI =Agriculture Productivity Index ; Y= Total production of selected crops in unit Area; Yn= Total production of same selected crops at national level; T=Total cropped area of the unit ; Tn = Total cropped area at national scale. Who applied this formula for measuring agricultural productivity levels ?

(1) Bhatia

(2) Enyedi

(3) Weaver

(4) Shafi

Answer: (2)

58. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below :

Answer: (2)

59. Which one of the following conditions Alfred Weber introduced in his concept of ‘Locational Triangle’ ?

(1) Both ‘R1’ and ‘R2’ are found universally

(2) ‘R1’ is fixed but ‘R2’ is found everywhere and both are pure

(3) Both ‘R1’ and ‘R2’ are fixed and pure

(4) Both ‘R1’ and ‘R2’ are fixed and gross

(where : ‘R1’ and ‘R2’ are two raw materials)

Answer: (4)

60. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below :

Answer: (2)

61. In which one of the following book/works did Mackinder in 1919 renamed his theory of ‘pivot area’ as ‘Heartland’ ?

(1) World War and Geography

(2) The Democratic ideals and Reality

(3) The Round world and The winning of the peace

(4) Foreign Affairs

Answer: (2)

62. The Organic Theory of state was propounded by :

(1) Ratzel

(2) Mackinder

(3) Isaiah Bowman

(4) Haushoffer

Answer: (1)

63. The book ‘Geography of peace’ is authored written by :

(1) Mahan

(2) Spykman

(3) Haushoffer

(4) Ratzel

Answer: (2)

64. Which of the following catagories does Chile belong to according to its physical shape ?

(1) Compact and elongated

(2) Elongated

(3) Fragmented and elongated

(4) Fragmented

Answer: (3)

65. Whose works epitomized the relationship or political geography with foreign policy ?

(1) Adolf Hitler

(2) Friedrich Ratzel

(3) Mackinder

(4) Karl Haushofer

Answer: (4)

UGC NET Exam July 2018 Visual Arts Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

VISUAL ARTS

PAPER – II

Note : This paper contains hundred (100) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Raja Ravi Verma’s Oleographs are considered as :

(1) Expressionistic style

(2) Bazar style

(3) European style

(4) All of the above

Answer: (4)

2. Which are the relief printing processes ?

(1) Planography and Serigraphy

(2) Lithography and wood cut

(3) Aquatint and Dry point

(4) Lithography, Dry point and wood cut

Answer: (2)

3. Brayer is also known as :

(1) Soft Ground

(2) Block of wood

(3) Rubber Roller

(4) Squeeze

Answer: (3)

4. ‘Construction – J’ is the creation of :

(1) Renoir

(2) Picasso

(3) Jagdish Dey

(4) J. Swaminathan

Answer: (3)

5. The print ‘Five faces’ is made by :

(1) Bishan Kumar Bharadwaj

(2) Subha Gosh

(3) Shukla Sawant

(4) Moti Zharotia

Answer: (1)

6. Raja Ravi Verma’s prints are called :

(1) Serigraphs

(2) Lithographs

(3) Oleographs

(4) Collographs

Answer: (3)

7. In silk screen printing what makes the surface photosensitive ?

(1) Potassium permanganate

(2) Potassium Dichromate

(3) Sodium Hydrochloride

(4) Nitric Acid

Answer: (2)

8. During what period lithography printing start in India ?

(1) 1825 – 1830

(2) 1830 – 1860

(3) 1890 – 1905

(4) 1920 – 1930

Answer: (1)

9. The Royal Academy, London was Founded by :

(1) Sir Joshua Reynolds

(2) David Annesley

(3) Francis Bacon

(4) Michael Ayrton

Answer: (1)

10. Name the Author of the book entitled, “The Non-Objective World”.

(1) Paul Klee

(2) Moholy Nagy

(3) Robert Motherwell

(4) Kajimir Malvich

Answer: (4)

11. Who wrote the book, “Kangra Painting on Love” ?

(1) O.C. Ganguly

(2) W.G. Archer

(3) M.S. Randhawa

(4) A.K. Coomaraswamy

Answer: (3)

12. The painting entitled, “Ankuran’’ is painted by whom ?

(1) M.F. Husain

(2) S.H. Raza

(3) F.N. Suza

(4) K.K. Habber

Answer: (2)

13. Which of the miniature school have largely produced painting on “Hunting” theme ?

(1) Kishangarh school

(2) Kota school

(3) Kangra school

(4) Basoli school

Answer: (2)

14. The first international exhibition of Abstract art was held in the year of __________.

(1) 1932 AD New York

(2) 1930 AD Paris

(3) 1940 AD Weimer

(4) 1942 AD Dublin

Answer: (2)

15. Name the place where an exhibition on ‘New Tantra’ theme was organized during Bharat Mahotsava (1985 – 86).

(1) Moscow

(2) Los Angeles

(3) London

(4) Paris

Answer: (2)

16. The famous international exhibition of Modern art known as ‘ARMORY SHOW’ was organized by :

(1) Mark Rothko and Arshile Gorky

(2) Walt Kuhn and Arthur B. Davies

(3) J. Pollock and De Kooning

(4) Franz Kline and Mark Tobey

Answer: (2)

17. Generic term to describe a wide range of typeface designs with Serif forms :

(1) Roman

(2) Gothic

(3) Uncials

(4) Pseudo Serif

Answer: (1)

18. The iconic symbol of “Apple Computers Inc.”designed by :

(1) Steve Jobs

(2) Steve Wazniak

(3) Isaac Newton

(4) Rob Janoff

Answer: (4)

19. Name the typographer who admonished “Letters are not pictures but signs for sounds”.

(1) John Baskerville

(2) Charlie Hebdo

(3) Eric Gill

(4) Federic Gondy

Answer: (3)

20. Who experimented with the photographic technique of ‘Solarization’ from the mid – 1920’s ?

(1) Man Ray

(2) Louis Daguerre

(3) W. Henry Fox Talbot

(4) Johann Heinrich Schulze

Answer: (1)

21. Initial letter of the first word in a text set in larger size, extends into the lines of type below is referred as :

(1) Descender

(2) Drop Cap

(3) Small Capitals

(4) Grotesque

Answer: (2)

22. ‘Polish School of Posters’ emerged historically as a new and creative branch of contemporary art :

(1) After World War – II

(2) After World War – I

(3) At the end of Cold war

(4) After the defeat of the ‘Spanish Armada’

Answer: (1)

23. The first fully – fledged all – photographic news magazine in the United States was :

(1) Harper’s Bazaar

(2) Shutterbug

(3) Life

(4) Fortune

Answer: (3)

24. ‘Italic characters’ with extravagant Calligraphic flourishes are known as :

(1) Rockwell characters

(2) Swash characters

(3) Logotype

(4) Asymmetric characters

Answer: (2)

25. Who is the author of the book ‘Art and Visual Culture in India’ ?

(1) Geeta Kapoor

(2) Anish Kapoor

(3) Saryu Doshi

(4) Gayatri Sinha

Answer: (4)

26. Which of the following temple represents to the fully evolved Kalinga style Temple Architecture ?

(1) Parasuramesvara Temple

(2) Raja Rani Temple

(3) Linga Raj Temple

(4) Sun Temple of Konark

Answer: (3)

27. Who was the chief architect of Humayun’s Tomb ?

(1) Mirak Mirza Ghiyas

(2) Ustad Ahmad

(3) Mir Abdul Karim

(4) Ustad Isa Shirazi

Answer: (1)

28. Name the European painter who is known for painting elongated shadows, empty roads and arcades in mysterious way.

(1) Edvard Munch

(2) Edward Hopper

(3) Giorgio Chirico

(4) Alberto Savinio

Answer: (3)

29. Name the art critique who spoke about ‘significant form’ in aesthetic.

(1) Clive Bell

(2) Roger Fry

(3) I.A. Richards

(4) Herbert Read

Answer: (1)

30. Tala Mana is associated with __________ .

(1) Iconography

(2) Music

(3) Dance

(4) Drama

Answer: (1)

31. Nainsukha is famous painter of Pahari painting, mainly associated with __________.

(1) Basohli

(2) Jammu

(3) Guler

(4) Jasrota

Answer: (4)

32. From following, who is known for Geometrical Abstraction ?

(1) Kazimir Malevich

(2) Wassily Kandisky

(3) Piet Mondrian

(4) Jaison Cianelli

Answer: (1)

33. Auguste Rodin principally worked with :

(1) Plasticine

(2) Wax

(3) Clay

(4) Marble

Answer: (3)

34. Which is not alloy ?

(1) Bronze

(2) Brass

(3) Copper

(4) White metal

Answer: (3)

35. ‘Investment mould’ is associated with :

(1) Multiple casting

(2) Bronze casting

(3) Fibre – Glass casting

(4) Rubber Casting

Answer: (2)

36. Who was the sculptor of famous ‘Ecstasy of St. Teresa’ ?

(1) Donatello

(2) Bernini

(3) Jean Baptiste Pigalla

(4) Francisco Salzillo

Answer: (2)

37. Name of the sculptor who was the Chairman of Lalit Kala Akademi, New Delhi.

(1) Dhanraj Bhagat

(2) Chintamani Kar

(3) B.S. Katt

(4) Shankho Chaudhuri

Answer: (4)

38. Name of the Sculptor who was commissioned for the Stone Sculpture (Yaksha-Yakshini) for Reserve Bank of India Building, New Delhi.

(1) D.P. Roychaudhuri

(2) Sharbari Roychaudhuri

(3) Ramkinkar Baij

(4) Shankho Chaudhuri

Answer: (3)

39. Biscuit Firing is related with :

(1) Lost wax casting

(2) Ceramics

(3) Sand casting

(4) Dogra Casting

Answer: (2)

40. Mallet is related with :

(1) Stone carving

(2) Wood carving

(3) Bronze casting

(4) Direct metal sculpture

Answer: (2)

41. Match the following :

Answer: (2)

42. Match the following :

Answer: (1)

43. Match the inventions of the following :

Answer: (2)

44. Match the following :

Answer: (3)

45. Match the following artist associated with :

Answer: (2)

46. Match the following :

Answer: (2)

47. Match the following :

Answer: (4)

48. Match the following artist with paintings :

Answer: (2)

49. Match the finest corporate marks with the designers :

Answer: (2)

50. Match the crucial inventions in photography with inventors :

 

Answer: (3)

51. Match the posters with the designers :

Answer: (1)

52. Match the following :

Answer: (1)

53. Match the following :

Answer: (2)

54. Match the following :

Answer: (1)

55. Match the following :

Answer: (3)

56. Match the following :

Answer: (1)

57. Match the following :

Answer: (1)

58. Match the following :

Answer: (1)

59. Match the following :

Answer: (4)

60. Match the following :

Answer: (1)

61. Choose the correct chronological sequence of the following works in Printmaking :

(1) Sleep of reason, Prodigalson, Scream, Jane avril at Jardin de Paris

(2) Jane avril at Jardin de Paris, Prodigalson, Sleep of reason, Scream

(3) Scream, Prodigalson, Sleep of reason, Jane avril at Jardin de Paris

(4) Prodigalson, Sleep of reason, Jane avril at Jardin de Paris, Scream

Answer: (4)

62. Select the correct sequence of Machine used in printmaking.

(1) Lithopress Machine, Etching Press Machine, Routing Machine, Block Printing Machine

(2) Block Printing Machine, Etching Press Machine, Lithopress Machine, Routing Machine

(3) Etching Press Machine, Lithopress Machine, Routing Machine, Block Printing Machine

(4) Routing Machine, Block Printing Machine, Etching Press Machine, Lithopress Machine

Answer: (2)

63. Select the reverse chronology of the Famous printmakers.

(1) William Hogarth, Rembrandt, Ottavio Leoni, Michael Wolgemut

(2) Ottavio Leoni, Michael Wolgemut, Rembrandt, William Hogarth

(3) Rembrandt, Ottavio Leoni, Michael Wolgemut, William Hogarth

(4) Michael Wolgemut, William Hogarth, Ottavio Leoni, Rembrandt

Answer: (1)

UGC NET Exam July 2018 Women’s Studies Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

WOMEN’S STUDIES

PAPER – II

Note : This paper contains hundred (100) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Who among the following feminists referred Women’s studies as ‘the academic arm of women’s movement’, a potent instrument, playing a deliberate and active role in the battle for people’s minds’ and ‘autonomy continues to be battle cry of both’.

(1) Uma Chakravarti

(2) Neera Desai

(3) Veena mazumdar

(4) Maithreyi Krishnaraj

Answer: (3)

2. Arrange the following initiatives with regard to women’s Studies in chronological order :

(a) Establishment of Indian Association of Women’s studies.

(b) First National Conference on Women’s Studies.

(c) Publication of ‘Towards Equality Report’

(d) Second National Education Policy

Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (c), (b), (a), (d)

(3) (b), (a), (c), (d)

(4) (d), (b), (c), (a)

Answer: (2)

3. What is the common focus of most feminist therapies today ?

(1) Improving living conditions for women around the world.

(2) Creating a more gentle, loving, woman centred world.

(3) Showing how society’s view of treatment of non-dominant groups impacts mental health.

(4) Seeking balance in the un-equal power relationships between women and men.

Answer: (4)

4. Conservatives say that ‘Biology is destiny’. What did they mean and which one of the following is correct ?

(a) People are born with the hormones, anatomy and chromosomes of either male or female.

(b) Females are destined to have a much more burdensome reproductive role than are males.

(c) Males will, other things being equal, exhibit ‘masculine’ psychological traits whereas females will, other things being equal, exhibit ‘feminine’ psychological traits.

(d) Society should preserve this ‘natural order’ making sure that its men remain ‘manly’ and its women ‘womanly’.

Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (a) and (d) only

(3) (c) and (d) only

(4) (b) and (c) only

Answer: (1)

5. For which of the following reasons early feminist approaches to development have been criticised ?

(a) Only looking at women

(b) Not engaging with development agencies

(c) Having unrealistic aims

(d) Ignoring women’s roles in production

Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (b) and (d) only

(4) (c) and (d) only

Answer: (3)

6. Which of the following are the aims of feminist research ?

(a) To expose the patriarchal tools of socio-cultural and economic practices of family and society that lead to women’s suppression.

(b) To enquire into the origin and basis of the discriminatory practices against both men and women.

(c) To bring women to the central position from invisibility.

(d) To provide data on most of the sensitive problems of women’s issue.

Code :

(1) (a) and (b) only correct

(2) (a) (c) and (d)

(3) (a) (b) (c) and (d)

(4) (b) (c) and (d)

Answer: (2)

7. Which are the limitations of scientific research methods for women’s studies ?

(a) Complexity of social phenomenon

(b) Dynamic nature of social phenomenon

(c) Limited capacity of predictability

(d) Cultural relativism

Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (d) only

(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (b) and (c) only

(4) (a), (c) and (d) only

Answer: (2)

8. Assertion (A) : In patriarchal society, all economic development causes the marginalization and devaluation of women’s labour.

Reasoning (R) : In patriarchal society, the nature of house work and women’s responsibility for carrying it out are unchangeable i. e constant.

Code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are wrong

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)

Answer: (1)

9. Which of the following statements are wrong with regard to women’s liberation movements ?

(a) They focus on the goals of equal rights under the laws.

(b) They focus on equal access to education, careers and political power.

(c) They challenge the cultural patterns of male dominance in the family and personal life.

(d) They challenge against livelihoods and poverty of women.

Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b), (c) only

(3) (a), (b) and (d) only

(4) (b) and (c) only

Answer: (All)

10. Which of the following is correct with regard to ‘identity politics’ in the feminist context in India ?

(1) Minority, caste and Dalit issues

(2) Race and ethnicity

(3) Gender, race, caste, class and minorities

(4) Gender, race, caste, minorities

Answer: (3)

11. Which of the following problems can be better studied by qualitative method of data ?

(a) Fertility rate in the country.

(b) Views of men and women on strains in husband wife relations in joint families.

(c) Children’s experiences with the teachers in school.

(d) Women’s labour force participation in organized sectors.

Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (b), (c) and (d) only

(4) (b) and (c) only

Answer: (4)

12. Which among the following book reveals that the white hetrosexual, middle class women were discontented and unhappy despite living the “Ideal” female life but were unable to explain why is “the problem that has no name”.

(1) The second sex

(2) Feminine mystique

(3) The second stage

(4) The subjection of women

Answer: (2)

13. Match the List – I and List – II :

Answer: (3)

14. Which among the following feminist identified “alienation” as the concept that will provide us with a theoretical framework to accommodate main insight of Marxist, radical, psychoanalytic and even liberal feminist thought ?

(1) Iris young

(2) Alison Jagger

(3) Juliet Mitchell

(4) Mary Daly

Answer: (2)

15. Which of the following statements are correct of the ‘Dual Market Theory’ ?

(a) Sex discrimination to employ women in a secondary sector.

(b) Equal opportunity legislation make the employers respecting the law, but not employing women in their firms.

(c) Gender disparity in employment characterised by low skill levels, low earnings, easy entry etc…

(d) More women will be employed instead of men workers in both primary and secondary sectors.

Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (a), (b), (c) only

(3) (a) and (d) only

(4) (c) and (d) only

Answer: (2)

16. What is correct about tabulation ?

(a) Understanding of any table does not require any specialized knowledge.

(b) Tabulation is used for economy of time and space.

(c) Tabulation helps in understanding with clarity the objectives of study.

(d) Tabulation can be used for any type of data.

Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (a) and (d) only

(4) (b) and (d) only

Answer: (2)

17. In which of the following years, India formally declared its intention to put its economy through a process of structural adjustment and brought forth a comprehensive package of policy measures for that purpose ?

(1) 1991

(2) 1996

(3) 2002

(4) 1986

Answer: (1)

18. Which of the following explains ‘Crude birth Rate’ ? 

(1) Number of children below five years of age per thousand of women in the reproductive age group per year.

(2) Number of births per thousand of women in the reproductive age group per year. 

(3) Number of births per thousand of the population per year.

(4) Total number of births per year in the country.

Answer: (3)

19. Assertion (A) : Huge gender inequalities bring down India’s Human Development Indicator rankings and put India below their neighbours like Srilanka and china.

Reason (R) : Women’s access to education, health and nutrition and economic participation is low in India.

Code :

(1) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong

(2) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)

Answer: (3)

20. Which among the following are the characteristics of Gender socialization.

(a) The process by which males and females are informed about the norms and behaviours associated with their sex.

(b) Masculinity and femininity are reinculcated in the behaviour of boys and girls.

(c) Promoting androcentric social norms leading to oppression of men.

(d) Reinforcement of Gender stereotypes.

Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a) and (b) only

(3) (a) and (d) only

(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

Answer: (4)

21. Which of the following are correct about third wave feminism ?

(a) Emphasis on Women’s Rights Movements

(b) Emergence of Intersectionality

(c) Focus on a more post-structuralist interpretation of Gender

(d) Change in Gender Stereotypes

Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (b), (c) and (d) only

(4) (b) and (c) only

Answer: (3)

22. Among the following feminists who has analysed ‘Reproduction through the lens of male alienation’ while criticizing Shulamith Firestone’s views on female biology as the cause of women’s oppression.

(1) Mary O’ Brien

(2) Mary Dally

(3) Kate Millet

(4) Juliet Mitchell

Answer: (1)

23. Assertion (A) : Now a days employed wives make marital interactions a little more complicated and create adjustment problems in the family.

Reason (R) : The multiple roles of working women come in conflict with their expected and actual conduct.

Code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: (4)

24. Match the List – I and List – II :

Answer: (2)

25. Which among the following world conference addressed for the first time “The growth of women’s power and sustainability of development are ecologically tied”- Environment is a concern for women ?

(1) Nairobi conference – 1985

(2) Beijing conference – 1995

(3) Copenhagan conference -1980

(4) Beijing+10 conference – 2005

Answer: (1)

26. Which among the following item is not considered to measure women’s empowerment ?

(1) Women’s mobility

(2) Women’s freedom from family domination

(3) Women’s participation in the Reproductive role

(4) Women’s economic security and contribution to family support

Answer: (3)

27. What are the characteristics of hypothesis ?

(a) Vastness

(b) Clarity

(c) Related with available techniques

(d) Related with majority of population

Code :

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (b) and (c) only

(4) (b) and (c) only

Answer: (4)

28. Which of the following is correct with regard to comprehensive Programme for adolescents in India, which has a sharp focus on adolescent’s sexual Health introduced in 2014 ?

(1) Adolescents Health Development Programme

(2) Kishori Shakti Yojana

(3) ‘Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram’

(4) Rajivgandhi scheme for Empowerment of adolescent girls ‘SABLA’

Answer: (3)

29. Assertion (A) : Feminist Thinkers have criticized Karl Marx and Fredrich Engels for their lack of systematic study of the specific oppression of women.

Reason (R) : Marx and Engels believed that class and capitalism are fundamental for the oppression of women and ignored gender and patriarchy.

Code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong

(3) (A) is correct (R) is wrong

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)

Answer: (4)

30. Which of the following pair of indicators and ranking of India in the Global Gender Gap Index 2017 is not correctly matched ?

(1) Economic Participation and opportunity – 139

(2) Educational attainment – 112

(3) Health and survival – 121

(4) Political Empowerment – 15

Answer: (3)

31. Which among the following are correct about Reproductive Role of women ?

(a) The childbearing and rearing responsibilities of women

(b) Domestic tasks undertaken by women

(c) Maintenance of the workforce and future workforce

(d) Participation of women in the maintenance of water and sanitation at community level

Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a) and (b) only

(4) (c) and (d) only

Answer: (2)

32. Match the List – I with List – II :

Answer: (4)

33. Which of the following is correct about focus of Qualitative Research ?

(a) Meanings over Numerical measurement

(b) Deduction over Induction

(c) Constructionism / Phenomenology over objectivism / Realism

(d) Depth over Generalisability

Code :

(1) (a), (c), and (d) only

(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a) and (b) only

(4) (c) and (d) only

Answer: (1)

34. Assertion (A) : In the case of India, the process of reshaping patriarchy has itself been very slow.

Reason (R) : In Indian society, the family and the household still continue to play productive and social insurance roles which they fulfill mainly through the patriarchal ideology.

Code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation for (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) correct but (R) is not correct explanation for (A)

(3) Both (A) and (R) are wrong

(4) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct

Answer: (1)

35. Match the List – I with List – II :

Answer: (3)

36. Assertion (A) : The Fordist norms of women dependent on the male bread-winner is being replaced by the increasing individualization of women under globalization process.

Reason (R) : The increasing integration of women in the labour market has promoted new definitions of gender roles and has led to changes in the social structure.

Code :

(1) (A) is true and (R) is false

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is false and (R) is true

(4) Both (A) are (R) are false and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (2)

37. By which of the following methods, can a feminist researcher study the impact of some new teaching method on the performance of girl students of a school in a village ?

(1) ‘Before after’ experimental design only

(2) By having an experimental group, control group-experimental design only

(3) By diagnostic design only

(4) By both ‘before after’ and by having an experimental group – control

Answer: (4)

38. Which among the following is correct about the main objective of National Health Policy of 2017 ?

(1) Improve Health Status through concerned policy action in all sectors and expand preventive, promotive, curative, palliative and rehabilitative services provided through public health sector with focus on quality

(2) Improve Health Status through concerned International agencies and expand preventive promotive and curative services provided through public health sector with focus on quality

(3) Improve Health Status through public-private partnership and expand palliative and rehabilitative services

(4) Improve Health Status through public policy and expand preventive, promotive and curative services, provided through public health sector with focus on quality

Answer: (1)

39. Which of the following are correct about descriptive and diagnostic research designs ?

(a) Both the research designs are much more structured.

(b) Both differ little from exploratory research design.

(c) The research questions of these research designs are based on prior knowledge about the nature of research problem.

(d) Both the research designs are applicable to any type of research problem.

Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a) and (c) only

(4) (c) and (d) only

Answer: (3)

40. Which of the following provision is introduced by the ministry of Women and Child Development in 2017 to provide safety to women in distress situations ?

(1) Regulation of websites

(2) Panic Button on mobile phones

(3) Women Helpline

(4) Mobile police stations

Answer: (2)

41. Match the List – I with List – II :

Answer: (3)

42. Which among the following targets are correct to achieve global target of 2020, which is also termed as target of 90 : 90 : 90 : for HIV / AIDS ?

(a) 90% of all people living with HIV know their HIV status

(b) 90% of all people diagnosed with HIV infection receive antiretroviral therapy

(c) 90% of all people receiving antiretroviral therapy will have palliative services 

(d) 90% of all people receiving antiretroviral therapy will have viral suppression

 Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a) and (b) only

(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

Answer: (4)

43. Assertion (A) : Globalization in the process of integration of a country into world society will exacerabate gender equality.

Reason (R) : Women continue to engage in ‘unpaid’ work and increasingly participate in informal labour market which exclude women from ‘domestic political process’ and loss of control to global pressures.

Code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the explanation for (A)

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong

(4) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct

Answer: (2)

44. Arrange chronologically the Institutions established in India to conduct New Research on women with the aim of achieving socio-economic and political transformation in India.

(a) Centre for Women Development Studies

(b) Anveshi Research Centre for Women’s Studies

(c) Institute of Social Studies

(d) Research centre for Women’s Studies SNDT Women’s University

Code :

(1) (a), (c), (b), (d)

(2) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(3) (d), (c), (a), (b)

(4) (c), (b), (d), (a)

Answer: (3)

45. Match the List – I and List – II :

Answer: (2)

46. Assertion (A) : Now-a-days even the parents of backward caste communities in small villages of India are able to achieve the desired family size and the desired gender composition of children.

Reason (R) : Now-a-days backward caste communities in the small villages have easy access to advance reproductive technology and abortion facilities.

Code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct

(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong

(4) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct

Answer: (2)

47. Arrange the following Organizations/Associations chronologically with regard to the year of their inception.

(a) All India Democratic Women’s Association

(b) Association of Lady Entrepreneurs of India

(c) Indian Association for women’s studies

(d) National Association of working women

Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (b), (c), (a), (d)

(3) (d), (a), (c), (b)

(4) (d), (c), (a), (b)

Answer: (3)

48. Who amongst the following said that “Women’s liberation is crucially concerned with the area of politics which is experienced as personal” ?

(1) Shulamith Firestone

(2) Kate Milett

(3) Betty Friedan

(4) Juliet Mitchell

Answer: (4)

49. Which of the following is correct about ‘Aggrieved women’ under Sexual Harassment of women at workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act of 2013 ?

(a) Women who are engaged directly with an employer

(b) Women who are engaged indirectly with a contractor, but she does not necessarily have to be a salaried employee.

(c) Women who visit to any workplace in the capacity of being a contract worker 

(d) A student working as an intern with a firm

Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (c) and (d) only

(3) (a), (b) and (c) only

(4) (a) and (c) only

Answer: (1)

50. Which among the following are correct about “National Mission for Empowerment of Women” (NMEW) scheme 2016-2017.

(a) The mandate of the scheme is to strengthen inter-sectoral convergence of programmes, Policies and schemes for women both at the centre and state.

(b) It was approved as a centrally sponsored scheme during eleventh plan. 

(c) The scheme is now implemented on the basis of 60 : 40 centre state sharing of funds. 

(d) Ministry of Human Resource Development is the Nodal Ministry of the scheme. 

Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct

(2) only (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(3) only (a), (b) and (d) are correct

(4) only (a), (c) and (d) are correct

Answer: (2)

51. Which of the following Institutions initiated May 28th as World Menstrual Hygiene Management Day (MH Day) ?

(1) UNICEF

(2) WASH United

(3) Ministry of Women and Child Development

(4) UNDP

Answer: (2)

52. What is correct about operational definitions ?

(a) Operational definitions bridge the conceptual theoretical level with the observational empirical level.

(b) Operational definitions are devised for the convenience of the researcher.

(c) Operational definitions create confusion in writing research report.

(d) Operational definitions provide for their empirical application.

Code :

(1) (a) and (d) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (c) and (d) only

(4) (b) and (d) only

Answer: (1)

53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched with First Woman in India ?

(1) First woman to receive Bharatratna – Mrs. Indira Gandhi

(2) First woman to receive Olympic Medal – P.V. Sindhu

(3) First woman Minister in Government – Rajkumari Amrit Kaur

(4) First woman Ambassador – C.B. Muthamma

Answer: (2)

54. Who amongst the following during the ‘He for She Campaign’ said that “Achieving gender equality requires the engagement of women and men, girls and boys, it is everyone’s responsibility”.

(1) Kofi Annan

(2) Antonio Guterres

(3) Ban Ki Moon

(4) Boutrous Boutrous Ghali

Answer: (3)

55. Assertion (A) : In the developing countries, many of the traditional functions of the family and the household are getting replaced by marketed commodities and services.

Reason (R) : The very nature of gender relations in family in developing society is radically changing from dependency proneness to independence.

Code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are wrong

(2) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)

Answer: (3)

56. Which of the following is correct with regard to Gender Budgetting in India ?

(1) Gender Budget has allocation of column ‘A’ with 100% and column ‘B’ with 70%

(2) Gender Budget allocation with 70% for column ‘A’ and 30% for column ‘B’

(3) Gender Budget allocation with 30% for column ‘A’ and 100% for column ‘B’

(4) Gender Budget allocation with 100% for column ‘A’ and 30% for column ‘B’

Answer: (4)

57. Which of the following could be said to have prevented the ‘trickle down effects’ in Indian planning ?

(a) Increased dependence of agriculture on purchase inputs and privately managed irrigation

(b) More employment of labour by larger landholding farmers 

(c) Lowered participation of women in agricultural workforce due to new technology

(d) The failure of Green Revolution

Code :

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and (b) only

(3) (a) and (c) only

(4) (b) and (d) only

Answer: (3)

58. Match the List – I and List – II :

Answer: (2)

59. Assertion (A) : ‘DNA finger printing’ has become a powerful tool to establish paternity and identity of criminals in rape and assault cases.

Reason (R) : Trace evidences such as hairs, saliva and dried semen are adequate for DNA analysis.

Code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: (1)

60. Which of the following are the aims of Naila Kabeer’s Social Relations framework related to Gender Analysis ?

(a) To analyse existing gender inequalities in the distribution of resources

(b) To emphasize human well-being as the final goal of development

(c) To emphasize participatory methodology to the analysis of gender issues

(d) To analyse relationship in between people, their relationship to resources activities and their interaction with institutions

Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (d) only

(2) (a) and (d) only

(3) (b) and (c) only

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (1)

61. Assertion (A) : The theory of Eco-feminism is multifaceted and multilocated and support the existing social structures across the world rather than individuals.

Reason (R) : Eco-feminism adresses the oppression of the natural world and that of women by patriarchal structures of power.

Code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct

(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong

(3) (A) is correct (R) is wrong

(4) (A) is wrong (R) is correct

Answer: (4)

62. Which arrangement of the following would show the correct sequence of Demographic Transition as typically associated with economic development ?

(a) High birth rate with high death rate

(b) High birth rate with low death rate

(c) Declining birth rate with low death rate

(d) Low birth rate with low death rate

Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a) and (c) only

(4) (b), (c) and (d) only

Answer: (1)

63. Which of the following Award is being given to a State or UT which has appreciably improved Child Sex Ratio by the Ministry of Women and Child Development ?

(1) Kishori Shakti Puraskar

(2) Sabla Puraskar

(3) Nari Shakti Puraskar

(4) Kishor Balika Puraskar

Answer: (3)

JEE MAIN-2019 Online CBT Mode Dt. 11.01.2019 Evening Question Paper With Answer Key

JEE MAIN-2019 Online CBT Mode Dt. 11.01.2019 Evening

PHYSICS

1. A paramagnetic substance in the form of a cube with sides 1 cm has a magnetic dipole moment of 20 × 10–6 J/T when a magnetic intensity of 60 × 103 A/m is applied. Its magnetic susceptibility is

(1)  3.3 × 102

(2)  2.3 × 102

(3)  3.3 × 104

(4)  4.3 × 102

Answer: (3)

2. An electric field of 1000 V/m is applied to an electric dipole at angle of 45°. The value of electric dipole moment is 10–29 Cm. What is the potential energy of the electric dipole?

(1)  –9 × 10–20 J

(2)  –10 × 10–29 J

(3)  –7 × 10–27 J

(4)  –20 × 10–18 J

Answer: (3)

3. A particle of mass m is moving in a straight line with momentum p. Starting at time t = 0, a force F = kt acts in the same direction on the moving particle during time interval T so that its momentum changes from p to 3p. Here k is a constant. The value of T is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Answer: (2)

  1. A metal ball of mass 0.1 kg is heated upto 500°C and dropped into a vessel of heat capacity 800 JK–1 and containing 0.5 kg water. The initial temperature of water and vessel is 30°C. What is the approximate percentage increment in the temperature of the water? [Specific Heat Capacities of water and metal are, respectively, 4200 Jkg–1K–1 and 400 Jkg–1K–1]

(1)  25%

(2)  20%

(3)  30%

(4)  15%

Answer: (2)

  1. The region between y = 0 and y = d contains a magnetic field A particle of mass m and charge q enters the region with a velocity  if the acceleration of the charged particle at the point of its emergence at the other side is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Answer: (Bonus)

  1. A string is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 5 kg and radius 0.5 m. If the string is now pulled with a horizontal force of 40 N, and the cylinder is rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface (see figure), then the angular acceleration of the cylinder will be (Neglect the mass and thickness of the string) :

(1)  16 rad/s2

(2)  20 rad/s2

(3)  12 rad/s2

(4)  10 rad/s2

Answer: (1)

  1. A simple pendulum of length 1 m is oscillating with an angular frequency 10 rad/s. The support of the pendulum starts oscillating up and down with a small angular frequency of 1 rad/s and an amplitude of 10–2 The relative change in the angular frequency of the pendulum is best given by

(1)  103 rad/s

(2)  10−1 rad/s

(3)  10−5 rad/s

(4)  1 rad/s

Answer: (1)

  1. If speed (V), acceleration (A) and force (F) are considered as fundamental units, the dimension of Young’s modulus will be

(1)  V2A2F2

(2)  V2A2F2

(3)  V4A2F

(4)  V4A2F

Answer: (3)

  1. When 100 g of a liquid A at 100°C is added to 50 g of a liquid B at temperature 75°C, the temperature of the mixture becomes 90°C. The temperature of the mixture, if 100 g of liquid A at 100°C is added to 50 g of liquid B at 50°C, will be

(1)  85°C

(2)  80°C

(3)  70°C

(4)  60°C

Answer: (2)

  1. A 27 mW laser beam has a cross-sectional area of 10 mm2. The magnitude of the maximum electric field in this electromagnetic wave is given by:

[Given permittivity of space ∈0 = 9 × 1012 SI units, Speed of light c = 3 × 108 m/s]

(1)  1.4 kV/m

(2)  1 kV/m

(3)  2 kV/m

(4)  0.7 kV/m

Answer: (1)

  1. The mass and the diameter of a planet are three times the respective values for the Earth. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum on the Earth is 2 s. The period of oscillation of the same pendulum on the planet would be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Answer: (4)

  1. In a hydrogen like atom, when an electron jumps from the M-shell to the L-shell, the wavelength of emitted radiation is λ. If an electron jumps from N-shell to the L-shell, the wavelength of emitted radiation will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Answer: (3)

  1. In a photoelectric experiment, the wavelength of the light incident on a metal is changed from 300 nm to 400 nm. The decrease in the stopping potential is close to:

(1)  1.0 V

(2)  2.0 V

(3)  1.5 V

(4)  0.5 V

Answer: (1)

  1. Two rods A and B of identical dimensions are at temperature 30°C. If A is heated upto 180°C and B upto T°C, then the new lengths are the same. If the ratio of the coefficients of linear expansion of A and B is 4 : 3, then the value f T is:

(1)  270°C

(2)  230°C

(3)  250°C

(4)  200°C

Answer: (2)

  1. In a process, temperature and volume of one mole of an ideal monoatomic gas are varied according to the relation VT = K, where K is a constant. In this process, the temperature of the gas is increased by ∆ The amount of heat absorbed by gas is (R is gas constant):

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Answer: (2)

  1. A galvanometer having a resistance of 20 Ω and 30 divisions on both sides has figure of merit 0.005 ampere/division. The resistance that should be connected in series such that it can be used as a voltmeter upto 15 volt, is:

(1)  100 Ω

(2)  125 Ω

(3)  80 Ω

(4)  120 Ω

Answer: (3)

  1. A thermometer graduated according to a linear scale reads a value x0 when in contact with boiling water, and x0 /3 when in contact with ice. What is the temperature of an object in °C, if this thermometer in the contact with the object reads x0 /2?

(1)  40

(2)  60

(3)  35

(4)  25

Answer: (4)

  1. In the circuit shown, the potential difference between A and B is:

(1)  6 V

(2)  3 V

(3)  2 V

(4)  1 V

Answer: (3)

  1. An amplitude modulated signal is plotted below:

Which one of the following best describes the above signal?

(1) (9 + sin(2π × 104t))sin(2.5π × 105t) V

(2) (9 + sin(4π × 104t))sin(5π × 105t) V

(3) (1 + 9sin(2π × 104t))sin(2.5π × 105t) V

(4) (9 + sin(2.5π  × 105t))sin(2π × 104t) V

Answer: (1)

  1. In the experimental set up of metre bridge shown in the figure, the null point is obtained at a distance of 40 cm from A. If a 10 Ω resistor is connected in series with R1, the null point shifts by 10 cm. The resistance that should be connected in parallel with (R1 + 10) Ω such that the null point shifts back to its initial position is:

(1)  60 Ω

(2)  30 Ω

(3)  40 Ω

(4)  20 Ω

Answer: (1)

  1. A particle of mass m and charge q is in an electric and magnetic field given by

The charged particle is shifted from the origin to the point P(x = 1 ; y = 1) along a straight path. The magnitude of the total work done is:

(1)  (0.15)q

(2)  (5q)

(3)  (0.35)q

(4)  (2.5)q

Answer: (2)

  1. Seven capacitors, each of capacitance 2 μF, are to be connected in a configuration to obtain an effective capacitance of (6/13) μ Which of the combinations, shown in figures below, will achieve the desired value?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Answer: (1)

  1. A pendulum is executing simple harmonic motion and its maximum kinetic energy is K1. If the length of the pendulum is doubled and it performs simple harmonic motion with the same amplitude as in the first case, its maximum kinetic energy is K2. Then

(1)  K2 = 2K1

(2)  K2 = K1/4

(3)  K2 = K1

(4)  K2 = K1/2

Answer: (1)

  1. A monochromatic light is incident at a certain angle on an equilateral triangular prism and suffers minimum deviation. If the refractive index of the material of the prism is √3, then the angle of incidence is:

(1)  90°

(2)  30°

(3)  45°

(4)  60°

Answer: (4)

  1. In a double-slit experiment, green light (5303 Å) falls on a double slit having a separation of 19.44 μm and a width of 4.05 μ The number of bright fringes between the first and the second diffraction minima is

(1)  05

(2)  09

(3)  10

(4)  04

Answer: (4)

  1. A particle moves from the point at t = 0, with an initial velocity  It is acted upon by a constant force which  produces a constant acceleration  What is the distance of the particle form the origin at time 2 s

(1)  20√2 m

(2)  15 m

(3)  10√2 m

(4)  5 m

Answer: (1)

  1. The magnitude of torque on a particle of mass 1 kg is 2.5 Nm about the origin. If the force acting on it is 1 N, and the distance of the particle from the origin is 5 m, the angle between the force and the position vector is (in radians):

(1)  π/8

(2)  π/6

(3)  π/3

(4)  π/4

Answer: (2)

  1. A circular disc D1 of mass M and radius R has two identical discs D2 and D3 of the same mass M and radius R attached rigidly at its opposite ends (see figure). The moment of inertia of the system about the axis OOʹ, passing through the centre of D1 as shown in the figure, will be:

(1)  3MR2

(2)

(3)  MR2

(4)

Answer: (1)

  1. The circuit shown below contains two ideal diodes, each with a forward resistance of 50Ω. If the battery voltage is 6 V, the current through the 100 Ω resistance (in amperes) is:

(1)  0.036

(2)  0.020

(3)  0.030

(4)  0.027

Answer: (2)

  1. A copper wire is wound on a wooden frame, whose shape is that of an equilateral triangle. If the linear dimension of each side of the frame is increased by a factor of 3, keeping the number of turns of the coil per unit length of the frame the same, then the self inductance of the coil:

(1) Increases by a factor of 3

(2) Decreases by a factor of 9√3

(3) Decreases by a factor of 9

(4) Increases by a factor of 27

Answer: (1)

CHEMISTRY

  1. Given the equilibrium constant :

KC of the reaction :

Cu(s) + 2Ag+ (aq) → Cu2+ (aq) + 2Ag(s) is 10 × 1015, calculate the E0 cell of this reaction at 298 K

(1)  0.4736 mV

(2)  0.4736 V

(3)  0.04736 V

(4)  0.04736 mV

Answer: (2)

  1. Among the colloids cheese (C), milk (M) and smoke (S), the correct combination of the dispersed phase and dispersion medium, respectively is :

(1) C : solid in liquid; M : liquid in liquid; S : gas in solid

(2) C : liquid in solid; M : liquid in solid; S : solid in gas

(3) C : liquid in solid; M : liquid in liquid; S : solid in gas

(4) C : solid in liquid; M : solid in liquid; S : solid in gas

Answer: (3)

  1. The radius of the largest sphere which fits properly at the centre of the edge of a body centred cubic unit cell is : (Edge length is represented by ‘a’)

(1)  0.027 a

(2)  0.047 a

(3)  0.067 a

(4)  0.134 a

Answer: (3)

  1. The reaction 2X → B is a zeroth order reaction. If the initial concentration of X is 0.2 M, the half-life is 6 h. When the initial concentration of X is 0.5 M, the time required to reach its final concentration of 0.2 M will be :

(1)  12.0 h

(2)  7.2 h

(3)  9.0 h

(4)  18.0 h

Answer: (4)

  1. In the following compound,

the favourable site/s protonation is/are :

(1) (a)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a) and (d)

(4)  (a) and (e)

Answer: (2)

  1. The major product obtained in the following conversion is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Answer: ()

  1. K2 HgI4 is 40% ionised in aqueous solution. The value of its van’t Hoff factor (i) is :

(1)  1.6

(2)  2.0

(3)  2.2

(4)  1.8

Answer: (4)

  1. Match the following items in column I with the corresponding items in column II.

Column-I                         Column-II

(i) Na2CO3.10H2O   (A) Portland cement ingredient

(ii) Mg(HCO3)(B) Castner-Kellner process

(iii) NaOH               (C) Solvay process

(iv) Ca3Al2O6 (D) Temporary hardness

(1) (i)(B), (ii)(C), (iii)(A), (iv)(D)

(2) (i)(C), (ii)(D), (iii)(B), (iv)(A)

(3) (i)(D), (ii)(A), (iii)(B), (iv)(C)

(4) (i)(C), (ii)(B), (iii)(D), (iv)(A)

Answer: (2)

  1. The de Broglie wavelength (λ) associated with a photoelectron varies with the frequency (ν) of the incident radiation as, [ν0is threshold frequency]:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Answer: (3)

  1. The correct option with respect to the Pauling electronegativity values of the elements is:

(1)  Si < Al

(2)  P > S

(3)  Te > Se

(4)  Ga < Ge

Answer: (4)

  1. The correct match between Item I and Item II is:

Item I                               Item II

(A) Ester test                             (P) Tyr

(B) Carbylamine test        (Q) AsP

(C) Phthalein dye test       (R) Ser

(S) Lys

(1) (A) → (Q); (B) →  (S); (C) → (P)

(2) (A) → (R); (B) → (Q); (C) → (P)

(3) (A) → (Q); (B) → (S); (C) → (R)

(4) (A) → (R); (B) → (S); (C) → (Q)

Answer: (1)

  1. The correct match between Item I and Item II is:

Item I

(A) Allosteric effect

(B) Competitive

(C) Receptor

(D) Poison

Item II

(P) Molecule binding to the active site of enzyme

(Q) Molecule crucial for inhibitor communication in the body

(R) Molecule binding to a site other than the active site of  enzyme

(S) Molecule binding to the enzyme covalently

(1)  (A) → (P); (B) → (R); (C) → (S); (D) → (Q)

(2)  (A) → (R); (B) → (P); (C) → (Q); (D) → (S)

(3)  (A) → (P); (B) → (R); (C) → (Q); (D) → (S)

(4)  (A) → (R); (B) → (C); (C) → (D); (D) → (Q)

Answer: (2)

  1. Which of the following compounds will produce a precipitate with AgNO3 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Answer: (4)

  1. The number of bridging CO ligand(s) and Co-Co bond(s) in Co2(CO)8, respectively are:

(1)  2 and 1

(2)  0 and 2

(3)  2 and 0

(4)  4 and 0

Answer: (1)

  1. The major product obtained in the following reaction is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Answer: (1)

In the above sequence of reactions, A and D, respectively, are :

(1)  KI and K2MnO4

(2)  KIO3 and MnO2

(3)  MnO2 and KIO3

(4)  KI and KMnO4

Answer: (3)

  1. The major product of the following reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Answer: (1)

  1. Taj Mahal is being slowly disfigured and discoloured. This is primarily due to :

(1)  Acid rain

(2)  Water pollution

(3)  Global warming

(4)  Soil pollution

Answer: (1)

  1. The relative stability of +1 oxidation state of group 13 elements follows the order :

(1) Tl < In < Ga < Al

(2) Al < Ga < Tl < In

(3) Al < Ga < In < Tl

(4) Ga < Al < In < Tl

Answer: (3)

  1. The homopolymer formed from 4-hydroxy-butanoic acids is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Answer: (1)

  1. The reaction that does NOT define calcination is:

Answer: (4)

  1. Which of the following compounds reacts with ethylmagnesium bromide and also decolourizes bromine water solution?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Answer: (1 and 2)

  1. The hydride that is NOT electron deficient is

(1)  SiH4

(2)  GaH3

(3)  B2H6

(4)  AlH3

Answer: (1)

  1. For the equilibrium

2H2O ⇌ H3O+ + OH, the value of ∆G° at 298 K is approximately

(1)  −80 kJ mol1

(2)  −100 kJ mol1

(3)  80 kJ mol1

(4)  100 kJ mol1

Answer: (3)

  1. The coordination number of Th in K4[Th(C2O4)4(OH2)2] is

(C2O42 = Oxalato)

(1)  10

(2)  6

(3)  14

(4)  8

Answer: (1)

  1. A compound ‘X’ on treatment with Br2/NaOH, provided C3H9N, which gives positive carbylamines test. Compound ‘X’ is

(1)  CH3CH2CH2CONH2

(2)  CH3COCH2NHCH3

(3)  CH3CH2COCH2NH2

(4)  CH3CON(CH3)2

Answer: (1)

  1. The higher concentration of which gas in air can cause stiffness of flower buds?

(1)  SO2

(2)  CO

(3)  CO2

(4)  NO2

Answer: (1)

  1. The reaction

MgO(s) + C(s) → Mg(s) + CO(g), for, which ∆rH° = +491.1 kJ mol−1 and ∆sH° = 198.0 JK−1 mol−1, is not feasible at 298 K. Temperature above which reaction will be feasible is

(1)  2040.5 K

(2)  1890.0 K

(3)  2480.3 K

(4)  2380.5 K

Answer: (3)

  1. 25 ml of the given HCl solution requires 30 mL of 0.1 M sodium carbonate solution. What is the volume of this HCl solution required to titrate 30 mL of 0.2 M aqueous NaOH solution

(1)  25 mL

(2)  12.5 mL

(3)  50 mL

(4)  75 mL

Answer: (1)

  1. The standard reaction Gibbs energy for a chemical reaction at an absolute temperature T is given by

rG° A – BT

Where A and B are non-zero constants. Which of the following is true about this reaction?

(1) Exothermic if B < 0

(2) Endothermic if A > 0

(3) Endothermic if A < 0 and B > 0

(4) Exothermic if A > 0 and B < 0

Answer: (2)

  1. Let A and B be two invertible matrices of order 3 × 3. If det(ABAT) = 8 and det(AB–1) = 8, then det(BA–1BT) is equal to :

(1)  1

(2)  16

(3)  1/16

(4)  1/4

Answer: (3)

  1. A circle cuts a chord of length 4a on the x-axis and passes through a point on the y-axis, distant 2b from the origin. Then the locus of the centre of this circle, is :

(1)  A hyperbola

(2)  A parabola

(3)  An ellipse

(4)  A straight line

Answer: (2)

  1. Let x, y be positive real numbers and m, n positive integers. The maximum value of the expression is

(1)  1/2

(2)

(3)  1

(4)  1/4

Answer: (4)

  1. If (a + b + c) (x + a + b + c)2, x ≠ 0 and a + b + c ≠ 0, then x is equal to :

(1)  2(a + b+ c)

(2)  −(a + b +c)

(3)  abc

(4)  −2(a + b +c)

Answer: (4)

  1. Let a function f : (0, ∞) → (0, ∞) be defined by Then f is :

(1) Injective only

(2) Both injective as well as surjective

(3) Not injective but it is surjective

(4) Neither injective nor surjective

Answer: (*)

  1. If where C is a constant of integration, then f(x) is equal to :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Answer: (2)

  1. If the area of the triangle whose one vertex is at the vertex of the parabola, y2 + 4(x – a2) = 0 and the other two vertices are the points of intersection of the parabola and y-axis, is 250 sq. units, then a value of ‘a’ is :

(1)  5√5

(2)  (10)2/3

(3)  5(213)

(4)  5

Answer: (4)

  1. Let z be a complex number such that |z| + z = 3 + i (where i = √−1).

Then |z| is equal to :

(1)  √41/4

(2)  5/4

(3)  5/3

(4)  √34/3

Answer: (3)

  1. Let where a, b and d are non-zero constants. Then :

(1) f is an increasing function of x

(2) f is a decreasing function of x

(3) f is neither increasing nor decreasing function of x

(4) fʹ is not a continuous function of x

Answer: (1)

  1. Contrapositive of the statement

“If two numbers are not equal, then their squares are not equal.” is :

(1) If the squares of two numbers are equal, then the numbers are equal

(2) If the squares of two numbers are not equal, then the numbers are equal

(3) If the squares of two numbers are equal, then the numbers are not equal

(4) If the squares of two numbers are not equal, then the numbers are not equal

Answer: (1)

  1. If in a parallelogram ABDC, the coordinates of A, B and C are respectively (1, 2), (3, 4) and (2, 5), then the equation of the diagonal AD is :

(1) 5x + 3y – 11 = 0

(2) 3x + 5y – 13 = 0

(3) 3x – 5y + 7 = 0

(4) 5x – 3y + 1 = 0

Answer: (4)

  1. is equal to :

(1)  2

(2)  4

(3)  1

(4)  0

Answer: (3)

  1. Two lines and  intersect at the point R. The reflection of R in the xy-plane has coordinates :

(1)  (–2, 4, 7)

(2) (2, 4, 7)

(3) (2, –4, –7)

 (4)  (2, –4, 7)

Answer: (3)

  1. Let (x + 10)50 + (x – 10)50 = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + … + a50­x50. for all x ∈ R; then a2/a0 is equal to

(1)  12.25

(2)  12.75

(3)  12.00

(4)  12.50

Answer: (1)

  1. Given for ∆ABC with usual notation. If  then the ordered triplet (α, β, γ) has a value :

(1)  (3, 4, 5)

(2)  (7, 19, 25)

(3)  (19, 7, 25)

(4)  (5, 12, 13)

Answer: (2)

  1. If 19th term of a non-zero A.P. is zero, then its (49th term) : (29th term) is :

(1)  2 : 1

(2)  1 : 3

(3)  4 : 1

(4)  3 : 1

Answer: (4)

  1. The number of function f from {1, 2, 3, …,20} onto {1, 2, 3, …, 20} such that f(k) is a multiple of 3, whenever k is a multiple of 4, is :

(1)  56 × 15

(2)  65 × (15)!

(3)  5! × 6!

(4)  (15)! × 6!

Answer: (4)

  1. The integral equals :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Answer: (1)

  1. Let α and β the roots of the quadratic equation x2 sin θ – x(sin θ cos θ +1) + cos θ = 0 (0 < θ > 45°), and α < β. Then is equal to :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Answer: (2)

  1. A bag contains 30 white ball and 10 red balls. 16 balls are drawn one by one randomly from the bag with replacement. If X be the number of white balls drawn, then is equal to :

(1)  3√2

(2)  4√3

(3)  4√3/3

(4)  4

Answer: (2)

  1. If a hyperbola has length of its conjugate axis equal to 5 and the distance between its foci is 13, then the eccentricity of the hyperbola is :

(1)  2

(2)  13/8

(3)  13/6

(4)  13/12

Answer: (4)

  1. Let Sn = 1 + q + q2 + … + qn and where q is a real number and q ≠

If 101C1 + 101C2 ∙ S1 + … + 101C101 S100 = α T100.

(1)  200

(2)  202

(3)  299

(4)  2100

Answer: (4)

  1. Let the length of the latus rectum of an ellipse with its major axis along x-axis and centre at the origin, be 8. If the distance between the foci of this ellipse is equal to the length of its minor axis, then which one of the following points lies on it?

(1)  (4√3, 2√3)

(2)  (4√3, 2√2)

(3)  (4√2, 2√2)

(4)  (4√2, 2√3)

Answer: (2)

  1. Let S = {1, 2, …., 20}. A subset B of S is said to be “nice”, if the sum of the elements of B is 203. Then the probability that a randomly chosen subset of S is “nice” is

(1)  7/220

(2)  6/220

(3)  4/220

(4)  5/220

Answer: (4)

  1. If the point (2, α, β) lies on the plane which passes through the points (3, 4, 2) and (7, 0, 6) and is perpendicular to the plane 2x – 5y = 15, then 2α – 3β is equal to

(1)  5

(2)  12

(3)  17

(4)  7

Answer: (4)

  1. All x satisfying the inequality (cot–1x)2 – 7 (cot–1x) + 10 > 0, lie in the interval

(1)  (cot 2, ∞)

(2)  (cot 5, cot 4)

(3)  (−∞, cot 5) ∪ (cot 4, cot 2)

(4)  (−∞, cot 5) ∪ (cot 2, ∞)

Answer: (1)

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