Uttar Pradesh P.C.S. (Mains) Exam-2017 Held on 18-6-2018
General Studies Paper-II
1. Which one of the following statements is not true about the power of Supreme Court of India?
(A) It has the exclusive power to issue writs to protect the fundamental rights of the people
(B) It has original and exclusive jurisdiction in inter-governmental disputes.
(C) It has advisory jurisdiction on a question of law or fact which may be referred to it by the President of India
(D) It has power to review its own judgment or order
2. Arrange the following committees on Panchayati Raj in chronological order-
(1) Rao Committee
(2) L. M. Singhvi Committee
(3) B. R. Mehta Committee
(3) B. R. Mehta Committee
(4) Ashok Mehta Committee
Select the correct answer from the codes given below-
Codes :
(A) 2, 3, 1 and 4
(B) 1, 3, 4 and 2
(C) 3, 4, 1 and 2
(D) 4, 3, 2 and 1
3. What is the minimum population below, which at the intermediate level the Panchayats are not constituted as per provisions of the Indian Constitution (73rd Amendment Act)?
(A) 25 Lakh
(B) 20 Lakh
(C) 35 Lakh
(D) 30 Lakh
4. Which among the following Articles of the Indian Constitution empowers the Governor to issue the ordinance?
(A) Article 208
(B) Article 212
(C) Article 213
(D) Article 214
5. Under which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution it has been provided that all minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice?
(A) Article 28
(B) Article 29
(C) Article 30
(D) Article 31
6. Which Article of the Indian Constitution is related to the Fundamental Rights against the Exploitation of the Children?
(A) Article 17
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 23
(D) Article 24
7. Indian Parliament consists of-
(A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(B) The President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) Lok Sabha, President and Council of Ministers
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajaya Sabha and Council of Ministers
8. The number of nominated members in the Legislative Council is-
(A) 1/3 of the total strength
(B) 1/4 of the total strength
(C) 1/6 of the total strength
(D) None of the above
9. Which of the following was not the stated objective of demomentisation in India?
(A) Reduction in the use of cash in the economy.
(B) Increasing in the use of digital modes of transaction.
(C) Expanding the tax base
(D) Increasing the rate growth of G.D.P.
10. The introduction of Goods and Service Tax from July 2017 in expected to create-
(A) An uniformity in Indian market
(B) Improve tax compliance
(C) Only (A) above
(D) Both (A) and (B) above
11. Growth in Gross Tax Revenue in the case of Central Government was highest in the year-
(A) 2013-14
(B) 2014-15
(C) 2015-16
(D) 2016-17
12. In India, the power of judicial review is enjoyed by-
(A) The Supreme Court alone
(B) The Supreme Court as well as High Courts
(C) All the Courts
(D) None of the above
13. Assertion (A) : India’s trade deficit, after reaching the highest level in the year 2012-13 registered continuous decline since 2013-14.
Reason (R) : There was a general decline in both P.O.L. and Non-P.O.L. deficits since 2013-14.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is correct
14. In which of the following years, growth rate in Agricultural sector was negative?
(A) 2012-13
(B) 2013-14
(C) 2014-15
(D) 2015-16
15. Among the following in which state the death rate in the year 2015 was lowest?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) West Bengal
(C) Gujarat
(D) Karnataka
16. The process of Globalisation refers to-
(A) Creation of global trading blocks
(B) Dismantling barriers in International trade
(C) Introduction of single currency in the world
(D) None of the above
17. Which of the following statements is incorrect about Uday Kota Committee?
(A) It was instituted by SEBI
(B) It relates to Corporate Governance
(C) It recommends that atleast half of the company’s board must comprise independent directors
(D) It recommends that the post of chairman and managing director must remain the same
18. Disguised unemployment in India is mainly related to-
(I) Agricultural sector
(II) Rural Area
(III) Manufacturing sector
(IV) Urban area
Select the correct answer from the codes given below-
Codes:
(A) I and III
(B) II and IV
(C) III and IV
(D) I and II
19. The non-plan grants to the states by the Central Government are made on the recommendations of-
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) State Bank of India
20. Core inflation is defined as-
(A) Headline inflation excluding only fuel inflation
(B) Food inflation and fuel inflation
(C) Headline inflation excluding only food inflation
(D) Headline inflation excluding both food inflation and fuel inflation
21. In which of the following countries zero based budgeting was first adopted?
(A) USA
(B) France
(C) India
(D) Germany
22. Who was the chairman of the committee on revising and revitalizing the PPP model of Infrastructure development?
(A) Rakesh Mohan
(B) V. Kelkar
(C) Arjun Sengupta
(D) Bibek Deb Roy
23. Repo rate comes under preview of-
(A) Monetary Policy
(B) Fiscal Policy
(C) Labour Policy
(D) Population Policy
24. Open market operations are included in-
(A) Qualitative techniques of credit control
(B) Quantitative techniques of credit control
(C) Fiscal policy control
(D) Labour policy control
25. Which among the following is the most important item of revenue expenditure of the union government?
(A) Major subsidies
(B) Pensions
(C) Salaries and Allowances
(D) Interest Payments
26. Skill development programme enhances-
(A) Human Capital
(B) Physical Capital
(C) Working Capital
(D) Fixed Capital
27. According to census report of 2011, India’s population between 2001-2011 increased by
(A) 21.5 per cent
(B) 19.3 per cent
(C) 17.7 per cent
(D) 16.9 per cent
28. The Apex institution in the field of Industrial finance in India is-
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Industrial Finance Corporation of India
(C) Industrial Development Bank of India
(D) State Bank of India
29. Which of the following measures have been taken to make the agrarian structure conducive to agricultural growth?
(A) Abolition of Intermediateries
(B) Tenancy reforms
(C) Ceiling on land holdings
(D) All the above
30. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in decreasing order of the contribution of different sectors to the Gross Domestic Product of India?
(A) Services > Agriculture > Industry
(B) Industry > Services > Agriculture
(C) Industry > Agriculture > Services
(D) Services > Industry > Agriculture
31. Which one of the following is not the method of quantitative credit control?
(A) Bank rate
(B) Variable Reserve ratio
(C) Open market operation
(D) Rationing of credit
32. What is the correct chronological sequence of the following enactments in India?
(1) MRTP Act
(2) Industries (Development and Regulation) Act
(3) FERA
(4) Minimum Wages Act
Select the correct answer using the codes given below-
(A) 2, 3, 4, 1
(B) 2, 3, 1, 4
(C) 4, 2, 1, 3
(D) 4, 2, 3, 1
33. The decentralization system was recommended by-
(A) C. Rajgopalachari
(B) J. B. Kriplani
(C) Balwant Rai Mehta
(D) Ashok Mehta
34. An underdeveloped economy is generally characterized by-
(I) Low per capita income
(II) Low rate of capital formation
(III) Low dependency ratio
(IV) Work force largely in the tertiary sector.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below-
Codes :
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) III and IV
(D) I and IV
35. Globalization of Indian Economy means-
(A) Stepping up external borrowings
(B) Establishing Indian business abroad
(C) Having minimum possible restrictions on economic relations with other countries
(D) Giving up programmes of import substitutions
36. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) came into force in-
(A) October 2010
(B) November 2008
(C) January 2011
(D) April 2012
37. Which of the following features indicates that Indian economy is in a developing category?
(I) Occupation is mainly agriculture.
(II) Disguised unemployment
(III) Poor quality of Human Capital
(IV) High per capita intake of proteins.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below-
(A) I and II only
(B) I and IV
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III
38. Which of the following is/are definite implication(s) of a fall in inflation rate?
(I) Prices have fallen.
(II) Prices are increasing more slowly than before.
(III) There is industrial stagnation.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below-
(A) I and III
(B) I only
(C) II only
(D) I, III and IV
39. The stones present in the human gall bladder primarily affect the digestion of-
(A) Fats
(B) Proteins
(C) Carbohydrates
(D) Nucleic acids
40. Prallethrin is a common-
(A) Analgesic
(B) Muscle relaxant
(C) Mosquito repellent
(D) Hair dye
41. Which of the following vitamins is helpful for healing of a wound?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
42. Which one of the following is not a green house gas?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Methane
(C) Propane
(D) Ozone
43. The contribution of Agriculture in Indian economy is-
(A) Increasing
(B) Decreasing
(C) Constant
(D) None of the above
44. Which one of the following elements is kept safely in Kerosene oil?
(A) Sodium
(B) Copper
(C) Mercury
(D) Silver
45. Consider the statements-
Assertion (A) : Vitamin B12 remains stored in liver for about 3-5 years.
Reason (R) : Vitamin B12 is water-soluble.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below-
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
46. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Dry ice – Solid carbon dioxide
(B) Sevin – Insecticide
(C) Teflon – Polymer containing fluorine
(D) Fullerene – Organic compound containing fluorine
47. Which one of the following is a Sulpha drug?
(A) Penicilline
(B) Streptomycine
(C) Cibazole
(D) Asprin
48. The most important stimulant present in tea leaves is-
(A) Caffeine
(B) Phenylalanine
(C) Brucine
(D) Theobromine
49. Co. 1148 is an important variety of-
(A) Wheat
(B) Cotton
(C) Maize
(D) Sugarcane
50. Which among the following animals excretes solid urine?
(A) Kangaroo rat
(B) Giraffe
(C) Squirrel
(D) Crow
51. Which one of the following elements exists in liquid state at room temperature?
(A) Hydrogen
(B) Oxygen
(C) Bromine
(D) Iodine
52. World’s First International Airport fully equipped with solar energy is located at-
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Kochi
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Kozhikode
53. Which one of the following compound is not a vitamin?
(A) Niacin
(B) Thyroxine
(C) Riboflavin
(D) Pyridoxine
54. Which among the following is the most recent therapy of all types of cancers?
(A) 3D Conformal Radiotherapy (3D CRT)
(B) Immunotherapy
(C) Intensity Modulated Radio Therapy (IMRT)
(D) Molecularly targeted therapy
55. Which one of the following units is used for measurement of noise pollution?
(A) Nanometer
(B) Decibel
(C) Hertz
(D) None of the above
56. In Binary system, one kilobyte (1 KB) is equal to-
(A) 1024 Byte
(B) 1024 Megabyte
(C) 1024 Gigabyte
(D) None of the above
57. Which among the following is a manmade cereal?
(A) Secale cereal
(B) Pomato
(C) Triticale
(D) None of the above
58. Which one of the following polymers are used for making bullet-proof materials?
(I) Kevlar
(II) Glyptal
(III) Lexan
Select correct answer using the codes given below-
Codes:
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I and III
(D) None of the above
59. The gas which is produced by Paddy fields and is involved in global warming is-
(A) Chlorine
(B) Methane
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Hydrogen sulphide
60. Kyoto Protocol is related to-
(A) Air pollution
(B) Climate change
(C) Ozone depletion
(D) Wetland conservation
61. ‘Green Muffler’ is used against which type of pollution?
(A) Air
(B) Water
(C) Soil
(D) Noise
62. Which of the following is not a Nitrogen fixing organism?
(A) Nostoc
(B) Anabaena
(C) Azotobacter
(D) Mycorrhiza
63. Which one of the following non-steroidal contraceptive pills has been developed by CDRI, Lucknow?
(A) Saheli
(B) Paheli
(C) Sangini
(D) Kilkari
64. The (Green) Grass appears green to us because-
(A) It reflects green colour light to our eyes
(B) It absorbs green colour light
(C) It reflects all other colour lights except that of green colour
(D) None of the above
65. A body-weight is highest in which among the following?
(A) Air
(B) Water
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Nitrogen
66. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists-
67. One important characteristic of sound is ‘Pitch’, which depends upon-
(A) Intensity
(B) Frequency
(C) Quality
(D) Amplitude
68. A hot body cools from 90°C to 75°C in 25 seconds. The same body in further cooling from 75°C to 60°C will take how much time?
(A) 25 seconds
(B) Less than 25 seconds
(C) More than 25 seconds
(D) Nothing can be said
69. ‘A’ is 5 years younger than ‘B’ who is 3 times as old as ‘C’. If ‘C’ was 10 years old 4 years back, how old will ‘A’ be after 6 years?
(A) 35 years
(B) 43 years
(C) 40 years
(D) 37 years
70. If 35% of a number is 12 less than its 50%, then the number is-
(A) 28
(B) 60
(C) 80
(D) 90
71. The area of square ABCD is 16 m2. P and Q are mid points of sides AB and BC. Then area of triangle DPQ is-
(A) 4 m2
(B) 12 m2
(C) 6 m2
(D) 8 m2
72. In a certain code language HAND is written as SZMW, then what will be the code of MILK?
(A) ORNP
(B) PNRO
(C) RNOP
(D) NROP
73. In 1727 × 1729 × 1731 is divided by 14 the remainder will be-
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 9
74. On dividing 2272 as well as 875 by a 3-digit number N, we get the same remainder in each case. The sum of digits N is-
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 13
75. Gravitational waves were seen for the first time in-
(A) September 2014
(B) September 2015
(C) August 2017
(D) October 2017
76. The missing number in the following is-
(A) 33
(B) 38
(C) 40
(D) 42
77. If you want to experience true change that can lead to interpersonal growth, it is crucial that you-
(A) Wish to change
(B) Decide to change
(C) Hope to change
(D) None of the above
78. Mental activity, that goes on in the brain when a person is processing information, is called-
(A) Mentation
(B) A concept
(C) Thinking
(D) Mental imagery
79. The basic units of sound are called-
(A) Morphemes
(B) Phonemes
(C) Semanteme
(D) Syntax
80. Which of the following is not one of the animals that has been taught to use language with some success?
(A) Chimpanzee
(B) Parrot
(C) Dog
(D) Dolphin
81. Knowledge that we gain from school, is called-
(A) Procedural memory
(B) Semantic memory
(C) Declarative memory
(D) Episodic memory
82. A clock that looses 4 minutes every 24 hours, was set at 6 a.m. on April 1. What this clock will show on April 6 of the same month at 12 noon?
(A) 11 : 37 a.m.
(B) 11 : 38 a.m.
(C) 11 : 39 a.m.
(D) 11 : 40 a.m.
83. In an examination 50% of the students failed in Hindi and 42% failed in English. If 17% students failed in both subjects, what will be the percentage of the students passed in both subjects?
(A) 38
(B) 33
(C) 23
(D) 18
84. The missing letter in the following is-
(A) B
(B) D
(C) K
(D) T
85. In a row ‘A’ is in the 11th position from the left and ‘B’ is in the 10th position from the right. It ‘A’ and ‘B’ interchange, then ‘A’ becomes 18th from the left. How many persons are there in the row other than ‘A’ and ‘B’?
(A) 27
(B) 26
(C) 25
(D) 24
86. Four children are sitting in a row. ‘A’ is occupying the seat next to ‘B’ but not next to ‘C’. If ‘C’ is not sitting next to ‘D’, who is/are occupying seat/sets adjacent to ‘D’?
(A) B
(B) A
(C) B and A
(D) Impossible to tell
87. The encircle is drawn of an equilateral triangle. If each side of the triangle is 4√3 cm, the radius of the circle is-
(A) 2 cm
(B) 4√3 cm
(C) 2√3 cm
(D) 6√2 cm
88. Consider the following statements about six villages A, B, C, D, E and F-
F is 1 km to the west of D.
B is 1 km to the east of E.
A is 2 km to the north of E.
C is 1 km to the east of A.
D is 1 km to the south of A.
Which three villages are ina line?
(A) A, B and C
(B) B, C and F
(C) B, D and E
(D) A, D and E
89. All the vowels are removed from the English alphabets. Remaining alphabets are arranged once in increasing order and once in decreasing order. The alphabet, whose position remains the same in both arrangements, is-
(A) L
(B) M
(C) P
(D) N
90. Which one is ‘odd man out’ in the following?
(A) 289
(B) 361
(C) 451
(D) 529
91. Two digit number is such that the product of its digits is12. When 36 is added to it, the digits interchange their places. The unit digit of the new number is-
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) None of the above
92. Which one of the following pairs is different from the others?
(A) Bottle and Ink
(B) Can and Oil
(C) Boat and Ship
(D) Bag and Clothe
93. There are seven persons A, B, C, D, E F and G (not in this order) upon a ladder. A is further up than E but is lower than C. B is in the middle. G is between A and B. E is between B and F. If F is between E and D, the person on the bottom step of the ladder is-
(A) D
(B) E
(C) F
(D) None of the above
94. Certain numbers are given in the following geometrical pictures, according to a particular rule. X in the last picture stands for-
(A) 212
(B) 222
(C) 230
(D) 242
95. If march 13, 2017 is Monday, what day was it on March 13, 2011?
(A) Friday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Sunday
96. What comes in the sequence?
13, 34, 57, 92, …….?…..
(A) 112
(B) 133
(C) 145
(D) 181
97. Which letter occupies the 40th position in-
A AB ABC ABCD ABCDE ……..
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D) G
98. Which one of the following numbers completes the following series?
3, 14, 17, ?, 443, 1334
(A) 89
(B) 119
(C) 133
(D) 146
99. The arithmetic mean of 5 observations is 5 and the standard deviation is zero. The medium is-
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 4
100. Which of the following is not a measure of dispersion?
(A) Range
(B) Standard Deviation
(C) Mean Deviation
(D) First Quartile
101. Arun said, “This woman is the wife of the grandson of my mother”. Who is Arun to the woman?
(A) Father
(B) Grandfather
(C) Husband
(D) Father-in-law
102. In a series of observations, if value of one observation is zero, the Geometric mean will be-
(A) Positive
(B) Imaginary
(C) Infinity
(D) Zero
103. The following numbers have been written is ascending order 20, 35, 50, 80, 100+x, 200+x, 340, 520, 800 and 1205. If their median is 190, then what would be the value of x?
(A) 45
(B) 40
(C) 36
(D) 42
104. If the arithmetic mean of two numbers is 13 and their geometric mean is 12, then the numbers are-
(A) 16 and 9
(B) 13 and 7
(C) 18 and 8
(D) 20 and 6
105. The mean of 99 items is 55, the value of 100th item is 99 more than the mean of 100 items. The value of 100th item is-
(A) 150
(B) 152
(C) 155
(D) 160
106. Which type of distribution the following diagram represents?
(A) Symmetric distribution
(B) Positively skewed distribution
(C) Negatively skewed distribution
(D) None of the above
107. Which of the following cannot be found from an ogive?
(A) Percentiles
(B) Quartiles
(C) Median
(D) Mean
108. The pie diagram given below represents the percentages of expenditure on different items incurred by a family per month-
If the total monthly income of the family is Rs 25,000, how much has been spent in total monthly on rent and food?
(A) Rs 8,500
(B) Rs 11,250
(C) Rs 14,750
(D) Rs 17,250
109. Which of the following averages can be obtained from the histogram?
(A) Mean
(B) Median
(C) Mode
(D) Harmonic Mean
110. The average of 40 observations is 22. The average of first 20 observations is 44. The mean of remaining 20 observations is-
(A) 0 (Zero)
(B) −22
(C) 22
(D) None of the above
111. If one unbiased coin is tossed twice, what is the probability of obtaining exactly one head?
(A) 1/2
(B) 1/3
(C) 1/4
(D) None of the above
112. From a series of 50 observations an observation 45 is dropped. Still the arithmetic mean of the series remains unchanged. The mean of the full series of 50 observations was-
(A) 45
(B) 50
(C) 95
(D) None of the above
113. The arithmetic and harmonic means of a series are 12 and 3 respectively. The Geometric mean of this series is-
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
114. Highest level of education of bridegrooms at the time of their marriage is given in the following diagram-
How many degrees should there be in the central angle of the sector indicating the number of graduates?
(A) 90°
(B) 80°
(C) 72°
(D) 66°
115. In a frequency distribution numbers 1, ½, 1/3, ……1/n occur with frequencies 12, 22, 32 … n2 The mean of this is-
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
116. When all the observations are multiplied by K, variance is doubled. What is the value of K?
(A) 1/√2
(B) √2
(C) 1/2
(D) None of the above
117. The mean of 10 observations is 2 and the standard deviation is zero. The maximum observation is-
(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) More than 2
(D) Nothing can be said
118. In a small city with a population of 3600, the number of children, adults and olds are 1000, 2250 and 350 respectively. The angles for adults and olds in a pie diagram showing the population will be respectively-
(A) 100° and 225°
(B) 225° and 100°
(C) 125° and 100°
(D) 225° and 35°
119. The arithmetic mean of marks of 100 students is 50. It was found later that on observation ‘53’ was wrongly read as ‘83’. The correct mean will be-
(A) 49.5
(B) 49.6
(C) 49.7
(D) 49.8
120. The following table gives the distribution of households according the number of persons in the household-
What is the percentage of households with more than 3 and less than 7 members?
(A) 40%
(B) 60%
(C) 30%
(D) 35%
121. The population of any place is increased 8% in first decade, 27% in second decade and 64% in the third decade. The average increase in the population of that place during this whole period is-
(A) 24%
(B) 32%
(C) 28%
(D) None of the above
122. Which part of human eye is affected by cataract?
(A) Iris
(B) Retina
(C) Cornea
(D) None of the above
123. The variance of first five natural numbers is-
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
124. The mean, median and mode of the following data-
2, 4, 2, 5, 6, 9, 6 are respectively-
(A) 4.5, 5 and 2
(B) 4.6, 5 and 3.5
(C) 4.5, 5.5 and 2
(D) 4.5, 4.5 and 2
125. Ogives for ‘more than’ and ‘less than’ types intersect at-
(A) Mean
(B) Median
(C) Mode
(D) Origin
126. For a frequency distribution with unequal class intervals the histogram is drawn in such a way that frequencies are proportional to-
(A) Area of rectangles
(B) Height of rectangles
(C) Width of rectangles
(D) None of the above
127. A person appears in an examination. There are only two possibilities : either he will pass or he will fail. What is the probability that he will not pass?
(A) Less than 1/2
(B) 1/2
(C) More than 1/2
(D) Nothing can be said definitely
128. Mean deviation is minimum when deviations are taken from-
(A) Mean
(B) Median
(C) Mode
(D) Harmonic mean
129. The following table shows the distribution of weekly salary (in Rs) of 1000 workers-
The percentage of workers with weekly salary less than and upto Rs 125 is-
(A) 81
(B) 66
(C) 34
(D) 19
130. The Indian Federalism is based on the pattern of which country?
(A) USA
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) Germany
131. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the impeachment process against the Indian President?
(A) Article 39
(B) Article 60
(C) Article 61
(D) None of the above
132. Which is largest committee of the Indian Parliament?
(A) The Public Accounts Committee
(B) The Estimate Committee
(C) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(D) The Committee on Petitions
133. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to legislate on a subject of state list?
(A) Article 115
(B) Article 117
(C) Article 240
(D) Article 249
134. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution has the provision of the Election Commission?
(A) Article 320
(B) Article 322
(C) Article 324
(D) Article 326
135. In which case did the Supreme Court first declare that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution?
(A) Berubari
(B) Sajjan Singh
(C) Golak Nath
(D) Keshvanand Bharti
136. India is a Republic which implies that-
(A) The head of the State is elected
(B) The country is free
(C) The country possess a democratic system of government
(D) The Final Authority in the country is rests with the Parliament
137. The words ‘Secular’ and Socialist were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the-
(A) 39th Amendment
(B) 41st Amendment
(C) 42nd Amendment
(D) 44th Amendment
138. The education which was initially a state subject was transferred to the concurrent list by the-
(A) 24th Amendment
(B) 25th Amendment
(C) 42nd Amendment
(D) 44th Amendment
139. A citizen of India will lose his or her citizenship if he or she-
(1) renounces Indian citizenship
(2) voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country
(3) marries a citizen of another country
(4) criticizes the government
Select the correct answer using the codes given below-
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 and 4 only
140. Which of the following is not the objective of the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(A) To establish a welfare state
(B) To ensure socio-economic welfare
(C) To promote international peace and security
(D) To establish a religious state
141. Which part of the Indian Constitution refers to the responsibility of the state towards International Peace and Security?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) Preamble of the Constitution
142. ‘It is an agreement by free will, to be terminated by free will.” The above statement of Pt. Nehru refers to which of the following?
(A) India’s Association with the Commonwealth of Nations
(B) Treaty of Panchsheel
(C) Shimla Agreement
(D) None of the above
143. Which of the following is not a true statement about the Attorney General of India?
(A) He is not a member of the Cabinet
(B) He has the Right to Speak in the houses of the Parliament
(C) He has the right to vote in the Parliament
(D) None of the above
144. With reference to the Sovereignty of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
(1) India is a member of Commonwealth of Nations.
(2) Sovereignty of India is curtailed due to its membership of Commonwealth to Nations.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below-
Codes :
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 both
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
145. Coelho case is related to which Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(A) Seventh
(B) Eighth
(C) Ninth
(D) Tenth
146. The Central and State governments get authority from-
(A) Indian Constitution
(B) President of India
(C) Prime Minister of India
(D) Indian Parliament
147. Which Constitutional Amendment has limited the number of Central Ministers to 15% of the total members of Lok Sabha?
(A) 90th
(B) 91st
(C) 92nd
(D) None of the above
148. The provision for the representation of Anglo-Indian Community in the Lok Sabha has been made in the Constitution under which Article?
(A) Article 121
(B) Article 139
(C) Article 221
(D) Article 331
149. Under Article 352 of the Constitution of India, an emergency can be declared if security of any part of India is threatened by :
(1) War
(2) External aggression
(3) Armed rebellion
(4) Internal disturbance
Select the correct answer from the codes given below-
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 3 and 4
150. Consider the followings-
Assertion (A) : Recommendations of the Rajya Sabha, after a Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha and transmitted to the Rajya Sabha, have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha within 14 days from the receipt of recommendations and then get them incorporated in the Bill.
Reason (R) : Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
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