SOCIAL WORK
PAPER – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. Which one of the following is distinctive characteristic of human society in comparison to animal society ?
(1) Interaction
(2) Culture
(3) Territory
(4) Group life
2. Which one of the following is not included in positive transference ?
(1) Desire for friendship
(2) Desire for help and support
(3) Desire for guidance
(4) Desire for loosing trust
3. Who is responsible for starting counselling in social case work ?
(1) Mary Richmond
(2) Bartha Reynold
(3) Hollis
(4) William Reid
4. Perception has always been
(1) Objective
(2) Subjective
(3) Negative
(4) Positive
5. The simultaneous existence of strong feelings of both love and hatredness towards a person, an object or a situation is called
(1) Indifference
(2) Acceptance
(3) Ambivalence
(4) Isolation
6. Which of the following is not a strategy of social action as per Zeltman and Duncan ?
(1) Educational strategy
(2) Economic strategy
(3) Facilitative strategy
(4) Power strategy
7. Toynbee Hall was established by
(1) Cannon Barnett
(2) Gilchrist
(3) Mary Ward
(4) Jane Adams
8. Settlement houses were
(1) Individual-based centres
(2) Group-based centres
(3) Kinship-based centres
(4) Community-based centres
9. National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education (NP-NSPE) was launched in
(1) 1985
(2) 1970
(3) 1975
(4) 1995
10. Null hypothesis, when it is true, it is called
(1) Type I error
(2) Type II error
(3) Type III error
(4) Synthesis
11. Which one of the following constitute domestic violence under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 ?
(1) Economic abuse
(2) Elder abuse
(3) Child abuse
(4) Drug abuse
12. Name the report of the Child Welfare Officer to be submitted in case of child in need of care and protection as per the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection) Act, 2015.
(1) First Information Report
(2) Social Investigation Report
(3) Child Investigation Report
(4) Family Investigation Report
13. According to the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection) Act, 2015 the following children are kept in the Special Homes :
(1) Children in conflict with law
(2) Neglected children
(3) Abused children
(4) Street children
14. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, Arbitrator refers to an
(1) Umpire
(2) Player
(3) Enquiry Officer
(4) Employer
15. Sickness Benefit, Maternity Benefit, Disablement Benefit, Dependent’s Benefit, Medical Benefit and Funeral Expenses are provided to an employee under which Act ?
(1) The Minimum Wages Act, 1948
(2) The Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923
(3) The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948
(4) The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946
16. ______have contributed immensely to the knowledge of social casework, but much of this is related to causative factors than the strategies of intervention
(1) Social Sciences
(2) Behavioural Sciences
(3) Physical Sciences
(4) Earth Sciences
17. What is the function of control group in a study design ?
(1) To quantify the impact of extraneous variables on the dependent variables.
(2) To quantify the impact of the stimulus on the independent variables.
(3) To change the independent variables.
(4) To measure the impact of independent variables.
18. ______ is the sample act of comparison and learning for organisational improvement.
(1) Benchmarking
(2) Feedback
(3) Ranking
(4) Job evaluation
19. Which one of them is not a statutory welfare provision as per the Indian Factories Act, 1948 ?
(1) First Aid
(2) Crèche
(3) Transport
(4) Safety
20. Section ______ of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, states that employer should only retrench employees who have been most recently hired.
(1) 24 F
(2) 24 G
(3) 25 F
(4) 25 G
21. For closure, every worker is to be compensated with ______ average pay for every year of service completed.
(1) 15 days
(2) 20 days
(3) 25 days
(4) 30 days
22. A disease of the brain characterized by impairment of memory and eventually by disturbances in reasoning, planning, language and perception is called as ______.
(1) Parkinson’s Disease
(2) Alzheimer’s Disease
(3) Insomnia
(4) Dyslexia
23. Which one of the following form of recording, main events are recorded ?
(1) Process recording
(2) Summary recording
(3) Role recording
(4) Narrative recording
24. _______ can be defined as a written record of the duties, responsibilities, and conditions of job.
(1) Job specification
(2) Job profile
(3) Job description
(4) Job analysis
25. Which among the following sets of Articles of Indian Constitution deal with Fundamental Rights ?
(1) Articles 12 to 35
(2) Articles 15 to 32
(3) Articles 19 to 40
(4) Articles 14 to 39
26. ‘Panchayat Raj’ system can best be understood in terms of
(1) Child and woman development
(2) Grassroot level planning
(3) Democratic decentralization
(4) Integrated rural development
27. _______ are distinct forms of ‘Justice’ in Indian Constitution.
(1) Justice, Empowerment, Well-being
(2) Social, Economic, Political
(3) Social, Psychological, Emotional
(4) Educational, Social, Judicial
28. Which one of the following is not labelled as community ?
(1) Village
(2) Neighbourhood
(3) Nation
(4) A Settlement
29. H.B. Trecker said that each individual wants one of the following most and worker should be aware of this :
(1) Help
(2) Support
(3) Recognition
(4) Assistance
30. Which of the following is not the component of community work ?
(1) The community
(2) Worker
(3) Bureaucrats
(4) Individuals
31. While comparing system A with system B, proceeding on the assumption that system A is superior or the system B is inferior, this termed as :
(1) Alternative hypothesis
(2) Null hypothesis
(3) Simple hypothesis
(4) Composite hypothesis
32. The strength of ______ as a technique of data collection is the freedom it provides in terms of content and structure.
(1) Structured Interview
(2) Unstructured Interview
(3) Rigid Interview
(4) Flexible Interview
33. The technique of scalogram analysis was developed by
(1) Likert
(2) Thurston
(3) Louis Guttmann
(4) Bogardus
34. When the dependent variable is not free from the influence of extraneous variable(s), this relationship between dependent and independent variables is known as :
(1) Cause-effect relationship
(2) Confounded relationship
(3) Controlled relationship
(4) Uncontrolled relationship
35. Test used for comparing a sample variance to a theoretical population variance is known as
(1) Chi-square test
(2) Z-test
(3) F-test
(4) t-test
36. Which one of the following is not the assumption in Karl Pearson’s co-efficient of correlation ?
(1) Existence of linear relationship between the two variables.
(2) Causal relationship between two variables.
(3) Operation of large number of independent causes in both variables so as to produce normal distribution.
(4) Existence of no relationship.
37. Emotions, sensation, perceiving and deserving come under the category of
(1) Integrative event
(2) Freudian event
(3) Objective event
(4) Subjective event
38. “Electra complex” is a situation found in
(1) Oral stage
(2) Anal stage
(3) Phallic stage
(4) Latency stage
39. Which among the following statements are true in case of sampling ?
(i) A sampling design is a definite plan for obtaining a sample from the sampling frame.
(ii) A list containing all elementary units or cluster of units from which the sample is drawn is called sampling frame.
(iii) Sampling distribution is the range within which the population average will lie in accordance with the reliability specified in the confidence level.
(iv) The mean of the sampling distribution can be taken as the mean of the universe.
Codes :
(1) (i) and (ii) only are true.
(2) (ii) and (iii) only are true.
(3) (iii) and (iv) only are true.
(4) (i), (ii) and (iv) only are true.
40. ‘Community work as the process of delivering social welfare services’ is conceptualized by
(1) Arthur Durham
(2) M.G. Ross
(3) Rothman
(4) H.B. Trecker
41. Hypergamy is
(1) Anuloma marriage
(2) Pratiloma marriage
(3) Inter-caste marriage
(4) Gandharva marriage
42. Malinowski related the function of institutions to
(1) social needs
(2) biological needs
(3) structural needs
(4) cultural needs
43. When married couple establish their own residence in a ‘new’ place, it is called
(1) Bi-local
(2) Neo-local
(3) Patri-local
(4) Matri-local
44. A women faces difficulty in reconciling to multiple roles is called
(1) Role repertoire
(2) Role set
(3) Role conflict
(4) Role consistency
45. Which is not a basic characteristic of “ascribed status” ?
(1) Race
(2) Sex
(3) Age
(4) Knowledge
46. Of the following, which does not imply membership ?
(1) Association
(2) Community
(3) Institution
(4) Secondary groups
47. Tolerance is a form of
(1) Adaptation
(2) Accommodation
(3) Cooperation
(4) Integration
48. Which one is an association ?
(1) Gemeinschaft
(2) Folk Society
(3) Gesellschaft
(4) Tribe
49. According to the following authors, which of the following is not properly matched with respect to meaning of Social Action ?
(1) Mary Richmond – Mass betterment through propaganda and legislation
(2) Maslin – Mass attack on mass problems
(3) Baldwin – Organised effort to change social and economic institutions
(4) Coyle – Change of social environment
50. Match the List with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
51. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given :
52. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given :
53. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given :
54. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given :
55. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given :
56. Match List – I (Area) with List – II (Related issues) and select the correct answers from the codes given below :
57. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given :
58. Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
59. Identify the correct sequence of events :
(1) Impairment, Disease, Handicap, Disability
(2) Disability, Handicap, Disease, Impairment
(3) Handicap, Disability, Impairment, Disease
(4) Disease, Impairment, Disability, Handicap
60. Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
61. Assertion (A) : Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) is a childhood behavioural problem characterized by constant disobedience and hostility.
Reason (R) : ODD is one of a group of behavioural disorders which include conduct disorder and Attention Deficit Hyperactive Disorder (ADHD).
Codes :
(1) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(4) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
62. Assertion (A) : Students receiving counselling show a greater increase in creativity.
Reason (R) : Person giving counselling to students has creative ideas.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
63. Assertion (A) : Social legislation is a decree issued by the government for the removal of certain social evils and for the improvement of social conditions.
Reason (R) : The ultimate aim of social legislation is to bring about social reform in the society.
Codes :
(1) (A) is correct and (R) is not correct.
(2) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
64. Assertion (A) : The socially excluded groups are likely to benefit from the normal process of economic growth.
Reason (R) : Socially excluded groups own resources of various kinds than other sections of poor.
Codes :
(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(2) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
65. Assertion (A) : Weak civil societies are ineffective as a counter weight to state power.
Reason (R) : Inadequate popular participation and governmental transparency and accountability strengthen civil societies.
In the light of the two statements, which of the following is correct ?
(1) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong.
(2) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).
66. Assertion (A) : Social protection is emerging as a key social development policy focusing on social security and poverty reduction.
Reason (R) : A unified approach in response to the perceived increase in the vulnerability of populations cannot improve social protection.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(4) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
67. Arrange the following stages of group development as enunciated by Trecker :
(i) Beginning
(ii) Development of Bond
(iii) Strong group
(iv) Emergence of group feeling
(v) Decline in group feeling
(vi) Ending
Codes :
(1) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii), (v), (vi)
(2) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii), (v), (vi)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v), (vi)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (vi), (v)
68. Arrange the following phases of field work in social work in an order of sequence :
(i) Placement phase
(ii) Orientation phase
(iii) Exploration-Assessment-Action Phase
(iv) Evaluation Phase
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(2) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(3) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(4) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
69. Arrange the following Maslow’s hierarchy of needs in a sequential order :
(i) Social needs
(ii) Physiological needs
(iii) Esteem needs
(iv) Safety needs
(v) Self-actualization needs
Codes :
(1) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii) and (v)
(2) (v), (iii), (i), (iv) and (ii)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(4) (v), (i), (iv), (iii) and (ii)
70. Organise the following steps in intervention research in a sequence :
(i) Identification of objectives
(ii) Problem formulation
(iii) Selection of single subject design
(iv) Intervention strategies
(v) Pre-intervention assessment
(vi) Assessment of intervention effects
(vii) Drawing of conclusions
Codes :
(1) (ii), (i), (iii), (v), (iv), (vi), (vii)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v), (vi), (vii)
(3) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv), (v), (vi), (vii)
(4) (iii), (ii), (i), (v), (iv), (vi), (vii)
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions (71 – 75) as per the understanding of the passage.
Skills and knowledge are the driving forces of economic growth and social development for any country. India currently faces a severe shortage of well-trained, skilled workers. It is estimated that only 2.3% of the workforce in India has undergone formal skill training as compared to 68% in the UK, 75% in Germany, 52% in USA, 80% in Japan and 96% in South Korea. Large sections of the educated workforce have little or no job skills, making them largely unemployable. Therefore, India must focus on scaling up skill training efforts to meet the demands of employers and drive economic growth.
India’s annual skilling capacity was estimated at approximately 7 million during the period 2013-14. Apart from meeting its own demand, India has the potential to provide a skilled workforce to fill the expected shortfall in the ageing developed world. India is one of the youngest nations in the world, with more than 54% of the total population below 25 years of age and over 62% of the population in the working age group (15-59 years). The country’s population pyramid is expected to bulge across the 15-59 age groups over the next decade. This demographic advantage is predicted to last only until 2040. India therefore has a very narrow time frame to harness its demographic dividend and to overcome its skill shortages.
The enormity of India’s skilling challenge is further aggravated by the fact that skill training efforts cut across multiple sectors and require the involvement of diverse stakeholders such as : multiple government departments at the centre and state levels, private training providers, educational and training institutions, employers, industry
associations, assessment and certification bodies and trainees. All these stakeholders need to align their work together in order to achieve the target of ‘Skill India’.
The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship was set up in November 2014 to drive the ‘Skill India’ agenda in a ‘Mission Mode’ in order to converge existing skill training initiatives and combine scale and quality of skilling efforts, with speed. The Ministry, therefore, proposes to launch the National Skill Development Mission, which will provide the overall institutional framework to rapidly implement and scale up skill development efforts across India. The vision, objectives and design of the Mission, draw on the lessons learnt from the implementation of skill development efforts over the past decade. It seeks to provide the institutional capacity to train a minimum of 300 million skilled people by the year 2022.
71. Why India must focus on scaling up skill training efforts ?
(a) Meeting the demands of employers
(b) Scaling up economic growth
(c) Providing a skilled workforce to ageing developed world
(d) Striving for social cohesion
Codes :
(1) (a) only
(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
72. As per paragraph, which one of the following is not stakeholder of skill training efforts ?
(1) Government departments
(2) General masses
(3) Employers
(4) Industry Associations
73. Why India is one of the youngest nations in the world ?
(1) More than half of the population below 25 years of age.
(2) Young population have no skills.
(3) Young people in India are unemployed.
(4) Young people in India are not tolerant.
74. Which one of the following countries has maximum workforce undergone for formal skill training ?
(1) UK
(2) Germany
(3) USA
(4) South Korea
75. What efforts have been mentioned in paragraph for boosting up ‘Skill India’ agenda ?
(a) Aligning of stakeholders
(b) Working in ‘Mission Mode’
(c) Converging existing skill initiatives
(d) Seeking people’s participation
Codes :
(1) (a) and (d) only
(2) (a), (b) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
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