National Institute of Fashions & Technology (NIFT) Under Graduate Question Paper-2008
General Ability Test
Directions (Qs. Nos. 1-25): Study the following questions carefully to answer these questions.
1. Which silhouette out of all the listed below is not suitable for a Women Tennis Player?
(A) Pleated short skirt
(B) A long straight skirt with a slit
(C) A divided skirt
(D) A flared short skirt
2. For a saree drape, which one of these is not an ideal fabric?
(A) Crepe
(B) Denim
(C) Silk
(D) Chiffon
3. D & G is known as :
(A) Dolls & Girls
(B) Dolls & Guys
(C) Dolce & Gabbana
(D) Denims & Guys
4. Which one of these famous Indian women is a well known fashion designer?
(A) Ayesha Dharker
(B) Puja Nayyar
(C) Shreya Ghosal
(D) Sharon Lowen
5. Which one of the listed terms is not a stain removing technique for fabrics?
(A) Sponging
(B) Tanning
(C) Flushing
(D) Tamping
6. Detrait is famous for which one of the following Industries?
(A) Textile
(B) Food Processing
(C) Automobiles
(D) Locomotives
7. FDCI was formed in the year:
(A) 1998
(B) 2000
(C) 2004
(D) 1968
8. What is the mandatory requirement for starting Import-Export business?
(A) To have Import-Export classification number
(B) To have Import-Export code number
(C) To have Import-Export identity number
(D) To have Import-Export category number
9. The term “FOB” means:
(A) Free on bulk
(B) Full ocean bill
(C) Freight on board
(D) Free on board
10. Give full form of ‘APEDA’:
(A) Agriculture Proceeds Export Development Authority
(B) Apparel Products Export Development Authority
(C) American Processed Foods Export Development Authority
(D) Agriculture & Processed Food Products Export Development Authority
11. Trade in which merchandize is exchanged directly with other merchandize without use of money is:
(A) free exchange
(B) goods against goods
(C) direct deal
(D) barter
12. Which ministry negotiates on behalf of India in WTO discussions?
(A) Commerce & Industry
(B) External Affairs
(C) Overseas Indian Affairs
(D) Finance
13. Which of these countries did not host GATT/WTO meeting?
(A) Mexico
(B) Uruguay
(C) New Delhi
(D) Dubai
14. Wood is the main raw material for the manufacture of:
(A) Paint
(B) Paper
(C) Ink
(D) Gun powder
15. Emerald is _____ in color.
(A) violet
(B) yellow
(C) deep green
(D) Prussian Blue
16. The ratio of Pure gold in 18 carat gold?
(A) 60%
(B) 75%
(C) 80%
(D) 100%
17. Which of the following fibres is least prone to fire?
(A) Royan
(B) Nylon
(C) Cotton
(D) Trycott
18. Which among the following is animal fibre?
(A) Cotton
(B) Royan
(C) Nylon
(D) Wool
19. Monetary Policy is regulated by?
(A) Money leader
(B) Central Bank
(C) Govt. Policy
(D) Private enterpenic
20. Which one of these is not an Element of Design?
(A) Color
(B) Line
(C) Bias
(D) Shape
21. MRP means:
(A) Maximum Retal Price
(B) Minimum Retal Price
(C) Maximum Revenue Per Price
(D) Marginal Revenue Price
22. Textile industry in India employs around – people.
(A) 36 Million
(B) 50 Million
(C) 20 Million
(D) 10 Million
23. IPO is an acronym for:
(A) Immediate Public Offer
(B) Instant Payment Offering
(C) Initial Public Offering
(D) Immediate Pay Order
24. ATC stands for:
(A) Arrangement between Textile Companies.
(B) Agreement on Textile and Clothing.
(C) Agreement on Trade and Cooperation.
(D) Arrangement for Trade and Compensation.
25. Trade in textiles and clothing came fully under WTO from:
(A) January 2004
(B) December 2005
(C) January 2005
(D) July 2004
Directions (Q. Nos. 26-29): In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to trivial aspect of the question.
Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered I, II and III. Decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
26. Statement:
Should the Govt. supply free text books upto Std. X to all the students in the Govt. run schools in India?
Arguments:
(I) No, many students of these schools come from rich families and they should not be given free books.
(II) Yes, this will considerably reduce the percentage of school dropouts as many parents cannot afford the burden of buying books.
(III) No, the prices of books prescribed upto Std. X are otherwise very low and there is no need to distribute books free of cost to the students.
(A) Only I and II are strong.
(B) Only II and III are strong.
(C) Only I and III are strong.
(D) All of the above
27. Statement:
Should the Govt. privatize all the coal mines in the country?
Arguments:
(I) Yes, this will result in optimum mining as the private companies are in a position to bring in experts from other countries to maximize the output.
(II) No, the coal mines are our country’s wealth and we should not allow them to go to the private hands.
(III) Yes, the coal mines in India are in very bad shape and the Govt. is unable to manage them efficiently.
(A) Only II and III are strong.
(B) Only I and II are strong.
(C) Only II and III are strong.
(D) All of the above
28. Statement:
Should all the Engineering Graduates passing out of Govt. colleges be compulsorily made to work in Government organization/public sector undertakings?
Arguments:
(I) Yes, these students have used huge resources of the Govt. and they should pay back by serving in Govt./public sector undertakings.
(II) Yes, otherwise these students will join the multinational companies and earn huge sums of money leading to loss of Govt. resources.
(III) No, each individual has a right to choose his/her job and serving in Govt./public sector undertakings should not be made mandatory.
(A) None is strong.
(B) Only III is strong.
(C) Only I and III are strong.
(D) Only either I or III and II are strong.
29. Statements:
Should the Government allow foreign construction companies in setting up of nuclear power plants?
Arguments:
(I) Yes, the foreign construction companies are technically superior than the construction companies in our country and therefore they will be able to build better installations.
(II) Yes, we need to construct such facilities with the help of foreign construction companies which have experience of building such installations in a time bound manner to avoid unnecessary delay.
(III) No, nuclear power installations are sensitive in nature and are integrated to the safety and security of our country and therefore we should not allow the foreigners to have access to such installations.
(A) All are strong.
(B) Only I and II are strong.
(C) Only III is strong.
(D) Only II is strong.
Directions (Q. Nos. 30-31): Study the information below to answer these questions.
A, B, C, D are to be seated in a row. But C and D cannot be together. Also B cannot be at the third place.
30. Which of the following must be false?
(A) A is at the first place
(B) A is at the second place
(C) A is at the third place
(D) A is at the fourth place
31. If A is not at the third place then C has :
(A) the first place only
(B) A is at the second place
(C) A is at the third place
(D) A is at the fourth place
Directions (Q. Nos. 32-33): Study the information below and answer the questions based on it.
A boy is asked to put in a basket one mango when ordered ‘One’, one orange when ordered ‘Two’, one apple when ordered ‘Three’ and is asked to take out from the basket one mango and an orange when ordered ‘Four’.
A sequence of orders is given as:
1 2 3 3 2 1 4 2 3 1 4 2 2 3 3 1 4 1 1 3 2 3 4
32. How many total oranges were in the basked at the end of the above sequence?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
33. How many total fruits will be in the basket at the end of the above order sequence?
(A) 9
(B) 8
(C) 11
(D) 10
Directions (Q. Nos. 34-36): Study the information below and answer the questions based on it.
The plan above shows an office block for six officers A, B, C, D, E and F. Both B and C occupy offices to the right of the corridor (as one enters the office block) and A occupies an office to the left of the corridor. E and F occupy offices on opposite sides of the corridor but their offices do not face each other. The offices of C and D face each other. E does not have a corner office. F’s office is further down the corridor than A’s, but on the same side.
34. If E sits in his office and faces the corridor, whose office is to his left?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
35. Whose office faces A’s office?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E
36. D was heard telling someone to go further down the corridor to the last office on the right. To whose room was the trying to direct that person?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) F
Directions (Q. Nos. 37-38): Title of an article is given against each of these questions.
Mark answer as
(A) if it pertains to Politics
(B) if it pertains to Sociology
(C) if it pertains to Science and Technology
(D) if it pertains to Sports
37. Cases of Female infanticide still prevalent in India.
38. Researchers debate : Homeopathy a placebo or a healer?
Directions (Q. Nos. 39-42): Below in each question are given two statement (A) and (B). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer as
(1) if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.
(2) if statement (B) is the cause and statement
(3) if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
(4) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.
39. (A) The prices of cement have increased manifold during the past few
(B) Government has decided to provide tax break for five years to the new cement manufacturing factories to be set up in near future.
40. (A) This year majority of the X Std. Students of the local school opted Sanskrit as the third language.
(B) Last year majority of X Std. students of the local school opted French as the third language.
41. (A) The prices of vegetables have increased substantially during the past few weeks.
(B) Government had reduced the prices of petroleum products about a month back.
42. (A) Large number of people rushed to the Super Bazar on Sunday.
(B) The Super Bazer offered heavy discounts for a very large number of merchandise on Sunday.
Directions (Q. Nos. 43-46) : In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by two conclusions I and II You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be of variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Mark answer as
(A) if only Conclusion II follows.
(B) if either Conclusion I or II follows.
(C) if either Conclusion I nor II follows.
(D) if both Conclusions I and II follow.
43. Statements:
Some pins are magnets. Some magnets are scales. Some scales are trucks. All trucks are buses.
Conclusions:
(I) Some trucks are pins.
(II) No truck is pin.
44. Statements:
All jungles are trees. All trees are roads. All roads are houses. All houses are buildings.
Conclusions:
(I) All trees are houses.
(II) Some buildings are roads.
45. Statements:
All tablets are packets. No packet is bag. Some bags are toys. All toys are puppets.
Conclusions:
(I) Some puppets are tablets.
(II) Some puppets are bags.
46. Statements:
Some desks are tables. Some tables are chairs.
Some chairs are benches. Some benches are cots.
Conclusions:
(I) Some chairs are desks.
(II) Some cots are tables.
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-48): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Digit in the numbers are to be coded as follows:
Digit : 2 5 7 1 3 6 9 8 4 0
Code : P D M R F L J Z H K
The following conditions are to be applied :
(i) If the first digit is even and the last digit is odd, each of the even digits in the number is to be coded as ‘A’.
(ii) If the first digit is add and the last digit is even, each of the odd digits in the number is to be coded as ‘B’.
(iii) If ‘0’ is the last digit of the number, it is to the coded as ‘X’.
(iv) If first and the last digits either both are even or both are odd, then both are to be coded as ‘Y’.
(v) ‘0’ is neither even nor odd.
Applying the above conditions, find out the correct code for the number in each question and indicate your answer accordingly.
47. 586342
(A) DAAFAA
(B) BZLBHP
(C) BZLFHB
(D) ALAHP
48. 639487
(A) AFJAAM
(B) BFJBBM
(C) AFJHZA
(D) BFJHZB
Directions (Q. Nos. 49-50): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
M, V, K, D, T, J and R are seven friends studying in different classes – IIIrd. IVth, Vth, VITh, VIIth, VIIIth and IXth standards. Each of them has different favourite colours – yellow, blue, red, white, black, green and violet. J likes red and studies in class Vth. R likes violet and studies in class IIIrd, M studies in class VIIIth and does not like green and yellow. K likes white and does not study in VIIth and IVth. D studies in VIth and likes black. T does not study in IVth. V does not like green.
49. In which standard does ‘V’ study?
(A) IVth
(B) IXth
(C) VIIIth
(D) Data inadequate
50. What is M’s favourite colour?
(A) Red
(B) Yellow
(C) Green
(D) Blue
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statement numbered I and II given below it. Decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and mark answer as :
(A) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) if the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(D) if the data in both the Statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question.
51. On which day of the week was Joseph born?
(I) Joseph’s birthday was one day after his sister’s birthday.
(II) Joseph was born on the third day of the week.
52. M, P, D, K and R are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. Who is to the immediate right of P?
(I) D is sitting between M and R.
(II) K is not the immediate left of R.
53. How is D related to M?
(I) D has two sisters K and N.
(II) K’s father is brother of M.
54. How is ‘go’ written in a certain code language?
(I) ‘go home now’ is written as ‘ja ho na’ in that code language.
(II) ‘come home now’ is written as ‘pa na ho’ in that code language.
55. What is Samir’s rank from the top in a class of 40 students?
(I) Nikhil who is five ranks below Samir is tenth from the bottom.
(II) Suresh who is six ranks above Samir is twentieth from the top.
56. The Kingfisher Swimsuit calendar is modeled on the lines of the exclusive calendar published by:
(A) Chanel
(B) Michelin
(C) Yves St. Laurent
(D) Pirelli
57. In fashion parlance ready to wear garments are known as:
(A) Diffusion
(B) Pret a Proter
(C) Couture
(D) Basics
58. Which of the following is not an accessory?
(A) Corset
(B) Belt
(C) Handbag
(D) Hat
59. The Endi, Muga and Pat varieties of silk are native to the state of:
(A) Karnataka
(B) Assam (Asom)
(C) W. Bengal
(D) Bihar
60. ‘Leheriya’ is a:
(A) Traditional tie and dye art
(B) Manipuri Shawl
(C) Himachali Headgear
(D) Kodava Costume
61. The famous Bamboo Dance of Mizoram is called:
(A) Chai Lam
(B) Wangala
(C) Cheraw
(D) Buddhism
62. The Indian Constitutions has ___ articles.
(A) 395
(B) 370
(C) 410
(D) 405
63. Jet lite is the label under which Jet Airways is operating _____ erstwhile airline.
(A) East West Airlines
(B) Modiluft
(C) Air Deccan
(D) Sahara
64. The next Olympic Games are scheduled in the year 2008 in the city of:
(A) Sydney
(B) Beijing
(C) Barcelona
(D) Toronto
65. Hosiery fabrics are made using the process of:
(A) Spinning
(B) Carding
(C) Knitting
(D) Weaving
66. Sunda Trench lies in :
(A) Atlantic Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) Indian Ocean
(D) Antarctic Ocean
67. Originally denim was colored using:
(A) Aniline dyes
(B) Azo dyes
(C) Indigo
(D) Sulphate dyes
68. The ‘Angrakha’ is a type of:
(A) Head gear
(B) Dhoti
(C) Kurta
(D) Loin cloth
Directions (Q. Nos. 69-70) : Study the information below and answer questions based on it.
Four families decided to attend the marriage ceremony of one of their colleagues. One family has no kids, while the others have atleast one kid each. Each family with kids has atleast one kid attending the marriage. Given below is some information about the families, and who reached when to attend the marriage.
The family with 2 kids came just before the family with no kids.
Shanthi who does not have any kids reached just before Sridevi’s family.
Sunil and his wife reached last with their only kid.
Anil is not the husband of Joya.
Anil and Raj are fathers.
Sridevi’s and Anita’s daughter go to the same school
Joya came before Shanthi and met Anita when she reached the venue.
Raman stays the farthest from the venue.
Raj said his son could not come because of his exams.
69. Name the correct pair of husband and wife?
(A) Raj and Shanthi
(B) Sunil and Sridevi
(C) Anil and Sridevi
(D) Raj and Anita
70. Whose family is known to have more than one kid of certain?
(A) Raman’s
(B) Raj’s
(C) Anil’s
(D) Sunil’s
Directions (Q. Nos. 71-75) : Read the passage carefully. The passage is followed by one statement each against these questions.
Evaluate each statement and mark answer as
(A) if the statement is a Major Objective in making the decision : one of the goals sought by the decision-maker.
(B) if the statement is a Major Factor in making the decision : as aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, the fundamentally affects and/or determines the decision.
(C) if the statement is a Minor Factor in making the decision : a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective, directly.
(D) if the statement is a Major Assumption in making the decision : a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
PASSAGE
Early in 1953, the soft drink world began to watch au interesting experiment : the introduction, of soft drinks in cans. Grocery outlets up to that time had enjoyed about one-half of all sales, but it was felt that if the new package was successful, local bottling plants might give way to great central plants, possibly operated by companies with established names in the grocery fields, with shipments being made in carload lots. Local bottlers faced a great decision. If the change were to prove permanent, they should perhaps hasten to add can-filling machines lest they lose their market. Coca- Cola, Canada Dry, White Rock, and many other bottlers experimented with the new plan. An eastern chain put out privately branded cans.
A basic limitation was the cost factor of about three cents per can, whereas bottle cost was put 4 fraction of a cent, since a bottle averaged about twenty-four round trips. It was known, however, that at that time about one third of all bear sales were made in cans and, furthermore, that other beverages had paved the way for consumer acceptance of a canned product. Beer prices were normally from three to four times those of soft drinks.
Many leaders in the industry felt that it might well be that consumer advertising emphasizing the convenience of using a non-returnable package might offset both habit and the extra cost to the consumer. One of the principal bottling companies undertook a large-scale market research project to find useful guides to future action.
71. Introduction of soft drinks in cans.
72. Results of the market research project.
73. Cost of soft drinks in cans.
74. Inappropriateness of cans for more than a single use prior to scrapping.
75. Power of consumer advertising to eliminate resistance to canned soft drinks.
Directions (Q. Nos. 76-80): Below is given a passage followed by inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth of falsity. Mark Answer as
(A) if the inference is ‘definitely true’ , i.e.it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
(B) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given
(C) if the data are inadequate, i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
(D) if the inference is ‘definitely false’ i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
Despite the vast untapped export potential, the funding of sericulture development in the country has been found to be a very major stumbling block. Therefore, it is necessary that a scheme for providing free flow of credit to all those who are engaged in sericulture including silk weaving may be drawn up.
Further, taking into account the emerging trends, to the- Indian Silk industry from global players like -Korea and China, and also the serious challenges posed by the ongoing changes in the multi-fibre agreement and complete integration with GATT, it is necessary to formulate a new national silk policy. Another working group has to be constituted to evolve a long term import and
export policy.
76. The formulation and implementation of long term import and export policy will only help Indian Silk Industry.
77. Extending free flow of credit may help Indian Silk Industry in some way.
78. Silk industries in China and Korea are totally supported by respective governments.
79. Indian Silk Industry had been facing very tough challenge from China and Korea.
80. So far there has been no National Silk Policy in India.
81. We tend to think that there’s such a thing as time, but ask any physicist, “Is time a thing or a notion? Does time really exist, or is it just a concept to explain the experience of change in our environment?” An eminent quantum physicist once said, “No experiment hut ever been done that” proves the existence of time, ‘Time is not a thing; it is an idea. Physicists no longer use the word time, they use the term space-time continuum because they know that time is a relative phenomenon; it’s not absolute. The earth spinning on its axis and hurtling around the sun at thousands of miles per hour creates our experience of time. But time is an illusion; it’s an internal dialogue we use to explain our experience or of perception of change and relationship.
What is time?
(A) Time is the thing created by passage of events.
(B) Time is the distance travelled by the movements of the hand of the clock.
(C) Time is absolute.
(D) Time is a an idea created by the space between two events.
82. When the government of a state performs its function of administering a country, the function is called governance of public governance. Good public governance is supposed to exist if three objectives are achieved out of the governance agenda. First, there should be equality of low and effective implementation of laws. Second, there should be opportunity for every individual to realize his/her full human potential and third, there should be effective productivity and no waste in any and every sector.
What is governance?
(A) When the executive of the state is functioning, it is said to perform the functioning, it is said to perform the function of governance.
(B) When the council of ministers of the state is acting, it is governance.
(C) When the parliament meets, it is part of the governance.
(D) When the government of a state purposes to function of administrating a country, the function is called governance.
83. Thereafter, USA fully supported the approval of NPT (Non-Proliferation Treaty) which effectively blocked new entrants to the nuclear club. After initial hesitation. China also joined the NPT in 1992. After India’s nuclear test in I 97 4, the US did put pressure on India and objected to fuel supplies to the Tarapur Plant, which India built with the US assistance. Bur Russia offered help to India in this regard. Why did USA threaten to cut off supplies for Tarapur Plant?
(A) To compel India to close down Tarapur Plant.
(B) To pressurize India to arrange supplies from our countries.
(C) To urge India to develop its own resources on its own soil.
(D) To press India to become a member of NPT.
84. On India’s pan, India is required to separate its civilian and military nuclear facilities in a planned manner and put those designated as civilian, under International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards in perpetuity. Under the accord, India has agreed to put l4 of its 22 power reactors under safeguards in phased manner by 2014. Negotiations between India and the US over the so-called bilateral 123 Agreement for peaceful nuclear co-operation are grounded over certain provisions of the Hyde-Act. However, as per Article 2(i)of the l23Agreement, the implementation of this agreement shall be governed by the national Laws of the two countries and in case of the US, the Hyde Act. What is the prime cause to bring about a statement in finalization of 123 Agreement with the US?
(A) Certain provisions of the Hyde-Act.
(B) Objections raised by the IAEA.
(C) Disagreement by the BJP.
(D) Reluctance on the part of the Indian government.
85. One study has predicted that sensex will increase by l5% to 20% in the next one year. Some experts consider it quite optimistic, but it is possible under certain conditions. Market levels, after all, are not determined by text book led experiments conducted in vacuum; rather by complex chemistry ‘of fad, sentiment, perception, ownership, liquidity and fundamental value. Environmental changes also impact and these are totally unpredictable at the start of any year.
Which of the following conclusions best summarizes the passage above?
(A) With some effort market trends can be predicted.
(B) Sensex mainly depends upon environmental changes.
(C) Sensex can give surprises at any time.
(D) Sentiments and perception often guide changes in the Sensex.
86. Estimates show that the revenue loss of public sector oil marketing companies could touch Rs. 70,000 crore in the current financial year if the prices remained unchanged. There are concerns about the mounting subsidy bill on account of fertilizers, food and petroleum. If the subsidies do not reach the poor, what objective is achieved? We spend so much on subsidy in the name of equality with neither equality objectives nor efficiency objectives being met.
Which of the following conclusions best summarises the above passage?
(A) Revenue losses of oil marketing companies are really alarming.
(B) We can control prices if we adopt suitable measures.
(C) We tend to worry excessively about equality objectives
(D) We need to rationalize our expenditure on subsidies.
87. An efficiency expert made the following suggestion to the manager of a shirt factory. “Purchase larger spools of sewing thread. With more thread to a spool, your operators will not need to stop production as often to change spools. This will. reduce your labour costs.”
The efficiency expert apparently assumes that:
(A) thread wound on larger spools is not as strong as thread wound on smaller spools.
(B) sewing machines do not break down and do not require routine maintenance.
(C) workers in the factory are paid by the h our rather than on a piecework basis.
(D) machine operators are not allowed to leave their machines during the work period.
88. A major insurance company reported that approximately 80 per cent of all traffic accidents never result in an insurance claim So we can conclude that about 80 per cent of all losses due to theft-also go unreported.
The argument above assumes that:
(I) Statistics of automobile insurance claims are applicable to claims for theft losses.
(II) Traffic accidents represent a more serious danger to the individual than do thefts.
(III) The average dollar value of a traffic accident claim is equal to the average dollar value of a theft-loss claim.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
89. The continuing and increasing reliance on computers represents a serious threat to the privacy of the individual. Recently, we have seen numerous examples of teenage and other hackers breaking the security codes of stores and banks and obtaining sensitive financial information about customers.
The argument above depends upon which of the following assumptions?
(I) People who obtain sensitive financial information about others will not share it.
(II) It is not possible to develop a security system for a computer that cannot be broken.
(III) Computers are not more efficient than other systems of record-keeping.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
90. Some of the most popular television advertisements are those employing humour. But as an advertising technique, humour has its drawbacks. Studies have shown that, while many viewers of, humorous advertisements vividly recall the commercials, far fewer recall the name of the product being promoted. This casts doubt on the ability of humorous. Commercials, no matter how funny or enjoyable, do increase product sales.
Which of the following is implied by the passage above?
(A) Humorous commercials tend to reduce the credibility of products in the eyes of viewers.
(B) Though enjoyable, humorous commercials are often less memorable than serious commercials.
(C) The most important criterion of a successful advertisements is its ability to increase product sales.
(D) Humorous commercials may alienate almost as many viewers as they entertain.
91. For the purposes of this study, ten qualities of a liveable city were chosen, including a low crime rate, cleanliness, cultural attractions, and other amenities. For each city in the study, scores from 1 (lowest) to 10 (highest) were assigned for each of the ten qualities. The ten scores for each city were then summed, yielding a total liveability score for each city. We hope the resulting ratings will help you in choosing your next place of residence.
The passage above makes which of the following assumptions?
(I) It is possible to assign an accurate numerical score to each of a city’s amenities.
(II) Each of the ten qualities of a liveable city is equally important.
(III) Most people enjoy some degree of personal choice in where they reside.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
Directions (Q. Nos. 92-95) : For these questions below is ‘given a passage followed by inferences. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon .its degree of truth or falsity.
Mark answer as
(A) if you think the inference is definitely true.
(B) if you think the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given.
(C) if you think the data are inadequate.
(D) if you think the inference is definitely false.
PASSAGE
The Election commission has imposed controls on three types of expenses : deployment of vehicles, publicity and payment to the voters – by activating the People’s Representative Act and evolving a code of conduct for parties and candidates. First, the ceiling on election expenses (fixed in 1984) was raised by three rimes to make it realistic in the light of the huge costs involved to conduct campaigns in a larger constituency. (The ceiling of Rs. 50,000, which was fixed in 1984, was found to be too low to conduct a campaign in a constituency which has a population between 75,000 and seven lakhs spread over 200-500 sq km). This has helped many candidates stick to the ceiling and also present realistic accounts.
92. The ceiling on election expenses now stands at Rs. 1.5 lakh.
93. Candidates are required to present accounts of their spending in an election.
94. Some candidates have been paying to the voters in order to get votes.
95. Almost no candidate has been sticking to the ceiling on expenses fixed by the Election Commission.
Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Given here are the conditions to become the members of a Resort Country Club. A person must
(1) be in the age group of 18-50 years as on August 3, 1993.
(2) be drawing a minimum salary of Rs. 1 lakh per annum.
(3) own a house.
(4) not have a family of more than four members including himself.
(5) have exhibited excellence in any field of arts and sports.
However, if a person
(6) satisfies all the conditions except (3) above, the case may be referred to the Club Secretary.
(7) Satisfies all the conditions excepts (4) above, but draws a salary of more than Rs. 2 lakh per annum, the case may be referred to the Club President.
On the basis of the above conditions and the information provided for each person in the questions given below, decide which of the following courses of action should be taken regarding each candidate.
Mark answer as
(A) if the person is eligible to be a member
(B) if the person cannot be allowed the membership
(C) if the case is to be referred to the Club Secretary
(D) if the case is to be referred to the Club President.
96. Sanjeev Rana, ttr I.A.S. Officer, draws a salary of Rs. 6,500 per month. His date of birth is 19th June, 1964. He holds a certificate of being the best volleyball player in his college. He lives with his wife and a daughter. He stays in government accommodation.
97. Ashok Taneja, a bachelor, lives in private house owned by him with his parents and grandparents (all alive). He is a senior Manager in a private firm drawing a salary of above Rs. 2 lakh per annum. He has won the State Singles’ Trophy in badminton. He is 25 years of age.
98. Radha Kapoor, living with her husband, is a senior official in a company receiving Rs. 10,000 per month. She completed l0 years of service in the company on 9th January, 1992.
99. Kantinath completed 32 years in April 1991. He stays in his own house along with his wife and three Sons. Ho works as a Supervisor in a company and draws Rs. 1,12,000 per annum. He has exhibited excellence in the field of arts.
100. Vipin Chandra, who is 35 years old, works as a superintendent in a fertilizer plant. He lives as tenant with his wife and two sons. He draws a monthly salary of Rs. 8,700. He holds a certificate of merit in modern art.
Managerial Ability Test
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-2) : Seven villages A, B, C, D, E, F and G are situated as follows:
E is 2 km to the west of B
F is 2 km to the north of A
C is 1 km to the west of A
D is 2 km to the south of G
G is 2 km to the east of C
D is exactly in the middle of B and E
1. Which two villages are the farthest from one another?
(A) F and E
(B) G and E
(C) D and C
(D) F and B
2. How far is E and F (in km) as the crow flies?
(A) 5
(B) √26
(C) 4
(D) √20
Directions (Q. Nos. 3-4) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
(i) In a joint family of seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G, there are two married couples.
(ii) G is a housewife and her husband is a lawyer.
(iii) C is wife of B.
(iv) A is an engineer and grand-daughter of G.
(v) D is father-in-law of C, a doctor, and father of E, a professor.
(vi) F is son of B and brother of A.
3. Who is a lawyer in the family?
(A) B
(B) F
(C) D
(D) Data inadequate
4. How is F related to C?
(A) Son
(B) Brother
(C) Daughter
(D) Data inadequate
Directions (Q. Nos. 5-6): Two quantities are given, one in column A and one in column B.
Determine a relationship between the quantities and mark your answer as
(1) if the quantity in column A is greater than the quantity in column B.
(2) if the quantity in column B is greater than the quantity in column A.
(3) if the quantities are equal.
(4) if the comparison cannot be determined from the information that is given.
5.
Column A
Semi-circumference of a circle with radius 10 cm.
Column B
Circumference of a circle with radius 5 cm.
6.
Column A
Area of a rectangular strip 157 cm long and 2 cm wide.
Column B
Area of a circle with radius 10 cm.
Directions (Q. Nos. 7-9): Each of these questions is followed by two statements, labelled (A) and (B). Using the data given in the statements mark your answer as
(1) if statement (A) ALONE is sufficient but statement (B) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) if statement (B) ALONE is sufficient but statement (A) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) if BOTH statements (A) and (B) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
(4) if statement (A) and (B) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question and additional data specific to the problem is needed.
7. Is C an odd number?
(A) The reciprocal of C is greater than 0.1 and less than 0.12.
(B) 2C is an even number.
8. If both circles O and OI have radii of 6, what is the ratio of the shaded area of semicircle O to the shaded area of semicircle OI?
(A) MO = ON
(B) PQ = 2QR
9. How many minutes does not clock lose a day?
(A) The clock reads 6 : 00 when it is really 5 : 48.
(B) The clock goes 40 seconds fast each hour.
Directions (Q. Nos. 10-11): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions that follow.
B % 4 T U # A # R * 7 9 V M 2 $ N 9 K P I 8 H I W E @ D
10. If the positions of the first twelve elements of the above arrangement are reversed, which of the following will be the eighth to the left of the fifteenth from the right-and?
(A) #
(B) 5
(C) A
(D) R
11. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?
4UA R7M $9I?
(A) HW@
(B) 8I@
(C) KNM
(D) None of these
12. In a certain code ACQUIRE is written as EIRUQAC, how is DENSITY written in that code:
(A) YTISNDE
(B) YITSNED
(C) YTISNED
(D) YITSNDE
Directions (Q. Nos. 13): Select the option to replace the question mark in the problem figure table.
13. 
(A) P
(B) N
(C) H
(D) I
Directions (Q. Nos. 14-17): Read the information given below to answer these questions.
A metro line is being laid in major city. The task requires specialized crane operators for different parts of the job. The six operators available are Raju, Sohan, Tahir, Uppal, Varun and Wajid. Each phase will take one day and will be done by single operation. No operator will work two days in a row though each operator may do more than one phase of the job. Both Raju and Sohan can handle any phase of the job.
Tahir can work only on days immediately following days on which Sohan has worked
Uppal can work only the days that Tahir can.
Varun can work on the third and fifth days of the job.
Wajid can work on the fourth day of the job,
14. Which of the following is true?
(I) Raju could do up to the three phases of the job.
(II) Sohan could do up to three phases of the job.
(III) Tahir could do no more than two phases of the job.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) All of them
15. If Sohan works the first day of the job, which of the following is/are true?
(I) Only Tahir and Uppal can work the second day.
(II) Tahir, Uppal or Raju could work the second day.
(III) Raju, Sohan or Wajid could work the third day.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) All of them
16. If Raju works the first day, which of the following is/are true?
(I) Sohan must work the second day.
(II) Sohan cannot work the third day.
(III) Only Tahir, Uppal or Varun can work on the third day.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
(D) None of them
17. If Raju works on both the first and third day, which of the following most accurately describes the possibilities on the fourth day?
(A) Only Sohan is eligible to work
(B) Only Raju, Sohan, Tahir or Wajid are eligible to work
(C) Only Sohan or Wajid are eligible to work
(D) Only Raju, Sohan or Wajid one eligible to work
18. In a certain code BEND is written as ‘6392’ and RAIN is written as ‘5149’. How is DARE written in that code?
(A) 2153
(B) 2351
(C) 2315
(D) 2135
19. In a certain code GOAL is written as AGLO and BEAR is written as ABRE. How is SEND written in that code?
(A) NSDE
(B) NDES
(C) DENS
(D) SNED
20. Let x = 2 ln cot t and y = tan t + cot t. Then 
has the value:
(A) cos 2t
(B) 2 cost2 t
(C) 2 sin2 t
(D) None of these
21. What is the first stage in program development?
(A) Specification and design
(B) System Analysis
(C) Testing
(D) None of the above
22. The First IBMPC did not have any:
(A) Disk drive
(B) RAM
(C) ROM
(D) PORT
23. Which of the following is/are a text editor?
(A) Microsoft WordPad
(B) Microsoft Word
(C) Microsoft Excel
(D) Both (A) and (B)
24. Which is used for manufacturing chips?
(A) Bus
(B) Control unit
(C) Semi-conductors
(D) None of the above
25. A programming code that can cause some unexpected and usually undesirable event, such as lost or damaged files is called a:
(A) virus
(B) bug
(C) recursive function
(D) subroutine
26. The normal to the curve x = a (1 + cos θ) y = a sin θ at ‘θ’ always passes through the fixed point:
(A) (a, 0)
(B) (0, a)
(C) (a, a)
(D) None of these
27. The degree of the differential equation of all tangent lines to the parabola y2 = 4ax is:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) None of these
28. The area of the triangle formed by the positive x-axis and the normal and tangent to the circle x2 + y2 = 4 at (1, √3) is :
(A) 2√3
(B) √3
(C) 1/√3
(D) None of these
29. 
(A) e−4
(B) e−2
(C) e2
(D) e4
30. The equations of the tangents to the curve, (1 + x2)y = 1 at the points of its intersection with the curve (x + 1) y = 1 are given by:
(A) x + 2y = 1, y = 1
(B) x + 2y = 2, x = 1
(C) x + 2y = 2, y = 1
(D) x + 2y = 1, x = 1
31. If f(9) = 9 and f'(9) = 4. then 
equals:
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 9
(D) 36
32. The value of the integral 
is given by:
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
33. Area between the curve y = 4 + 3x – x2 and x axis in square units is:
(A) 125/2
(B) 125/3
(C) 125/4
(D) 125/6
34. A speaks truth in 60% of the cases and B in 90% of the cases. The percentage of cases they are likely to contradict each other in stating the same fact is:
(A) 36%
(B) 48%
(C) 42%
(D) None of these
35. The probability that a man can hit a target is 3/4. He tries 5 times. The probability that he will hit the target at least three times is:
(A) 291/356
(B) 312/456
(C) 459/512
(D) 471/502
36. The probability of getting the sum as a prime number when two dice are thrown together is:
(A) 1/2
(B) 7/12
(C) 5/132
(D) None of these
37. A group of 10 items has mean 6. If the mean of 4 of these is 7.5, then the mean of the remaining items is:
(A) 6.5
(B) 5.5
(C) 4.5
(D) 5.0
38. Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency?
(A) Mean
(B) Range
(C) Median
(D) Mode
39. The quartile deviation of daily wages of 7 persons which are Rs. 12, 7, 15, 10, 17, 17, 25 is
(A) 3.5
(B) 7
(C) 9
(D) 14.5
Directions (Q. Nos. 40-42): In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom is italics.
40. The involvement of teachers in the scheme of education proves to be a mare’s nest.
(A) a false invention
(B) a noble thing
(C) a successful idea
(D) a timely step
41. His letters to his ward speak volumes for his forbearance and good sense.
(A) speak ill of
(B) serve as strong testimony to
(C) show indications of
(D) are intended to impress
42. Some people now wonder whether we just pay lip service or genuinely subscribe to democracy.
(A) pay oral tribute
(B) attach no value
(C) remain indifferent
(D) show only outward respect
Directions (Q. Nos. 43-46): In each of the following questions, out of the given group of words, choose the mis-spelt one.
43.
(A) Denunciation
(B) Acceleration
(C) Magnificent
(D) Gravitation
44.
(A) Inflammable
(B) Inaugurate
(C) Incandescent
(D) Illustrate
45.
(A) Pagent
(B) Paroxysm
(C) Pillory
(D) Pipette
46.
(A) Etiquete
(B) Ethnic
(C) Ethereal
(D) Eulogize
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-49): In the following questions. find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no error, make your answer as ‘No error’.
47. The interviewer asked the candidate/
(A)
to what district/ he came from/ No error.
(B) (C) (D)
48. There is no question/ of my failing/
(A) (B)
in the examination. / No error.
(C) (D)
49. He could not plan his strategy / until he knew/
(A) (B)
who his opponents could be. / No error.
(C) (D)
Directions (Q. Nos. 50-60): Read the passages below to answer these questions.
PASSAGE 1
Global Climate change pundits have for long been blowing hot and cold over melting ice caps’ rising ocean levels and unusually hot summers on the one hand and receding deserts, shrinking biodiversity and colder winters on the other. Climatologists are’ however’ unanimous in their opinion that regional variation: notwithstanding, the Earth as whole is becoming warmer – and largely clue to the increase human activity And yet, as a continent, Antarctica would seem to be tucking the trend. Recent reports quoting American scientists from the South Pole say that while temperatures’ in every other continent have risen over the past century, Antarctica has become appreciably colder over the past 35 years and continues to cool, becoming the only one of Earth’s seven continents to react differently to global warming. The world’s average temperature over the last 100 years has risen by 0.06°C a decade and the average actually went up to 0.1 9°C between 1979 and 1998. In the Antarctic, on the other hand, temperatures fell on an average, by 0.7°C a decade. Traditional theories of climate change have held that the effects of global warming ought to be magnified at the Poles. Nonetheless, recent research points out that while the-Arctic is indeed getting warmer, the Antarctic is definitely getting cooler. This will mean that previous estimates of rising sea levels that included the melting ice caps of both the North and South poles will have to be suitably revised. So what is the mystery behind the cooling of the white continent?
Since most of the inhabited and industrialized countries are clustered close to the Arctic’ polluting emissions waft across to the North Pole, creating a greenhouse effect, warming the air and loosening the ice sheets. Complex interplay of ocean currents appears to have changed temperatures, cooling the southern ocean around the Antarctic and transforming the Pole’s temperature profile Antarctica, s harsh desert valleys are turning cooler, setting off a series of ecological consequences in the region. Meanwhile, here’s another contradiction – reports from New Zealand describe how there is a surfeit of global warming induced break-away icebergs in the , Southern Hemisphere.
50. According to the passage, all of the following are not true, except:
(A) Traditional theories failed to calculate the effects of global warming.
(B) Fall in temperatures in the Antarctic is in accordance with the traditional theories.
(C) Effect of global warming is the maximum at the Poles.
(D) Effect of global warming on Antarctica is unexpected lines.
51. According to the passage, it can be said that:
(A) Antarctica has become colder than the other continents of the world.
(B) Antarctica has become colder than the Earth over the last 35 years.
(C) The decade growth in temperature is much higher for Antarctica than the Earth itself.
(D) The average temperature rise for the period 1979-1998 was more than the average rise in temperature over the last 100 years.
52. It can be inferred from the passage that:
(A) our knowledge and our theories about global climate change fail to explain what is happening across the globe.
(B) it is a matter of great contradiction that we failed to understand the full import of global climatic change.
(C) we could not understand the importance of global climatic change.
(D) it was difficult for us to understand the full implication of global climatic change.
53. According to the passage, factors affecting the temperature profile of Arctic of not include:
(A) ocean currents
(B) greenhouse effects
(C) atmospheric pollutions
(D) loosening of the ice sheets
54. According to the passage, the most important factor for global warming is:
(A) hot summers
(B) increased human activity
(C) shrinking biodiversity
(D) increasing pollution levels
PASSAGE 2
Deep in our hearts, we have an intense desire to be loved. Yet, just as deeply, we know no one really understands us, and that we are separated from those around us by differences we don’t fully comprehend. The ‘Family of Man’ we long to share and belong to does not exist. We are just a bunch of desperate, lonely orphans. We should give anything to know how to be lovable. Yet, now more than ever, seemingly caring guides want to help us in our quest. A flurry of books and lectures tells us that change is mandatory for survival. While the recipes for harmony sometimes strike chords in our hearts, it is not enough to read the books are say the phrases. Only if the tools offered are actually used and do indeed make our lives better will we know that the message was correct and we understood. The majority of self-help books agrees on one thing: Change is necessary for a more fulfilling life, Some say that the answers lie in justifying fears, anger and emotional suffering by holding some one else – usually a parent or spouse – responsible. Often, another race or some other force at work in our life gets the blame for the mess in which we find ourselves. But one thing is for sure: We are not responsible. ‘They’ are. How many books, tapes and seminars does it take before the average hurting human being becomes so frustrated that he or she cries. ‘The true path must exist because all the wise people say so, but I’ll never find it.’ Life must have more to offer, something most of us are missing. Otherwise, God has a stranger sense of humour than any comedian working today, Here’s the bad news. We can all agree that this thing we call our self, our ego, our personality, is somehow the cause of all our personality, is somehow the cause of all our conflicts and negative emotions. This is the cold, hard truth. The self has no idea how to fix itself or it already would have. But not one else can fix our self. We must do it – on our own. You would have probably always suspected this – but no one would prove it because it appears to become a problem with no solution. This realization is extremely threatening, especially to those who have tried so hard to change in the past and have been unable to do so. But the good news is that you can learn to fix the self by understanding four basic principles: 1) What the self is: 2) How the self works; 3) How the self got broken; and 4) How you can fix the self. Each of use made our self and only we can fix it. Real changes begin to happen as soon as repair begins and, as you become a better mechanic, the changes will be greater and come easier.
55. What is the central idea of the passage?
(A) Flurry of books and lectures guide us to become loveable.
(B) Our personality is the cause of negative emotions and conflicts and knowing how to fix it is crucial.
(C) Change is mandatory for survival.
(D) None of these
56. For what does the author bestow the responsibility to other people?
(A) For justifying human sufferings
(B) For bringing us into intricate situations
(C) For not showing the true path
(D) None of these
57. What, according to the author, is required to make our life better?
(A) Changing ourselves as per the dictates of time
(B) Renouncing our negative emotions
(C) Actually using the tools offered to us in self-help books, tapes and seminars
(D) None of these
58. What is the cause behind all our conflicts and negative emotions?
(A) Our self
(B) Our personality
(C) Our ego
(D) All of these
59. Of what use are tapes, books and seminars for the author?
(A) They are useless as they are meant to detract us from our original path.
(B) The true path can be shown only by these media.
(C) They serve as change agents in our society.
(D) They are of use only to the extent that their principles are put to use by us.
60. Why does the author seem to insist on self-help books?
(A) They can bring change in our lives.
(B) They justify tears, anger and emotional sufferings.
(C) They help us to harmonize the chords of our heart.
(D) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-62): In each of these questions, choose the option which would not change the meaning of the original sentence, if substituted for the italicized word.
61. A conscientious worker is always admired by his employers:
(A) obedient
(B) sincere
(C) skilful
(D) careful
62. It was very perspicacious of the judicial investigation officer to find the cause of the problem to quickly:
(A) discerning
(B) mysterious
(C) clever
(D) quick
Directions (Q. Nos. 63-64): In each of the following sentences, a word or phrase is italicized.
Choose the one which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the italicized word.
63. Feasibility of the project is under study:
(A) Unsuitability
(B) Impracticability
(C) Impropriety
(D) Cheapness
64. Under the circumstances, such pejorative comments should have been avoided:
(A) soothing
(B) sporting
(C) appreciative
(D) critical
Directions (Q. Nos. 65-67): In each of the following questions, find out which one of the words given below the sentence can most appropriately replace the group of words italicized in the sentence.
65. Ravi impressed everyone with his persuasive and fluent speech:
(A) discourse
(B) expression
(C) eloquence
(D) lecture
66. Not many people were impressed by a speech delivered without previous preparation:
(A) epilogue
(B) prologue
(C) soliloquy
(D) extempore
67. The fashion of bell-bottomed trousers has become out of date:
(A) preposterous
(B) debilitating
(C) obsolescent
(D) obstreperous
Directions (Q. Nos. 68-73): In each of the following sentences, a blank has been given. Choose the option to fill the blank.
68. It is difficult at this stage to forecast the ………. of results of the ongoing research on cancer.
(A) consequence
(B) importance
(C) measure
(D) magnitude
69. Everyone wants to ……….. for one’s achievements.
(A) be admired
(B) admire
(C) being admired
(D) be admiring
70. The Education Minister emphasized the need to discover and ……. each student’s ……. talents.
(A) enlarge, dormant
(B) belittle, concealed
(C) suppress, potential
(D) develop, intrinsic
71. Auther Anjali Agarwal was a rare phenomenon, a single woman who maintained and even ……….. respectable reputation while earning a living by her pen.
(A) impaired
(B) decimated
(C) avoided
(D) enhanced
72. Because Sherry is so ………, we can never predict what he will do at any moment.
(A) old
(B) immature
(C) capricious
(D) lazy
73. Paper money is merely a representation of wealth; therefore unlike gold or any other precious metal, it has no ……. value.
(A) financial
(B) fiscal
(C) inveterate
(D) intrinsic
Directions (Q. Nos. 74-80): Establish the relationship between the given pair of words. Choose the option which has similar relationship.
74. LONELINESS : PRIVACY ::
(A) passion : apathy
(B) composure : equanimity
(C) destiny : fateful
(D) illusory : unpredictable
75. EAT : GORGE : :
(A) drink : guzzle
(B) saunter : walk
(C) expel : admit
(D) advanced : primitive
76. ILLITERATE : EDUCATION : :
(A) naïve : experience
(B) well-mannered : rude
(C) miserly : money
(D) pristine : elegance
77. EAST : ORIENTAL : :
(A) west : occidental
(B) global : universal
(C) forest : jungle
(D) west : east
78. CAT : KITTEN : :
(A) women : baby
(B) water : valve
(C) illness : cure
(D) fertilizer : growth
79. BOTANY : PLANTS : :
(A) geology : earth
(B) stars : astronomy
(C) teacher : class
(D) disease : etiology
80. SNAKE : REPTILE : :
(A) snake : cobra
(B) bird : mammal
(C) wasp : insect
(D) lion : amphibian
81. The Aravallis represent an ancient :
(A) Fold Mountain
(B) Horst
(C) Volcano
(D) Black Mountain
82. The social distance scale was developed by:
(A) Likent
(B) La Pierre
(C) Bogardus
(D) Hovland
83. Where will the APEC Summit 08 be held:
(A) Lima
(B) Sydeny
(C) Basan
(D) Hanoi
84. ‘Mumbai Gold Cup’ is associated with the game of:
(A) Cricket
(B) Football
(C) Hockey
(D) Badminton
85. Which of the following car models is owned by General Motors?
(A) Spark
(B) Maruti
(C) Honda
(D) None of these
86. Who had been profiled by the US magazine Newsweek as one of the light outstanding women leaders worldwide?
(A) Mayawati
(B) Sonia Gandhi
(C) Mamta Banarjee
(D) None of these
87. With which brand of shoes would you associate, Godzilla Independence Day and Brave Heart?
(A) Woodland
(B) Reebok
(C) Lee Cooper
(D) Nike
88. Which state is famous for its ‘Bandhni’ tie andy dye technique saris:
(A) Rajastan
(B) Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Punjab
89. Who amongst the following is not a member of SAARC?
(A) India
(B) Pakistan
(C) Nepal
(D) Myanmar
90. Ministerial conference of the WTO is required to meet every:
(A) 1 year
(B) 2 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 4 years
91. “Smart Money” is a term used for:
(A) Internet Banking
(B) Credit Card
(C) Cash with Bank
(D) Cash with Public
92. Railway budget 2007-08 announces 2007-08 as:
(A) a year of Safety
(B) a year of Prosperity
(C) a year of Customer Service
(D) a year of Cleanliness
93. Planning Commission was constituted on:
(A) 15th March, 1950
(B) 26th January, 1951
(C) 15th March, 1951
(D) 30th March, 1951
94. The Supreme Court consists of a Chief Justice and:
(A) 12 Judges
(B) 15 Judges
(C) 20 Judges
(D) 25 Judges
95. Which of the following countries will true host ‘2011 Cricket World Cup’?
(1) India
(2) Pakistan and Sri Lanka
(3) Bangladesh
(4) UAE
(A) Only 1, 2 and 3
(B) Only 2, 3 and 4
(C) Only 1, 3 and 4
(D) Only 1 and 4
96. The temple of Konark was built by Narasimha of the:
(A) Maratha dynasty
(B) Chola Dynasty
(C) Ganga Dynasty
(D) Vijayanagr Empire
97. Human Rights Day is celebrated on:
(A) 10 December
(B) 1 December
(C) 4 December
(D) 3 December
98. Who is the author of the book, Amitabh – Tujhe Salam?
(A) Tushar Raheja
(B) Vijay Singhvi
(C) Susmita Das Gupta
(D) Shyam Mathur
99. Paris is situated on the river:
(A) Danube
(B) Seine
(C) Tiber
(D) Avon
100. International Women’s Day is celebrated very year on:
(A) January 26
(B) March 8
(C) August 26
(D) December 8
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