PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. ‘Public Administration is nothing but the study of Men, Materials and Methods.’ This definition has been given by whom of the following ?
(A) L.D. White
(B) J.M. Pfiftner
(C) Perccy McQueen
(D) Luther Gulick
2. “Science of administration is the latest fruit of the study of the science of politics.” Who among the following made this statement ?
(A) Kautilya
(B) Woodrow Wilson
(C) Frank J. Goodnow
(D) L.D. White
3. Public Administration and Private Administration are not different from each other on which of the following grounds ?
(A) Uniformity of rules and regulation.
(B) Internal financial control
(C) Ministerial Responsibility
(D) Service motive
4. Which one of the following has attempted to construct theory of public organization in tune with consumer interest and individual preferences ?
(A) Human Relations Theory
(B) Behavioural Approach
(C) Development Administration
(D) Public Choice Thoery
5. Assertion (A) : The Minnowbrook Conference III emphasized the importance of ‘Collaborative Governance’
as perhaps the best shield against ‘government slackening’ or ‘Bureaucratic delay’.
Reason (R) : There is need to find the ways of institutionalizing coordination and to establish decision making process that work in multi-organizational setting such as network of Government agencies.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
6. Administrative management is closer in concept and perception to Weberian theory because
(i) both are concerned with top administrators than of production workers.
(ii) both hold economic efficiency as its ultimate object.
(iii) both express more concern for organization than man.
(iv) both consider organization as a unit of its environment.
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
7. Consider the following characteristics of behavioual approach :
(i) The central objective of Behavioural approach is scientific study of human behaviour.
(ii) The root of behavioural approach can be traced back to the Taylor’s experiments.
(iii) The behavioural approach touch upon the area of organisation behaviour, such as motivation, leadership, etc.
(iv) The behavioural approach is not a theory of organization.
Select the correct answer by using code given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
8. Which of the following is not one of the 14 principles enunciated by Henri Fayol ?
(A) Subordination of individual interest to general interest
(B) Authority and Responsibility
(C) Order
(D) Control
9. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
10. The communication process model developed by Shannon, Weaver and Schramm includes the following :
(1) Source, (2) Receiver, (3) Encoder
(4) Decoder, (5) Message channel
(6) Feedback , (7) Noise
Arrange them in the proper sequence and select the correct answer from the following codes :
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 5, 6, 7, 2, 4
(B) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2, 6, 7
(C) 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 1, 3
(D) 3, 4, 2, 6, 7, 5, 1
11. Which of the following theory deals with the inherent challenges of motivating workers and controlling cooperative action?
(A) Principal-Agent Theory
(B) Maturity-Immaturity Theory
(C) Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory
(D) Human Relations Theory
12. Which of the following is the basic premise of New Public Management ?
(A) Government is a primary agent of all social actions.
(B) Large governmental bureaucracy.
(C) More flexible and open government.
(D) Paternal government.
13. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
14. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
15. Which one of the following statements regarding British Government is not correct ?
(A) The Prime Minister is appointed by the Queen.
(B) All ministers are members of the House of Commons.
(C) The Lord Chancellor is always a member of the House of Lords.
(D) New ministerial offices may be created, others may be abolished by Her Majesty Government.
16. Which one of the following is not the Fast Stream scheme designed for specialists and other groups of civil servants in British Civil Service ?
(A) Analytical Fast Stream
(B) European Stream
(C) National Stream
(D) Northern Ireland Fast Stream
17. Which of the following statements about US civil service are correct ?
(i) The spoils system began to be eroded with the enactment of Civil Service Reforms Act, 1883.
(ii) The merit system expanded steadily to almost all of federal employees.
(iii) The overwhelming proportion of bureaucrats are career civil servants selected on the basis of competitive
examination.
(iv) Approximately 15000 job skills are represented within the federal work force.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
18. Which one of the following statements about French Civil Services is not correct ?
(A) The grand corps with special expertise in administrative law drafted the text of Fifth Republic.
(B) Most of the French Prime Minister had been civil servants.
(C) The political role of civil servants is encouraged by a constitutional prohibition against ministers, holding seats in Parliament.
(D) The civil servants who accept a minister’s portfolio also cannot return to their corps if they must leave their high office.
19. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) has defined middle income countries as having a per capita income in between (US Dollars)
(A) 1 – 1000
(B) 1000 – 10,000
(C) 10,000 – 20,000
(D) 20,000 – 30,000
20. Assertion (A) : The growth of citizen participation is due to the explosion of knowledge and communication.
Reason (R) : Citizen participation is a remedy to check corrupt practices.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
21. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
22. Mayor-in-Council form of Government means :
(A) Cabinet form of Government at the municipal level
(B) Classical prefectorial form of Government at the municipal level.
(C) Making mayor accountable to his colleagues.
(D) Presidential form of Government at the Municipal level.
23. Who is the editor of the book titled ‘Development Administration in Asia’ ?
(A) M.H.D. Turner
(B) Edward W. Weidner
(C) V. Subramaniam
(D) M. Shamsul Haque
24. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
25. Which of the following statements about World Trade Organization are correct ?
(i) It deals with trade negotiations which cover goods, services and intellectual property.
(ii) It spells out the principles of liberalization.
(iii) It maintains regular dialogue with NGOs etc. with the aim of enhancing cooperation.
(iv) It comprises of 188 countries as its members.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
26. Which of the following statements about International Monetary Fund are correct ?
(i) International Monetary Fund was established in the year 1945.
(ii) It aimed to build a framework for economic cooperation.
(iii) It resolves trading disputes of the member countries.
(iv) At present it comprises of 188 members.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
27. Who of the following is the administrative head of the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) ?
(A) Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister
(B) Cabinet Secretary
(C) Any Senior Secretary to the Government of India
(D) Home Secretary
28. Which of the following committees/ commissions recommended to change the financial year from January 1 to December 31 ?
(A) L.K. Jha Committee
(B) First A.R.C.
(C) Fifth Pay Commission
(D) Second A.R.C.
29. Assertion (A) : The Judicial Activism augments the growth avenues and lessens the grievances of common citizen by streamlining the administration.
Reason (R) : Citizens are approaching the courts of law for administrative excesses and inefficiencies.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
30. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India ruled that “The Right to Information is inherent in the right to freedom of speech and expression guaranteed in Article 19 of the Constitution ?
(A) Gopalan Vs. the State of Madras
(B) Raj Narain Vs. the State of U.P.
(C) Sarabjith Roy Vs. Delhi Electricity Regulatory Commission
(D) Kesavananda Bharthy Vs. The State of Kerala
31. Which one of the following is not a function of Central Vigilance Commission ?
(A) To supervise over the functions of the Delhi Special Police Establishment regarding Prevention of Corruption Act.
(B) To guide the Central Bureau of Investigation.
(C) To approve the proposals for appointment of Chief Vigilance Officer.
(D) To participate in the Committee for selection of Director of C.B.I.
32. In which of the following years, the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act was first adopted in India ?
(A) 1950
(B) 1970
(C) 1990
(D) 2000
33. ‘Annual Performance Agreements should be signed between the Departmental Minister and Secretary of the Ministry/ Department detailing out the work to be done during a financial year.’ Who recommended it ?
(A) Fifth Pay Commission
(B) Sixth Pay Commission
(C) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
(D) Group of Ministers (GOM)
34. The research studies intended to test a hypothesis suggesting a casual relationship between variables are known as _______.
(A) Formulative studies
(B) Descriptive Studies
(C) Diagnostic Studies
(D) Experimental Studies
35. Select the correct characteristics of scientific method reflected in the statement : “Science never imposes anything, science states. Science aims at nothing but making true and adequate statements about its objects.”
(A) Objectivity
(B) Ethical Neutrality
(C) Generalisation
(D) Prediction based on probability
36. Which of the following is not the recommendation of Second Administrative Reforms Commission regarding training for civil servants in India ?
(A) A monitoring mechanism should be set up for overseeing the implementation of the National Training policy.
(B) There should be decentralization of training institutionrs for gazetted office upto District level all over India.
(C) Public servants should be encouraged to write papers for reputed journals.
(D) A national institute of Good Governance may be set up.
37. Which of the following is not true about the Public Accounts Committee ?
(A) The committee examines the draft of Financial Legislation.
(B) The committee examines the report of Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
(C) The Committee examines the statement of accounts showing the income and expenditure of state corporations.
(D) The committee does not function as a reprimanding or punitive authority.
38. Which one of the following sampling design is a further development of the type of cluster sampling ?
(A) Judgement sampling
(B) Multistage sampling
(C) Quota sampling
(D) Systematic sampling
39. Which of the following conditions are considered conducive for formulating a research problem ?
(i) Discussion with the people on the topic
(ii) Studying relevant literature
(iii) Obtaining first hand observation
(iv) Conducting an experience survey
Select the correct answer by using codes given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
40. Which one of the following is a probability sampling ?
(A) Cluster sampling
(B) Convenience Sampling
(C) Judgement sampling
(D) Quota Sampling
41. Which of the following statements about the transformation of CPSEs in post-globalization period in India is not correct ?
(A) Many CPSEs have reorganised their governance structure to bring about ownership management.
(B) CPSEs are deploying Enterprise Resource Planning and Management Information System to support Business
Process Re-engineering.
(C) CPSEs have increased focus towards outsourcing their non-core operations.
(D) Investment in human capital is a low priority in all public sector enterprises.
42. Village Panchayat is accountable to which of the following ?
(A) Panchayat Samiti
(B) Zila Parishad
(C) Grama Sabha
(D) Directorate of Panchayati Raj
43. A ‘Navratna’ status can be elevated to a ‘Maharatna’ if
(i) It is listd on stock exchanges
(ii) It is having minimum public share holding prescribed by SEBI
(iii) It has earned a net profit of Rs 2500 crores in the last financial year
(iv) It has a significant global presence
Select the correct answer by using codes given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
44. In which of the following years the Bombay Municipal Corporation was set up ?
(A) 1667
(B) 1678
(C) 1726
(D) 1767
45. Arrange the committees which examined the different aspects of the functioning of Panchayati Raj in a chronological order in their years of appointment ?
(i) G.V.K. Rao Committee
(ii) Study Team on Panchayat Raj Finances
(iii) Ashok Mehta Committee
(iv) Balwantrai Mehta Committee
Codes :
(A) (ii), (i), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (iv), (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii), (ii), (iv) and (i)
(D) (i), (iii), (ii) and (iv)
46. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
47. Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Yojna of Government of India is concerned with which of the following :
(A) Devolution of all the functions listed in 11th Schedule of the Constitution.
(B) Capacity building of elected representatives of Panchayati Raj Institutions
(C) Strengthening consolidated fund of the State Government
(D) Ensuring mandatory reservation for OBCs in the PRIs
48. Which one of the following States has been ranked first on Devolution Index (on cumulative basis) in the
year 2011-12 ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Kerala
49. Which of the following States is not enlisted in the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Gujarat
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Uttarakhand
50. Who among the following has expressed the idea ‘New Public Management is dead, Long live Digital Era of Governance’ ?
(A) Van Slyke, O’Leary and Kim
(B) Patrick Dunleavy
(C) Jan Kooiman
(D) Habibullah Wajahat
Latest Govt Job & Exam Updates: