UGC NET Exam January 2017 Forensic Science Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

FORENSIC SCIENCE

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. A delusion in which the person feels that a close family member has been replaced by an identical looking stranger, is known as

(1) Capgras syndrome

(2) Fregoli syndrome

(3) Syndrome of intermetamorphosis

(4) Clerambault syndrome

Answer: (1)

2. Currens rule is used

(1) to determine legal insanity

(2) to determine cause of death in infanticide

(3) to differentiate hanging from strangulation

(4) to differentiate true rape from consensual sexual intercourse.

Answer: (1)

3. Tardiev’s spots are characteristic of

(1) Burns

(2) Infanticide

(3) Electrocution

(4) Asphyxia

Answer: (4)

4. Regarding head injury due to precipitate labour, consider the following statements :

I. Bruises may be seen on vertex

II. Extensive comminuted and depressed fractives of base of skull

III. Lacerations on scalp are absent

IV. Brain shows lacerations

Codes :

(1) I, II and III are correct.

(2) I and III are correct.

(3) III and IV are correct.

(4) I and II are correct.

Answer: (2)

5. Beneke’s technique is used during post-mortem to

(1) remove heart from infants

(2) open skull in infants

(3) remove enlarged prostate gland

(4) open the body from back

Answer: (2)

6. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

Answer: (1)

7. Study the following statements and choose the right answer using the code given below :

I. Cadaveric spasm occurs in smooth muscles.

II. Cadaveric spasm occurs instantaneously.

III. Primary relaxation is not seen in cadaveric spasm.

IV. Muscle reaction is alkaline in cadaveric spasm.

Codes :

(1) II, III and IV are correct.

(2) I and III are correct.

(3) I, II and III are correct.

(4) II and IV are correct.

Answer: (1)

8. A : Graphology should not be confused with forensic handwriting examination.

R : Graphology deals with study of personality traits of an individual from handwriting of the individual.

Codes :

(1) A is correct and R is incorrect.

(2) Both A and R are incorrect.

(3) Both A and R are correct.

(4) R is correct and A is incorrect.

Answer: (3)

9. A photographic process based on the formation of silver and an iron redox couple resulting the deposition of metal salts on latent finger print is known as which of the following ?

(1) Small particle reagent

(2) VMD method

(3) DFO

(4) Physical developer

Answer: (4)

10. Type lines may be defined as two innermost ridges running parallel in the beginning, diverge and surround or tend to surround which of the following ?

(1) Core

(2) Delta

(3) Pattern area

(4) Bifurcation

Answer: (3)

11. In 10 digit classification of finger-prints, a person having whorls pattern in all the ten fingers will be classified under which of the following ?

(1) 0/0

(2) 32/32

(3) 16/16

(4) 8/8

Answer: (2)

12. Arrange the following epidermal layers in correct order :

I. Stratum granulosum

II. Stratum germinativum

III. Stratum Lucidum

IV. Stratum spinosum

Codes :

(1) II, IV, III, I

(2) III, I, IV, II

(3) I, IV, II, III

(4) IV, II, III, I

Answer: (2)

13. Calculation of a person’s height from fragmented bones is calculated by

(1) Dupertuis and Hadden’s formula

(2) Pearson’s formula

(3) Trotter and Glesser formula

(4) Steele and McKern’s formula

Answer: (4)

14. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

Answer: (2)

15. Shovel shaped teeth are seen in

(1) Bushmen

(2) Caucasoids

(3) Africans

(4) Mongoloids

Answer: (4)

16. The approximate weight percent of SiO2 in borosilicate glass is :

(1) 40

(2) 50

(3) 60

(4) 80

Answer: (4)

17. The term “hue” is associated with which of the following ?

(1) Mineral constituent of the soil

(2) Base colour of the soil

(3) Texture of the soil

(4) Organic material present in soil

Answer: (2)

18. Match the following :

Answer: (2)

19. Medullary index of hair is :

Answer: (4)

20. The major generic fiber used to prepair apparel which could be stretched as desired is

(1) Aramid

(2) Melamine

(3) Rayon

(4) Spandex

Answer: (4)

21. One Dalton is equal to which of the following ?

(1) 1.66 × 10–9 kg

(2) 1.66 × 10–27 kg

(3) 9.31 × 10–27 kg

(4) 9.31 × 10–31 kg

Answer: (2)

22. Which of the following is not a result of rifiling ?

(1) Increased speed

(2) Increased range

(3) Increased precision

(4) Increased yaw

Answer: (4)

23. In recoil-operated firearms like a pistol, the automatic mechanism works because of

(1) Force of recoil of firearm

(2) Force of recoil acting on the head of the cartridge case

(3) Force of recoil acting on the recoil plate of firearm

(4) Force of recoil acting on walls and neck of the cartridge case

Answer: (2)

24. Which of the following is not a factor in measurement of recoil ?

(1) Weight of gun and bullet

(2) Muzzle blast

(3) Gases formed inside the cartridge case

(4) All burnt point

Answer: (4)

25. Dhatura poisoning resembles with which of the following ?

(1) Kuchala poisoning

(2) Opium poisoning

(3) Atropine poisoning

(4) Rati poisoning

Answer: (3)

26. Which one of the following is an active metabolite of chloral hydrate ?

(1) Chlorpromazine

(2) Trichloroethanol

(3) Dexmedetomidine

(4) Methylphenidate

Answer: (2)

27. Morphine dependence is best characterised by which of the following ?

(1) Constricted pupils

(2) Masked face

(3) Jaundice

(4) Anorexia

Answer: (1)

28. O – demethylation of oxycodone gives which of the following ?

(1) Noroxycodone

(2) Deoxycodone

(3) Deoxymorphone

(4) Oxymorphone

Answer: (4)

29. Cocaine isomers can be separated by HPLC using

(1) Non polar columns

(2) Polar columns

(3) Semi polar columns

(4) Chiral columns

Answer: (1)

30. Which enzyme regulates the metabolism of opiates ?

(1) SULT 2

(2) CYP 2D6

(3) COMT

(4) MT

Answer: (2)

31. Consumption of which of the following causes blindness ?

(1) Amphetamine

(2) Morphine

(3) Atropine

(4) Methanol

Answer: (4)

32. Methanol toxicity is due to the formation of which of the following ?

(1) Formic acid due to the action of dehydrogenase enzyme in liver

(2) Formic acid due to the action of dehydrogenase enzyme in kidney

(3) Formic acid due to the action of protease enzyme in liver

(4) Formic acid due to the action of protease enzyme in kidney

Answer: (1)

33. The most reliable test for detection of semen in the absence of spermatozoa is

(1) Acid phosphate

(2) Prostate specific antigen

(3) Esterase

(4) Florence test

Answer: (1)

34. Which of the following is not a presumptive test for the detection of semen ?

(1) Phenolphthalein test

(2) Microscopic examination

(3) The P30 test

(4) The acid phosphatase test

Answer: (1)

35. Dideoxynucleoside triphosphates (ddNTPs) are used in sequencing DNA because :

(1) dd NTPs are fluorescent.

(2) dd NTPs are incorporated very efficiently into DNA by DNA polymerase.

(3) dd NTPs cannot be incorporated into DNA by DNA polymerase.

(4) dd NTPs prevent further DNA synthesis once they are incorporated into the DNA sequence.

Answer: (4)

36. Assertion (A) : Erythrocyte helps in detection of fetal blood.

Reason (R) : It fights infection in foetus.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

Answer: (2)

37. The gene loci 1 of enzyme, PGM is of medico-legal importance, the reason being

(1) Polymorphism

(2) Circular in shape

(3) Dark blue in colour

(4) Based on Mendelian law of inheritance

Answer: (1)

38. Ultra – violet rays are known to damage DNA on its exposure due to

(1) Breaking of bonds between G and C

(2) Formation of thymine-thymine dimers

(3) Formation of primer-dimer

(4) Extension of non-coding regions

Answer: (2)

39. Consider following statements regarding amelogenin :

I. It can be used to differentiate sex.

II. Intron 1 in AMELX gene is 106 bp in size.

III. Using this technique sex can be determined from bone marrow.

IV. Amelogenin is a protein found in male genital system.

Codes :

(1) I, II and III are correct.

(2) I and III are correct.

(3) III and IV are correct.

(4) I and II are correct.

Answer: (1)

40. Which of these techniques is used to separate serum ?

(1) GLC

(2) HPLC

(3) Electrophoresis

(4) PCR

Answer: (3)

41. In PMT, the magnitude of signal is increased due to the action of

(1) Vacuum

(2) Cathode

(3) Anode

(4) Dynode

Answer: (4)

42. In flame atomization when the gas flow rate does not exceed the burning velocity the flame propagates back into the burner giving.

(1) Aerosol

(2) Atoms

(3) Secondary flame

(4) Flash back

Answer: (4)

43. Name the microscope in which condenser is modified by replacing the substage iris with such a device which allows only a ring of light to pass through it.

(1) Phase contrast microscope

(2) Fluorescence microscope

(3) Stereo microscope

(4) Electron microscope

Answer: (1)

44. In a polarised light microscope a polarizer is placed

(1) Below the objective

(2) Above the objective

(3) Below the sample

(4) Above the sample

Answer: (3)

45. In X RFS, filters are made up of which of the following ?

(1) Lead

(2) Aluminium

(3) Zerconium

(4) Beryllium

Answer: (3)

46. The forensic use of phadebas reagent was proposed by which of the following ?

(1) Alphonse Bertillon

(2) Willott

(3) Lee H.C.

(4) Jon J. Nordby

Answer: (2)

47. Grievous hurt as mentioned in Indian Law comprises all except

(1) Emasculation

(2) Complete shaving of scalp hair

(3) Fracture or dislocation of bone or tooth

(4) Any hurt which endagers life

Answer: (2)

48. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

Answer: (4)

49. Section 326 A IPC deals with

(1) Punishment for voluntarily causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapons.

(2) Criminal force.

(3) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid.

(4) Kidnapping

Answer: (3)

50. Section 354 B IPC deals with

(1) Battered baby syndrome.

(2) Stalking.

(3) Assault or criminal force to woman with intent to disrobe or compelling her to be naked.

(4) Assault or criminal force to any human being with intent to disrobe or compelling to be naked.

Answer: (3)

Latest Govt Job & Exam Updates:

View Full List ...

© Copyright Entrance India - Engineering and Medical Entrance Exams in India | Website Maintained by Firewall Firm - IT Monteur