SSC CAPFs/Delhi Sub-Inspectors Examination-2012 Paper-I Solved Papers
Part-A
General Intelligence & Reasoning
Directions-(Q. 1 to 9) Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives-
1. SKIT : TIKS : : ? : FLAP
(A) PLFA
(B) PFAL
(C) PLAF
(D) PALF
2. 6 : 72 :: 8 : ?
(A) 94
(B) 96
(C) 74
(D) 92
3. 6 : 36 : : 9 : ?
(A) 81
(B) 98
(C) 42
(D) 56
4. 384 : ? : : 216 : 63
(A) 128
(B) 124
(C) 112
(D) 192
5. Asthma : Lungs : : Conjunctivitis : ?
(A) Bones
(B) Teeth
(C) Eyes
(D) Blood
6. Communicable disease : Malaria : : Non-communicable disease : ?
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Hepatitis
(C) AIDS
(D) Cancer
7. Thermometer : Temperature : : Glucometer : ?
(A) Body sugar
(B) Body resistance
(C) Blood
(D) Blood sugar
8. Dismay : Joy : : Tend : ?
(A) Regret
(B) Ignore
(C) Negligible
(D) Spoil
9. DCBA : WXYZ : : ? : ZYXW
(A) ABCD
(B) ABDC
(C) CBAD
(D) BCDA
Directions-(Q. 10 to 14) Find the odd word/number/letters from the given alternatives-
10.
(A) 4249
(B) 7586
(C) 4623
(D) 9781
11.
(A) ee gg ii kk
(B) pp rr tt uu
(C) bb dd ff hh
(D) kk mm oo qq
12.
(A) X
(B) P
(C) D
(D) I
13.
(A) Pen
(B) Letter-head
(C) Paper
(D) Envelope
14.
(A) Reed
(B) Pit
(C) Tab
(D) Hold
Directions-(Q. 15 to 23) A series are given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given one that will complete the series-
15. CDF, DEG, EFH ….
(A) FHG
(B) EFI
(C) FGH
(D) FGI
16. ZA, VC, RE, NG, ……., FK
(A) OH
(B) KI
(C) IJ
(D) JI
17. 4, 16, 36, …., 100
(A) 56
(B) 64
(C) 48
(D) 52
18. 2, 3, 10, 15, 26, …..
(A) 30
(B) 52
(C) 35
(D) 24
19. 12, 23, 34, 45, ….., 67, 78, 89
(A) 76
(B) 69
(C) 56
(D) 54
20. EAB, GCD, MIJ, ….
(A) ROP
(B) QOP
(C) OKL
(D) FOP
21. ACE, BDF, GIK, ….
(A) JHM
(B) HJI
(C) HJL
(D) MJH
22. WBP, SGM, OLJ, …
(A) NPH
(B) KQG
(C) LPG
(D) MQG
23. DEF, HIJ, MNO, …
(A) RTV
(B) SRQ
(C) RST
(D) STU
24. If 20 + 15 = 24 and 64 + 13 = 42, then 11 + 28 = ?
(A) 33
(B) 36
(C) 31
(D) 34
25. In the diagram alongside, AD = 2AB = What is the area of the shaded portion ?
(A) 2d2
(B) d/2
(C) d2/2
(D) d2/4
26. Find out the set among the four sets which is like the given set.
Given set : (9, 27, 108)
(A) (15, 45, 90)
(B) (8, 32, 96)
(C) (5, 15, 75)
(D) (11, 33, 132)
27. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series is two. Which one of the following alternatives observes this rule?
(A) UROLIF
(B) WTQNKJ
(C) SPMLI
(D) TSPNKH
28. Choose the synonym for the given word from the given options.
‘Exposition’
(A) Examination
(B) Expression
(C) Elucidation
(D) Revelation
29. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain principle. On the same basis, find the correct answer from among the alternatives given.
27(18)3; 216(180)6; 729(?)9
(A) 810
(B) 700
(C) 81
(D) 648
30. Karan facing towards South moved straight 2 km and from there, turned to his right 90° and travelled 2 km. Then, he took a 45° turn to his left and travelled 1 km. Where would he be now with respect to the starting point?
(A) North West region
(B) South West region
(C) South region
(D) South East region
31. Reena walks 4 km East and then cycles 10 km North, turns to the left and covers 4 km and once again turns to the North and moves 2 km. How far is she from the starting point?
(A) 10 km
(B) 14 km
(C) 8 km
(D) 12 km
32. Laxmi started walking Southwards and after covering a distance of 30 m, she turned left. She walked 25 meters, and turned to the left and again walked 30 meters. How far is she from the starting point and in which direction?
(A) 20 m West
(B) 25 m West
(C) 25 m East
(D) 30 m East
33. In a certain code, ‘CAPITAL’ is written as ‘CPATILA’. How is ‘PERSONS’ written in that code?
(A) PSONRES
(B) PONSRES
(C) PESONRS
(D) PREOSSN
34. If PAINT is coded as 74128 and EXCEL is coded as 93596, then how would you encode ACCEPT?
(A) 455978
(B) 735961
(C) 554978
(D) 547978
35. In the following problem :-
= Stand for ÷
+ stands for –
× stands for =
− stands for >
> stands for +
< stands for ×
÷ stands for <
When these new symbols are substituted, only one will be correct. Identify the correct equation-
(A) 24 = 4 > 5 × 17 + 13
(B) 24 = 4 + 2 × 17 + 13
(C) 24 = 4 > 5 × 17 > 13
(D) 24 + 4 = 5 × 17 + 13
Directions-(Q. 36) Two statements are followed by two assumptions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, definitely follows from the given statements.
36. Statements:
(1) Parental role in the education of their children is very significant.
(2) All parents must realize this.
Conclusions:
(I) Parentless children cannot develop to their maximum potential.
(II) Parents can help their children in their education.
(A) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(B) Both conclusions I and II follow
(C) Only conclusion I follows
(D) Only conclusion II follows
37. Find out the number which does not belong to the group of ABCD-
Directions-(Q. 38 to 40) Select the missing number from the given responses-
38.
5 7 4 39
6 9 5 59
7 11 ? 83
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 4
(D) 8
39.
8 16 10
2 8 5
4 ? 9
8 5 9
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 3
40.
8 (14) 15
13 (18) 22
25 (?) 41
(A) 33
(B) 42
(C) 14
(D) 36
Directions0(Q. 41) Which answer figure will complete the question figure?
41.
42. Which of the answer figures is exactly the mirror image of the given figures, when the mirror is held as shown?
43. A word is represented by only one set of numbers is given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in the 2 matrices given below. The columns and rows of matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of matrix II from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next column number. e.g., ‘F’ can be represented by 14, 21 etc. ‘S’ can be represented by 58, 96 etc. similarly, identify the word TRIP.
(A) 78, 76, 21, 76
(B) 59, 57, 41, 56
(C) 85, 88, 33, 89
(D) 66, 69, 40, 69
44. Select the answer figure in which the question figure is hidden-
45. A triangular sheet of paper has been folded and punched as shown in the figure. You have to figure out from amongst the four response figures, how it will appear when opened?
46. If a person has intelligence, character and position, which figure represents all of these?
47. How many squares are there in a given figure?
(A) 12
(B) 13
(C) 10
(D) 11
48. Which figure represents the relationship among Hockey players, Rubber balls, Poets?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 5
49. In the question, one part of the problem figure is subtracted. Select the option that shows the correct shape after subtraction-
50. Identify the answer figure from which the pieces given in question figure have been cut-
Part-B
General Knowledge & General Awareness
51. There is no selling cost under-
(A) Oligopoly
(B) Duopoly
(C) Perfect competition
(D) Monopolistic competition
52. Which of the following is not a function of the Exim Bank of India?
(A) Financing of joint venture in foreign countries
(B) Loans to Indian parties for contributing to share capital of joint ventures abroad
(C) Financing of export and import of goods and services
(D) Inspection of exported goods for quality assurance
53. Which of the following systems in independent India goes against the very basis of democracy?
(A) Party system
(B) Parliamentary system
(C) Caste system
(D) Economic system
54. According to Karl Marx, the change in economic system results in inevitable changes in-
(A) the entire systems
(B) religious system only
(C) political system only
(D) social system only
55. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) The value of commodity depends upon its price.
(B) The value of commodity is entirely dependent upon the substitutes.
(C) A commodity will have value if it is wanted by somebody
(D) A commodity will have value only if it is scarce relative to demand.
56. Which of the following formulae could be used for calculating the per capital income of a country?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
57. For controlling inflation, the Central Bank should-
(A) purchase Government securities in the open market
(B) lower the reserve ratio of the banks
(C) sell Government securities in the open market
(D) lower the bank rate
58. Match the medieval travellers with their countries:
List-I
(a) Marco Polo
(b) Ibnbattuta
(c) Antonio Monserrate
(d) Mahmud Wali Balkhi
List-II
(1) Spain
(2) Balkh
(3) Italy
(4) Morocco
(A) (a)-3; (b)-4; (c)-1; (d)-2
(B) (a)-1; (b)-3; (c)-2; (d)-4
(C) (a)-4; (b)-3; (c)-1; (d)-2
(D) (a)-3; (b)-1; (c)-4; (d)-2
59. Rana Kumbha constructed the Tower of Victory at Chittor to mark his victory over-
(A) The Khan of Nagaur
(B) Rao Jodha of Marwar
(C) Ahmad Shah of Gujarat
(D) Mahmud Khalji of Malwa
60. Match the following
List-I
(a) Sarojini Naidu
(b) M.A. Jinnah
(c) Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru
(d) V.D. Savarkar
List-II
(1) Muslim League
(2) Indian National Congress
(3) Hindu Mahasabha
(4) Liberal Party
(A) (a)-2; (b)-4; (c)-1; (d)-3
(B) (a)-4; (b)-1; (c)-3; (d)-2
(C) (a)-2; (b)-1; (c)-4; (d)-3
(D) (a)-2; (b)-1; (c)-3; (d)-4
61. The Social Forestry Scheme was introduced during-
(A) Second Five Year Plan
(B) Sixth Five Year Plan
(C) Fourth Five Year Plan
(D) Eighth Five Year Plan
62. The model code of conduct for political parties and candidates to be followed during the election is-
(A) enjoined by the Supreme Court
(B) agreed through a voluntary agreement among the recognized political parties
(C) laid down in the Constitution of India
(D) specified in The Representation of the People Act. 1951
63. A citizen can directly move the Supreme Court for any violation of Fundamental Rights under-
(A) Article 33
(B) Article 34
(C) Article 31
(D) Article 32
64. Which one of the following sitting Vice-Presidents of India contested for the post of President and lost the election?
(A) S. Radhakrishnan
(B) V. V. Giri
(C) Bhairon Singh Shekhawat
(D) Both (B) and (C)
65. The French challenges to British in India came to an end with-
(A) Battle of Plassey
(B) Battle of Buxar
(C) Battle of Wandiwash
(D) Battle of Srirangapattnam
66. Identify the medical trio of ancient India from the following names-
(A) Charaka, Susruta and Bharata
(B) Charaka, Susruta and Patanjali
(C) Charaka Susruta and Vagbhata
(D) Charaka, Vatsyayana and Vagbhata
67. Vegetation is effective in absorbing-
(A) High frequency sound
(B) Pollutant metals
(C) Pollutant gases
(D) Polluted water
68. When a person cries, there is a watery discharge from the nose due to activation of-
(A) Thyroid gland
(B) Endocrine gland
(C) Salivary gland
(D) Lachrymal gland
69. The fundamental role of root hairs in plants is-
(A) to absorb water and mineral salts from the soil
(B) to bind soil particles to the root for firm fixation of the plant
(C) to protect the young root from damage by coarse soil particles
(D) to protect the root from soil microbes
70. Catch crops are-
(A) crops to be cut and fed green to the cattle
(B) substitute crops planted after the regular crop has failed
(C) crops planted to attract certain insect pests to be destroyed
(D) crops planted to attract certain useful insects to be used for biological control of pests
71. Which one of the following acts as a mediator between the user’s program and the hardware-
(A) Operating System
(B) Browser
(C) Compiler
(D) Editor
72. The project similar to T.V.A. (Tennessee Valley Authority) of U.S.A. in India is-
(A) Ramganga Multipurpose Project
(B) Idukki Project
(C) Damodar Valley Project
(D) Mahanadi Delta Project
73. Petrology is the study of-
(A) earth
(B) minerals
(C) rocks
(D) soils
74. Match the Following:
List-I List-II
(a) Rosewood 1. Mangrove forests
(b) Bushes 2. Alpine Forests
(c) Birch 3. Deciduous forests
(d) Sundari tree 4. Dry forests
(A) (a)-1; (b)-2; (c)-3; (d)-4
(B) (a)-2; (b)-3; (c)-4; (d)-1
(C) (a)-4; (b)-3; (c)-2; (d)-1
(D) (a)-3; (b)-4; (c)-2; (d)-1
75. During the period of South-West monsoon, Tamil Nadu remains dry because-
(A) it lies in the rain-shadow area
(B) the temperature is too high to let the winds cool down
(C) the winds do not reach this area
(D) there are no mountains in this area
76. The red colour of ripe tomatoes is due to the presence of-
(A) Chlorophyll
(B) Carotenoids
(C) Hormones
(D) Vitamins
77. Anticoagulants are not present in-
(A) Leech
(B) Wasp
(C) Mosquito
(D) Bed bug
78. To eliminate the glare of headlights in motor cars-
(A) thin films are used
(B) filters are used
(C) polaroids are used
(D) glass prisms are used
79. The substances which have infinite electrical resistance are called-
(A) conductors
(B) resistors
(C) insulators
(D) condensers
80. The headquarters of International Atomic Energy Agency is located at-
(A) Vienna
(B) Sydney
(C) Geneva
(D) Washington
81. If you use a font that is not supported by a browser, then the text-
(A) will be displayed using ‘ARIAL’ font only
(B) will be displayed with a particular background
(C) will be displayed in the default font
(D) will not be displayed
82. The pigment that protects plants from UV damage is-
(A) Phycocyanin
(B) Carotenoids
(C) Chlorophyll
(D) Xanthophyll
83. United Nations Conference on Environment and Development is called-
(A) Air Summit
(B) Resource Summit
(C) Earth Summit
(D) Water Summit
84. A bio-energy source obtained by fermentation to supplement fossil fuel petrol is-
(A) Diesel
(B) Methane
(C) Kerosene
(D) Ethanol
85. The substance that causes the worst air pollution is-
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Smoke
(D) Sulphur dioxide
86. A liquid is aid to boil when its-
(A) vapor pressure is greater than the surrounding pressure
(B) vapour pressure is less than the surrounding pressure
(C) vapour pressure equal the surrounding pressure
(D) vapour pressure vanishes to zero
87. Which is not correct regarding covalent compounds?
(A) Compounds are usually liquids and gases
(B) Boiling points and melting points are low
(C) The reaction is slow
(D) The reaction is fast
88. Choose the correct statement-
(A) Mixtures are homogeneous
(B) In a mixture the components are present in a fixed ratio
(C) The components of a mixture cannot be separated
(D) Chemical properties of a mixture are the same as those of its components
89. PVC is obtained from-
(A) Styrene
(B) Acetylene
(C) Propene
(D) Polyvinyl Chloride
90. What is the name of the first research station established by India in the Antarctica?
(A) Agnihotri
(B) Aryabhatta
(C) Dakshin Gangotri
(D) Maitri
91. Who among the following was awarded Padma Vibhushan in 2011 for his exceptional and distinguished service in the field of trade and industry?
(A) S. Gopalakrishnan
(B) Mecca Rafeeque Ahmed
(C) Azim Premji
(D) Ratan Tata
92. The five permanent members of the U.N. Security Council are-
(A) China, Germany, Russia, U.K. and U.S.A.
(B) China, Germany, U.S.A. U.K. and Canada
(C) China, France, Russia, U.K. and U.S.A.
(D) China, Canada, France, U.S.A. and Germany
93. Which of the following is not correctly paired?
(A) Harbhajan Singh – Kabaddi
(B) Saina Nehwal – Badminton
(C) Jwala Gutta – Tennis
(D) Virat Kohli – Cricket
94. Which of the following States has the largest gap in the male and female literacy as per 2011 Census (provisional data)?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Kerala
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
95. Stainless steel is an alloy of-
(A) iron, carbon and zinc
(B) iron, zinc and manganese
(C) iron, chromium and nickel
(D) iron, chromium and carbon
96. Enriched uranium used in a nuclear reactor is-
(A) uranium alloyed with aluminium
(B) uranium with a high percentage of a particular isotope
(C) uranium free of all impurities
(D) 235U
97. In a refrigerator, cooling is produced by-
(A) the sudden expansion of a compressed gas
(B) the evaporation of a volatile liquid
(C) the ice which deposite in the freezer
(D) None of these
98. The first woman to conquer Mount Everest twice is-
(A) Santosh Yadav
(B) Suma Shirur
(C) Surja Lata Devi
(D) Jyoti Randhawa
99. Which one of the following iron and steel works in India is not under public sector?
(A) Bhilai
(B) Durgapur
(C) Bokaro
(D) Jamshedpur
100. Which Indian hockey player has a road named after him in Germany?
(A) Roop Singh
(B) Dhanraj Pillai
(C) Dhyan Chand
(D) Zafar Iqbal
Part-C
Quantitative Aptitude
101. In a fort, there was sufficient food for 200 soldiers for 31 days. After 27 days, 120 soldiers left the fort. For how many extra days will the rest of the food last for the remaining soldiers?
(A) 4 days
(B) 12 days
(C) 10 days
(D) 6 days
102. Equal amounts of water were poured into two empty jars of different capacities, which made one jar 1/4 full and the other jar 1/3 full. If the water in the jar with lesser capacity is then poured into the jar with greater capacity, then the part of the larger jar filled with water is-
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/3
(C) 1/2
(D) 7/12
103. A bookseller makes 8% profit after selling the book at 10% discount. The ratio of the cost price to the marked price is-
(A) 5 : 6
(B) 6 : 5
(C) 4 : 5
(D) 5 : 4
104. A certain sum of money is distributed to A and B in the ratio 2:5. If A received Rs 100, then the money received by B is-
(A) Rs 250
(B) Rs 300
(C) Rs 200
(D) Rs 150
105. Last year my age was a perfect square number. Next year it will be a cubic number. What is my present age?
(A) 26 years
(B) 24 years
(C) 25 years
(D) 27 years
106. What is the value of 
(A) 92.51
(B) 0.9251
(C) 0.9261
(D) 92.61
107. The greatest number that can divide 140, 176, 264 leaving remainders of 4, 6 and 9 respectively is-
(A) 17
(B) 2
(C) 85
(D) 34
108. There are 4 terms in an A.P. such that the sum of two means is 110 and product of their extremes is 2125. The 3rd term is-
(A) 55
(B) 45
(C) 65
(D) 75
109. The value of 
is-
(A) 106
(B) 136
(C) 116
(D) 126
110. If 10 men or 18 boys can do a work in 15 days, then the number of days required by 15 men and 33 boys to do twice the work is-
(A) 9
(B) 36
(C) 
(D) 8
111. A man walks a certain distance and rides back taking a total time of 37 minutes. He could walk both ways in 55 minutes. How long would he take to ride both ways?
(A) 19 minutes
(B) 20 minutes
(C) 9.5 minutes
(D) 18 minutes
112. Mahesh starts work as a sales representative on an annual salary of Rs 1,60,000. If he receives a 15% pay-rise each year, the number of years he has worked for the company, ,when his annual salary became Rs 2,79,841 is-
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 2
(D) 3
113. The base of a triangle is 2 cm more than twice its altitude. If the area is 12 sq. cm, its altitude will be-
(A) 4 cm
(B) 3 cm
(C) 6 cm
(D) 5 cm
114. A man leaves Rs 12,600 to be divided among 7 sons, 3 daughters and 5 nephews. If each daughter receives there times as much as each nephew and each son seven times as much as each nephew, then each daughter’s share is-
(A) Rs 600
(B) Rs 750
(C) Rs 700
(D) Rs 650
115. The average of three numbers 70, *7 and 5* is 57. If * represents the same digit, then it must be-
(A) 4
(B) 7
(C) 3
(D) 6
116. Three years ago, the average of a family of 8 members was 30 years. If one child is also included in the family, the present average age of the family remained the same. Then the present age of the child is-
(A) 6 years
(B) 1 year
(C) 3 years
(D) 4 years
117. By selling an article for Rs 21,000, a man gains 5%. To get a profit of 15%, he has to sell it for-
(A) Rs 23,000
(B) Rs 25,000
(C) Rs 19,800
(D) Rs 20,700
118. Rahul bought two cycles for a total sum of Rs 1,500. He sold one cycle at 20% loss and the other cycle at 20% gain. If the selling price of both the cycles is the same, find the cost piece of the two cycles.
(A) Rs 750 each
(B) Rs 550, Rs 950
(C) Rs 500, Rs 1,000
(D) Rs 600, Rs 900
119. The salary of an employee increases every year in the month of July by 10%. If his salary in May 2000 was Rs 15,000, his salary in October 2001 was-
(A) Rs 18,150
(B) Rs 19,965
(C) Rs 16,500
(D) Rs 18,000
120. 72% of the students of a certain class took Biology and 44% took Mathematics. If each student took Biology or Mathematics and 40 took both, the total number of students in the class was-
(A) 250
(B) 320
(C) 200
(D) 230
121. If the volume and the surface area of a sphere are numerically equal, then the numerical value of the radius of the sphere is-
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 1
(D) 2
122. If 
then the value of 
is-
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 3
123. Minimum value of 
is-
(A) 0
(B) −1
(C) −3
(D) −2
124. If a + b = 5, a2 + b2 = 13, the value of a – b (where a > b) is-
(A) 1
(B) −2
(C) 2
(D) −1
125. If (3x – y) : (x + 5y) = 5 : 7, then the value of (x + y) : (x – y) is-
(A) 2 : 3
(B) 3 : 2
(C) 3 : 1
(D) 1 : 3
126. The line passing through the points (−2, 8) and (5, 7)-
(A) Cuts y-axis only
(B) Cuts both the axes
(C) Does not cut any axes
(D) Cut x-axis only
127. In ∆ ABC, ∠B = 60°, ∠C = 40°, If AD bisects ∠BAC and AE ⊥ BC, then ∠EAD is-
(A) 10°
(B) 20°
(C) 40°
(D) 80°
128. ABCD is a quadrilateral in which diagonal BD = 64 cm, AL ⊥ BD and CM ⊥ BD, such that AL = 13.2 cm and CM = 16.8 cm. The area of the quadrilateral ABCD in square centimeter is-
(A) 422.4
(B) 690.0
(C) 537.6
(D) 960.0
129. The area of a semi-circular field is 308 sq. m; taken taking π = 22/7, the length of the railing to surround it has to be-
(A) 88 m
(B) 80 m
(C) 44 m
(D) 72 m
130. Volume of a right circular cone is numerically equal to its slant surface area. Then value of 
where h and r are height and radius of the cone respectively, is-
(A) 4 units
(B) 1/4 unit
(C) 9 units
(D) 1/9 unit
131. If the numerical value of volume of a right circular cylinder and its curved surface area are equal, then its radius is-
(A) 3 units
(B) 6 units
(C) 2 units
(D) 4 units
132. ABCDEF is a regular hexagon of side 2 feet. The area, in square feet, of the rectangle BCEF is-
(A) 8
(B) 4 + 4√3
(C) 4
(D) 4√3
133. If in ∆ ABC, ∠A = 90°, BC = a, AC = b and AB = c, then the value of tan B + tan C is-
(A) a2/ab
(B) 
(C) b2/ac
(D) a2/bc
134. A ladder is resting against a wall at a height of 10 m. If the ladder is inclined with the ground at an angle of 30°, then the distance of the foot of the ladder from the wall is-
(A) 10/√3 m
(B) 20/√3 m
(C) 10√3 m
(D) 20√3 m
135. tan 7° tan 23° tan 60° tan 67° tan 83° is equal to-
(A) 0
(B) √3
(C) 1/√3
(D) 1
136. The value of (sec θ – cos θ) (tan θ + cot θ) is-
(A) 1
(B) 3/2
(C) 2
(D) 0
137. In the figure below, if AB || CD and CE ⊥ ED, then the value of x is-
(A) 53
(B) 63
(C) 37
(D) 45
138. PA and PB are two tangents drawn from an external point P to a circle with centre O where the points A and B are the points of contact. The quadrilateral OAPB must be-
(A) A rectangle
(B) A rhombus
(C) A square
(D) Cyclic
139. G is the centroid of ∆ If AG = BC, then ∠BGC is-
(A) 90°
(B) 30°
(C) 60°
(D) 120°
140. In the following figure, if OA = 10 and AC = 16, then OB must be-
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 3
(D) 4
141. The graph f y = x + |x| is given by-
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 1
(D) 2
142. The equation of this graph is-
(A) y = x
(B) y = 3x
(C) y = −x
(D) y = −3x
143. If tan(θ1 + θ2) = √3, and sec(θ1 – θ2) = 2/√3, then the value of sin 2θ1 + tan 3θ2 is equal to-
(assume that 0 < θ1 – θ2 < θ1 + θ2 < 90°)
(A) 0
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 2
144. The area of the shaded region in the following graph is-
(A) 6 units
(B) 8 units
(C) 2 units
(D) 4 units
145. The shaded region represents-
(A) y ≥ x
(B) y ≤ −x
(C) y ≤ x
(D) y ≥ −x
Directions-(Q. 146-150) The pie-chart given below shows the distribution of workforce by occupational category for country X in 1981 and 1995. Study the chart and answer the questions.
146. The increase in the number of Clerical workers in the workforce of country X from 1981 to 1995 (in millions) is-
(A) 0.5
(B) 1.25
(C) 0.75
(D) 1.5
147. The percentage decrease in the number of Blue-Collar workers in the workforce of country X from 1981 to 1995 is-
(A) 20
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 35
148. In 1981, the number of Service workers in the workforce, in millions, was-
(A) 22.5
(B) 28.0
(C) 15.0
(D) 20.5
- In 1981, the number of categories which comprised of more than 25 million workers each, is-
(A) Four
(B) Five
(C) Two
(D) Three
150. The ratio of the number of workers in the Professional category in 1981 to the number of such workers in 1995 is-
(A) 9 : 14
(B) 14 : 9
(C) 4 : 9
(D) 5 : 14
Part-D
English Comprehension
Directions-(Q. 151-155) Some parts of the sentence have errors and some have none, Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If there is no error, blacken the rectangle corresponding to letter (D) in the Answer Sheet.
151. The concentration of human and material resources at a few centres (A)/ have resulted in (B)/ large scale migration of rural population to urban areas. (C)/ No Error (D)
152. Who wouldn’t be triumphant (A)/ in their success (B)/ at the examination ? (C)/ No Error (D)
153. I dared (A)/ Mohan fights (B)/ a duel. (C)/ No Error (D)
154. All of you except Sheena (A)/ have done the homework (B)/ properly. (C)/ No Error (D)
155. The summit began (A)/ on a much voiced (B)/ optimism note. (C)/ No Error (D)
Directions-(Q. 156 to 160) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.
156. Many modern methods of agriculture ……… thousands of years ago.
(A) sprang
(B) started
(C) began
(D) originated
157. He is utterly ……… at the end of the day.
(A) worn away
(B) worn on
(C) worn through
(D) worn out
158. People should refrain ………. Evil deeds.
(A) from doing
(B) doing
(C) to do
(D) in doing
159. A rare audio tape released by the court at the end of the hearing showed many judges asking ………… they should intervene at all.
(A) in only
(B) only if
(C) weather
(D) whether
160. Rita ……….. her home work yet.
(A) has not done
(B) will not do
(C) does not do
(D) did not do
Directions(Q. 161 to 165) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which BEST EXPRESSES the MEANING of the given bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
161. Clandestinely
(A) secretly
(B) openly
(C) financially
(D) systematically
162. Periphery
(A) circle
(B) boundary
(C) edge
(D) terminus
163. Exonerate
(A) absolve
(B) execute
(C) negate
(D) charge
164. Exquisite
(A) exact
(B) wonderful
(C) quizzical
(D) exciting
165. Comprehensive
(A) adhesive
(B) expensive
(C) alternative
(D) inclusive
Directions-(Q. 166-170) Choose the word OPPOSITE in MEANING to the given bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
166. Precedence
(A) subordination
(B) seclusion
(C) succession
(D) supersession
167. Misdemeanour
(A) adventure
(B) cowardice
(C) humility
(D) courtesy
168. Nibble
(A) swallow
(B) munch
(C) devour
(D) consume
169. Jeopardy
(A) pleasure
(B) stability
(C) safety
(D) comfort
170. Hindrance
(A) assistance
(B) authorization
(C) approval
(D) approbation
Directions-(Q. 171-175) Four alternative are given for the idiom/phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best EXPRESSES the MEANING of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
171. Suman held court with the studio audience.
(A) tried to please to gain support
(B) entertained with interesting funny stories
(C) took to the court of law
(D) had a formal discussion with
172. Ravi wants to blaze a trail in his activities.
(A) be supported
(B) be the centre of attraction
(C) initiate work and be a pioneer
(D) blow the trumpet
173. Their friendship lasted without a cloud to the end of his life.
(A) without concealment
(B) without stigma
(C) without trouble
(D) without romance
174. She took a wrong decision by not marrying this gentleman. She doesn’t know that beauty is only skin deep.
(A) physical charm is important
(B) internal beauty is not important
(C) physical touch is not important
(D) physical beauty is not important
175. The officials played ducks and drakes with the public money.
(A) spent
(B) preserved
(C) collected
(D) squandered
Directions-(Q. 176-180) A part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is letter (D)
176. He won’t hear you provided you shout.
(A) in case
(B) as long as
(C) unless
(D) No improvement
177. The ship is at the anchor and the sailors are not at ease.
(A) at an anchor
(B) at its anchor
(C) at anchor
(D) No improvement
178. The objected to the plan on the grounds that it was too expensive.
(A) declined
(B) disagreed
(C) refused
(D) No improvement
179. Very little rice was found in the pot after all the guests had eaten.
(A) remained
(B) was cooked
(C) stored
(D) No improvement
180. The policeman captured the first car that approached and ordered the driver to take the injured child to the hospital.
(A) commandeered
(B) interrupted
(C) caught
(D) No improvement
Directions-(Q. 181-185) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
181. A study of words and the way words develop-
(A) Phraseology
(B) Phonography
(C) Philology
(D) Phonology
182. Something which is not in harmony-
(A) Cacophonous
(B) Noisy
(C) Smooth
(D) Quiet
183. A list of books-
(A) Catalogue
(B) Index
(C) Anthology
(D) Glossary
184. Man with womanly habits and manners-
(A) Effeminate
(B) Gay
(C) Bovine
(D) Suave
185. Something unusual or strange, having peculiar notions-
(A) Whimsical
(B) Aggressive
(C) Dramatic
(D) Reasonable
Directions-(Q. 186-190) There are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.
186.
(A) flabbergast
(B) flabbergust
(C) flabergast
(D) flabergust
187.
(A) holocost
(B) halocaust
(C) holocaust
(D) holocast
188.
(A) revarential
(B) reverentiel
(C) reverantial
(D) reverential
189.
(A) metikyulus
(B) meticulus
(C) meteculous
(D) meticulous
190.
(A) suvenir
(B) souviener
(C) souvenir
(D) suvenire
Directions-(Q. 191-200) In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Blacken the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.
The League of Nations was (191) in 1919. It became ineffective and the UNO began to (192) from October 24th, 1945. The Second World War (193) in 1939s. It caused great (194) to human lives and property. As a (195) of use of atom bombs, many people were (196) and many others became (197). The world leaders feared that another world war would (198) the entire world. It was a question of the (199) of mankind. To ensure peace and (200) the world leaders established a world organization, the UNO.
191.
(A) made
(B) opened
(C) created
(D) formed
192.
(A) function
(B) commence
(C) start
(D) operate
193.
(A) broke into
(B) broke up
(C) broke in
(D) broke out
194.
(A) loss
(B) disturbance
(C) wastage
(D) calamity
195.
(A) reason
(B) matter
(C) result
(D) cause
196.
(A) mutilated
(B) disabled
(C) destroyed
(D) killed
197.
(A) unfit
(B) handicapped
(C) disabled
(D) disadvantaged
198.
(A) jeopardize
(B) destroy
(C) perish
(D) demolish
199.
(A) presence
(B) existence
(C) continuity
(D) survival
200.
(A) safety
(B) order
(C) tranquility
(D) security
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