IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2019 With Answer Key

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam-2019

PART-A

Section-I General English Comprehension

Directions (Qs. No. 1-10) : Read the passage carefully and select the appropriate answers given in front of each question.

     This is a monologue delivered in a 1998 movie. The speaker is about to scatter the ashes of his friend.

“Donny was a good bowler, and a good man. He was one of us. He was a man who loved the outdoors…and bowling, and as a surfer he explored the beaches of Southern California, from La Jolla to Leo Carrillo and …upto… Pismo. He died, like so many young men of his generation, he died before his time. In your wisdom, Lord, you took  him, as  you took so many bright, blooming young men at Kheshan, at Hill 364 of Langdoh (battle of Vietnam war).

     These young men gave their lives. And so would Donny. Donny who loved bowling. And so, Theodore Donald Karabotsos, in accordance with what we think your dying wishes might well have been, we commit  you final mortal remains in the lap of the Pacific Ocean, which  you loved so well. Goodnight, sweet prince”.

1. The first sentence of the paragraph “Donny was a good bowler, and a good man” is a:

(A) Simple Sentence

(B) Complex Sentence

(C) Compound Sentence

(D) Complex-compound Sentence

Answer: (C)

2. Attitude towards ‘bowling’ of the narrator better defines:

(A) Dishonour

(B) Respect

(C) Disobedience

(D) Disinterested

Answer: (B)

3. In this context, the nearest synonym for ‘in the lap’ in the last sentence, would be:

(A) Chest

(B) Rest

(C) Water

(D) Foam

Answer: (B)

4. The sentence “died like a young man” shows that:

(A) He gave his life while fighting for his country.

(B) He committed suicide.

(C) He died in adolescence.

(D) He was murdered.

Answer: (A)

5. In the last two sentences, the narrator’s expressions can be better considered as:

(A) Enraged

(B) Confused

(C) Encouraged

(D) Formal

Answer: (D)

6. In the above paragraph, the attitude of the narrator towards Donny is mainly:

(A) Is of sad companionship

(B) Is without bias.

(C) Is of obvious rancour.

(D) Is of proudly separation.

Answer: (A)

7. The reference to Kheshang, Hill 364 of Langdoh in the sentence “By his will, God…” suggests that:

(A) Donny was killed in the battle

(B) Donny was buried on Hill 364

(C) The narrator also lost his friends in these places

(D) The narrator is remembering these places

Answer: (C)

8. In this perspective, the sense of line “In your wisdom, Lord….took the  youth” is well explained:

(A) Excitement

(B) Flurried

(C) Patient

(D) Ambivalent

Answer: (C)

9. In the sentence “In your wisdom, Lord ….” the word ‘bright’ most nearly means:

(A) intelligent

(B) light

(C) vivid

(D) dazzling

Answer: (A)

10. In the statement “ He was a man who loved the outdoors….” The word ‘bowling’ is a:

(A) Verb

(B) Adjective

(C) Gerund

(D) Noun

Answer: (D)

Section-II : Logical and Analytical Reasoning

Directions (Qs. No. 11-14): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

     There are six members in a family-A, B, C, D E and F. C is the sister of F. D is father of A and F is grandson of D. B is brother-in-law of F’s mother. E is the daughter of D. There are only two females in the family.

11. Who is the daughter of A and E?

(A) C

(B) E

(C) B

(D) D

Answer: (A)

12. Who is the mother of F?

(A) C

(B) E

(C) A

(D) B

Answer: (B)

13. Two female members of the family are:

(A) D, E

(B) A, C

(C) C, E

(D) F, C

Answer: (C)

14. Who is the uncle of C?

(A) D

(B) A

(C) F

(D) B

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. No. 15-18): In the following questions a series is being given. Select from the alternatives the correct term to fill in the missing term.

15. 2, 9, 28, 65, 126, ?

(A) 210

(B) 215

(C) 217

(D) 252

Answer: (C)

16. 15, 32, 67, 138, ?, 568

(A) 276

(B) 278

(C) 280

(D) 281

Answer: (D)

17. 19, 29, 41, 55,?, 89

(A) 69

(B) 71

(C) 74

(D) 76

Answer: (B)

18. 64, 63, 49, 49, 48, 36, 36, 35, 25, 25, 24, ?

(A) 16

(B) 18

(C) 20

(D) 22

Answer: (A)

19. Find the missing number:

(A) 89

(B) 93

(C) 72

(D) 64

Answer: (C)

20. Which is different from the rest of the three on any basis?

(A) Edge

(B) Corner

(C) Tip

(D) Vertex

Answer: (A)

21. If OCCUPATION is coded as QEEWRCVKQP, how will PROFESSION be coded?

(A) STQHGUUKQP

(B) RTQHGUUKPQ

(C) RTQHGUUKQP

(D) RTQGHUUKQP

Answer: (C)

22. The POTENTIAL is coded as 657247314, how will TALENT be coded?

(A) 714274

(B) 714247

(C) 741247

(D) 724147

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. No. 23-26): Study the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

     Mariam, Kunti, Begum, Shilpi and Meera are five friends. Each has six balls. Mariam gave three balls to Shilpi, who gave two balls each to Kunti and Meera. Begum gave four balls to Mariam who in turn gave three each to Kunti and Meera. Kunti gave five balls to Begum and Meera gave four balls to Shilpi.

23. Who possesses the most balls?

(A) Begum

(B) Shilpi

(C) Meera

(D) Kunti

Answer: (B)

24. How many balls are with Begum?

(A) 9

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 7

Answer: (D)

25. How many balls are with Kunti?

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 8

(D) 9

Answer: (A)

26. Who has the fewest balls?

(A) Begum

(B) Meera

(C) Mariam

(D) Kunti

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. No. 27-30): Study the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

     A and B play cricket and tennis. B and D play hockey. A and C play volleyball and tennis. C, D and E play football.

27. Who plays hockey and football?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

Answer: (D)

28. Who plays cricket, tennis and volleyball?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

Answer: (A)

29. Who plays only football?

(A) E

(B) D

(C) C

(D) B

Answer: (A)

30. Who plays volleyball and football?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

Answer: (C)

Section-III : Educational and General Awareness

31. Where is the headquarter of International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA)?

(A) Tel Aviv City, Israel

(B) Paris, France

(C) Tehran, Iran

(D) Masdar City, United Arab Emirates

Answer: (D)

32. What is geographically closest to Greater Nicobar?

(A) Sumatra

(B) Borneo

(C) Java

(D) Sri Lanka

Answer: (A)

33. Which of the following is a multi-level global campaign to spread awareness about the importance of education for girls?

(A) Girl’s Rising

(B) The most important part of our life; Girl

(C) Save Girls: Educate Girls

(D) Education for Girls

Answer: (A)

34. Lord Macaulay is related to:

(A) By introducing instruction through English medium

(B) Military reform

(C) End of sati practice

(D) Legal disclosure

Answer: (A)

35. Which of the following is not composed by Sant Tulsidas?

(A) Geetawali

(B) Kavitawali

(C) Vinay Patrika

(D) Sahitya Ratna

Answer: (D)

36. Which browser is developed by Google?

(A) Internet Explorer

(B) Firefox

(C) Safari

(D) Chrome

Answer: (D)

37. Who wrote the book “The Coalition Years 1996-2012”?

(A) Yashwant Sinha

(B) P. Chidambaram

(C) Pranab Mukherjee

(D) Sitaram Yechury

Answer: (C)

38. Parliament approved the National Education Policy in:

(A) 1985

(B) 1986

(C) 1988

(D) 1989

Answer: (B)

39. Which of the following acts was called by Jawaharlal Nehru as “Proclamation Letter of Slavery”?

(A) Regulating Act, 1773

(B) Pitt’s India Act, 1784

(C) Government of India Act, 1919

(D) Government  of India Act, 1935

Answer: (D)

40. Where is Jog Falls located?

(A) On the Tapti river

(B) On the Sharavati river

(C) On the Kaveri river

(D) On the Bhima river

Answer: (B)

41. In which year did the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan scheme start?

(A) 1999-2000

(B) 2000-2001

(C) 2001-2002

(D) 2002-2003

Answer: (B)

42. Yashpal Committee Report (1993) is known as:

(A) Learning the pleasure within

(B) Learning without Burden

(C) Learning to Learn

(D) Learning to Live Together

Answer: (B)

43. Who was given the Jnanpith Award for the year 2016?

(A) Sankha Ghosh

(B) Mridula Garg

(C) Namvar Singh

(D) Sankara Kurup

Answer: (A)

44. National Curriculum Framework was created by NCERT:

(A) 2005

(B) 2006

(C) 2007

(D) 2008

Answer: (A)

45. Which book was written by Swami Dayanand Saraswati?

(A) Satyarth Prakash

(B) Raja Yoga

(C) Geetanjali

(D) Chaturang

Answer: (A)

46. How can the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India be increased?

(A) By the notification of President

(B) By Parliamentary law

(C) By amending the Constitution of India

(D) By a representation of the Supreme Court

Answer: (B)

47. When did Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana enforce?

(A) 2014

(B) 2015

(C) 2016

(D) 2017

Answer: (B)

48. The main objective of the Hunter Commission (1882) was:

(A) Assessing the status of primary education and suggesting improvements

(B) Suggesting Police Reforms

(C) Examining revolutionary movements in India

(D) Translation of Indian literature into English

Answer: (A)

49. Section ‘51A’ of the Constitution deals with:

(A) Fundamental Rights

(B) Fundamental Duties

(C) Girl education

(D) Woman education

Answer: (B)

50. In which year was the All India Muslim League established?

(A) 1905

(B) 1904

(C) 1907

(D) 1906

Answer: (D)

51. Which region is called the ‘rice bowl’ of India?

(A) North-East Region

(B) Kerala and Tamil Nadu

(C) Indus-Ganga Plain

(D) Krishna-Godavari delta region

Answer: (D)

52. For which book Viren Dangwal was given the Sahitya Akademi Award?

(A) Syahi Tal

(B) Esi Duniya mein

(C) Dushchakra Mein Srasta

(D) Kal ki Baat

Answer: (C)

53. “Jeevan ka Phiya” is used as a ‘Theme’ in which of the following?

(A) Varli painting

(B) Thanka painting

(C) Manjusha painting

(D) Kalamkari painting

Answer: (B)

54. First President of India was:

(A) Dr. Radhakrishnan

(B) Dr. Zakir Husain

(C) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma

(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Answer: (D)

55. Recently, the Energy Ganga Project implemented by the Government of India is:

(A) Saving Gangai Dolphin in Ganges River

(B) Removing water pollution from the Ganges River and conserving the Ganges River

(C) Protection of Ganga flood affected plains

(D) Providing LPG from pipes to residents

Answer: (D)

Section-IV : Teaching-Learning and The School

56. The objective of teaching is:

(A) Change in behavior of students in expected direction

(B) Complete personality development of students

(C) Character building of students

(D) Getting selected in a proper  job

Answer: (A)

57. Why should there be discipline in the classroom?

(A) Children should feel that it is compulsory.

(B) Children should accept the tribunal.

(C) Children should understand the importance of organized and systematic work.

(D) If they want to become teachers, it will help them.

Answer: (C)

58. On which channel IGNOU’s programs are shown?

(A) Mukt channel

(B) Eklavya channel

(C) Gyan channel

(D) Vyas channel

Answer: (C)

59. The best definition of education can be:

(A) The preparation

(B) To acquire knowledge

(C) Learning

(D) Intellectual freedom

Answer: (D)

60. Which of the following organizations looks after the quality of teacher education in India?

(A) NCTE

(B) MCI

(C) AICTE

(D) CSIR

Answer: (A)

61. The dictionary is a:

(A) Audio medium

(B) Visual medium

(C) Print media

(D) Audio-Visual medium

Answer: (C)

62. Which title will be appropriate for the opening of the first day in nursery class?

(A) My best friend

(B) My neighbourhood

(C) My school

(D) My family

Answer: (D)

63. A good teacher is one who:

(A) Encourages children for all round development.

(B) Helps children to learn their lesson easily.

(C) Prepares children to pass the exam.

(D) Establishes discipline in the classroom.

Answer: (A)

64. What will you do if a child does not understand the lesson properly taught in class?

(A) Repeat the lesson

(B) Students will be asked to read additional books/learning materials.

(C) Know the child’s prior knowledge

(D) Will reread the lesson by choosing examples from the child’s background

Answer: (D)

65. In the perspective of education, socialization means:

(A) Building your own social standards

(B) To respect elders in society

(C) Adaptation and adjustment in social environment

(D) Always comply with social standards

Answer: (C)

66. The most important objective of teaching is:

(A) To understand teacher’s narrative to children

(B) Completing the lesson of your subject

(C) Keeping children comfortable during teaching

(D) Taking classes regularly

Answer: (A)

67. Statement ‘Men are generally more intelligent than women’:

(A) is true

(B) can be true

(C) shows gender differences

(D) Perfect for multiple areas of intelligence

Answer: (C)

68. Which one of the following is not an ‘output’ device?

(A) Keyboard

(B) Visual Display Unit

(C) Printer

(D) Plotter

Answer: (A)

69. Which of the following is not the main objective of NCERT?

(A) To organize pre-service and in-service training of teachers.

(B) To act as  a nodal institution in achieving the goals of universal elementary education

(C) To encourage and coordinate research in the field of school education

(D) Developing rules for teacher education programs

Answer: (D)

70. The purpose of the task is to:

(A) Keeping students busy at home

(B) Improvement in handwriting

(C) Parents’ participation in student learning

(D) Promotion of self-learning

Answer: (D)

71. In which state the first Open University was established in India?

(A) Andhra Pradesh

(B) Delhi

(C) Himachal Pradesh

(D) Tamil Nadu

Answer: (A)

72. Which is not a suitable tool for structural assessment?

(A) Duty

(B) Oral question

(C) Terminal examination

(D) Question Forum & Puzzle

Answer: (C)

73. Which of the following is not correct about the school?

(A) They are powerful-agencies of social change.

(B) They are social units of cultural transfer.

(C) They are influenced by the social and economic scenario in the country.

(D) They are possible means of conflict and separation.

Answer: (D)

74. What is the biggest benefit of interaction between teachers and fellows?

(A) It helps in effective learning.

(B) It provides satisfaction to the teacher.

(C) It encourages scholars to ask questions.

(D) It creates better collective relationships.

Answer: (A)

75. If a child often quarrels with his siblings, how will you help him as a teacher?

(A) You punish him in school

(B) Comparing him to others will discourage him

(C) Will ask parents to take drastic action

(D) By taking him alone find the reason for such behavior.

Answer: (D)

76. An effective teaching-aid material has one of the following characteristic/qualities:

(A) It looks good.

(B) Awakens all departments.

(C) Visible to everyone.

(D) It is easy to make.

Answer: (B)

77. What is not desired for a proper teaching-learning environment in the classroom?

(A) Autonomy of fellowship

(B) Freedom to teacher for innovation

(C) Meeting of continuous teacher-parent association

(D) Punishment for wrong behavior

Answer: (D)

78. Ann effective classroom environment occurs in:

(A) Different types of educational aids

(B) Live interaction of student-teacher

(C) Torrential silence

(D) Excessive discipline

Answer: (B)

79. Ethical values can be developed effectively in students when teachers:

(A) Speaks of sustainable values.

(B) He complies himself.

(C) Tells the story of great people.

(D) Provides reading material.

Answer: (B)

80. The success of teaching depends on:

(A) On advance skills

(B) On oral communication skills

(C) On children’s understanding

(D) On children’s choice

Answer: (C)

PART-B

Section-V : (i) Science

81. An electric motor converts:

(A) Electrical energy into heat energy

(B) Electrical energy into mechanical energy

(C) Mechanical energy into electrical energy

(D) Mechanical energy into heat energy

Answer: (B)

82. The part of DNA that informs a protein, is called:

(A) Nucleus

(B) Chromosome

(C) Modesty

(D) Gene

Answer: (D)

83. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?

(A) Sulphur dioxide

(B) Nitrogen dioxide

(C) Carbon dioxide

(D) Carbon monoixde

Answer: (C)

84. Which of the following would be true for highly acidic and highly alkaline solutions?

(A) The concentration of hydrogen ion in the solution will be 107 M

(B) The solution will turn litmus into red colour

(C) Solutions will be very good conductor of electricity

(D) The solutions will release hydrogen by reacting with Mg

Answer: (C)

85. Which colour of visible light has the lowest frequency?

(A) Violet

(B) Red

(C) Yellow

(D) Green

Answer: (B)

86. The blood corpuscles that help in blood clotting at the place of injury are:

(A) RBC

(B) WBC

(C) Platelets

(D) Eosinophils

Answer: (C)

87. The result of the ozone hole is:

(A) Green effect house

(B) Global warming

(C) Acid rain

(D) Increase in UV radiation

Answer: (D)

88. Choose a compound that has an oxidation number of +5 to chlorine.

(A) HClO4

(B) HClO3

(C) HClO2

(D) HClO

Answer: (B)

89. If the focal length of a lens is f, the power of the lens will be:

Answer: (A)

90. Which of the following electronic distributions should have a minimum ionic energy?

(A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2

(B) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1

(C) 1s2 2s2 2p6

(D) 1s2 2s2 2p3

Answer: (B)

91. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?

(A) Wind energy

(B) Ocean energy

(C) Solar energy

(D) Fossil energy

Answer: (D)

92. Which of the following properties is different for neutral atoms of two isotopes of the same element?

(A) Atomic number

(B) Mass

(C) Number of electrons

(D) General chemical reaction

Answer: (B)

93. What percentage of genes does a child get from his father?

(A) 25%

(B) 50%

(C) 75%

(D) 100%

Answer: (B)

94. Xylem in plants are responsible:

(A) For water transport

(B) For manure transport

(C) For the transport of amino acids

(D) For oxygen transport

Answer: (A)

95. Resistance of metal Conductor:

(A) Increases with increase in temperature

(B) Decreases with increase in temperature

(C) Doesn’t change with change in temperature

(D) Becomes zero at high temperature

Answer: (A)

96. Which of the following will form an ionic solution in water?

(A) CO2

(B) CCl4

(C) O2

(D) NaI

Answer: (D)

97. The reason for the movement of food in the esophagus is:

(A) Balsamic by saliva

(B) Peristalsis

(C) Gravitational pull

(D) Filtration

Answer: (B)

98. In which production the biodegraded waste can be used?

(A) Manure

(B) Biogas

(C) Both manure and biogas

(D) Neither manure nor biogas

Answer: (C)

99. In human beings, kidney is part of which system?

(A) Nutrition

(B) Respiration

(C) Excretion

(D) Circulation

Answer: (C)

100. The fastest depleting natural resources in the world are:

(A) Water

(B) Forest

(C) Air

(D) Sunlight

Answer: (B)

Section-V : (ii) Mathematics

101. The largest 4-digit number divisible by 15, 25, 40, and 75 will be?

(A) 9000

(B) 9200

(C) 9400

(D) 9600

Answer: (D)

102. How many digits will be in the right of the decimal point in the product of 65.425, and 0.03216?

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 8

(D) 9

Answer: (C)

103. 17 pen are sold at Rs 720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 pens, what is the cost price of one pen?

(A) Rs 43

(B) Rs 60

(C) Rs 55

(D) Rs 34

Answer: (B)

104. A fruit seller purchases 5 oranges in Rs 4 then sells 4 oranges in Rs 5, what is his profit per cent?

(A) 50%

(B) 48.56%

(C) 56.25%

(D) 62.25%

Answer: (C)

105. If (5.6)2 + 5.6p + (3.4)2 is a perfect square, then what is the value of p?

(A) 3.4

(B) 9.0

(C) 2.2

(D) 6.8

Answer: (D)

106. If the shadow of a pole is √3 times its length, then the angle of elevation towards the sun will be:

(A) 30°

(B) 45°

(C) 60°

(D) 75°

Answer: (A)

107. How many two-digit prime numbers have 1 as a second digit?

(A) 03

(B) 04

(C) 05

(D) 06

Answer: (C)

108. The total number of prime numbers between 20 and 50 will be:

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 8

(D) 9

Answer: (B)

109. The value of  is:

(A) 1.2

(B) 3.8

(C) 5.0

(D) 4.0

Answer: (C)

110. HCF of two numbers is 5 and LCM is150. If one number is 25, then the second number will be:

(A) 45

(B) 40

(C) 30

(D) 20

Answer: (C)

111. At 8.30 am, the angle between the minute and the hour hand in a watch will be:

(A) 60°

(B) 70°

(C) 75°

(D) 90°

Answer: (C)

112. If a shopkeeper gives 5% discount in his sale 3 times continuously, the total discount will be:

(A) 15%

(B) 12.27%

(C) 17.74%

(D) 14.26%

Answer: (D)

113. A clock starts in the afternoon. The hour needle will be bent at 5.10 pm?

(A) 145°

(B) 155°

(C) 160°

(D) 175°

Answer: (B)

114. A fruit seller has some oranges. He sold 30% of the oranges, yet he has 245 oranges left. How many oranges did he have in the beginning?

(A) 250

(B) 300

(C) 350

(D) 400

Answer: (C)

115. A 350 m. long train is running at a speed of 45 km/hr. In how much time it will cross 140 m. long platform?

(A) 30 seconds

(B) 40 seconds

(C) 45 seconds

(D) 50 seconds

Answer: (B)

116. If  then:

(A) a = b

(B) a + b =1

(C) a – b = 0

(D) a – b = 1

Answer: (B)

117. If one number is 10% less than another, which is 10% more than 200, then what is the first number?

(A) 190

(B) 198

(C) 202

(D) 218

Answer: (B)

118. Which of the following represents the ratio of seconds to hours?

(A) .00025

(B) .00026

(C) .00027

(D) .00028

Answer: (C or D)

119. A train running at a speed of 40 km/hr crosses a post in 18 seconds. The length of the train will be:

(A) 180 m

(B) 200 m

(C) 240 m

(D) 360 m

Answer: (B)

120. A student gets 240 marks in the examination and is failed with 60 marks, if the maximum marks is 600, then what is the passing percentage?

(A) 36%

(B) 40%

(C) 45%

(D) 50%

Answer: (D)

Section-V : (iii) Social Science

121. The word ‘mansab’ is used:

(A) A piece of land

(B) A position

(C) An office

(D) A pay scale

Answer: (B)

122. The Constitution of India was adopted:

(A) By the Governor General

(B) By British Parliament

(C) By Constituent Assembly

(D) By Indian Parliament

Answer: (C)

123. Excise duty is a tax:

(A) On sale of goods

(B) On export of goods

(C) On the production of goods

(D) On import of goods

Answer: (C)

124. Which of the following is not a fundamental feature of the Indian Constitution?

(A) Presidential government

(B) Parliamentary government

(C) Federal government

(D) Freedom of judiciary

Answer: (A)

125. The Similipal Tiger Reserve is located at:

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Uttarakhand

(C) Maharashtra

(D) Odisha

Answer: (D)

126. Which state is the largest producer of coal in India?

(A) Bihar

(B) Jharkhand

(C) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Odisha

Answer: (B)

127. Supernova is a:

(A) A dwarf star

(B) A black hole

(C) A meteor

(D) A dead star

Answer: (D)

128. Who is called the father of Indian Constitution?

(A) B.R. Ambedkar

(B) Mahatma Gandhi

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru

(D) Vallabhbhai Patel

Answer: (A)

129. Which of the following Gupta emperors was equally important in war and personal achievements?

(A) Chandragupta I

(B) Chandragupta II

(C) Kumargupta I

(D) Skandagupta

Answer: (B)

130. Which English Governor General started postage stamps in India?

(A) Lord Dalhousie

(B) Lord Auckland

(C) Lord Canning

(D) Lord William Bentinck

Answer: (A)

131. Where was the Mughal ruler Bahadur Shah II sent as captive by the British?

(A) Mendeley jail

(B) Adaman and Nicobar

(C) Rangoon

(D) Hyderabad

Answer: (C)

132. Members of Rajya Sabha are:

(A) Directly elected.

(B) Mostly nominated.

(C) Both chosen directly and indirectly.

(D) Elected by the assembly members.

Answer: (D)

133. Which section of the constitution has given residuary rights to the Parliament?

(A) Section 45

(B) Section 21A

(C) Section 148

(D) Section 360

Answer: (*)

134. On which river is the Gandhi Sagar Dam built?

(A) Narmada

(B) Chambal

(C) Tapti

(D) Mahanadi

Answer: (B)

135. The President of the Union of India is conferred with equivalent to which of the following:

(A) British Monarch

(B) President of America

(C) President of Egypt

(D) President of Russia

Answer: (A)

136. Who is the Chairman of Rajya Sabha?

(A) Prime Minister

(B) Finance Minister

(C) Commerce Minister

(D) Vice-President of India

Answer: (D)

137. Who was the last Mughal emperor?

(A) Babur

(B) Humayun

(C) Bhadur Shah Zafar

(D) Aurangzeb

Answer: (C)

138. Which of the following is the longest national highway in the country?

(A) National Highway-1

(B) National Highway-44

(C) National Highway-3

(D) National Highway-4

Answer: (B)

139. Who is considered as the founder of scientific socialism?

(A) Rousseau

(B) Karl Marx

(C) Engels

(D) Lenin

Answer: (B)

140. India is a ………… .

(A) Social economy

(B) Capitalist economy

(C) Mixed economy

(D) Open economy

Answer: (C)

Section-V : (iv) English

Directions (Q. Nos. 141-145): Choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.

141. The treacherous accountant gave away secrets to the rival company.

(A) greedy

(B) perfect

(C) faithful

(D) disloyal

Answer: (D)

142. The compliant student made sure to compliment her supervisor at every stage.

(A) brilliant

(B) amicable

(C) obliging

(D) faithful

Answer: (C)

143. The personalities of the twins are as disparate as day and night.

(A) dissimilar

(B) similar

(C) common

(D) incomprehensible

Answer: (A)

144. Ania is a vociferous defender of labour unions.

(A) eloquent

(B) forceful

(C) submissive

(D) amiable

Answer: (B)

145. The critic described the painting as insipid.

(A) Inspiring

(B) Uninteresting

(C) Significant

(D) Aesthetic

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150): In this group of words, only one word is correctly spelt. Select the one with the correct spelling.

146.

(A) Grigarious

(B) Gregerious

(C) Gregarious

(D) Grigerious

Answer: (C)

147.

(A) Alleviate

(B) Allevate

(C) Aleviate

(D) Aleeviate

Answer: (A)

148.

(A) Transitery

(B) Transitory

(C) Transetory

(D) Transetery

Answer: (B)

149.

(A) Erasable

(B) Erasible

(C) Erasibal

(D) Erascible

Answer: (A)

150.

(A) Dessonance

(B) Dissonance

(C) Desonance

(D) Disonance

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 151-154): Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

151. His volatile personality made it difficult to predict his reaction to anything.

(A) capricious

(B) erratic

(C) fickle

(D) calm

Answer: (D)

152. The character Scrooge in ‘A Christmas Carol’ is a misanthrope.

(A) cynic

(B) philanthropist

(C) pessimist

(D) recluse

Answer: (B)

153. His prodigal son quickly wasted all of his savings.

(A) miserly

(B) extravagant

(C) lavish

(D) wasteful

Answer: (A)

154. Anita has a reputation for veracity, so everyone trusted her.

(A) candour

(B) exactitude

(C) dishonesty

(D) fidelity

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 155 and 156): Select the word in each group that does not properly belong to it.

155.

(A) ardent

(B) enthusiastic

(C) passionate

(D) apathetic

Answer: (D)

156.

(A) professional

(B) lay person

(C) amateur

(D) novice

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 157-160): Pick out the most appropriate word from the given alternatives to fill in the blank to complete the sentence.

157. Despite the efforts to ______ the discord between the two fractions, the two groups remained sworn enemies.

(A) intensify

(B) exploit

(C) assuage

(D) excite

Answer: (C)

158. To avoid being ______, the teacher often includes jokes and amusing anecdotes in her lectures.

(A) amusing

(B) complex

(C) eccentric

(D) monotonous

Answer: (C)

159. The mines of the gold rush dug so deeply into the mountain that any more excavation could have had ________ consequences, causing a cave-in or a complete collapse.

(A) rigid

(B) devastating

(C) alienating

(D) moderate

Answer: (B)

160. To properly represent its ____ forms, Manu included, in his paper on the history of renaissance Art, over twenty sections each describing a different style.

(A) diverse

(B) simplest

(C) identical

(D) singular

Answer: (A)

Section-V : (v) Hindi

Answer: (D)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (C)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam-2021

PART-A

Section-I General English Comprehension

Directions (Qs. No. 1-10): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer out of the four choices given after each question that follows:

     Nature is like business. Business sense dictates that we guard our capital and live from the interest. Nature’s capital is the enormous diversity of living things. Without it, the cannot feed ourselves, cure ourselves of illness or provide industry with the raw materials of wealth creation. Professor Edward Wilson of Harvard University, says: “The folly our descendants are least likely to forgive us is the ongoing loss of genetic and species diversity. This will take millions of years to correct.”

     Only 150 plant species have ever been widely cultivated. Yet over 75,000 edible plants are known in the wild. In a hungry world, with a population growing by 90 million each year, so much wasted potential is tragic. Medicines from the wild are worth around 40 billion dollars a year. Over 5000 species are known to yield chemical with cancer fighting potential. Scientists currently estimate that the total number of species in the world is between 10-30 million with only around 1.4 million identified.

     The web of life is torn when human beings exploit natural resources in short-sighted ways. The trade in tropical hardwoods can destroy whole forests to extract just a few commercially attractive specimens. Bad agricultural practices trigger 24 billion tonnes of top soil erosion a year losing the equivalent of 9 million tonnes of grain output. Cutting this kind of unsuitable exploitation and institution “sustainable utilization” will help turn the environmental crisis around.

1. Why does the author compare ‘nature’ to ‘business’?

(A) Because of the capital depletion in nature and business

(B) Because of the similarity with which one should use both

(C) Because of the same interest level yield

(D) Because of the diversity of the various capital inputs

Answer: (D)

2. “The folly our descendants are least likely to forgive us”-What is the business equivalent of the folly the author is referring to?

(A) Reducing the profit margin

(B) Not pumping some money out of profits into the business

(C) Eroding the capital base of the business

(D) Putting interest on capital back into the business

Answer: (C)

3. Which of the following statements is false in the context of the passage?

(A) The diversity of plant life is essential for human existence

(B) Scientists know the usefulness of most plant specie

(C) Chemicals for cancer treatment are available from plants

(D) There are around ten times the plant species undiscovered as compared to the discovered ones

Answer: (B)

4. Which of the following correctly reflects the opinion of the author to take care of hunger in the world?

(A) Increase the number of species of edible plants being cultivated.

(B) Increase cultivation of the 150j species presently under cultivation

(C) Increase the cultivation of medicinal plants

(D) Increases the potential of the uncultivated edible plants

Answer: (C)

5. Which of the following is mentioned as the immediate cause for the destruction of forests?

(A) Soil Erosion

(B) Destruction of Habitat

(C) Cutting of Trees

(D) Bad Agricultural Practices

Answer: (C)

6. The author gives two examples of ‘unsuitable exploitation’. These are:

(A) Bad agricultural practices and soil erosion

(B) Bad agricultural practices and trade in tropical hardwoods

(C) Trade in tropical hardwoods and soil erosion

(D) Trade in tropical hardwoods and losing tonnes of grain output

Answer: (B)

7. The passage is about

(A) Business

(B) Nature

(C) Environmental Crisis

(D) Agricultural Practices

Answer: (B)

8. What, according to the author, is ‘environmental crisis’

(A) Trade in tropical hardwoods

(B) Bad agricultural practices

(C) Soil erosion

(D) The ongoing loss of genetic and species diversity

Answer: (D)

9. Which of the following words is nearly the same in meaning as the words ‘wasted’ as used in the passage?

(A) Consumed

(B) Squandered

(C) Unutilised

(D) Unprofitable

Answer: (C)

10. Which of the following words is nearly opposite in meaning to ‘cutting’ as used in the passage?

(A) Uniting

(B) Avoiding

(C) Joining

(D) Combining

Answer: (D)

Section-II : Logical and Analytical Reasoning

11. Which of the following is the next term in the series?

PAT, PEN, PIT, PON, ?

(A) PET

(B) POT

(C) PUT

(D) PAN

Answer: (C)

12. Which of the following continues the series?

2, 4, 6, 9, 12, ?

(A) 14

(B) 15

(C) 16

(D) 17

Answer: (C)

13. Which of the following fills the gap in the series?

25, 49, 81, ?, 169

(A) 100

(B) 64

(C) 121

(D) 144

Answer: (C)

14. Rohit said to a girl, “Your mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-law.” How is Rohit related to the girl?

(A) Father

(B) Uncle

(C) Brother

(D) Cousin

Answer: (A)

15. In a code language, STAR is written as RATS, then ROUT will be written as:

(A) TOUR

(B) TORU

(C) ROTU

(D) TUOR

Answer: (D)

16. In a code language 25 means, ‘Green Apple’, 35 means ‘Red Apple’ and 34 means ‘Red Cherry’. What is the code for ‘Green Cherry’?

(A) 23

(B) 24

(C) 34

(D) 43

Answer: (B)

17. Father said to the son, “When you were born, I was of your present age.” If the father is 36 years old now, how old was the son 7 years ago?

(A) 11 years

(B) 13 years

(C) 15 years

(D) 17 years

Answer: (A)

18. A circular coin is placed on a plane surface. How many more coins of the same size can be placed around it so that each touches the central coin and adjacent coins?

(A) 4

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 10

Answer: (B)

19. From a starting point, a man moves 3 km north, then turns west and walks 2 km, again turns back and walks 1 km and then moves 5 km towards east. How far is the how from starting point?

(A) 5 km

(B) 8 km

(C) 10 km

(D) 12 km

Answer: (A)

20. If 3rd of December is Saturday, then the last day of the month would be:

(A) Monday

(B) Saturday

(C) Thursday

(D) Sunday

Answer: (B)

21. Five houses A to E are in a row. A is to the right of B, E is to the left of C and right of A, and B is to right of D. Which house is in the middle?

(A) D

(B) C

(C) B

(D) A

Answer: (D)

22. The medians of a triangle ABC intersect at D. How many triangles are formed in the resulting figures?

(A) 18

(B) 16

(C) 12

(D) 8

Answer: (B)

23. If 6 + 7 is 43 and 5 + 6 is 31, then 4 + 5 is :

(A) 9

(B) 20

(C) 21

(D) 25

Answer: (C)

24. If 213 is written as 6 and 432 is written as 9, then 543 would be written as:

(A) 10

(B) 11

(C) 12

(D) 13

Answer: (C)

25. If order of first 13 English alphabets is reversed, then which letter would not change its position?

(A) E

(B) F

(C) G

(D) H

Answer: (C)

26. Which of the following fills the gap in the series?

1, 2, 3, 1, 4, 9, 1, ?, 27

(A) 5

(B) 6

(C) 7

(D) 8

Answer: (D)

27. The population of a town consists of 45% men and 40% women. If the number of children is 30,000, then the total population of the town is:

(A) 2 lakhs

(B) 3 lakhs

(C) 4.5 lakhs

(D) 6 lakhs

Answer: (A)

28. Which of the following words appears first of all in the dictionary?

(A) Compensate

(B) Compassionate

(C) Compression

(D) Competition

Answer: (B)

29. Preetig ranks 38th in her class both from top and bottom. How many students are there in the class?

(A) 77

(B) 76

(C) 75

(D) 74

Answer: (C)

30. A square is divided into 16 equal parts by intersecting lines parallel to its sides. How many squares are formed in the resulting figure?

(A) 16

(B) 28

(C) 30

(D) 36

Answer: (C)

Section-III : Educational and General Awareness

31. Kisan Diwas is celebrated on:

(A) October 23

(B) November 23

(C) December 23

(D) September 23

Answer: (C)

32. “A Bunch of Old Letters” was written by:

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Mahatma Gandhi

(C) Abdul Kalam

(D) Morarji Desai

Answer: (A)

33. Who is known as ‘Man of Destiny’?

(A) Adolf Hitler

(B) George Bernard Shaw

(C) Napoleon

(D) Shakespeare

Answer: (C)

34. Mission Innovation aims to:

(A) accelerate clean energy innovation to address climate change

(B) promote indigeous development of Nano Satellites

(C) adopt new methods of agriculture

(D) adopt new methods of water harvesting

Answer: (A)

35. Who was the Viceroy at the time of Quit India Movement?

(A) Lord Warren Hastings

(B) Lord Dalhousie

(C) Lord Curzon

(D) Lord Linlithgow

Answer: (D)

36. The ‘Red Line campaign’ started by India is related to which of the following field?

(A) Fencing of India-Pakistan Border

(B) Zero open defecation

(C) Curb irrational use of antibiotics

(D) Zero corruption

Answer: (C)

37. The Union Budget is presented under which Article of the Constitution of India ?

(A) 110

(B) 111

(C) 112

(D) 113

Answer: (C)

38. When was the Indian Post Office Act passed?

(A) 1852

(B) 1853

(C) 1854

(D) 1898

Answer: (D)

39. Which event occurred first in India’s Independence struggle?

(A) Simon Commission

(B) Non-Cooperation Movement

(C) Gandhi-Irwin Pact

(D) Tripura Adhiveshan of Congress

Answer: (B)

40. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in:

(A) UK

(B) Canada

(C) USA

(D) South Africa

Answer: (C)

41. The country which levied a tax on WhatsApp and Facebook in the year 2018 is:

(A) Uganda

(B) Zambia

(C) Zimbabwe

(D) Tanzania

Answer: (A)

42. According to the World Bank, which country remained the top recipient of remittances in 2018?

(A) India

(B) China

(C) Mexico

(D) Philippines

Answer: (A)

43. The Tropic of Capricorn does not pass through:

(A) Argentina

(B) Bolivia

(C) Brazil

(D) Chile

Answer: (B)

44. Similipal Tiger Reserve is situated in the State of:

(A) Odisha

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(C) West Bengal

(D) Karnataka

Answer: (A)

45. In which State is Silent Valley situated?

(A) Tamil Nadu

(B) Kerala

(C) Assam

(D) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (B)

46. A document called “ The Future We Want” related to which of the following organizations?

(A) United Nations Conference of Sustainable Development

(B) Global Environment Facility

(C) United nations Framework Convention on Climate Change

(D) Convention on Biological Diversity

Answer: (A)

47. The Spratly Islands are located in which of the following seas?

(A) The Caspian Sea

(B) The Black Sea

(C) The Mediterranean Sea

(D) The South China Sea

Answer: (D)

48. Tapti river originates from which district of Madhya Pradesh?

(A) Betul

(B) Balaghat

(C) Chhindwara

(D) Hoshangabad

Answer: (A)

49. Which of the following monuments in India is not a world heritage?

(A) Fatehpur Sikri

(B) Ajanta and Ellora

(C) Khajuraho

(D) Jantar Mantar in Delhi

Answer: (D)

50. ‘Life Divine’ is written by:

(A) Aurobindo Ghosh

(B) V.V Giri

(C) Amrita Pritam

(D) V.D. Savarkar

Answer: (A)

51. Which writ is issued by the High Court to the lower courts to stop legal actions?

(A) Habeas corpus

(B) Prohibition

(C) Quo warranto

(D) Certiorari

Answer: (B)

52. Return of income is submitted under which Section of the Income Tax Act?

(A) Section 138(1)

(B) Section 142(1)

(C) Section 139(1)

(D) Section 129(1)

Answer: (C)

53. National Knowledge Commission was headed by:

(A) Ashok Ganguly

(B) P. Balaram

(C) Sam Pitroda

(D) Deepak Nayyar

Answer: (C)

54. Which of the following is the apex body in the area of Teacher Education in India?

(A) UGC

(B) NIEPA

(C) NCTE

(D) NCERT

Answer: (C)

55. The idea of Four Pillars of Education was suggested by:

(A) UNICEF

(B) UNESCO

(C) UNDP

(D) UNITAR

Answer: (B)

Section-IV : Teaching-Learning and The School

56. RTE Act, 2009 envisages all children free admission to:

(A) Sainik schools

(B) Army schools

(C) Neighbourhood schools

(D) Navodaya schools

Answer: (C)

57. “Learning Without Burden” is the report submitted by a committee under the chairmanship of:

(A) Prof. Amrit Desai

(B) Prof. Amrik Singh

(C) Prof. Ved Prakash

(D) Prof. Yashpal

Answer: (D)

58. What is the verbal component of a poster?

(A) Image

(B) Caption

(C) Graph

(D) Table

Answer: (B)

59. Which of the following learner characteristics impacts teaching the most?

(A) Prior experience of the learner

(B) Educational status of the parents of the learner

(C) Peer group of learner

(D) Family size from which the learner comes

Answer: (A)

60. National Education Day is observed on November 11 every year in the memory of:

(A) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

(C) Zakir Hussain

(D) Mahatma Gandhi

Answer: (B)

61. Determining the aims of Education is the responsibility of:

(a) Parents                        (b) Teachers

(c) Students                     (d) Society

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (b) and (c)

(B) (b), (c) and (d)

(C) only (a)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (D)

62. Immediate outcome of teaching is related to:

(A) desirable changes in the behaviour of students.

(B) development of personality of students.

(C) moral development of students.

(D) enhancing employability.

Answer: (B)

63. Discipline in the class essentially helps to:

(A) establish teacher’s authority.

(B) make children understand that indiscipline is punishable.

(C) make classroom activities organised and orderly.

(D) adhere to the time-table.

Answer: (C)

64. Which of the following is not desirable for effective teaching?

(A) Questioning

(B) Using teaching aids

(C) Following textbook rigidly

(D) Encouraging student talk

Answer: (C)

65. What are the characteristics of Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation?

(a) Multiple tests

(b) Criteria-based tests

(c) Assessment for learning

(d) Assessing scholastic and co-scholastic aspects

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a), (b) and (d)

(B) (b) and (d)

(C) (a), (b) and (c)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (D)

66. Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of multiple choice type questions?

(A) These are objective.

(B) These are subjective.

(C) These do not need appropriate distractors.

(D) These do not have a fixed answer.

Answer: (A)

67. The key component of teacher-student communication during teaching is:

(A) Humour

(B) Learner’s problems

(C) Subject content

(D) Motivating statements

Answer: (D)

68. Which among the following is a teacher-centred method?

(A) Project

(B) Lecture

(C) Group work

(D) Brainstorming

Answer: (B)

69. A teacher as a facilitator is one who:

(A) delivers lectures.

(B) explains concepts and principles.

(C) gives printed notes to students.

(D) inspires students to learn.

Answer: (D)

70. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching?

(A) Students asking questions

(B) Maximum attendance of students

(C) Silence in the classroom

(D) Students taking notes

Answer: (A)

71. In the classroom, the teacher sends the message either as words or images. The students are:

(A) Encoders

(B) Decoders

(C) Noise eliminators

(D) Senders

Answer: (B)

72. CIET stands for:

(A) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology

(B) Central Institute for Engineering and Technology

(C) Central Institute for Educational Technology

(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation Techniques

Answer: (C)

73. An effective classroom environment has:

(A) No teaching aids

(B) Lively student-teacher interaction

(C) Silence

(D) Strict discipline

Answer: (B)

74. In which period did India become a centre of higher learning with Nalanda and Taxila?

(A) Chola period

(B) Gupta period

(C) Harappa Civilization period

(D) Mughal period

Answer: (B)

75. Curriculum is:

(A) same as syllabus

(B) content to be taught

(C) overall educational activities within and outside the school.

(D) only teaching, no other activities.

Answer: (C)

76. What is the full from SWAYAM?

(A) Study Webs of Active-Learning for  Young Aspiring Minds

(B) Study Webs for Accustomed Learning for Young Aspiring Minds

(C) Study Ways of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds

(D) Study Webs of Actual Learning for Young Aspiring Minds

Answer: (A)

77. Operation Blackboard was launched under National Policy on Education (1986) to:

(A) provide schools with adequate number of blackboards.

(B) create awareness for using blackboards.

(C) provide minimum essential facilities to the schools.

(D) use blackboard effectively in the teaching learning process.

Answer: (C)

78. Effectiveness of teaching has to be judged in terms of:

(A) course coverage.

(B) aims of teaching.

(C) learning outcomes of students

(D) use of teaching aids in the classroom.

Answer: (C)

79. Good teaching does not involve:

(A) Guiding

(B) Motivating

(C) Explaining

(D) Encouraging rote learning

Answer: (D)

80. Project method is based on the principle of:

(A) Learning by play-way

(B) Learning by doing

(C) Learning from teacher

(D) Learning from books

Answer: (B)

PART-B

Section-V : (i) Science

81. Cause of Acid rain is:

(A) Release of oxides of Carbon, Nitrogen and Sulphur in the atmosphere due to burning of fossil fuels.

(B) Friction among clouds causes electric charges

(C) Humidity produces acid vapour

(D) Sun heats up the clouds

Answer: (A)

82. Which of the following is acidic in nature?

(A) Common Salt solution

(B) Pure water

(C) Lemon juice

(D) Baking soda solution

Answer: (C)

83. What is the volume of 16 g of oxygen at Standard Temperature and pressure (S.T.P.)?

(A) 22.4 litres

(B) 11.2 litres

(C) 22.4 cm3

(D) 11.2 cm3

Answer: (B)

84. Mass number of an element is X and it has 11 electrons. The number of neutrons in it is:

(A) X + 11

(B) X

(C) 11

(D) X – 11

Answer: (D)

85. An example of a chemical change is:

(A) Conversion of water into ice

(B) Conversion of water into steam

(C) Heating of a resistor on passing current

(D) Conversion of milk into curd

Answer: (D)

86. A man is 10 feet away from his image in a plane mirror fixed in a wall. He walks 3 feet towards the mirror. What is the distance between him and his image now?

(A) 2 feet

(B) 3 feet

(C) 4 feet

(D) 6 feet

Answer: (C)

87. If a ray of light is going from air to glass and angle of incidence is i and angle of refraction is r we have:

(A) i < r

(B) sin i = sin r

(C) 

(D) sin i × sin r = Constant

Answer: (C)

88. Two resistance of two ohms each are joined in parallel. What is the equivalent resistance?

(A) 1 ohm

(B) 2 ohms

(C) 3 ohms

(D) 4 ohms

Answer: (A)

89. What unbalanced force in Newton (N) will accelerate a 25 kg body from 5 m/s to 10 m/s in 5 seconds?

(A) 1 N

(B) 5 N

(C) 25 N

(D) 50 N

Answer: (C)

90. Watt is the unit of:

(A) Energy

(B) Work

(C) Force

(D) Power

Answer: (D)

91. The planet nearest to Earth in our Solar System is:

(A) Mercury

(B) Venus

(C) Mars

(D) Jupiter

Answer: (A)

92. Alpha particles are:

(A) Positively charged

(B) Negatively charged

(C) Not charged

(D) Same as photons

Answer: (A)

93. Night blindness is caused due to:

(A) Deficiency of Vitamin ‘A’

(B) Deficiency of Vitamin ‘B’

(C) Deficiency of Vitamin ‘C’

(D) Excess of Vitamin ‘A’

Answer: (A)

94. Why is a flash of lightning seen before the sound of thunder is heard?

(A) Because light travels faster than sound

(B) Because light is produced much earlier

(C) Because sound is obstructed by clouds

(D) Because sound is produced farther away

Answer: (A)

95. The disease ‘Jaundice’ is associated with:

(A) Eyes

(B) Lungs

(C) Gums

(D) Liver

Answer: (D)

96. It is the process by which green plants manufacture food in the form of carbohydrates in the presence of sunlight.

(A) Osmosis

(B) Radioactivity

(C) Photosynthesis

(D) Ecology

Answer: (C)

97. Which one of the following is not an essential micronutrient for plants?

(A) Zinc

(B) Copper

(C) Boron

(D) Sodium

Answer: (D)

98. What is the measure of acidity of a liquid?

(A) Boiling Point

(B) Freezing Point

(C) pH

(D) Density

Answer: (C)

99. Which one of the following is also known as ‘Laughing Gas’?

(A) Helium

(B) Nitrous oxide

(C) Nitrogen dioxide

(D) Nitrogen

Answer: (B)

100. Respiration involves exchange of:

(A) Oxygen and Carbon dioxide

(B) Oxygen and Nitrogen

(C) Nitrogen and Carbon dioxide

(D) Hydrogen and Nitrogen

Answer: (A)

Section-V: (ii) Mathematics

101. The sum of the odd numbers between 0 and 50 is:

(A) 575

(B) 625

(C) 675

(D) 725

Answer: (B)

102. Ten observations have been arranged in ascending order as under:

29, 32, 48, 50, x, x + 2, 72, 78, 84, 95

The median is 63. The value of x is:

(A) 60

(B) 61

(C) 62

(D) 64

Answer: (C)

103. 75th Percentile coincides with:

(A) Median

(B) Mode

(C) First Quartile

(D) Third Quartile

Answer: (D)

104. Mean, Median and Mode coincide in:

(A) Positively skewed curve

(B) Negatively skewed curve

(C) Normal probability curve

(D) Leptokurtic curve

Answer: (C)

105. The value of sec A(1 – sin A) (sec A + tan A) is:

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) sin A

(D) cos A

Answer: (B)

106. The angle of elevation of the top of a building from the foot of the tower is 30° ad the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the building is 60°. The tower is 50 m high. The height of the building is:

Answer: (A)

107. In ∆ABC, AB = 6√3 cm, AC = 12 cm and BC = 6 cm. The angle B is:

(A) 45°

(B) 60°

(C) 90°

(D) 120°

Answer: (C)

108. 8 men can dig a pit in 20 days. If a man works half as much more as a boy, 4 men and 9 boys will dig a similar pit in:

(A) 12 days

(B) 14 days

(C) 16 days

(D) 18 days

Answer: (C)

109. 12 copies of a book were sold for Rs 1,800 thereby gaining the cost price of 3 copies. The cost price of a copy is:

(A) Rs 100

(B) Rs 120

(C) Rs 140

(D) R 160

Answer: (B)

110. A wooden box is 110 cm × 90 cm × 40 cm is size. Packets 22 cm in length, 15 cm in breadth and 6 cm in height are to be placed in it. How many of these can be place in the box?

(A) 160

(B) 180

(C) 200

(D) 220

Answer: (C)

111. The approximate value of :

0.4 × 0.4 + 0.04 × 0.04 + 0.04 is:

(A) 0.16

(B) 0.20

(C) 0.44

(D) 0.46

Answer: (B)

112. Two trains 126 m and 114 m long are running in opposite directions, one at the rate of 30 kmph and another one at 42 kmph. From the moment they meet, the will cross each other in:

(A) 13 seconds

(B) 12 seconds

(C) 11 seconds

(D) 10 seconds

Answer: (B)

113. A student passed in first division securing 440 marks, but missed distinction marks of 75% by 10 marks. The maximum marks for the exam was:

(A) 500

(B) 550

(C) 700

(D) 600

Answer: (D)

114. A sum of money amounts to Rs 1,800 in 2 years and Rs 2,592 in 4years at a compound interest rate of:

(A) 10%

(B) 

(C) 15%

(D) 20%

Answer: (*)

115. The HCF and LCM of two number are 16 and 672 respectively. If one of the numbers is 112, what is the other number?

(A) 96

(B) 192

(C) 80

(D) 48

Answer: (A)

116. A man’s salary was decreased by 30% and then increased by 30%. The net change is:

(A) 10% increase

(B) 10% decrease

(C) 9% decrease

(D) 9% increase

Answer: (C)

117. The average salary of male employees in a firm is Rs 5,200 and that of female employees is Rs 4,200. The mean salary of all employees is Rs 5,000. The percentage of female employees is:

(A) 15%

(B) 20%

(C) 25%

(D) 30%

Answer: (B)

118. How much would A get if a sum of Rs 890 is to be divided amongst A, B and C such that A : B is 4 : 5 and B : C is 6 : 7?

(A) Rs 160

(B) Rs 200

(C) Rs 220

(D) Rs 240

Answer: (D)

119. A father’s age is 5 times the age of his daughter. It was 9 times, five years ago. How old is the father now?

(A) 45 years

(B) 50 years

(C) 55 years

(D) 60 years

Answer: (B)

120. A two-digit number is less than 30. The sum of its digits is 7 and their multiplication product is 10. The number is:

(A) 16

(B) 24

(C) 25

(D) 28

Answer: (C)

Section-V : (iii) Social Science

121. Which of the following periodicals is not correctly matched with the editor?

(A) Bande Mataram : Aurobindo Ghosh

(B) Sandhya : Barindra Ghosh

(C) New India : Bipin Chandra Pal

(D) Yugantar : Bhupendranath Datta

Answer: (B)

122. An instrument used to record the motion of the ground during an earthquake is:

(A) Seismometer

(B) Seismogram

(C) Seismology

(D) Seismograph

Answer: (D)

123. The idea of ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ in the Indian Constitution is taken from the Constitution of:

(A) Ireland

(B) Australia

(C) Britain

(D) USA

Answer: (A)

124. The idea of “Lokpal” bill is taken from:

(A) Britain

(B) America

(C) Scandinavian countries

(D) France

Answer: (C)

125. Who was the First Woman President of Indian National Congress?

(A) Sarojini Naidu

(B) Rajkumari Amrita Kaur

(C) Annie Besant

(D) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

Answer: (C)

126. Mahatma Gandhi gave the title of ‘Sardar’ to Vallabhbhai Patel for his great organisational skill in the :

(A) Kheda Satyagraha

(B) Bardoli Satyagraha

(C) Salt Satyagraha

(D) Champaran Satyagraha

Answer: (B)

127. Andaman wild pig is an example of:

(A) Vulnerable species

(B) Endemic species

(C) Rare species

(D) Extinct species

Answer: (B)

128. Which country has the highest productivity of rice?

(A) India

(B) China

(C) Sri Lanka

(D) Bangladesh

Answer: (B)

129. The main source of National Income in India is ………. .

(A) Primary Sector

(B) Secondary Sector

(C) Service Sector

(D) Allied Sector

Answer: (C)

130. The central banking functions are performed by the:

(A) Central Bank of India

(B) Reserve Bank of India

(C) State Bank of India

(D) Punjab National Bank

Answer: (B)

131. The First Battle of Panipat was in the year:

(A) 1520

(B) 1526

(C) 1530

(D) 1535

Answer: (B)

132. Who was popularly known as the “Parrot of India”?

(A) Amir Khusro

(B) Khwaja Nasir

(C) Parthasarathi Mishra

(D) Chand Bardai

Answer: (A)

133. The Capital of the kingdom of Maharaja Ranjit Singh was:

(A) Lahore

(B) Ambala

(C) Patiala

(D) Amritsar

Answer: (A)

134. Of the four events mentioned below, which was the last to take place?

(A) The Cripps Mission

(B) Simla Conference

(C) Cabinet Mission Plan

(D) The Ratings Mutiny

Answer: (C)

135. Which dynasty ruled during the years 1206 – 1290 in India?

(A) Mauryan dynasty

(B) Slave dynasty

(C) Gupta dynasty

(D) Chalukya dynasty

Answer: (B)

136. The organization that negotiates trade agreements between almost all of the nations in the world is:

(A) WTO

(B) UNO

(C) UNDP

(D) IMF

Answer: (A)

137. The lowest layer of the Earth’s atmosphere is:

(A) Stratosphere

(B) Mesosphere

(C) Troposphere

(D) Thermosphere

Answer: (C)

138. Black soil is most suitable for the cultivation of:

(A) Paddy

(B) Maize

(C) Cotton

(D) Wheat

Answer: (C)

139. Which of the following rivers is called as Dakshina Ganga?

(A) Kaveri

(B) Krishna

(C) Godavari

(D) Tungabhadra

Answer: (C)

140. A Public Service Commission was established in India for the first time by:

(A) Indian Council Act, 1892

(B) The Government of India Act, 1919

(C) The Act of 1909

(D) The Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: (B)

Section-V : (iv) English

Directions (Q. Nos. 141-145) : Choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.

141. Being a big businessman, Gita’s father is very affluent.

(A) Prosperous

(B) Poor

(C) Talkative

(D) Intelligent

Answer: (A)

142. The massacre of Kashmiri Pandits in 1990 was tragic.

(A) Stabbing

(B) Slaughter

(C) Murder

(D) Genocide

Answer: (D)

143. The young boys were reprimanded for watching obscene videos.

(A) Objectionable

(B) Vulgar

(C) Displeasing

(D) Condemnable

Answer: (B)

144. He pilfered many precious things from the palace.

(A) Destroyed

(B) Damaged

(C) Stole

(D) Snatched

Answer: (C)

145. Resilience is a desirable human trait.

(A) Flexibility

(B) Pride

(C) Rigidity

(D) Joyfulness

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150): In each of the following group of words, only one of them is correctly spelt. Select the one with the correct spelling.

146.

(A) acomodate

(B) accomodate

(C) accommodate

(D) acommodate

Answer: (C)

147.

(A) purtinacious

(B) pertinacious

(C) purtenacious

(D) pertenecious

Answer: (B)

148.

(A) perilous

(B) parilous

(C) perilus

(D) parilus

Answer: (A)

149.

(A) bleeth

(B) blith

(C) blithe

(D) bleethe

Answer: (C)

150.

(A) invidous

(B) invidious

(C) envidous

(D) envidious

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 151-154): Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

151. He is mystic by nature.

(A) spiritual

(B) magical

(C) visionary

(D) worldly

Answer: (D)

152. The number of words in a dictionary are finite.

(A) strange

(B) endless

(C) indefinite

(D) vague

Answer: (B)

153. He had ample number of days to prepare for the exam.

(A) insufficient

(B) large

(C) small

(D) adequate

Answer: (A)

154. He lived a lavish life:

(A) showy

(B) rich

(C) simple

(D) moral

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 155 and 156): Pick out the most appropriate word from the given alternatives to fill in the blank to complete the sentence.

155. The soldiers were instructed to …… restraint and handle the situation peacefully.

(A) exercise

(B) control

(C) prevent

(D) enforce

Answer: (A)

156. Since one cannot read all books, one should be content with making a ………. selection.

(A) normal

(B) standard

(C) judicious

(D) moderate

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 157-160) : Choose the correct answer.

157. The novel ‘Wuthering Heights’ was written by:

(A) Charlotte Bronte

(B) Emily Bronte

(C) George Eliot

(D) Jane Austen

Answer: (B)

158. The poem ‘Daffodils’ was written by:

(A) Keats

(B) Shelley

(C) Wordsworth

(D) Byron

Answer: (C)

159. The play ‘Man and Superman’ was written by:

(A) Shakespeare

(B) Bernard Shaw

(C) Eugene O’Neil

(D) Aurobindo Ghosh

Answer: (B)

160. The novel ‘The Guide’ was written by:

(A) Rabindranath Tagore

(B) R. K. Narayan

(C) Anita Desai

(D) Khushwant Singh

Answer: (B)

Section-V : (v) Hindi

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2022 With Answer Key

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam-2022

PART-A

Section-I General English Comprehension

Directions (Qs. No. 1-10): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer out of the four choices after each question that follows:

            A great deal of discussion continues as to the real extent of global environmental degradation and its implications. What few people challenge, however, is that the renewable natural resources of developing countries are today subject to stresses of unprecedented magnitude. These pressures are brought about, in part, by increased population and the quest for an ever expanding food supply because the health, nutrition and general well-being of the poor majority are directly dependent on the integrity and productivity of their natural resources, the capability of government to manage them effecting over the long-term becomes of paramount importance.

            Developing countries are becoming more aware of the ways in which present and future economic development must build upon a sound and sustainable natural resource base. Some are looking at our long tradition in environmental protection and are receptive to US assistance which recognizes the uniqueness of the social and ecological systems in these tropical countries. Developing countries recognize the need to improve their capability to analyse issues and their own natural resource management. Some countries such as Senegal, India, Indonesia, Thailand etc. are now including conservation concerns in their economic development process.

            Because so many governments of developing nations have recognized the importance of these issues, the need today is not merely one of raising additional consciousness, but for carefully designed and sharply focused activities aimed at the establishment of effective resource management reforms that are essential to the achievement of sustainable development.

1. Some developing countries of Asia and Africa have:

(A)  formulated very ambitious plans of protecting the habitat in their region.

(B)  laid a great stress on the conservation of natural resources in their educational endeavor.

(C)  carefully dovetailed environmental conservation with the overall strategies of planned economic development.

(D)  sought the help of US experts in solving the problems of environmental degradation.

Answer: (D)

2. Technical know-how developed in the USA:

(A)  cannot be easily assimilated by the technocrats o developing countries.

(B)  can be properly utilised on the basis of developing countries being able to launch an in-depth study of their specific problems.

(C)  can be easily borrowed by the developing countries to solve the  problem of environmental degradation.

(D)  can be very effective in solving the problem of resource management in tropical countries.

Answer: (D)

3. There has been a pronounced deterioration of habitat all over the globe because of:

(A)  population explosion

(B)  unprecedented urbanisation

(C)  massive industrialisation in the developing countries.

(D)  large scale deforestation

Answer: (A)

4. The poor people of the developing world can lead a happy and contented life if:

(A)  aid flows freely to the developing world.

(B)  industries based on agriculture are widely developed.

(C)  economic development takes place within ambit o conservation of natural resources.

(D)  there is an assured supply of food and medical care.

Answer: (C)

5. How much environmental pollution has taken place in the developing and the developed world?

(A)  There has been a marginal pollution of environmental in the developed world and extensive damage in the developing world.

(B)  There has been a considerable pollution of environment all over the globe.

(C)  There has been an extensive environmental degradation both in the developed as well as the developing world.

(D)  The environmental pollution that has taken place al over the globe continues to be a matter of speculation and enquiry.

Answer: (D)

6. What according to the passage, is an unquestionable reality today?

(A)  The renewable natural resources in developing countries are in great danger and on the verge of coming to an end.

(B)  The renewable natural resources in developed countries will never end.

(C)  The renewable natural resources all over the world are going to end soon.

(D)  The renewable natural resources in the developed world will end soon.

Answer: (A)

7. What is the most important reason for the depletion of natural resources in developing countries?

(A)  Lack of knowledge

(B)  Population explosion

(C)  Life style of people

(D)  Callousness of their governments

Answer: (B)

8. What is the most important for the preservation of natural resources?

(A)  Funding from external sources to manage resources.

(B)  Advancement in science and technology to manage resources.

(C)  Awareness of the people to manage resources.

(D)  Capability of governments to manage resources.

Answer: (D)

9. Activities aimed at preservation of natural resources is important for:

(A)  Social Development

(B)  Sustainable Development

(C)  Political Development

(D)  Cultural Development

Answer: (B)

10. The passage is about:

(A)  Population Explosion

(B)  Expanding Food Supply

(C)  US assistance for managing natural resources

(D)  Effective resource management for sustainable development

Answer: (D)

Section-II : Logical and Analytical Reasoning

11. If 4 +4 = 15 and 6 + 6 = 35, then 8 +8 = ?

(A) 65                                          (B) 63

(C) 64                                          (D) 62

Answer: (B)

12. If SYSTEM is coded as METSYS and FORMER is coded as REMROF, then CARPET would be coded as:

(A) PETCAR                               (B) PETRAC

(C) TEPRAC                               (D) RACTEP

Answer: (C)

13. According to the dictionary order, which of the following words will appear last of others?

(A) Dress                                     (B) Drink

(C) Dream                                    (D) Drift

Answer: (A)

14. Gaurav ranks 23rd from the top and 22nd from the bottom in a certain test. How many students appeared in the test?

(A) 43                                          (B) 44

(C) 45                                          (D) 46

Answer: (B)

15. In a certain coding system, NAME is coded as 3245 and MINT is coded as 4137, then MITE would be coded as:

(A) 4317                                      (B) 4725

(C) 4571                                      (D) 4175

Answer: (D)

16. Which of the following is the next term in the series?

2, 9, 28, 65,  ____

(A) 99                                          (B) 121

(C) 126                                        (D) 145

Answer: (C)

17. Five books are placed in such a sway that book C is above book D, book E is below book A, book D is above book A and book B is below book E. Which book is at the bottom?

(A) A                                           (B) B

(C) C                                            (D) D

Answer: (B)

18. A bag contains equal number of rupee 1, 50 paisa and 25 paisa coins. If the total amount of money in the bag is Rs. 35, what is the number of each type of coins?

(A) 15                                          (B) 18

(C) 20                                          (D) 25

Answer: (C)

19. A man walking from north to south turns right at right angle. Again the turns right at right angle. In which direction is he now walking?

(A) East                                       (B) North

(C) South                                     (D) West

Answer: (B)

20. Which of the following pairs of numbers is different from others in some way?

(A) 27-57                                     (B) 25-63

(C) 18-28                                     (D) 36-96

Answer: (B)

21. Which of the following numbers will be placed at the blank space in the series?

20, 19, 17, _____, 10, 5

(A) 9                                            (B) 11

(C) 14                                          (D) 16

Answer: (C)

22. A woman pointed to a man and said, “His mother is the only daughter of my mother.” What is the woman to the man?

(A) Niece                                     (B) Daughter

(C) Sister                                     (D) Mother

Answer: (B)

23. Which of the following numbers is different from others in some way?

(A) 42                                          (B) 81

(C) 121                                        (D) 144

Answer: (A)

24. If CHDR represents DIES, then SHLD will represent:

(A) LIME                                     (B) LINE

(C) SINE                                     (D) TIME

Answer: (D)

25. Which of the following numbers continues the series?

1, 8, 27, 64, 125, _____, ?

(A) 156                                        (B) 196

(C) 216                                        (D) 225

Answer: (C)

26. EFGH : DEFG :: OPQR : ?

(A) PQRS                                    (B) QRST

(C) MNOP                                   (D) NOPQ

Answer: (D)

27. Which of the following would be the next term in the series?

CE, HJ, MO, RT, ____ ?

(A) WY                                       (B) YZ

(C) XZ                                         (D) UV

Answer: (A)

28. ‘Ignorance’ is to ‘Education’ as ‘Disease’ is to:

(A) Doctor                                   (B) Hospital

(C) Medicine                               (D) Nurse

Answer: (C)

29. Which of the following fills the gap in the series?

25, 100, 225, ______, 625

(A) 256                                        (B) 324

(C) 400                                        (D) 484

Answer: (C)

30. Which of the following continues the series?

(A) STZ                                       (B) SRY

(C) TSR                                       (D) TSY

Answer: (A)

Section-III : Educational and General Awareness

31. ‘Story of My Life’ was written by:

(A) Morarji Desai                                    (B) Abdul Kalam

(C) Vivekananda                                     (D) Togore

Answer: (A)

32. The Father of English Poetry was:

(A) Geoffery Chaucer                 (B) Shakespeare

(C) Wordsworth                          (D) Dryden

Answer: (A)

33. World Water Day is celebrated on:

(A) 21st March                             (B) 22nd March

(C) 24th March                             (D) 23rd March

Answer: (B)

34. Who advises the State Government on legal matters?

(A) Attorney General

(B) Advocate General

(C) Chief Justice of High Court

(D) Chief Justice of Supreme Court

Answer: (B)

35. The maximum duration of zero hour in the Lok Sabha is:

(A) 30 minutes                             (B) 60 minutes

(C) 2 hours                                   (D) Indefinite period

Answer: (A)

36. ‘No appeal, No Daleel, No Vakil’ perfectly sums up which of the following?

(A) Rowlatt Act

(B) Non-co-operation Movement

(C) Satyagrah

(D) Swadesh Movement

Answer: (A)

37. ‘Alice in Wonderland’ was written by:

(A) George Orwell

(B) Lewis Carroll

(C) Chester Bowls

(D) Sinclair Lewis

Answer: (B)

38. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called:

(A) Supplementary Question

(B) Short Notice Question

(C) Starred Question

(D) Unstarred Question

Answer: (A)

39. Article 280 of the constitution of India deals with:

(A) Finance Commission

(B) Information Commission

(C) Election Commission

(D) Public Service Commission

Answer: (A)

40. Where is the New Moore island situated?

(A) Arab Sagar

(B) Indian Ocean

(C) Bay of Bengal

(D) Bay of Mannar

Answer: (C)

41. Sea territory of India extends upto:

(A) 4 nautical miles

(B) 12 nautical miles

(C) 200 nautical miles

(D) 400 nautical miles

Answer: (B)

42. World Economic Forum was founded by:

(A) Klaus Schwab

(B) Paul Krugman

(C) Bill Gates

(D) Peter Thiel

Answer: (A)

43. Which of the following prepared the draft of Basic Education?

(A) Sapru Commission

(B) Shiksha Sammelan Wardha

(C) Radhakrishnan Commmission

(D) Zakir Hussain Committee

Answer: (D)

44. How many inhabited islands are there in Lakshadweep?

(A) 17

(B) 20

(C) 10

(D) 15

Answer: (C)

45. In which of the following historical sites of Haryana did excavation indicate 4500 years old civilization relies?

(A) Rakhigarhi

(B) Siswal

(C) Rohtak

(D) Karnal

Answer: (A)

46. Who described Bal Gangadhar Tilak as the ‘Maker of Modern India’?

(A) G. K. Gokhale

(B) Mahatma Gandhi

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru

(D) B.C. Pal

Answer: (B)

47. In the which year did the Industrial Policy express the concept of a mixed economy for India?

(A) 1948

(B) 1951

(C) 1954

(D) 1956

Answer: (A)

48. Who translated ‘Atharvaveda’ in Pension during Mughal period?

(A) Abdul Hamid Lahori

(B) haji Ibrahim Sarhindi

(C) Khathi Khan

(D) Malik Muhammad Jayasi

Answer: (B)

49. The Rigveda consists of:

(A) 1028 hymns

(B) 1000 hymns

(C) 2028 hymns

(D) 1038 hymns

Answer: (A)

50. Which of the following rivers is called ‘Biological Desert’?

(A) Brahmaputra

(B) Ganga

(C) Damodar

(D) Yamuna

Answer: (C)

51. Who is remembered as the pioneer of economic nationalism?

(A) Bipin Chandra Paul

(B) Gokhale

(C) R.C Dutt

(D) Madan Mohan Malviya

Answer: (C)

52. The 15th Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas, 2019 was held in:

(A) Lucknow

(B) Agra

(C) Prayagraj

(D) Varanasi

Answer: (D)

53. Establishment of DIETs was the result of the recommendation of:

(A) Indian Education Commission (1964-66)

(B) University Education Commission (1948-49)

(C) Secondary Education Commission (1952-53)

(D) National Policy on Education (1986)

Answer: (D)

54. The ruling dynasty in India during Timur’s invasion was:

(A) Lodhi

(B) Tughlaq

(C) Saiyyad

(D) Khilji

Answer: (B)

55. When did Curzon pass the Indian Universities Act?

(A) 1901

(B) 1902

(C) 1903

(D) 1904

Answer: (D)

Section-IV : Teaching-Learning and The School

56. Which of the following is a maxim of teaching?

(A) Simple to complex

(B) Unknown to known

(C) Abstract to concrete

(D) Far to near

Answer: (A)

57. Human Development is determined:

(A) by the genetic makeup of the individual.

(B) by a complex of inherited and environmental factors.

(C) primarily by environmental factors over which the individual has no control.

(D) primarily by environmental factor over

Answer: (B)

58. Non-formal education means:

(A) education obtained through open educational institutions

(B) education obtained through formal schools.

(C) education obtained through polytechnics.

(D) education obtained in conventional universities.

Answer: (A)

59. Text-book development at the national level is carried out by:

(A) UGC

(B) NCERT

(C) NCTE

(D) AICTE

Answer: (B)

60. Which among the following is constructivist approach to teaching-learning?

(A) Bloom’s Approach

(B) 5-E Approach

(C) Morrison Approach

(D) Herbartian Approach

Answer: (D)

61. The purpose of National Science Talent Search Scheme is to:

(A) conduct an all India examination.

(B) identify students for recruitment to scientific posts.

(C) identify talented students and nurture their talent.

(D) provide uniformity in science teaching.

Answer: (C)

62. While counseling students, a teacher should:

(A) plan to do most of talking

(B) establish rapport with students.

(C) refrain from giving information

(D) assume complete responsibility for solving problems

Answer: (A)

63. In teaching, if noting has been learnt, nothing has been:

(A) Taught

(B) Studied

(C) Examined

(D) Observed

Answer: (A)

64. Basic requirement for success of lecture method is:

(A) use of teaching aids

(B) content delivery in a lucid language

(C) theme based interaction among participants

(D) including a large number of ideas

Answer: (B)

65. One of the most powerful factors influencing teaching effectiveness is:

(A) teacher’s gender

(B) experience of teachers

(C) location of schools

(D) teacher’s communication skills

Answer: (B)

66. The best way for providing value education is through:

(A) discussions on text of a particular religion

(B) integration of values within subject content

(C) religious discourses

(D) lectures on values

Answer: (D)

67. The purpose of continuous and comprehensive evaluation is to:

(A) evaluate scholastic and co-scholastic aspects continuously

(B) priorities term and examination

(C) evaluate mainly scholastic aspects

(D) evaluate primarily co-scholastic aspects

Answer: (A)

68. What is not required for good teaching?

(A) Direction

(B) Diagnosis

(C) Remedy

(D) Teacher’s bias

Answer: (D)

69. Which of the following factors does not impact teaching?

(A) Classroom activities that encourage learning

(B) Socio-economic background of teachers

(C) Learning through experience

(D) Teacher’s knowledge

Answer: (B)

70. A good learner is one who:

(A) only memorizes

(B) is not open-minded

(C) does not think divergently

(D) thinks critically

Answer: (D)

71. Instructional aids are used by the teacher to:

(A) adhere to educational policies

(B) utilise school’s resources

(C) clarify the concepts

(D) ensure discipline

Answer: (C)

72. CLASS stands for:

(A) Complete Literacy and Studies in Schools

(B) Computer Literates and Students in Schools

(C) Computer Literacy and Students in Schools

(D) Center of Literacy and Studies in Schools

Answer: (C)

73. The first National Policy on Education following independence was formulated in:

(A) 1948

(B) 1958

(C) 1968

(D) 1978

Answer: (C)

74. Classroom environment should not have:

(A) interactivity

(B) activity

(C) autocracy

(D) brainstorming

Answer: (C)

75. “Spare the rod and spoil the child” gives the message that:

(A) punishment the class should be banned

(B) corporal punishment is not acceptable

(C) undesirable behaviour must be punished

(D) positive discipline should be encouraged

Answer: (C)

76. What is the other name of Yashpal Committee Report?

(A) Learning with Burden

(B) Learning without Burden

(C) Learning with Grace

(D) Learning with Progress

Answer: (B)

77. Choose full form of NCERT:

(A) National Coordinator of Educational Resources and Tools

(B) National Council of Educational Research and Training

(C) National Centre for Educational Research and Training

(D) New Centre of Educational Resources and Tools

Answer: (B)

78. ‘Fill in the blanks’ with alternatives is which type of question?

(A) Open-ended question

(B) Objective type question

(C) Short answer question

(D) Subjective type question

Answer: (A)

79. Classroom management is ineffective when it is:

(A) Autocratic

(B) Democratic

(C) Co-operative

(D) Participatory

Answer: (A)

80. The idea of basic education was proposed by:

(A) Dr. Zakir Hussian

(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(C) Mahatma Gandhi

(D) Rabindranath Tagore

Answer: (C)

PART-B

Section-V : (i) Science

81. The effective resistance of the following combination from A to B is :

(A) 2 Ω

(B) 4 Ω

(C) 5 Ω

(D) 8 Ω

Answer: (C)

82. Light year is a unit of:

(A) Time

(B) Distance

(C) Density

(D) Pressure

Answer: (B)

83. Ice floats in water in a cylinder and the water level is at level A. When the ice melts the water level:

(A) will remain unchanged

(B) will go up

(C) will go down

(D) may go up or down

Answer: (A)

84. An ideal fuse wire should have:

(A) a low resistance and low melting point

(B) a high resistance and high melting point

(C) a low resistance and high melting point

(D) a high resistance and low melting point

Answer: (D)

85. Total internal reflection can take place when light travels from:

(A) Air to glass

(B) Air to water

(C) Water to glass

(D) Glass to air

Answer: (D)

86. The lightest element in our world is:

(A) Hydrogen

(B) Helium

(C) Oxygen

(D) Chlorine

Answer: (A)

87. In the upper layers of the earth, that is, in the crust, the most abundant metal is:

(A) Iron

(B) Zinc

(C) Aluminium

(D) Copper

Answer: (C)

88. The nucleus of Helium is like:

(A) An alpha particle

(B) A beta particle

(C) A gamma particle

(D) A proton

Answer: (A)

89. If a chemical reaction is accompanied by evolution of heat, it is:

(A) Exothermic reaction

(B) Endothermic reaction

(C) Reversible reaction

(D) Redox reaction

Answer: (A)

90. Pressure cooker works on the principle:

(A) When the pressure increases the boiling point of water increases.

(B) When the pressure increases the boiling point of water decreases.

(C) Pressure has no effect on boiling point.

(D) Heat and steam does not escape from the cooker

Answer: (A)

91. For reducing friction between different parts of machines the following is used:

(A) Lubricant

(B) Detergent

(C) Levers

(D) Catalyst

Answer: (A)

92. The sugar in the milk in the natural form is called:

(A) Glucose

(B) Sucrose

(C) Lactose

(D) Fructose

Answer: (C)

93. The following is not an element of the bone:

(A) Oxygen

(B) Phosphorus

(C) Uranium

(D) Calcium

Answer: (C)

94. The following treatment is suggested for a person whose kidneys are not working:

(A) Surgical removal of kidneys

(B) Radiotherapy

(C) Blood transfusion

(D) Dialysis

Answer: (D)

95. If mitochondria are removed from the cell:

(A) Nothing happens

(B) The cell cannot reproduce

(C) Leaves become white

(D) Energy metabolism of the cell is reduced

Answer: (D)

96. The foetal growth is monitored using:

(A) X-rays

(B) Microwaves

(C) Ultrasonics

(D) Ultraviolet rays

Answer: (C)

97. Viruses need the following for growth:

(A) Living host

(B) Dead host

(C) Minerals

(D) Sugars

Answer: (A)

98. The following process does not increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the air:

(A) Breathing

(B) Photosynthesis

(C) Petrol burning

(D) Decay of vegetation

Answer: (B)

99. Polio is a disease of the following type:

(A) Air-borne

(B) Water-borne

(C) Food-borne

(D) Bacteria-borne

Answer: (B)

100. The major pollutants are:

(A) Oxygen and Carbon dioxide

(B) Oxygen and Nitrogen

(C) Hydrogen and Nitrogen

(D) Carbon monoxide and Lead

Answer: (D)

Section-V : (ii) Mathematics

101. Which of the following has the largest numerical value?

(A) √10

(B) √100

(C) 1/√0.01

(D) 1/0.01

Answer: (D)

102. The value of  is:

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 1/6

(D) 1/8

Answer: (C)

103. A batsman scores 448 runs in x innings. In his next innings he is out for 62 and thereby increases his average by 2. The value of x is:

(A) 16

(B) 18

(C) 20

(D) 22

Answer: (A)

104. A’s salary is 50% above B’s. How much per cent is B’s salary below A’s?

(A) 

(B) 40%

(C) 100%

(D) 150%

Answer: (A)

105. A producer blends two varieties of tea, one costing Rs 150 per kg and the other Rs 200 per kg in the ratio of 7 : 3. He sells the blended variety at Rs 181.50 per kg. His profit per cent is:

(A) 20

(B) 15

(C) 10

(D) 8

Answer: (C)

106. A tradesman sells his goods at 10% discount on the marked price. What price should he mark on an article that costs him Rs 900 to gain 10%?

(A) Rs 1,000

(B) Rs 1,100

(C) Rs 1,150

(D) Rs 1,200

Answer: (B)

107. A sum of Rs 1,000 invested at 10% per annum compound interest amounts to Rs 1,331. The period of time is:

(A) 2 years

(B) 3 years

(C) 3½ years

(D) 4 years

Answer: (B)

108. A person buys a pen costing Rs 240 on hire purchase basis. He pays. Rs 60 cash down and the rest in 6 monthly installments of Rs 32 each. The rate of interest charged by the dealer is:

(A) 18%

(B) 20%

(C) 22%

(D) 24%

Answer: (*)

109. A plane left 30 minutes later than the scheduled time and in order to reach its destination 1500 km away in time it has to increase its speed by 250 km/hr. from its usual speed. The usual speed of the plane is:

(A) 850 km/hr.

(B) 800 km/hr.

(C) 750 km/hr.

(D) 700 km/hr.

Answer: (C)

110. If sec θ + tan θ = m, then the value of sin θ is:

Answer: (D)

111. The value of  is:

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) −1

(D) √2

Answer: (A)

112. From a building 60 metres high the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a lamp post are 30° and 60° The difference of heights between the building and the lamp post is:

(A) 20√3 m

(B) 20/√3 m

(C) 20 m

(D) 25 m

Answer: (C)

113. The length of the sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 and its perimeter is 144 cm. The area of the triangle is:

(A) 840 cm2

(B) 1080 cm2

(C) 1440 cm2

(D) 864 cm2

Answer: (D)

114. The minute hand of a clock is 12 cm long. The area of the face of the clock described by the minute hand in 35 minutes is:

(A) 210 cm2

(B) 264 cm2

(C) 280 cm2

(D) 285 cm2

Answer: (B)

115. A metallic cone having base radius 2.1 cm and height 8.4 cm is melted and moulded into a sphere. The radius of the sphere is:

(A) 2.1 cm

(B) 1.05 cm

(C) 1.5 cm

(D) 2 cm

Answer: (A)

116. Water is flowing at a rate of 15 km/hr through a pipe of diameter 14 cm into a rectangular tank which is 50 m long and 44 m wide. The time in which level of water in the tank will rise by 21 cm is :

(A) 1 hour

(B) 1½ hours

(C) 2 hour

(D) 2½ hours

Answer: (C)

117. The mode of the following series is 36:

The missing frequency is:

(A) 10

(B) 12

(C) 8

(D) 7

Answer: (A)

118. What is the probability that an ordinary year as 53 Mondays?

(A) 2/7

(B) 1/7

(C) 7/53

(D) 7/52

Answer: (B)

119. The sum of all the three-digit natural numbers which are multiples of 7 is:

(A) 70336

(B) 73306

(C) 76033

(D) 73360

Answer: (A)

120. The value of p for which the points (−5, 1) (1, p) and (4, −2) are collinear is:

(A) 2

(B) −2

(C) 1

(D) −1

Answer: (D)

Section-V : (iii) Social Science)

121. In the presence of the President and Vice President who discharges the function of President?

(A) Attorney General

(B) Chief Justice of India

(C) PM of India

(D) Advocate General

Answer: (B)

122. Which of the following institutions can expand and increase the scope of Fundamental Rights in the constitution?

(A) High Court

(B) Supreme Court

(C) National Human Rights Commission

(D) State Human Right Commission

Answer: (B)

123. How many members are there in the Election Commission?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

Answer: (C)

124. Panchayati Raj is based on the Ideology of:

(A) Democratic Decentralization

(B) People Participation in Govt.

(C) Centralization

(D) Community Development

Answer: (A)

125. The United Nations Organization was established on:

(A) 24th September, 1945

(B) 15th July, 1945

(C) 24th October, 1945

(D) 26th August, 1945

Answer: (C)

126. The last country to join SAARC was:

(A) Sri Lanka

(B) Bangladesh

(C) Maldives

(D) Afghanistan

Answer: (D)

127. Which of the following nations adopted an Open Door Policy?

(A) China

(B) Japan

(C) U.S.A.

(D) South Korea

Answer: (A)

128. The central nodal agency for implementing value support works for commercial crops is:

(A) NAFED

(B) NABARD

(C) FCI

(D) TRIFED

Answer: (A)

129. Diminishing marginal utility is the basis of:

(A) Law of Supply

(B) Law of Return

(C) Law of Demand

(D) Law of Consumption

Answer: (C)

130. Loss of interest income on funds is an example of:

(A) Explicit Cost

(B) Implicit Cost

(C) Marginal Cost

(D) Direct Cost

Answer: (B)

131. Who was the leader and inspirer of the Young Bengal Movement of the late 1820s and 1830s?

(A) Rasik Krishna Mallic

(B) Ramtaru Lahiri

(C) Henry Vivian Derozio

(D) Pearey Chand Mitra

Answer: (C)

132. The first Indian ruler who joined the subsidiary alliance was:

(A) The Nawab of Awadh

(B) The Nizam of Hyderabad

(C) Peshwa Baji Rao

(D) Jhansi ki Rani

Answer: (B)

133. The Raja Rani temple is located in:

(A) Bhubaneswar

(B) Khajuraho

(C) Kanchipuram

(D) Varanasi

Answer: (A)

134. Which one of the following rivers flows westward?

(A) Godavari

(B) Kaveri

(C) Krishna

(D) Tapti

Answer: (D)

135. The term “Fani” is associated with:

(A) Cyclone

(B) Rainfall

(C) Flood

(D) Landslide

Answer: (A)

136. The literacy rate of India in 2011 was:

(A) 72.04%

(B) 73.04%

(C) 74.04%

(D) 75.04%

Answer: (C)

137. Dualistic economy means existence of:

(A) Both industrial and agricultural sectors

(B) Both public and private sectors

(C) Both socialist and capitalist economies

(D) Both foreign and domestic investments

Answer: (A)

138. Who was the first to unfurl the first Indian National Flag, the parent and precursor of the flag of independent India?

(A) Dada Bhai Naoroji

(B) Taraknath Das

(C) Raja Mahendra Pratap

(D) Madam Bhikaji Cama

Answer: (D)

139. Operation Flood is also known as:

(A) Green Revolution

(B) White Revolution

(C) Blue Revolution

(D) Black Revolution

Answer: (B)

140. In India the Tropic of Cancer passes through how many states?

(A) 7

(B) 8

(C) 6

(D) 5

Answer: (B)

Section-V: (iv) English

Directions (Q. Nos. 141-145) : Choose the word that is nearest meaning to the underlined word:

141. Employers like diligent employees.

(A) Conscientious

(B) Obedient

(C) Meticulous

(D) Hardworking

Answer: (C)

142. The meeting was adjourned after discussion for two hours.

(A) Postponed

(B) Stopped

(C) Begun

(D) Reviewed

Answer: (A)

143. He is such sham that it is different to get along with him.

(A) pretender

(B) unnatural

(C) blunt

(D) unfair

Answer: (A)

144. Oh who despises his colleagues can never be successful.

(A) accuses

(B) ignores

(C) hates

(D) discourages

Answer: (C)

145. The school took the students of 9th class on a three days’ excursion to Goa.

(A) trip

(B) picnic

(C) visit

(D) tournament

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150): In each of the following group of words, only one of them is spelt correctly. Select the one with the correct spelling.

146.

(A) megnificent

(B) magnifecent

(C) magnificant

(D) megnifecant

Answer: (*)

147.

(A) tanacious

(B) tenacious

(C) tanecious

(D) tenecious

Answer: (B)

148.

(A) consummation

(B) consumation

(C) consamation

(D) consamation

Answer: (A)

149.

(A) menifest

(B) menifast

(C) manifest

(D) manifast

Answer: (C)

150.

(A) posterity

(B) postarity

(C) posterety

(D) portarety

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 151-154): Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word:

151. The criminal was detained by the police.

(A) protected

(B) dismissed

(C) released

(D) deterred

Answer: (C)

152. His depressing attitude was not liked by anyone.

(A) horrifying

(B) uplifting

(C) bewildering

(D) digressing

Answer: (B)

153. Feasibility of the project is under study.

(A) Unsuitability

(B) Impracticability

(C) Impropriety

(D) Applicability

Answer: (B)

154. A mammoth statue overlooked the building.

(A) effluent

(B) tiny

(C) huge

(D) narrow

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 155 and 156): Pick out the most appropriate word from the given alternatives and fill in the blanks to complete

155. This book is about a man who _____ his family and went to live in the Himalayas.

(A) exited

(B) deserted

(C) banished

(D) expelled

Answer: (B)

156. The villagers _____ the death of their leader by keeping all the shops closed.

(A) announced

(B) protested

(C) mourned

(D) consoled

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 157-160): Choose the correct answer:

157. The novel ‘Persuasion’ was written by:

(A) Charlotte Bronte

(B) Emily Bronte

(C) George Eliot

(D) Jane Austen

Answer: (D)

158. The poem ‘Ode to Nightingale’ was written by:

(A) Keats

(B) Shelley

(C) Wordsworth

(D) Bacon

Answer: (A)

159. The play ‘Desire under the Elms’ was written by:

(A) Shakespeare

(B) Bernard Shaw

(C) Eugene O’Neill

(D) Brecht

Answer: (C)

160. The Novel ‘Train to Pakistan’ was written by:

(A) Tagore

(B) R.K. Narayan

(C) Anita Desai

(D) Khushwant Singh

Answer: (D)

Section-V : (v) Hindi

Answer: (D)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (A)

JEE MAIN 2023 Eligibility Criteria

Eligibility Criteria

Age Criteria

For appearing in the JEE (Main) – 2023, there is no age limit for the candidates. The candidates who have passed the class 12/equivalent examination in 2021, 2022, or appearing in 2023 irrespective of their age can appear in JEE (Main) – 2023 examination. However, the candidates may be required to fulfill the age criteria of the Institute(s) to which they are desirous of taking admission.

List of Qualifying Examinations (QE)

  • The final examination of the 10+2 system, conducted by any recognized Central/ State Board, such as the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi; Council for the Indian School Certificate Examinations, New Delhi; etc.
  • Intermediate or two-year Pre-University examination conducted by a recognized Board/ University.
  • Final examination of the two-year course of the Joint Services Wing of the National Defence Academy.
  • Senior Secondary School Examination conducted by the National Institute of Open Schooling with a minimum of five subjects.
  • Any Public School/ Board/ University examination in India or any foreign country is recognized as equivalent to the 10+2 system by the Association of Indian Universities (AIU).
  • Higher Secondary Certificate Vocational Examination.
  • A Diploma recognized by AICTE or a State board of technical education of at least 3 years duration.
  • General Certificate Education (GCE) examination (London/Cambridge/Sri Lanka) at the Advanced (A) level.
  • High School Certificate Examination of the Cambridge University or International Baccalaureate Diploma of the International Baccalaureate Office, Geneva.
  • Candidates who have completed the Class 12 (or equivalent) examination outside India or from a Board not specified above should produce a certificate from the Association of Indian Universities (AIU) to the effect that the examination they have passed is equivalent to the Class 12 Examination.
  • In case the Class 12 Examination is not a public examination, the candidate must have passed at least one public (Board or Pre-University) examination earlier.

Year of Appearance in Qualifying Examination

  • Only those candidates who have passed the Class 12/equivalent examination in 2021, 2022, or those who are appearing in Class 12/equivalent examination in 2023, are eligible to appear in JEE (Main) – 2023.
  • Candidates who passed the Class 12/equivalent examination in 2020 or before as well as those who will appear in such examination in 2024 or later are not eligible to appear in JEE (Main) – 2023.

State of Eligibility

State code of eligibility means the code of the State from where the candidate has passed Class 12 (or equivalent) qualifying examination by virtue of which the candidate becomes eligible to appear in JEE (Main) – 2023. It is important to note that the State code of eligibility does NOT depend upon the native place or the place of residence of the candidate. For example, if a candidate appears for the Class 12 (or equivalent) qualifying examination from an Institution situated in New Delhi and is a resident of Noida, Uttar Pradesh,  then the candidate’s State code of eligibility will be that of Delhi and NOT that of Uttar Pradesh.

If a candidate has passed the Class 12 (or equivalent) qualifying examination from one State but appeared for improvement from another State, the candidate’s State code of eligibility will be from where the candidate first passed the Class 12 (or equivalent) examination and NOT the State from where the candidate has appeared for improvement.

Candidate passed/appearing for Class 12 from NIOS should select the State of Eligibility according to the State in which the study Centre is located.

For Indian nationals passing the Class 12 (or equivalent) examination from Nepal/Bhutan, the State code of eligibility will be determined based on a permanent address in India as given in the passport of the candidate.

The State code of eligibility of OCI passing Class 12 (or equivalent) examination in India is at par with Indian nationals. However, OCI passing the Class 12 (or equivalent) examination from an institution abroad are eligible for Other State quota seats or All India quota seats (but NOT for Home State quota seats) in all NITs, IIITs and Other-CFTIs.

 

 

JEE MAIN 2023 Information Bulletin

NEET (UG)-2022 Examination Held on 17-07-2022 CODE Q1 Question Paper With Answer Key

NEET-UG 2022 Held on 17-07-2022 Code Q1 

PHYSICS

Important Instructions: 

1. The test is of 3.20 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (Four options with a single correct answer). There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15. (Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start attempting the question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.)

2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

3. Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this page / marking responses on Answer Sheet.

4. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.

5. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

6. The CODE for this Booklet is Q1.

7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.

8. Each candidate must show on-demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.

9. No candidate, without special permission of the Centre Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.

10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

11. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this examination.

12. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.

13. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.

1. Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1)   (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

(2)   (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)

(3)   (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

(4)   (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

Answer: (4)

2. An ideal gas undergoes four different processes from the same initial state as shown in the figure below. Those processes are adiabatic, isothermal, isobaric and isochoric. The curve which represents the adiabatic process among 1, 2, 3 and 4 is

(1)   1

(2)   2

(3)   3

(4)   4

Answer: (2)

3. The angular speed of a fly wheel moving with uniform angular acceleration changes from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 seconds. The angular acceleration in rad/s2 is

(1)   2π

(2)   4π

(3)   12π

(4)   104π

Answer: (2)

4. 

In the given circuits (a), (b) and (c), the potential drop across the two p-n junctions are equal in

(1)   Circuit (a) only

(2)   Circuit (b) only

(3)   Circuit (c) only

(4)   Both circuits (a) and (c)

Answer: (4)

5. A biconvex lens has radii of curvature, 20 cm each. If the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5, the power of the lens is

(1)   +2 D

(2)   +20 D

(3)   +5 D

(4)   Infinity

Answer: (3)

6. The graph which shows the variation of the de Broglie wavelength (λ) of a particle and its associated momentum (p) is

Answer: (4)

7. As the temperature increases, the electrical resistance

(1) Increases for both conductors and semiconductors

(2) Decreases for both conductors and semiconductors

(3) Increases for conductors but decreases for semiconductors

(4) Decreases for conductors but increases for semiconductors

Answer: (3)

8. A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a highly viscous liquid. The curve in the graph shown, which represents the speed of the ball (v) as a function of time (t) is

(1)   A

(2)   B

(3)   C

(4)   D

Answer: (2)

9. The dimensions [MLT–2A–2] belong to the

(1) Magnetic flux

(2) Self inductance

(3) Magnetic permeability

(4) Electric permittivity

Answer: (3)

10. In half wave rectification, if the input frequency is 60 Hz, then the output frequency would be

(1)   Zero

(2)   30 Hz

(3)   60 Hz

(4)   120 Hz

Answer: (3)

11. If the initial tension on a stretched string is doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final speeds of a transverse wave along the string is

(1)   1 : 1

(2)   √2 : 1

(3)   1 :√2

(4)   1 : 2

Answer: (3)

12. A shell of mass m is at rest initially. It explodes into three fragments having mass in the ratio 2 : 2 : 1. If the fragments having equal mass fly off along mutually perpendicular directions with speed v, the speed of the third (lighter) fragment is

(1)   v

(2)   √2v

(3)   2√2v

(4)   3√2v

Answer: (3)

13. Two objects of mass 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 10 m with negligible mass. The distance of the center of mass of the system from the 10 kg mass is

(1)   10/3 m

(2)   20/3 m

(3)   10 m

(4)   5 m

Answer: (2)

14. If a soap bubble expands, the pressure inside the bubble

(1)   Decreases

(2)   Increases

(3)   Remains the same

(4)   Is equal to the atmospheric pressure

Answer: (1)

15. An electric lift with a maximum load of 2000 kg (lift + passengers) is moving up with a constant speed of 5 ms–1. The frictional force opposing the motion is 3000 N. The minimum power delivered by the motor to the lift in watts is : (g = 10 ms–2)

(1)   23000

(2)   20000

(3)   34500

(4)   23500

Answer: (3)

16. The angle between the electric lines of force and the equipotential surface is

(1)   0°

(2)   45°

(3)   90°

(4)   180°

Answer: (3)

17. When two monochromatic lights of frequency, ν and ν/2 are incident on a photoelectric metal, their stopping potential becomes Vs/2 and Vs The threshold frequency for this metal is

(1)   2ν

(2)   3ν

(3) 

(4) 

Answer: (4*)

18. A long solenoid of radius 1 mm has 100 turns per mm. If 1 A current flows in the solenoid, the magnetic field strength at the centre of the solenoid is

(1)   6.28 × 10–2 T

(2)   12.56 × 10–2 T

(3)   12.56 × 10–4 T

(4)   6.28 × 10–4 T

Answer: (2)

19. In the given nuclear reaction, the element X is

(1) 

(2) 

(3) 

(4) 

Answer: (3)

20. Given below are two statements

Statement I: Biot-Savart’s law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength of an infinitesimal current element (Idl) of a current carrying conductor only.

Statement II: Biot-Savart’s law is analogous to Coulomb’s inverse square law of charge q, with the former being related to the field produced by a scalar source, Idl while the latter being produced by a vector source, q.

In light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Answer: (3)

21. The ratio of the radius of gyration of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through its centre and normal to its plane to the radius of gyration of the disc about its diameter is

(1)   2 : 1

(2)   √2 : 1

(3)   4 : 1

(4)   1 :√2

Answer: (2)

22. The peak voltage of the ac source is equal to

(1)   The value of voltage supplied to the circuit

(2)   The rms value of the ac source

(3)   √2 times the rms value of the ac source

(4)   1/√2 times the rms value of the ac source

Answer: (3)

23. The energy that will be ideally radiated by a 100 kW transmitter in 1 hour is

(1)   36 × 107 J

(2)   36 × 104 J

(3)   36 × 105 J

(4)   1 × 105 J

Answer: (1)

24. In a Young’s double slit experiment, a student observes 8 fringes in a certain segment of screen when a monochromatic light of 600 nm wavelength is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, then the number of fringes he would observe in the same region of the screen is

(1)   6

(2)   8

(3)   9

(4)   12

Answer: (4)

25. A square loop of side 1 m and resistance 1 Ω is placed in a magnetic field of 0.5 T. If the plane of loop is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field, the magnetic flux through the loop is

(1)   2 weber

(2)   0.5weber

(3)   1weber

(4)   Zero weber

Answer: (2)

26. Two resistors of resistance, 100 Ω and 200 Ω are connected in parallel in an electrical circuit. The ratio of the thermal energy developed in 100 Ω to that in 200 Ω in a given time is

(1)   1 : 2

(2)   2 : 1

(3)   1 : 4

(4)   4 : 1

Answer: (2)

27. The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely falling body in the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th second

(1)   1 : 2 : 3 : 4

(2)   1 : 4 : 9 : 16

(3)   1 : 3 : 5 : 7

(4)   1 : 1 : 1 : 1

Answer: (3)

28. A body of mass 60 g experiences a gravitational force of 3.0 N, when placed at a particular point. The magnitude of the gravitational field intensity at that point is

(1)   0.05 N/kg

(2)   50N/kg

(3)   20N/kg

(4)   180N/kg

Answer: (2)

29. A light ray falls on a glass surface of refractive index √3, at an angle 60°. The angle between the refracted and reflected rays would be

(1)   30°

(2)   60°

(3)   90°

(4)   120°

Answer: (3)

30. When light propagates through a material medium of relative permittivity εr and relative permeability µr, the velocity of light, v is given by (c-velocity of light in vacuum)

(1)   v = c

(2) 

(3) 

(4) 

Answer: (4)

31. Two hollow conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 (R1>> R2) have equal charges. The potential would be

(1)   More on bigger sphere

(2)   More on smaller sphere

(3)   Equal on both the spheres

(4)   Dependent on the material property of the sphere

Answer: (2)

32. A copper wire of length 10 m and radius  has electrical resistance of 10 Ω. The current density in the wire for an electric field strength of 10 (V/m) is

(1)   104 A/m2

(2)   106A/m2

(3)   105 A/m2

(4)   105A/m2

Answer: (4)

33. The displacement-time graphs of two moving particles make angles of 30° and 45° with the x-axis as shown in the figure. The ratio of their respective velocity is

(1)   √3 : 1

(2)   1 : 1

(3)   1 : 2

(4)   1 :√3

Answer: (4)

34. Plane angle and solid angle have

(1)   Units but no dimensions

(2)   Dimensions but no units

(3)   No units and no dimensions

(4)   Both units and dimensions

Answer: (1)

35. Let T1 and T2 be the energy of an electron in the first and second excited states of hydrogen atoms, respectively. According to the Bohr’s model of an atom, the ratio T1 : T2 is

(1)   1 : 4

(2)   4 : 1

(3)   4 : 9

(4)   9 : 4

Answer: (4)

SECTION-B

36. Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1)   (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)

(2)   (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

(3)   (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)

(4)   (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

Answer: (2)

37. Two pendulums of length 121 cm and 100 cm start vibrating in phase. At some instant, the two are at their mean position in the same phase. The minimum number of vibrations of the shorter pendulum after which the two are again in phase at the mean position is:

(1)   11

(2)   9

(3)   10

(4)   8

Answer: (1)

38. The area of a rectangular field (in m2) of length 55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding off the value for correct significant digits is

(1)   138 × 101

(2)   1382

(3)   1382.5

(4)   14 × 102

Answer: (4)

39. A ball is projected with a velocity, 10 ms–1, at an angle of 60° with the vertical direction. Its speed at the highest point of its trajectory will be

(1)   Zero

(2)   5√3 ms1

(3)   5 ms1

(4)   10 ms1

Answer: (2)

40. 

The truth table for the given logic circuit is

Answer: (3)

41. From Ampere’s circuital law for a long straight wire of circular cross-section carrying a steady current, the variation of magnetic field in the inside and outside region of the wire is

(1)   Uniform and remains constant for both the regions.

(2)   A linearly increasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then linearly decreasing for the outside region.

(3)   A linearly increasing function of distance r upto the boundary of the wire and then decreasing one with 1/r dependence for the outside region.

(4)   A linearly decreasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then a linearly increasing one for the outside region.

Answer: (3)

42. A series LCR circuit with inductance 10 H, capacitance 10µF, resistance 50 Ω is connected to an ac source of voltage, V = 200sin(100t) volt. If the resonant frequency of the LCR circuit is ν0 and the frequency of the ac source is ν, then

(1)   ν0 = ν = 50 Hz

(2) 

(3) 

(4) 

Answer: (2)

43. Two point charges –q and +q are placed at a distance of L, as shown in the figure.

The magnitude of electric field intensity at a distance R(R >> L) varies as:

(1)   1/R2

(2)   1/R3

(3)   1/R4

(4)   1/R6

Answer: (2)

44. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The stretching of a spring is determined by the shear modulus of the material of the spring.

Reason (R): A coil spring of copper has more tensile strength than a steel spring of same dimensions.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Answer: (3)

45. A big circular coil of 1000 turns and average radius 10 m is rotating about its horizontal diameter at 2 rad s–1. If the vertical component of earth’s magnetic field at that place is 2 × 10–5 T and electrical resistance of the coil is 12.56 Ω, then the maximum induced current in the coil will be

(1)   0.25 A

(2)   1.5 A

(3)   1 A

(4)   2 A

Answer: (3)

46. The volume occupied by the molecules contained in 4.5 kg water at STP, if the intermolecular forces vanish away is

(1)   5.6 × 106 m3

(2)   5.6 × 103 m3

(3)   5.6 × 103 m3

(4)   5.6 m3

Answer: (4)

47. A capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF is charged fully by 100 V battery B as shown in figure (a). Then it is disconnected from the battery and connected to another uncharged capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF as shown in figure (b). The electrostatic energy stored by the system (b) is

(1)   4.5 × 10–6 J

(2)   3.25× 10–6 J

(3)   2.25 × 10–6 J

(4)   1.5 × 10–6 J

Answer: (3)

48. A wheatstone bridge is used to determine the value of unknown resistance X by adjusting the variable resistance Y as shown in the figure. For the most precise measurement of X, the resistances P and Q

(1)   Should be approximately equal to 2X

(2)   Should be approximately equal and are smal

(3)   Should be very large and unequal

(4)   Do not play any significant role

Answer: (2)

49. Two transparent media A and B are separated by a plane boundary. The speed of light in those media are 5 × 108 m/s and 2.0 × 108 m/s, respectively. The critical angle for a ray of light for these two media is

(1)   sin–1 (0.500)

(2)   sin–1 (0.750)

(3)   tan–1 (0.500)

(4)   tan–1 (0.750)

Answer: (2)

50. A nucleus of mass number 189 splits into two nuclei having mass number 125 and 64. The ratio of radius of two daughter nuclei respectively is

(1)   1 : 1

(2)   4 : 5

(3)   5 : 4

(4)   25 : 16

Answer: (3)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. Which of the following p-V curve represents maximum work done?

Answer: (2)

52. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): ICI is more reactive than I2.

Reason (R): I-CI bond is weaker than I-I bond. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1)   Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2)   Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3)   (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(4)   (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Answer: (1)

53. Which compound amongst the following is not an aromatic compound?

Answer: (4)

54. The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is

(1)   ununennium

(2)   unnilennium

(3)   unununnium

(4)   ununoctium

Answer: (1)

55. Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)   (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

(2)   (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

(3)   (a) – (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)

(4)   (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)

Answer: (2)

56. Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1)   (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)

(2)   (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)

(3)   (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)

(4)   (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

Answer: (1)

57. The incorrect statement regarding enzymes is

(1) Enzymes are biocatalysts.

(2) Like chemical catalysts enzymes reduce the activation energy of bio processes.

(3) Enzymes are polysaccharides.

(4) Enzymes are very specific for a particular reaction and substrate.

Answer: (3)

58. The IUPAC name of the complex-

[Ag(H2O)2][Ag(CN)2] is:

(1) dicyanidosilver(II) diaquaargentate(II)

(2) diaquasilver(II) dicyanidoargentate(II)

(3) dicyanidosilver(I) diaquaargentate(I)

(4) diaquasilver(I) dicyanidoargentate(I)

Answer: (4)

59. Gadolinium has a low value of third ionisation enthalpy because of

(1)   small size

(2)   high exchange enthalpy

(3)   high electronegativity

(4)   high basic character

Answer: (2)

60. Amongst the following which one will have maximum ‘lone pair – lone pair’ electron repulsions?

(1)   CIF3

(2)   IF5

(3)   SF4

(4)   XeF2

Answer: (4)

61. Which of the following statement is not correct about diborane?

(1) There are two 3-centre-2-electron bonds.

(2) The four terminal B-H bonds are two centre two electron bonds.

(3) The four terminal Hydrogen atoms and the two Boron atoms lie in one plane.

(4) Both the Boron atoms are sp2 hybridised.

Answer: (4)

62. Given below are two statements :

Statement I: The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses because of weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones due to dipole – dipole interactions.

Statement II: The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower than the alcohols of similar molecular masses due to the absence of H-bonding.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the given below

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (1)

63. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):  In a particular point defect, an ionic solid is electrically neutral, even if few of its cations are missing from its unit cells.

Reason (R): In an ionic solid, Frenkel defect arises due to dislocation of cation from its lattice site to interstitial site, maintaining overall electrical neutrality.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Answer: (2)

64. Given below are two statements

Statement I 

The boiling points of the following hydrides of group 16 elements increases in the order – H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te

Statement II 

The boiling points of these hydrides increase with increase in molar mass.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (2)

65. The given graph is a representation of kinetics of a reaction.

The y and x axes for zero and first order reactions, respectively are

(1) zero order (y = concentration and x = time), first order (y = t½ and x = concentration)

(2) zero order (y = concentration and x = time), first order (y = rate constant and x = concentration)

(3) zero order (y = rate and x = concentration), first order (y = t½ and x = concentration)

(4) zero order (y = rate and x = concentration), first order (y = rate and x = t½)

Answer: (3)

66. The incorrect statement regarding chirality is

(1) SN1 reaction yields 1 : 1 mixture of both enantiomers

(2) The product obtained by SN2 reaction of haloalkane having chirality at the reactive site shows inversion of configuration

(3) Enantiomers are superimposable mirror images on each other

(4) A racemic mixture shows zero optical rotation

Answer: (3)

67. Which of the following sequence of reactions is suitable to synthesize chlorobenzene?

Answer: (1)

68. Identify the incorrect statement from the following.

(1)   All the five 5d orbitals are different in size when compared to the respective 4d orbitals.

(2)   All the five 4d orbitals have shapes similar to the respective 3d orbitals.

(3)   In an atom, all the five 3d orbitals are equal in energy in free state.

(4)   The shapes of dxy, dyz and dzx orbitals are similar to each other; and  are similar to each other.

Answer: (4)

69. The Kjeldahl’s method for the estimation of nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount of nitrogen in which one of the following compounds?

Answer: (3)

70. Choose the correct statement:

(1) Diamond and graphite have two dimensional network.

(2) Diamond is covalent and graphite is ionic.

(3) Diamond is sp3 hybridised and graphite is sp2 hybridized.

(4) Both diamond and graphite are used as dry lubricants.

Answer: (3)

71. Identify the incorrect statement from the following

(1) Alkali metals react with water to form their hydroxides.

(2) The oxidation number of K in KO2 is +4.

(3) Ionisation enthalpy of alkali metals decreases from top to bottom in the group.

(4) Lithium is the strongest reducing agent among the alkali metals.

Answer: (2)

72. Which one is not correct mathematical equation for Dalton’s Law of partial pressure? Here p = total pressure of gaseous mixture

Answer: (4)

73. Given below are two statements

Statement I: 

The acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol because of electron withdrawing nitro group.

Statement II: 

o-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol will have same acidic strength as they have one nitro group attached to the phenolic ring.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Answer: (3)

74. At 298 K, the standard electrode potentials of Cu2+ / Cu, Zn2+ / Zn, Fe2+ / Fe and Ag+ / Ag are 0.34 V, –0.76 V, –0.44 V and 0.80 V, respectively.

On the basis of standard electrode potential, predict which of the following reaction cannot occur?

(1) CuSO4(aq) + Zn(s) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)

(2) CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)

(3)   FeSO4(aq) + Zn(s) → ZnSO4(aq) + Fe(s)

(4) 2CuSO4(aq) + 2Ag(s) → 2Cu(s) + Ag2SO4(aq)

Answer: (4)

75. Given below are two statements

Statement I:

In the coagulation of a negative sol, the flocculating power of the three given ions is in the order Al3+> Ba2+> Na+

Statement II:

In the coagulation of a positive sol, the flocculating power of the three given salts is in the order NaCl > Na2SO4> Na3PO4

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Answer: (3)

76. Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)

(2) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

(3) (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)

(4) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)

Answer: (4)

77. Given below are two statements

Statement I:

Primary aliphatic amines react with HNO2 to give unstable diazonium salts.

Statement II:

Primary aromatic amines react with HNO2 to form diazonium salts which are stable even above 300 K.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Answer: (3)

78. Which statement regarding polymers is not correct?

(1) Elastomers have polymer chains held together by weak intermolecular forces

(2)   Fibers possess high tensile strength

(3) Thermoplastic polymers are capable of repeatedly softening and hardening on heating and cooling respectively

(4)   Thermosetting polymers are reusable

Answer: (4)

79. In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a solute, there is

(1)   500 mL of solvent

(2)   500 g of solvent

(3)   100 mL of solvent

(4)   1000 g of solvent

Answer: (2)

80. 

What is Y in the above reaction?

(1)   RCOOMg+X

(2)   R3COMg+X

(3)   RCOOX+

(4)   (RCOO)2Mg

Answer: (1)

81. Given below are half cell reactions:

Will the permanganate ion, MnO4 liberate O2 from water in the presence of an acid?

Answer: (1)

82. What mass of 95% pure CaCO3 will be required to neutralise 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl solution according to the following reaction?

CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)

[Calculate upto second place of decimal point]

(1)   1.25 g

(2)   1.32 g

(3)   3.65 g

(4)   9.50 g

Answer: (2)

83. The pH of the solution containing 50 mL each of 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.01 M acetic acid is

[Given pKa of CH3COOH = 4.57]

(1)   5.57

(2)   3.57

(3)   4.57

(4)   2.57

Answer: (1)

84. Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

(2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

(3) (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)

(4) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

Answer: (4)

85. Which amongst the following is incorrect statement?

(1)   The bond orders of O2+, O2, O2and O22are 2.5, 2, 1.5 and 1, respectively

(2)   C2molecule has four electrons in its two degenerate π molecular orbitals

(3)   H2+ ion has one electron

(4)   O2+ ion is diamagnetic

Answer: (4)

SECTION-B

86. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:

In Lucas test, primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the basis of their reactivity with conc. HCl + ZnCl2, known as Lucas Reagent.

Statement II:

Primary alcohols are most reactive and immediately produce turbidity at room temperature on reaction with Lucas Reagent.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (3)

87. If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He+ ion is 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr orbit of Li2+ ion?

(1)   158.7 pm

(2)   15.87 pm

(3)   1.587 pm

(4)   158.7 Å

Answer: (1)

88. For a first order reaction A → Products, initial concentration of A is 0.1 M, which becomes 0.001 M after 5 minutes. Rate constant for the reaction in min–1 is

(1)   1.3818

(2)   0.9212

(3)   0.4606

(4)   0.2303

Answer: (2)

89. A 10.0 L flask contains 64 g of oxygen at 27ºC. (Assume O2 gas is behaving ideally). The pressure inside the flask in bar is (Given R = 0.0831 L bar K–1 mol–1)

(1)   2.5

(2)   498.6

(3)   49.8

(4)   4.9

Answer: (4)

90. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is

(1) 1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol

(2) 6-bromo-2-chloro-4-methythexan-4-ol

(3) 1-bromo-4-methyl-5-chlorohexan-3-ol

(4) 6-bromo-4-methyl-2-chlorohexan-4-ol

Answer: (1)

91. The pollution due to oxides of sulphur gets enhanced due to the presence of:

(a) particulate matter        (b) ozone

(c) hydrocarbons  (d) hydrogen peroxide Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (a), (d) only

(2) (a), (b), (d) only

(3) (b), (c), (d) only

(4) (a), (c), (d) only

Answer: (2)

92. Copper crystallises in fcc unit cell with cell edge length of 3.608 × 10–8 The density of copper is 8.92 g cm–3. Calculate the atomic mass of copper.

(1)   63.1 u

(2)   31.55 u

(3)   60 u

(4)   65 u

Answer: (1)

93. Find the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place at 298 K

Ni(s) + 2Ag+(0.001M) → Ni2+(0.001M) + 2Ag(s)

(1)   1.0385 V

(2)   1.385 V

(3)   0.9615 V

(4)   1.05 V

Answer: (*)

94. The product formed from the following reaction sequence is

Answer: (4)

95. The order of energy absorbed which is responsible for the color of complexes

(A) [Ni(H2O)2(en)2]2+

(B) [Ni(H2O)4(en)]2+ and

(C) [Ni(en)3]2+

is

(1)   (A) > (B) > (C)

(2)   (C) > (B) > (A)

(3)   (C) > (B) > (A)

(4)   (B) > (A) > (C)

Answer: (3)

96. Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

Answer: (2)

97. In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMnO4 oxidises iodide into iodate. The change in oxidation state of manganese in this reaction is from

(1)   +7 to +4

(2)   06 to +4

(3)   +7 to +3

(4)   06 to +5

Answer: (1)

98. Compound X on reaction with O3 followed by Zn/H2O gives formaldehyde and 2-methyl propanal as products. The compound X is

(1)   3-Methylbut-1-ene

(2)   2-Methylbut-1-ene

(3)   2-Methylbut-2-ene

(4)   Pent-2-ene

Answer: (1)

99. 3O2(g) ⇌ 2O3(g)

for the above reaction at 298 K, KC is found to be 3.0 × 10–59. If the concentration of O2 at equilibrium is 0.040 M then concentration of O3 in M is

(1)   4.38 × 10–32

(2)   1.9 × 10–63

(3)   2.4 × 1031

(4)   1.2 × 1021

Answer: (1)

100. Which one of the following is not formed when acetone reacts with 2-pentanone in the presence of dilute NaOH followed by heating?

Answer: (2)

BOTANY

SECTION-A

101. Which of the following is not a method of ex situ conservation?

(1) In vitro fertilization

(2) National Parks

(3) Micropropagation

(4) Cryopreservation

Answer: ()

102.

Identify the correct set of statements :

(a) The leaflets are modified into pointed hard thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea

(b) Axillary buds form slender and spirally coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin

(c) Stem is flattened and fleshy in Opuntia and modified to perform the function of leaves

(d) Rhizophora shows vertically upward growing roots that help to get oxygen for respiration

(e) Subaerially growing stems in grasses and strawberry help in vegetative propagation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (b) and (c) Only

(2) (a) and (d) Only

(3) (b), (c), (d) and (e) Only

(4) (a), (b), (d) and (e) Only

Answer: (4)

103. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into simpler substances by microbes.

Statement II: Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (3)

104. Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from:

(1) Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae

(2) Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae

(3) Rhodophyceae only

(4) Phaeophyceae only

Answer: (3)

105. Which one of the following plants shows vexillary aestivation and diadelphous stamens?

(1) Colchicum autumnale

(2) Pisum sativum

(3) Allium cepa

(4) Solanum nigrum

Answer: (2)

106. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

(1) Ectocarpus – Fucoxanthin

(2) Ulothrix – Mannitol

(3) Porphyra – Floridian Starch

(4) Volvox – Starch

Answer: (2)

107. The process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins as soon as :

(1) The small subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA

(2) The larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA

(3) Both the subunits join together to bind with mRNA

(4) The tRNA is activated and the larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA

Answer: (1)

108. Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii

(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

Answer: (2)

109. Which one of the following never occurs during mitotic cell division?

(1) Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes

(2) Movement of centrioles towards opposite poles

(3)   Pairing of homologous chromosomes

(4) Coiling and condensation of the chromatids

Answer: (3)

110. Given below are two statements :

Statement I :

The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the mesophyll cells.

Statement II :

Mesophyll cells of C4 plants lack RuBisCo enzyme.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (1)

111. Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis? It involves:

(1)   Breakdown of proton gradient

(2)   Breakdown of electron gradient

(3)   Movement of protons across the membrane to the stroma

(4)   Reduction of NADP to NADPH2 on the stroma side of the membrane

Answer: (2)

112. Habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species invasion and co-extinction are causes for:

(1) Population explosion

(2) Competition

(3) Biodiversity loss

(4) Natality

Answer: (3)

113. What is the net gain of ATP when each molecule of glucose is converted to two molecules of pyruvic acid?

(1)   Four

(2)   Six

(3)   Two

(4)   Eight

Answer: (3)

114. “Girdling Experiment” was performed by Plant Physiologists to identify the plant tissue through which:

(1) water is transported

(2) food is transported

(3) for both water and food transportation

(4) osmosis is observed

Answer: (2)

115. Which of the following is not observed during apoplastic pathway ?

(1) Movement of water occurs through intercellular spaces and wall of the cells

(2) The movement does not involve crossing of cell membrane

(3) The movement is aided by cytoplasmic streaming

(4) Apoplast is continuous and does not provide any barrier to water movement

Answer: (3)

116. Which one of the following plants does not show plasticity?

(1)   Cotton

(2)   Coriander

(3)   Buttercup

(4)   Maize

Answer: (4)

117. DNA polymorphism forms the basis of :

(1) Genetic mapping

(2) DNA finger printing

(3) Both genetic mapping and DNA finger printing

(4) Translation

Answer: (3)

118. XO type of sex determination can be found in :

(1) Drosophila

(2) Birds

(3) Grasshoppers

(4) Monkeys

Answer: (3)

119. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as  Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):  Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification.

Reason (R): The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Answer: (2)

120. The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to :

(1) speed up the malting process

(2) promote root growth and roothair formation to increase the absorption surface

(3) help overcome apical dominance

(4) kill dicotyledonous weeds in the fields

Answer: (2)

121. The device which can remove particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant is :

(1)   STP

(2)   Incinerator

(3)   Electrostatic Precipitator

(4)   Catalytic Convertor

Answer: (3)

122. Given below are two statements :

Statement I :

Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous

Statement II:

Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross pollination

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (1)

123. Exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of :

(1)   Cutin

(2)   Cellulose

(3)   Chitin

(4)   Glucosamine

Answer: (3)

124. Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements :

(a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin

(b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active

(c) Histone octomer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome

(d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine

(e) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (b), (d), (e) Only

(2) (a), (c), (d) Only

(3) (b), (e) Only

(4) (a), (c), (e) Only

Answer: (2)

125. Which one of the following statements cannot be connected to Predation?

(1) It helps in maintaining species diversity in a community

(2) It might lead to extinction of a species

(3) Both the interacting species are negatively impacted

(4) It is necessitated by nature to maintain the ecological balance

Answer: (3)

126. The flowers are Zygomorphic in:

(a) Mustard

(b) Gulmohar

(c) Cassia

(d) Datura

(e) Chilly

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c) Only

(2) (b), (c) Only

(3) (d), (e) Only

(4) (c), (d), (e) Only

Answer: (2)

127. Which one of the following produces nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots of Alnus?

(1)   Rhizobium

(2)   Frankia

(3)   Rhodospirillum

(4)   Beijerinckia

Answer: (2)

128. Read the following statements about the vascular bundles :

(a) In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate manner along the different radii.

(b) Conjoint closed vascular bundles do not possess cambium

(c) In open vascular bundles, cambium is present in between xylem and phloem

(d) The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem possess endarch protoxylem

(e) In monocotyledonous root, usually there are more than six xylem bundles present

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a), (b) and (d) Only

(2) (b), (c), (d) and (e) Only

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) Only

(4) (a), (c), (d) and (e) Only

Answer: (*)

129. Identify the incorrect statement related to Pollination :

(1) Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants

(2) Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollination

(3) Flowers produce foul odours to attract flies and beetles to get pollinated

(4) Moths and butterflies are the most dominant pollinating agents among insects

Answer: (4)

130. Which one of the following statement is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique?

(1) The process of extraction of separated DNA strands from gel is called elution.

(2) The separated DNA fragments are stained by using ethidium bromide.

(3) The presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured DNA bands on the gel.

(4) Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can be observed in the gel when exposed to UV light.

Answer: (3)

131. Production of Cucumber has increased manifold in recent years. Application of which of the following phytohormones has resulted in this increased yield as the hormone is known to produce female flowers in the plants :

(1)   ABA

(2)   Gibberellin

(3)   Ethylene

(4)   Ethylene

Answer: (3)

132. What amount of energy is released from glucose during lactic acid fermentation?

(1) Approximately 15%

(2) More than 18%

(3) About 10%

(4) Less than 7%

Answer: (4)

133. In old trees the greater part of secondary xylem is dark brown and resistant to insect attack due to :

(a) secretion of secondary metabolities and their deposition in the lumen of vessels.

(b) deposition of organic compounds like tannins and resins in the central layers of stem.

(c) deposition of suberin and aromatic substances in the outer layer of stem.

(d) deposition of tannins, gum, resin and aromatic substances in the peripheral layers of stem.

(e) presence of parenchyma cells, functionally active xylem elements and essential oils.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (a) and (b) Only

(2) (c) and (d) Only

(3) (d) and (e) Only

(4) (b) and (d) Only

Answer: (1)

134. The appearance of recombination nodules on homologous chromosomes during meiosis characterizes :

(1) Synaptonemal complex

(2) Bivalent

(3) Sites at which crossing over occurs

(4) Terminalization

Answer: (3)

135. Given below are two statements :

Statement I :

Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws of Inheritance.

Statement II :

Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (1)

SECTION-B

136. Transposons can be used during which one of the following ?

(1) Polymerase Chain Reaction

(2) Gene Silencing

(3) Autoradiography

(4) Gene sequencing

Answer: (2)

137. While explaining interspecific interaction of population, (+) sign is assigned for beneficial interaction, (–) sign is assigned for detrimental interaction and (0) for neutral interaction. Which of the following interactions can be assigned (+) for one specifies and (–) for another specifies involved in the interaction ?

(1) Predation

(2) Amensalim

(3) Commensalism

(4) Competition

Answer: (1)

138. Which part of the fruit, labelled in the given figure makes it a false fruit?

(1)   A → Mesocarp

(2)   B → Endocarp

(3)   C → Thalamus

(4)   D → Seed

Answer: (3)

139. Match the plant with the kind of life cycle it exhibits:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

Answer: (2)

140. Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

Answer: (1)

141. Addition of more solutes in a given solution will :

(1) raise its water potential

(2) lower its water potential

(3) make its water potential zero

(4) not affect the water potential at all

Answer: (2)

142. Which of the following occurs due to the presence of autosome linked dominant trait ?

(1) Sickle cell anaemia

(2) Myotonic dystrophy

(3) Haemophilia

(4) Thalessemia

Answer: (2)

143. Which one of the following will accelerate phosphorus cycle?

(1) Burning of fossil fuels

(2) Volcanic activity

(3) Weathering of rocks

(4) Rain fall and storms

Answer: (3)

144. In the following palindromic base sequences of DNA, which one can be cut easily by particular restriction enzyme?

(1) 5′GATACT3′; 3′CTATGA5′

(2) 5′GAATTC3′; 3′CTTAAG5′

(3) 5′CTCAGT3′; 3′GAGTCA5′

(4) 5′GTATTC3′; 3′CATAAG5′

Answer: (2)

145. Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set of statements:

(a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid

(b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more c = c bonds

(c) Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence remains as oil in winter

(d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents

(e) When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglycerides are formed

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (a), (d) and (e) only

(3) (c), (d) and (e) only

(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

Answer: (3)

146. What is the role of large bundle sheath cells found around the vascular bundles in C4 plants?

(1) To provide the site for photorespiratory pathway

(2) To increase the number of chloroplast for the operation of Calvin cycle

(3) To enable the plant to tolerate high temperature

(4) To protect the vascular tissue from high light intensity

Answer: (2)

147. If a geneticist uses the blind approach for sequencing the whole genome of an organism, followed by assignment of function to different segments, the methodology adopted by him is called as :

(1) Sequence annotation

(2) Gene mapping

(3) Expressed sequence tags

(4) Bioinformatics

Answer: (1)

148. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Mendel’s law of Independent assortment does not hold good for the genes that are located closely on the same chromosome.

Reason (R): Closely located genes assort independently.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Answer: (3)

149. The anatomy of springwood shows some peculiar features. Identify the correct set of statements about springwood.

(a) It is also called as the earlywood

(b) In spring season cambium produces xylem elements with narrow vessels

(c) It is lighter in colour

(d) The springwood along with autumnwood shows alternate concentric rings forming annual rings

(e) It has lower density

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a), (b), (d) and (e) Only

(2) (a), (c), (d) and (e) Only

(3) (a), (b) and (d) Only

(4) (c), (d) and (e) Only

Answer: (2)

150. The entire fleet of buses in Delhi were converted to CNG from diesel. In reference to this, which one of the following statements is false?

(1) CNG burns more efficiently than diesel

(2) The same diesel engine is used in CNG buses making the cost of conversion low

(3) It is cheaper than diesel

(4) It cannot be adulterated like diesel

Answer: (2)

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

151. In-situ conservation refers to:

(1) Protect and conserve the whole ecosystem

(2) Conserve only high-risk species

(3) Conserve only endangered species

(4) Conserve only extinct species

Answer: (1)

152. In which of the following animals, digestive tract has additional chambers like crop and gizzard?

(1) Corvus ,Columba ,Chameleon

(2) Bufo, Balaenoptera, Bangarus

(3) Catla ,Columba ,Crocodilus

(4) Pavo, Psittacula, Corvus

Answer: (4)

153. If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will be the approximate number of base pairs?

(1) 3. 3× bp 109

(2) 6. × 610bp9

(3) 3. 3× bp 106

(4) 6. 6× bp 106

Answer: (1)

154. Given below are two statements :

Statement I: Fatty acids and glycerols cannot be absorbed into the blood.

Statement II: Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals carry chylomicrons into lymphatic vessels and ultimately into the blood.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (1)

155. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:

Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense mechanism recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies.

Statement II:

Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not attack self cells.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (3)

156. Which of the following statements are true for spermatogenesis but do not hold true for Oogenesis?

(a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes

(b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the completion of meiosis

(c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically dividing stem cell population

(d) It is controlled by the Luteinising hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) secreted by the anterior pituitary

(e) It is initiated at puberty

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (c) and (e) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (b), (d) and (e) only

(4) (b), (c) and (e) only

Answer: (4)

157. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chance of fractures.

Reason (R): Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) of explanation is the correct (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Answer: (3)

158. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:

Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequence to cut DNA known as palindromic nucleotide sequence.

Statement II:

Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (1)

159. Lippe’s loop is a type of contraceptive used as:

(1) Cervical barrier

(2) Vault barrier

(3) Non-Medicated IUD

(4) Copper releasing IUD

Answer: (3)

160. Under normal physiological conditions in human being every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver ________ ml of O2 to the tissues.

(1)   2 ml

(2)   5 ml

(3)   4 ml

(4)   10 ml

Answer: (2)

161. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.

Reason (R): Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the adult vertebrates.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) of explanation is the correct (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Answer: (1)

162. Which of the following is not a connective tissue?

(1)   Blood

(2)   Adipose tissue

(3)   Cartilage

(4)   Neuroglia

Answer: (4)

163. Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by :

(1) Ornithorhynchus

(2) Salamandra

(3) Hippocampus

(4) Pavo

Answer: (4)

164. Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect?

(1) There are two stages in Meiosis, Meiosis-I and II

(2) in S phase of Meiosis DNA replication occurs-II

(3) Pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination occurs in Meiosis-I

(4) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of Meiosis-II

Answer: (2)

165. In an Coli strain i gene gets mutated and its product can not bind the inducer molecule. If growth medium is provided with lactose, what will be the outcome?

(1) Onlyz gene will get transcribed

(2) z, y, a genes will be transcribed

(3) z ,y ,a genes will not be translated

(4) RNA polymerase will bind the promoter region

Answer: ()

166. Which of the following is a correct match for disease and its symptoms?

(1) Arthritis – Inflammed joints

(2) Tetany – High Ca2+ level causing rapid spasms.

(3) Myasthenia gravis – Genetic disorder resulting in weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle

(4) Muscular dystrophy – An auto immune disorder causing progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle

Answer: (1)

167. Identify the microorganism which is responsible for the production of an immunosuppressive molecule cyclosporin A :

(1) Trichoderma polysporum

(2) Clostridium butylicum

(3) Aspergillus niger

(4) Streptococcus cerevisiae

Answer: (1)

168. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size.

Statement II : Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

(1) correct are Both Statement I and Statement II

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (3)

169. Which of the following functions is not performed by secretions from salivary glands?

(1) Control bacterial population in mouth

(2) Digestion of complex carbohydrates

(3) Lubrication of oral cavity

(4) Digestion of disaccharides

Answer: (4)

170. Given below are two statements :

Statement I: The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins.

Statement II: Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (4)

171. A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to product maltose. If the formula for glucose is C6H12O6 then what is the formula for maltose?

(1) C12H20O10

(2) C12H24O12

(3) C12H22O11

(4) C12H24O11

Answer: (3)

172. Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect?

(1) RER has ribosomes attached to ER

(2) SER is devoid of ribosomes

(3) prokaryotes only RER are present

(4) SER are the sites for lipid synthesis

Answer: (3)

173. Which of the following is present between the adjacent bones of the vertebral column?

(1) Intercalated discs

(2) Cartilage

(3) Areolar tissue

(4) Smooth muscle

Answer: (2)

174. Tegmina in cockroach, arises from

(1) Prothorax

(2) Mesothorax

(3) Metathorax

(4) Prothorax and Mesothorax

Answer: (2)

175. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.

Statement II : Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (3)

176. If ‘8’ Drosophila in a laboratory population of ‘80’ died during a week, the death rate in the population is ______ individuals per Drosophila per week.

(1)   0.1

(2)   10

(3)   1.0

(4)   zero

Answer: (1)

177. Natural selection where more individuals acquire specific character value other than the mean character value, leads to

(1) Stabilising change

(2) Directional change

(3) Disruptive change

(4) Random change

Answer: (2)

178. Which of the following is not the function of conducting part of respiratory system?

(1) It clears inhaled air from foreign particles

(2) Inhaled air is humidified

(3) Temperature of inhaled air is brought to body temperature

(4) Provides surface for diffusion of O2 and CO2

Answer: (4)

179. Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher proteins and healthier fats is called :

(1) Bio-magnification

(2) Bio-remediation

(3) Bio-fortification

(4) Bio-accumulation

Answer: (3)

180. In the taxonomic categories which hierarchical arrangement in ascending order is correct in case of animals?

(1) Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

(2) Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Family, Order, Genus, Species

(3) Kingdom, Order, Class, Phylum, Family, Genus, Species

(4) Kingdom, Order, Phylum, Class, Family, Genus, Species

Answer: (1*)

181. At which stage of life the oogenesis process is initiated?

(1) Puberty

(2) Embryonic development stage

(3) Birth

(4) Adult

Answer: (2)

182. Identify the asexual reproductive structure associated with Penicillium :

(1) Zoospores

(2) Conidia

(3) Gemmules

(4) Buds

Answer: (2)

183. In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes because :

(1) Retroviral vector is introduced into these lymphocytes.

(2) Gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at embryonic stages

(3) nt Lymphocytes from patie ‘s blood are grown in culture, outside the body.

(4) Genetically engineered lymphocytes are not immortal cells.

Answer: (4)

184. Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis:

(1) All the chromosomes lie at the equator at metaphase

(2) Spindle fibres attach to centromere of chromosomes

(3) Chromosomes decondense at telophase

(4)   Splitting of centromere occurs at anaphase

Answer: (2)

185. Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller particles. This process is called:

(1) Catabolism

(2) Fragmentation

(3) Humification

(4) Decomposition

Answer: (2)

SECTION-B

186. If a colour blind female marries a man whose mother was also colour blind, what are the chances of her progeny having colour blindness?

(1)   25%

(2)   50%

(3)   75%

(4)   100%

Answer: (4)

187. Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.

(1) Primary response is produced when our body encounters a pathogen for the first time.

(2) Anamnestic response is elicited on subsequent encounters with the same pathogen.

(3) Anamnestic response is due to me mory of first encounter .

(4) Acquired immunity is non-specific type of defense present at the time of birth.

Answer: (4)

188. Statements related to human Insulin are given below. Which statement(s) is/are correct about genetically engineered Insulin?

(a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of C-peptide

(b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in E.coli, extracted and combined by creating disulphide bond between them.

(c) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs.

(d) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone.

(e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (a), (b) and (d) only

(2) (b) only

(3) (c) and (d) only

(4) (c), (d) and (e) only

Answer: (2)

189. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(1) The atrio-ventricular node (AVN) generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction

(2) The tricuspid and the bicuspid valves open due to the pressure exerted by the simultaneous contraction of the atria

(3) Blood moves freely from atrium to the ventricle during joint diastole.

(4) Increased ventricular pressure causes closing of the semilunar valves.

Answer: (3)

190. Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)   (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(3)   (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Answer: (4)

191. Ten E.coli cells with 15N – dsDNA are incubated in medium containing 14N nucleotide. After 60 minutes, how many E.coli cells will have DNA totally free from 15N?

(1)   20 cells

(2)   40 cells

(3)   60 cells

(4)   80 cells

Answer: (3)

192. The recombination frequency between the genes a & c is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, a & b is 20%, c & d is 24% and a & d is 29%. What will be the sequence of these genes on a linear chromosome?

(1) a, d, b, c

(2) d, b, a, c

(3) a, b, c, d

(4) a, c, b, d

Answer: (4)

193. Which of the following are not the effects of Parathyroid hormone?

(a) Stimulates the process of bone resorption

(b) Decreases Ca2+ level in blood

(c) Reabsorption of Ca2+  by renal tubules

(d) Decreases the absorption of Ca2+ from digested food

(e) Increases metabolism of carbohydrates

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1)   (a) and (c) only

(2)   (b), (d) and (e) only

(3)   (a) and (e) only

(4)   (b) and (c) only

Answer: (2)

194. Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector?

(1) Presence of origin of replication

(2) Presence of a marker gene

(3) Presence of single restriction enzyme site

(4) Presence of two or more recognition sites

Answer: (4)

195. Which of the following statements is not true?

(1) Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution

(2) Sweet potato and potato is an example of analogy

(3) Homology indicates common ancestry

(4) Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a pair of homologous organs

Answer: (4)

196. Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses :

(1) The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are in close proximity in an electrical synapse.

(2) Electrical current can flow directly from one neuron into the other across the electrical synapse.

(3) Chemical synapses use neurotransmitters

(4) Impulse transmission across a chemical synapse is always faster than that across an electrical synapse.

Answer: (4)

197. Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)   (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(2)   (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(4)   (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Answer: (1)

198. Match List-I with List-II with respect to methods of Contraception and their respective actions.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)   (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(2)   (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(3)   (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(4)   (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

Answer: (2)

199. Which of the following is a correct statement?

(1)   Cyanobacteria area a group of. autotrophic organisms classified under kingdom Monera

(2)   Bacteria are exclusively heterotrophic organisms.

(3)   Slime moulds are saprophytic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera.

(4)   Mycoplasma have DNA, ribosome and cell wall.

Answer: (1)

200. Given below are two statements:

Statements I : In a scrubber the exhaust from the thermal plant is passed through the electric wires to charge the dust particles.

Statement II : Particulate matter (PM 2.5) cannot be removed by scrubber but can be removed by an electrostatic precipitator.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (4)

JEE Main Session 2 29th July 2022 Shift 2 Question Paper and Answer Key

JEE Main Session 2 29th July 2022 Shift 2

PHYSICS

Section-A

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

(1)   The test is of 3 hours duration:

(2)   The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.

(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part (subject) has two sections.

(i)    Section-A: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and −1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii)   Section-B: This section contains 10 questions. In Section-B, attempt any five questions out of 10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and −1 mark for wrong answer. For Section-B, the answer should be rounded off to the nearest integer.

1. Two identical metallic spheres A and B when placed at certain distance in air repel each other with a force of F. Another identical uncharged sphere C is first placed in contact with A and then in contact with B and finally placed at midpoint between spheres A and B. The force experienced by sphere C will be

(A) 3F/2

(B) 3F/4

(C) F

(D) 2F

Answer: (B)

2. Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

(B) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(C) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

(D) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Answer: (B)

3. Two identical thin metal plates has charge q1 and q2 respectively such that q1> q2. The plates were brought close to each other to form a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C. The potential difference between them is

Answer: (C)

4. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Alloys such as constantan andmanganing are used in making standard resistance coils.

Reason R: Constantan and manganin have very small value of temperature coefficient of resistance.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

(C) A is true but R is false.

(D) A is false but R is true.

Answer: (A)

5. A 1 m long wire is broken into two unequal parts X and Y. The X part of the wire is stretched into another wire W. Length of W is twice the length of X and the resistance of W is twice that of Y. Find the ratio of length of X and Y.

(A) 1:4

(B) 1:2

(C) 4:1

(D) 2:1

Answer: (B)

6. A wire X of length 50 cm carrying a current of 2 A is placed parallel to a long wire Y of length 5 m. The wire Y carries a current of 3 A. The distance between two wires is 5 cm and currents flow in the same direction. The force acting on the wire Y is

(A) 1.2 × 10–5 N directed towards wire X

(B) 1.2 × 10–4 N directed away from wire X

(C) 1.2 × 10–4 N directed towards wire X

(D) 2.4 × 10–5 N directed towards wire X

Answer: (A)

7. A juggler throws balls vertically upwards with same initial velocity in air. When the first ball reaches its highest position, he throws the next ball. Assuming the juggler throws n balls per second, the maximum height the balls can reach is

(A) g/2n

(B) g/n

(C) 2gn

(D) g/2n2

Answer: (D)

8. A circuit element X when connected to an a.c. supply of peak voltage 100 V gives a peak current of 5 A which is in phase with the voltage. A second element Y when connected to the same a.c. supply also gives the same value of peak current which lags behind the voltage by π/2. If X and Y are connected in series to the same supply, what will be the rms value of the current in ampere?

(A) 10/√2

(B) 5/√2

(C) 5√2

(D) 5/2

Answer: (D)

9. An unpolarised light beam of intensity 2I0 is passed through a polaroid P and then through another polaroid Q which is oriented in such a way that its passing axis makes an angle of 30° relative to that of P. The intensity of the emergent light is

(A) I0/4

(B) I0/2

(C) 3I0/4

(D) 3I0/2

Answer: (C)

10. An α particle and a proton are accelerated from rest through the same potential difference. The ratio of linear momenta acquired by above two particles will be:

(A) √2 : 1

(B) 2√2 : 1

(C) 4√2 : 1

(D) 8 : 1

Answer: (B)

11. Read the following statements:

(A) Volume of the nucleus is directly proportional to the mass number.

(B) Volume of the nucleus is independent of mass number.

(C) Density of the nucleus is directly proportional to the mass number.

(D) Density of the nucleus is directly proportional to the cube root of the mass number.

(E) Density of the nucleus is independent of the mass number.

Choose the correct option from the following options

(A) (A) and (D) only

(B) (A) and (E) only

(C) (B) and (E) only

(D) (A) and (C) only

Answer: (B)

12. An object of mass 1 kg is taken to a height from the surface of earth which is equal to three times the radius of earth. The gain in potential energy of the object will be

[If, g = 10 ms–2 and radius of earth = 6400 km]

(A) 48 MJ

(B) 24MJ

(C) 36MJ

(D) 12MJ

Answer: (A)

13. A ball is released from a height h. If t1 and t2 be the time required to complete first half and second half of the distance respectively. Then, choose the correct relation between t1 and t2.

(A) t1 = (√2)t2

(B) t1 = (√2 – 1)t2

(C) t2 = (√2 + 1)t1

(D) t2 = (√2 – 1)t1

Answer: (D)

14. Two bodies of masses m1 = 5 kg and m2 = 3 kg are connected by a light string going over a smooth light pulley on a smooth inclined plane as shown in the figure. The system is at rest. The force exerted by the inclined plane on the body of mass m1 will be

[Take g = 10 ms–2]

(A) 30 N

(B) 40 N

(C) 50 N

(D) 60 N

Answer: (B)

15. If momentum of a body is increased by 20%, then its kinetic energy increases by

(A) 36%

(B) 40%

(C) 44%

(D) 48%

Answer: (C)

16. The torque of a force  about the origin is τ. If the force acts on a particle whose position vector is  then the value of τ will be

Answer: (C)

17. A thermodynamic system is taken from an original state D to an intermediate state E by the linear process shown in the figure. Its volume is then reduced to the original volume from E to F by an isobaric process. The total work done by the gas from D to E to F will be

(A) −450 J

(B) 450 J

(C) 900 J

(D) 1350 J

Answer: (B)

18. The vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field is 6 × 10–5 T at any place where the angle of dip is 37°. The earth’s resultant magnetic field at that place will be (Given tan 37° = 3/4)

(A) 8 × 105 T

(B) 6 × 105 T

(C) 5 × 104 T

(D) 1 × 104 T

Answer: (D)

19. The root mean square speed of smoke particles of mass 5 × 1017 in their Brownian motion in air at NTP is approximately. [Given k = 1.38 × 1023 JK1]

(A) 60 mm s1

(B) 12mm s1

(C) 15mm s1

(D) 36mm s1

Answer: (C)

20. Light enters from air into a given medium at an angle of 45° with interface of the air-medium surface. After refraction, the light ray is deviated through an angle of 15° from its original direction. The refractive index of the medium is

(A) 1.732

(B) 1.333

(C) 1.414

(D) 2.732

Answer: (C)

SECTION-B

21. A tube of length 50 cm is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass 250 g and closed at both ends. The tube is then rotated in horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular velocity x√F rad s1.

Answer: (4)

22. Nearly 10% of the power of a 110 W light bulb is converted to visible radiation. The change in average intensities of visible radiation, at a distance of 1 m from the bulb to a distance of 5 m is a × 10–2m2. The value of ‘a’ will be _____.

Answer: (84)

23. A metal wire of length 0.5 m and cross-sectional area 10–4 m2 has breaking stress 5 × 108 Nm–2. A block of 10 kg is attached at one end of the string and is rotating in a horizontal circle. The maximum linear velocity of block will be _____ ms–1.

Answer: (50)

24. The velocity of a small ball of mass 0.3 g and density 8 g/cc when dropped in a container filled with glycerine becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is 1.3 g/cc, then the value of viscous force acting on the ball will be x × 10–4 The value of x is _______. [use g = 10 m/s2]

Answer: (25)

25. A modulating signal 2sin (6.28 × 106) t is added to the carrier signal 4sin(12.56 × 109) t for amplitude modulation. The combined signal is passed through a non-linear square law device. The output is then passed through a band pass filter. The bandwidth of the output signal of band pass filter will be ______MHz.

Answer: (2)

26. The speed of a transverse wave passing through a string of length 50 cm and mass 10 g is 60 ms–1. The area of cross-section of the wire is 2.0 mm2 and its Young’s modulus is 1.2 × 1011 Nm–2. The extension of the wire over its natural length due to its tension will be x × 10–5 The value of x is _____.

Answer: (15)

27. The metallic bob of simple pendulum has the relative density 5. The time period of this pendulum is 10 s. If the metallic bob is immersed in water, then the new time period becomes 5√x s. The value of x will be _____.

Answer: (5)

28. A 8 V Zener diode along with a series resistance R is connected across a 20 V supply (as shown in the figure). If the maximum Zener current is 25 mA, then the minimum value of R will be ____ Ω.

Answer: (480)

29. Two radioactive materials A and B have decay constants 25λ and 16λ respectively. If initially they have the same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of B to that of A will be ‘e’ after a time 1/aλ. The value of a is _____.

Answer: (9)

30. A capacitor of capacitance 500 μF is charged completely using a dc supply of 100 V. It is now connected to an inductor of inductance 50 mH to form an LC circuit. The maximum current in the LC circuit will be ______A.

Answer: (10)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1. Consider the reaction

4HNO3(l) + 3KCl(s) → Cl2(g) + NOCl(g) + 2H2O(g) + 3KNO3(s)

The amount of HNO3 required to produce 110.0 g of KNO3is :

(Given : Atomic masses of H, O, N and K are 1, 16, 14 and 39, respectively.)

(A) 32.2 g

(B) 69.4 g

(C) 91.5 g

(D) 162.5 g

Answer: (C)

2. Given below are the quantum numbers for 4 electrons.

(A)n = 3, l = 2, m1 = 1, ms = +1/2 

(B)n = 4, l = 1, m1 = 0, ms = +1/2 

(C)n = 4, l = 2, m1 = –2, ms = –1/2 

(D)n = 3, l = 1, m1 = –1, ms = +1/2 

The correct order of increasing energy is :

(A) D < B < A < C

(B) D < A < B < C 

(C) B < D < A < C

(D) B < D < C < A

Answer: (B)

3. C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + 400 kJ

When coal of purity 60% is allowed to burn in presence of insufficient oxygen, 60% of carbon is converted into ‘CO’ and the remaining is converted into ‘CO2‘. 

The heat generated when 0.6 kg of coal is burnt is ______.

(A) 1600 kJ

(B) 3200 kJ

(C) 4400 kJ

(D) 6600 kJ

Answer: (D)

4. 200 mL of 0.01 M HCl is mixed with 400 mL of 0.01M H2SO4. The pH of the mixture is ____.

(A) 1.14

(B) 1.78

(C) 2.32

(D) 3.02

Answer: (B)

5. Given below are the critical temperatures of some of the gases :

The gas showing least adsorption on a definite amount of charcoal is :

(A) He

(B) CH4

(C) CO2

(D) NH3

Answer: (A)

6. In liquation process used for tin (Sn), the metal :

(A) is reacted with acid 

(B) is dissolved in water  

(C) is brought to molten form which is made to flow on a slope 

(D) is fused with NaOH.

Answer: (C)

7. Given below are two statements.

Statement I:Stannane is an example of a molecular hydride. 

Statement II:Stannane is a planar molecule. In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. 

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. 

(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. 

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Answer: (C)

8. Portland cement contains ‘X’ to enhance the setting time. What is ‘X’?

(A) 

(B) CaSO4.2H2O

(C) CaSO­4

(D) CaCO3

Answer: (B)

9. When borax is heated with CoO on a platinum loop, blue coloured bead formed is largely due to :

(A) B2O3

(B) Co(BO2)2

(C) CoB4O7

(D) Co[B4O5(OH)4]

Answer: (B)

10. Which of the following 3d-metal ion will give the lowest enthalpy of hydration (∆hydH) when dissolved in water ?

(A) Cr2+

(B) Mn2+

(C) Fe2+

(D) Co2+

Answer: (B)

11. Octahedral complexes of copper (II) undergo structural distortion (Jahn-Teller). Which one of the given copper (II) complexes will show the maximum structural distortion ?

(en–ethylenediamine; H2N-CH2-CH2-NH2)

(A) [Cu(H2O)6]SO4