UGC NET Exam December 2014 Psychology Paper-3 Question Paper With Answer Key

PSCYCHOLOGY

Paper – III

Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Among the following descriptions of major defense mechanisms, which one describes ‘projection’ ?

(A) Assigning logical or socially desirable motives to that we do.

(B) Directing a motive that cannot be gratified in one form into another channel.

(C) Denying that an unpleasant reality exists.

(D) Assigning our own undesirable qualities to others.

Ans: (D)

2. Match the items of List – I (Theory) with List – II (Explanation) and mark your answer with the help of the codes given below :

Ans: (A)

3. Engram involves many physical changes. They are

1. Change in number of receptor sites.

2. Change in the transmission system.

3. Changes in the sensitivity of the synapse through repeated stimulation.

4. Changes in the dendrites.

5. Changes in the neuron structure.

Codes :

(A) 1, 3 and 4

(B) 3 and 5

(C) 1, 2 and 4

(D) 2 and 4

Ans: (B)

4. Match List – I with List – II and indicate your answer with the help of codes given below :

Ans: (B)

5. Read each of the following two statements : Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : Freud’s theory holds that many behaviours are caused by unconscious motivation. Personality is determined by biological drives of sex and aggression.

Reason (R) : Personality differences results from variations in learning experiences. 

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (B)

6. Match the items in List – I with List – II and mark your answer using the given codes :

Ans: (A)

7. Which of the following are the physiological reactions to stress ?

1. Decrease in metabolic rate.

2. Dilation of Pupils

3. Lower Blood Pressure

4. Increased heart rate

(A) 2 and 4

(B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 1, 3 and 4

(D) 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (B)

8. According to Albert Bandura any behaviour produces two sets of consequences. They are

 1. Inhibition

2. Self-evaluation

3. External outcomes

4. Habit

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 3 and 4

(C) 2 and 3

(D) 1 and 4

Ans: (C)

9. The degree to which one can control an event _______ the stress and inability to predict the occurrence of an event usually ______ the stress.

(A) increases, increases

(B) increases, decreases

(C) decreases, increases

(D) decreases, decreases

Ans: (C)

10. Match List – I (Studying Motivation) with that of List – II (Explanation) and mark your answer with the help of the codes given below :

Ans: (A)

11. Read each of the following two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below :

Assertion(A) : People with external locus of control are prone to learned helplessness.

Reason (R) : People with internal locus of control believe that intelligence is changeable and they work at developing new strategies.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (B)

12. According to problem space theory, a problem solver generally operates through three states; ______, the goal state and all possible ______.

(A) Pre state; final state.

(B) First state; outcome state

(C) Initial state; outcome state

(D) Initial state; intermediate state

Ans: (C)

13. According to self-determination theory of motivation given by Ryan and Deci, the three inborn and universal needs are

(A) Autonomy, Symmetry and Competence.

(B) Symmetry, Competence and Relatedness.

(C) Autonomy, Competence and Relatedness.

(D) Competence Relatedness and Order.

Ans: (C)

14. Physiological psychologists distinguish between ______ thirst and ______ thirst which result from an increase in the concentration of solutes and low blood pressure respectively.

(A) Osmotic, Hypovolumic

(B) Osmotic, Hypervolumic

(C) Hypovolumic, Osmotic

(D) Hypervolumic Osmotic

Ans: (A)

15. Sternberg’s Triarchic theory identifies _______ types of components; _____ are used to plan, control and monitor in problem solving.

(A) Three, Meta components

(B) Four, Performance

(C) Problem solving, Knowledge

(D) Several, Acquisition components

Ans: (A)

16. Read each of the following two statements-Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : Environments that influence educational and cultural opportunities enhance crystallized intelligence.

Reason (R) : Crystallized intelligence is developed through stimulating fluid intelligence.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (A)

17. Read each of the following two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below :

Assertion(A) : We use mental short-cuts to solve problems.

Reason (R) : Problem solving includes thinking.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (B)

18. Match the items of List – I (concept) with List – II (originator) and mark your answer with the help of the codes given below :

Ans: (ALL OPTIONS ARE CORRECT)

19. Which of the following are the characteristics of NREM sleep ?

1. Decrease in heart rate.

2. Increase in breathing rate.

3. Muscles are relaxed.

4. Increase in Brain’s metabolic rate.

Codes :

(A) 1 and 3 are correct.

(B) 2 and 3 are correct.

(C) 1 and 4 are correct.

(D) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Ans: (A)

20. Match List – I with List – II using the codes given below :

Ans: (A)

21. The 30 × 30 correlation matrix, representing the correlation among the thirty facet scales of the NEO-PI-3 were factor analyzed by three methods :

1. Principal components method

2. Maximum likelihood method

3. Principal axes method and the five factors were extracted in each case. Usually the variance explained by the factor solution would be in the following ascending order.

(A) 2, 3, 1

(B) 1, 3, 2

(C) 2, 1, 3

(D) 3, 2, 1

Ans: (A)

22. Pituitary gland is called master gland because

(A) Hormones secreted by Posterior Pituitary regulate the activities of other glands.

(B) Hormones secreted by Anterior Pituitary regulate the activities of other glands.

(C) Hormones secreted by both Posterior and Anterior Pituitary regulate the activities of other glands.

(D) It is located in the Central Nervous System.

Ans: (B)

23. Using Sternberg’s theory as the reference, Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct code :

Ans: (B)

24. A study employed two groups, matched on intelligence, each group with 30 subjects. Each
subject was required to learn a list of CVC trigrams and the number of trials required to learn the list was the dependent variable. What would be the degrees of freedom if a suitable t test is used to evaluate the mean difference ?

(A) 29

(B) 30

(C) 58

(D) 60

Ans: (A)

25. _______ states that allocating ______ rewards for behaviours previously ______ rewarded decreases level of motivation.

Codes :

(A) Two factor theory; extrinsic; not

(B) Theory X; monetary; intrinsically

(C) Cognitive evaluation theory; extrinsic; intrinsically

(D) Theory Y; financial; selectively

Ans: (C)

26. Read each of the following two statements : Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : The orbital frontal cortex and the basal ganglia, especially the caudate nucleus, are the brain structures most often implicated in obsessive compulsive disorder.

Reason (R) : Reduced metabolic activity has been found in both the orbital frontal cortex and the caudate nucleus in people with obsessive compulsive disorder.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (A)

27. A 17 year old woman has been binging on large quantities of food, above and beyond, what most people would eat under similar circumstances. She then engages in purging behaviour as often as 3 or 4 times a week. She feels she has no control over it. The results of her physical examination are normal and she is of normal weight.She is most likely suffering from

(A) Anorexia nervosa

(B) Bulimia nervosa

(C) Binge-eating disorder

(D) Eating disorder not otherwise specified

Ans: (B)

28. Which of the following are characteristics of Charismatic leaders ?

1. Vision and Articulation

2. Risk taking behaviour

3. Volatile moods

4. Sensitivity to followers’ needs

Codes :

(A) 2, 3 & 4

(B) 1, 2 & 4

(C) 1, 3 & 4

(D) 1 & 4

Ans: (B)

29. What would be the degrees of freedom for the second-order interaction effect in a 3 × 3 × 2 factorial design ?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 9

(D) 18

Ans: (B)

30. Which of the following are features of Borderline Personality Disorder ?

1. Affective instability

2. Lack of remorse

3. Impulsivity

4. Self-mutilation

5. Over concern with order and rules.

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 2, 4 and 5

(D) 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans: (B)

31. Read the following two statements : Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : A major function of the perceptual system is to keep the appearance of objects the same inspite of change in the stimuli.

Reason (R) : The posterior brain system selects objects on the basis of location, shape or colour and the anterior system is responsible for guiding the process.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (B)

32. Social Psychology focuses on ______ and their _______.

(A) Individuals; feelings

(B) Groups; experiences

(C) People; feelings

(D) People; thoughts

Ans: (D)

33. Arrange the following stages of Friendship in the order given by Selman :

I. Two-way fair-weather cooperation.

II. Momentary playmateship.

III. Autonomous interdependence.

IV. Intimate, mutually shared relationship.

V. One-way assistance.

Codes :

(A) II, IV, V, III, I

(B) I, III, V, IV, II

(C) II, V, I, IV, III

(D) V, I, IV, III, II

Ans: (C)

34. Memory problem that people with dementia, including Alzheimer’s, typically have is called :

(A) Psychogenic amnesia

(B) Reterograde amnesia

(C) Reteroactive amnesia

(D) Anterograde amnesia

Ans: (D)

35. Problem solving comprise of different stages which refer to the sequence of

(A) Preparation; illumination; incubation; verification.

(B) Incubation; preparation; illumination; verification.

(C) Preparation, incubation; illumination, verification.

(D) Preparation, incubation, verification, illumination.

Ans: (C)

36. Which one of the following theories predicts that work motivation will be low if employee perceives that increased effort will have little or no effect on his/her performance ?

(A) Just World Theory

(B) Need-Drive Theory

(C) Expectancy Theory

(D) Normative Theory

Ans: (C)

37. In which of Piaget’s stages of development would a child be when he has just developed object permanence ?

(A) Sensorimotor

(B) Pre-operational

(C) Concrete operational

(D) Formal operational.

Ans: (A)

38. Read each of the following two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : Individuals who display disexecutive syndrome are unable to take decisions, are easily distracted and show tendency toward perseveration.

Reason (R) : Individuals with extensive injuries to the temporal lobes show deficits in their executive functions.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (C)

39. A psychologist wanted to study marital love between husbands and wives in arranged and love marriages. Fifty arranged marriage couples and fifty love marriage couples were randomly chosen and both, the husbands and wives, were administered Marital Love Scale. The data should be analyzed by

(A) Factorial ANOVA for independent groups.

(B) Factorial ANOVA for repeated measures.

(C) Mixed factorial ANOVA.

(D) Randomized one-way ANOVA.

Ans: (C)

40. Match List – I with List – II and indicate your answer with the help of the codes given :

Ans: (A)

41. According to Negative State Relief Model, people provide help to others because :

1. People provide help to others to regulate their moods.

2. Helping is a means to momentarily boost emotion.

3. People provide help due to the fear of the consequences of help.

4. It bolsters their spirit over long periods.

Codes :

(A) 1, 2, 3

(B) 2, 3, 4

(C) 1, 2, 4

(D) 1, 3, 4

Ans: (C)

42. Which is the one that is not a ‘Big Five’ factor of personality ?

(A) Extraversion

(B) Psychoticism

(C) Conscientiousness

(D) Agreeableness

Ans: (B)

43. Read each of the following two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : Transpersonal psychotherapy views man as a spiritual being, views consciousness as central to therapy and emphasizes emotions, feelings and experimental aspects of the client.

Reason (R) : Self-acceptance, flexibility, recognition and awareness are some important concepts of Rational Emotive behaviour therapy.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (B)

44. Read each of the following two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : Organizational justice is perception of what is fair in the workplace composed of distributive, procedural and interactional justice.

Reason (R) : Employees have greater tolerance of overpayment inequities than underpayment inequities as part of distributive justice.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (B)

45. A strategy designed to gain favourable response to a small request at first, with the intent of making the person more likely to agree later to a larger request is known as

(A) Compliance

(B) Door-in the face

(C) Foot-in the door technique

(D) Obedience

Ans: (C)

46. The Visual Placement Tests conducted by Held and Hein were specifically intended to study

(A) Development of depth perception.

(B) Relationship between sensory feedback resulting from self-initiated movement and perceptual development.

(C) Motor development.

(D) Discrimination learning.

Ans: (B)

47. Which one of the following is not a correct elaboration of reading strategy in the field of literature ?

(A) C for careful reading

(B) A for aim of reading

(C) P refers to problem identification

(D) S refers to solution of the problem

Ans: (A)

48. Read each of the following two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : The objective of mastery goals in students is to improve, learn, seek challenges and persist inspite of difficulties.

Reason (R) : Teachers can stimulate mastery goal orientation through the techniques of self-monitoring, self-improvement and deeper understanding of subject.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (B)

49. Temporary support that parents provide to a child to do a task until the child can do it alone, is termed as

(A) Ageism

(B) Induction

(C) Scaffolding

(D) Power assertion

Ans: (C)

50. Read each of the following two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : Children of permissive-indulgent parents tend to the impulsive, aggressive, inconsiderate and demanding.

Reason (R) : Permissive-indulgent parents are high on warmth, discipline and control.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (C)

51. Rogers in his Person Centred Counselling approach emphasizes ______ and ______. 

(A) Empathy; Sympathy

(B) Experiential focussing; Unconditional positive regard

(C) Congruence; Sympathy

(D) Unconditional Positive Regard; Empathy

Ans: (D)

52. According to the frequency of their occurrence, arrange the following in ascending order : 

1. Alpha waves

2. Beta waves

3. Theta waves

4. Delta waves

(A) 4, 3, 1, 2

(B) 3, 4, 1, 2

(C) 2, 1, 3, 4

(D) 2, 1, 4, 3

Ans: (A)

53. Match the items of List – I (Theory) with List – II (Description) and mark your answer with the help of the codes given below :

Ans: (C)

54. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Ans: (C)

55. Down syndrome is associated with which of the causal factor ?

(A) Trisomy 18

(B) Trisomy 12

(C) Trisomy 21

(D) Trisomy 14

Ans: (C)

56. Salient features of classical conditioning are

1. Responses are voluntary.

2. Based on principle of association by contiguity.

3. Antecedent stimuli are important in forming association.

4. Goal is to increase the rate of an already occurring response.

5. Goal is to create a new response to stimulus.

Codes :

(A) 2, 3 and 5

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(C) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(D) 1, 3, 4 and 5

Ans: (A)

57. In which part of the brain does classical conditioning take place ?

(A) Reticular formation

(B) Amygdala

(C) Cerebellum

(D) Hypothalamus

Ans: (C)

58. Read each of the following two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : Conditioning fails to occur when unconditioned stimulus and conditioned stimulus are paired in a random order.

Reason (R) : Cognitive processes involving expectation play an important role in classical conditioning.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (A)

59. Arrange the following in order of sequence of career planning and decision making :

1. Educational awareness

2. Career exploration

3. Self-awareness

4. Career awareness

Codes :

(A) 3, 4, 1 and 2

(B) 3, 1, 4 and 2

(C) 1, 3, 2 and 4

(D) 2, 4, 1 and 3

Ans: (B)

60. Match List – I with List – II and indicate your answer using the codes given below :

Ans: (ALL OPTIONS ARE CORRECT)

61. According to Tolman, the three parts of learning that work together as Gestalt are 

1. Significant

2. Habit strength

3. Sign

4. Means-end-relationship

5. Drive strength

Codes :

(A) 2, 3 and 5

(B) 3, 4 and 5

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 1, 3 and 4

Ans: (D)

62. Match the items in List – I with items in List – II and mark your answer with the help of the codes given below :

Ans: (D)

63. Which one of the following is not a correct way of stimulating creative thinking ?

(A) Brainstorming

(B) Keep a diary

(C) Mind mapping

(D) Offering money

Ans: (D)

64. Short term memories are stored in which part of the brain ?

(A) Cerebellum

(B) Amygdala

(C) Hippocampus

(D) Prefrontal cortex

Ans: (D)

65. Match List – I with List – II and indicate your answer by using the codes given below :

Ans: (C)

66. A readiness to make a particular perceptual response or class of responses to particular organizations of stimuli is called

(A) Perceptual vigilance

(B) Perceptual constancy

(C) Perceptual set

(D) Perceptual style

Ans: (C)

67. In a 2 × 2 factorial design, with A and B as the two IVs, the F ratio ‘MSA × B/MSE’ is statistically significant. It implies that

(A) there is cross-over interaction.

(B) there is disordinal interaction.

(C) there is either cross-over or disordinal interaction.

(D) there are both disordinal and cross-over interactions.

Ans: (C)

68. Read each of the following two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : Inaccuracy among eye-witness occurs with the passage of time between witnessing an event and testifying about what was seen and heard.

Reason (R) : Witnesses are always exposed to misleading postevent information from police, news stories and statements made by others.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (A)

69. From among the following who theorized mostly on the concept of ‘achievement motivation’ ?

(A) Rogers, C.R.

(B) Julian Rotter

(C) David McClelland

(D) Frankl, V.E.

Ans: (C)

70. Concepts that closely matches the defining characteristics of a concept are known as

(A) Formal concepts

(B) Natural concepts

(C) Prototype

(D) Subordinate concepts

Ans: (C)

Instructions for Q. Nos. 71 to 75.

Read the following paragraph and answer the five questions that follow :

An anxiety researcher, working in the interaction model of anxiety, wanted to factor analyse anxiety-producing situations. He had a hunch that anxiety-producing situations would broadly belong to two categories – inter-personal-evaluative and physically-threatening. His tool, assessing situation-specific anxiety, had 14 situations. For each situation, the subject was required to indicate on 11 five-point rating scales as to how he or she would respond in that situation. Thus for each situation scale, the minimum score would be 11 and the maximum score would be 55. The correlation matrix among the 14 situation scales was formed. Two factor analyses were carried out on this correlation matrix. In the first factor analysis, unities were retained in the diagonal spaces of the correlation matrix and the un-rotated factors were extracted. Using Cattell’s scree plot, three factors were retained for rotation. The rotated factors had small or moderate inter-factor correlations. In the second factor analysis, appropriate communality estimates were inserted in the diagonal spaces of the correlation matrix and the three factors were rotated using the same rotation method, used in the same factor analysis.

71. Cattell’s scree plot is a

(A) Plot of the order of Eigen values on X axis and the actual Eigen values of the reduced correlation matrix on Y axis.

(B) Plot of the order of Eigen values on X axis and the actual Eigen values of the unreduced correlation matrix on Y axis.

(C) Plot displaying variables using the first two factor as axes.

(D) Plot of the order of the factors on X axes and the factor loading on Y axis.

Ans: (B)

72. In the first factor analysis, while factor analyzing the 14 × 14 correlation matrix, which one of the following four factor extraction method, has probably been used ?

(A) Maximum likelihood method

(B) Principal axes method

(C) Principal components method

(D) Confirmatory factor analysis method

Ans: (C)

73. Out of the following four factor rotation methods, which method/s can yield the above results ?

1. Oblimin rotation

2. Varimax rotation

3. Promax rotation

4. Quartimax rotation

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 3 and 4 only

Ans: (C)

74. Which one of the following statement is true ?

(A) The first factor analysis used component model; the second factor analysis used common factor model.

(B) The first factor analysis used common factor model; the second factor analysis used principal component model.

(C) Both, the first and second factor analyses used component model.

(D) Both, the first and second factor analyses used common-factor model.

Ans: (A)

75. Which one of the following statement is true ?

(A) The second factor solution would explain more percent of variance.

(B) The second factor solution would explain less percent of variance.

(C) Both factor solutions would explain same percent of variance.

(D) Such prediction is not possible.

Ans: (B)

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