LAW
PAPER – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using codes given below the lists :
2. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below :
Assertion (A) : A State made law on any matter of Concurrent List prevails notwithstanding any repugnancy with an earlier law made by the Parliament.
Reason (R) : The Parliament can make a law, on any matter in the Concurrent List that prevails over any repugnant state law.
Codes :
(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(4) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
3. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The President of India has a right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India on a question of law or fact has arisen or likely to arise, which is of such nature and of such public importance.
Reason (R) : The Constitution of India makes it obligatory for the President to accept the advice rendered by the Supreme Court of India.
Codes :
(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
4. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using codes given below the lists :
5. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using codes given below the lists :
6. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below :
Assertion (A) : An accused person is guaranteed under the Constitution of India the right to be informed of the nature and cause of his accusation.
Reason (R) : The accused person has to be produced before the nearest District Judge within twenty four hours.
Codes :
(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(4) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
7. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Subject to anything in this Constitution, Parliament may in exercise of its constituent power amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of this Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid
down in this article.
Reason (R) : Above statement is Article 368(1) of the Indian Constitution.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(3) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
(4) (R) is wrong, but (A) is right.
8. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below :
Assertion (A) : No person to be eligible for election in, or to claim to be included in a special electoral roll on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex.
Reason (R) : Above statement is title of Article 325 of the Indian Constitution.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason for (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(3) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
(4) (R) is wrong, but (A) is right.
9. Discretion, when applied to a court of justice, means sound discretion guided by law. It must be governed by rule, not by humour; it must not be arbitrary, vague and fanciful but legal and regular. This observation was made in
(1) Union of India V. Kuldeep Singh
(2) Reliance Airport Developers (P) Ltd. V. Airports Authority of India.
(3) Maneka Gandhi V. Union of India
(4) National Insurance Co. Ltd V. Keshav Bahadur
10. Under which of the following condition(s) a writ of mandamus can be granted ? Give correct answer by using the codes
a. There must be a public duty.
b. There must be a specific demand and refusal.
c. There must be a clear right to enforce the duty.
d. The right must be subsisting on the date of the petition.
Codes :
(1) All a, b, c and d are correct.
(2) Only a, b and c are correct.
(3) Only a and c are correct.
(4) Only a and b are correct.
11. In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court made it explicit that ‘even when the authority has statutory power to take action without hearing, it would be arbitrary to take action without hearing and, thus, violative of Article 14 of the Constitution’ ?
(1) A.K. Kraipak V. Union of India
(2) Union of India V. Satish Chandra
(3) A.K. Roy V. State of Punjab
(4) H.L. Trehan V. Union of India
12. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
13. Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below :
Assertion (A) : A writ of prohibition can be issued on the same grounds on which the writ of certiorari can be issued except in case of an error of law apparent on the face of the record.
Reason (R) : A writ of certiorari is issued at a stage when proceedings are in progress, to forbid the authority from continuing the proceedings whereas a writ of prohibition is issued at a stage when the authority has given a final
decision, to quash the decision.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
14. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
15. The appointment of Chairperson of Lokpal shall be made by the President after obtaining the recommendation of a selection committee consisting of
(1) The Prime Minister; The Speaker of the House of the People and the Chief Justice of India.
(2) The Prime Minister; The Speaker of the House of the People; The leader of opposition in the House of the people.
(3) The Prime Minister; The Leader of opposition in the House of the People and one eminent jurist to be nominated by the President.
(4) The Prime Minister; The Speaker of the House of the People, The Leader of opposition in the House of the People, The Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by him and one eminent jurist to be nominated by the President.
16. “Law is not only a set of rules but is a method or technique for harmonizing conflicting interests.” This statement is of
(1) Auguste Comte
(2) Herbert Spencer
(3) Roscoe Pound
(4) Leon Duguit
17. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
18. Which one of the following requisites is not necessary to be fulfilled for a custom to be valid and operative as a source of law ?
(1) Reasonableness
(2) Conformity with statute law
(3) Immemorial antiquity
(4) May not have been practiced continuously
19. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
20. If ‘A’ leaves his car with the driver, the driver’s possession will be
(1) Immediate whereas that of ‘A’ would be mediate.
(2) Mediate whereas that of ‘A’ would be immediate.
(3) Incorporeal whereas that of ‘A’ would be corporeal.
(4) Corporeal whereas that of ‘A’ would be incorporeal.
21. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The legislature can forge a sledge-hammer capable of cracking open the corporate shell.
Reason (R) : Corporate personality cannot be used as a shield to harm national interest.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
22. Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The most important power of an owner is the right to exclude others.
Reason (R) : The owner may grant to another many of his rights and yet remain owner.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
23. “Law is a social engineering to remove the existing imbalance and to further the progress, serving the needs of the Socialist Democratic Bharat under the rule of Law.” This was the observation of Justice K. Ramaswami in
(1) Delhi Transport Corp. V. D.T.C. Mazdoor Congress
(2) Indra Sawhney V. Union of India
(3) State of Karnataka V. Appa Balu Ingale
(4) Parmanand Kataria V. Union of India
24. In which of the crimes retributive theory strikes the moral blameworthiness of the offender to punish him ?
(1) Clamping prohibitory orders
(2) Sexual harassment at workplace
(3) Wilful attempt to defame
(4) Common intention to commit riot
25. In which of the circumstances the defense of necessity involves a collusion of interest and the consequential judgement of values ?
(1) Stealing to avert hungers
(2) Absolute necessity for self-preservation
(3) Private homicide for keeping up the honour
(4) Acts done against anarchy
26. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and using the codes given below choose the appropriate answer.
Assertion (A) : The apprehension of use of criminal force must emanate from the gesture of a person to attract punishment.
Reason (R) : Mere advancing with a threatening attitude will not amount to criminal force.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are contradictory to each other.
(2) (A) is correct while (R) is not the cause of it.
(3) (A) is incorrect while (R) is appropriate.
(4) (A) is correct while (R) is the cause of it.
27. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and using the codes given below write the correct answer.
Assertion (A) : In a case of attempt to rape there must be an indecent assault or action with any resistance from the victim.
Reason (R) : There was some action which shows that he was going to have sexual connection with her.
Codes :
(1) (R) is correct explanation of (A) and both (A) and (R) are complementary to each other.
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not complementary to (A).
(3) (A) and (R) have no legal standing in view of change of burden of proof.
(4) (R) is essential to formulate (A) otherwise there may not be a crime.
28. Which of the factors fall under the limits within which the right of private defense should be exercised ?
(1) Where there is time to have recourse to the protection of the public authorities.
(2) When a public servant performs an act in good faith.
(3) An act committed strictly in conformity with law.
(4) Where the act was irregular and outside the scope of power.
29. Dacoity with murder creates co-extensive responsibility of each participant because
(1) Collective liability is the core-essence whether it was culminated suddenly or not.
(2) Mere non-participation in dacoity will not exempt from criminal liability since there was pre-concert.
(3) Planning was to commit only dacoity, but another person, for earlier enemity, abetted to commit murder while there was no common object.
(4) There must be one or more participants for the constructive action by each member.
30. What offence, if any, has been committed by a married woman giving free consent to her own abduction ?
(1) Abetting her own abduction
(2) Criminal conspiracy for abduction
(3) No criminal liability against her as the acts was not committed in deceitful manner.
(4) Attempt to abduction when there was failure to obtain clear consent.
31. A young man waves a currency note of rupees one thousand in front of a woman as if he offers the money for an indecent favour from the woman, he may be criminally booked under
(1) Section 506 of IPC
(2) Section 507 of IPC
(3) Section 508 of IPC
(4) Section 509 of IPC
32. One of the following International Convention is not related to wild life conservation.
Give the correct answer :
(1) Convention on International Trade In Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora.
(2) Convention on Environmental Impact Assessment in Transboundary Context.
(3) Convention on Migratory Species of Wild Animals.
(4) Convention on International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources.
33. The Montreal Protocol is related to
(1) Transboundary Air pollution
(2) Ozone Layer
(3) Climate change
(4) Hazardous waste
34. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Over 200 central and state statutes which have atleast some concern with environmental protection, either directly or indirectly have unfortunately not resulted in preventing environmental degradation, on
the contrary has increased over the years.
Reason (R) : Unless the Government policy is backed by adequate budgetary allocation, changes to the statutory regime and a bureaucratic will, the government’s intention are apt to remain on paper.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(4) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
35. Match List – I and List – II and find correct answer by using codes given below :
36. Give correct answer by using codes given below :
The Environmental approach has led the Supreme Court to derive, adopt and apply a range of principles to guide the development of environmental jurisprudence. Notable amongst the fundamental norms recognised by the court are
a. Every person enjoys the right to a wholesome environment, which is a facet of the right to life guaranteed under Art. 21 of the Constitution.
b. Enforcement agencies are under an obligation to strictly enforce environmental laws.
c. Government agencies may not plead non-availability of funds, inadequacy of staff or other insufficiencies to justify the non-performance of their obligations under environmental laws.
d. Stringent action ought to be taken against contumacious defaulters and persons who carry on industrial or development activity for profit without regard to environmental laws.
Codes :
(1) only a and b
(2) only a, b and c
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) only a
37. In which of the following case the Supreme Court after referring to International Covenant of Civil and Political Rights and Universal Declaration of Human Rights observed that, “It is almost an accepted proposition of law that rule of customary international law which are not contrary to the Municipal Law shall deemed to be incorporated in the domestic law” ?
(1) M.C. Mehta V. Union of India
(2) Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra V. State of U.P.
(3) P.U.C.L. V. Union of India
(4) Church of God (Full Gospels) in India V. K.K.R. Majestic Colony Welfare Association
38. Which one of the following is correct ?
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1981 was enacted
(1) by the Parliament under Art 252 (1) of the Constitution after securing enabling resolution from the States.
(2) by the Parliament invoking the power under Art 253 to make laws implementing decisions taken at International Conferences.
(3) by the states, as the executive functions under the Air Act are carried out by the State Pollution Control Board.
(4) by the Parliament based on the directions given by the Supreme Court.
39. Which of the following pair/pairs is/are correctly matched ? Give correct answer by using the codes given below :
i. J.G. Starke – An Introduction to International Law
ii. Hackworth – Digest of International Law
iii. J.L. Brierly – The Changing Structure of International Law.
iv. W. Friedman – The Basis of Obligation in International Law.
Codes :
(1) only ii
(2) i and ii both
(3) i, ii and iii
(4) i, ii, iii and iv
40. In which of the following cases the International Court of Justice pointed out that when in regard to any matter or practice, two states follow it repeatedly for a long time, it becomes a binding customary rule ?
(1) West Rand Central Gold Mining Company Ltd., V. R. Case
(2) South West Africa Case
(3) Right of Passage over Indian Territory Case (Portugal V. India)
(4) North Sea Continental Shelf Case
41. In International law a good example of the application of the principle sovereignty is the “Theory of Auto Limitation”. According to this theory, states follow International law because they have by their consent reduced their powers. This principle is based on the principle of state sovereignty. The chief exponent of this principle was
(1) only Anzilotti
(2) Anzilotti and Triepel both
(3) Salmond
(4) Max Huber
42. Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect ? Give correct answer by using the codes given below :
I. “Subjugation” is a mode of ‘acquisition’ of Nationality under the International Law.
II. Stock V. The Public Trustee is a case related to Double Nationality.
III. Articles 3 to 6 of the Hague Convention of 1930 provide the provisions for solving the problem of Double Nationality of married women.
IV. “Cession” is a mode of ‘Loss’ of Nationality under the International Law.
Codes :
(1) only II is incorrect.
(2) I, II and III are incorrect.
(3) II, III and IV are incorrect.
(4) I, II, III and IV all are incorrect.
43. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The General Assembly is one of the principal organ of the United Nations which consists of all the members of United Nations.
Reason (R) : The Resolutions or Declaration of the General Assembly are not binding upon the States. They are merely recommendations.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct individually, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(4) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
44. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists :
45. Which of the following pair/pairs is/are not correctly matched ? Give correct answer by using the codes given below :
i. Composition of the Security Council of U.N. – Article 23 of the U.N. Charter
ii. Composition of the Economic and Social Council – Article 61 of the U.N. Charter
iii. Composition of the General Assembly of the United Nations – Article 86 of the U.N. Charter
iv. Composition of Trusteeship Council – Article 28 of the U.N. Charter
Codes :
(1) only iv
(2) iii and iv both
(3) i, ii and iii
(4) i, ii, iii and iv all
46. Match List – I and List – II and find correct answer by using the codes given below :
47. A marriage solemnized between any two Hindus who are Sapindas of each other shall be
(1) Valid, if the custom or usage governing any of them permits a marriage between the two.
(2) Valid, if the custom or usage governing each of them permits a marriage between the two.
(3) Voidable, if the custom or usage governing each of them permits a marriage between the two.
(4) Void, if the custom or usage governing each of them permits a marriage between the two.
48. Read the following and give correct answer with the help of codes given below :
A married Hindu female can adopt a child
i. Only with the consent of her husband.
ii. In case of void marriage, consent of husband is necessary.
iii. In case of voidable marriage, consent of husband is not necessary.
iv. If husband has converted to Muslim religion, his consent is not necessary.
Codes :
(1) i and iv are correct, but ii and iii are incorrect.
(2) i, iii and iv are correct, but ii is incorrect.
(3) ii and iv are correct, but i and iii are incorrect.
(4) iv and ii are correct, but iii and i are incorrect.
49. Which of the following is not a ground of divorce available to wife under section 13(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ?
(1) Pre-Act bigamy of the husband
(2) Repudiation of marriage
(3) Cruelty by the husband
(4) Husband is guilty of rape, sodomy and bestiality
50. Read the following statements and give correct answer with the help of codes given below :
i. A Muslim woman can marry a Kitabi.
ii. A Shia male can contract ‘Muta’ with a fire worshipper.
iii. Marriage of a Muslim woman with a Hindu would be irregular.
iv. A Muslim man cannot marry with his niece.
Codes :
(1) i and ii are correct, but iii and iv are incorrect.
(2) ii and iii are correct, but i and iv are incorrect.
(3) iii and iv are correct, but i and ii are incorrect.
(4) ii and iv are correct, but i and iii are incorrect.
51. Read the following statements in the light of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 and give correct answer with the help of codes given below :
i. The obligation of husband to maintain his wife is co-extensive with his property.
ii. Sec. 18(2) provides for maintenance and separate residence of wife in some conditions.
iii. Father-in-law’s obligation to maintain widowed-daughter-in-law is a personal obligation.
iv. An unchaste and non-Hindu wife is not entitled to maintenance.
Codes :
(1) i and iv are correct, but ii and iii are incorrect.
(2) ii and iv are correct, but i and iii are incorrect.
(3) iii and iv are correct, but i and ii are incorrect.
(4) i and iii are correct, but ii and iv are incorrect.
52. Which of the following is not a ground of divorce under section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 ?
(1) 7 years imprisonment to the husband
(2) Failure of the husband to pay maintenance for the last two years.
(3) Whereabouts of the husband have not been known for a period of 3 years.
(4) Failure of the husband to perform, without reasonable cause, his marital obligations for a period of three years.
53. Which of the following are not available to a Hindu husband as grounds of Judicial Separation ?
Answer with the help of codes given below :
i. Extra marital sex by wife
ii. Conversion of wife to a non-Hindu religion
iii. Wife’s pre-marriage pregnancy
iv. Non consummation of marriage owing to impotence of wife.
Codes :
(1) i and ii only
(2) ii and iii only
(3) iv and i only
(4) iii and iv only
54. Which Article of the U.N. Charter charges the U.N. to promote “Universal respect for, and observance of, human rights and fundamental freedoms for all without distinction as to sex, race, language or religion” ?
(1) Article 56
(2) Article 55(c)
(3) Article 62
(4) Article 76(c)
55. Match List – I and List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
56. Which of the following pair/pairs is/are not correctly matched ? Give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
i. The World Conference on Human Rights was held at Vienna – Year 1993
ii. International Conference on Human Rights at Tehran was held – Year 1958
iii. First World Conference on Women was held on Beijing in – 1985
iv. International Convention on Elimination of all forms of Racial Discrimination – 1973
Codes :
(1) only ii
(2) i and ii
(3) ii, iii and iv
(4) i, ii, iii and iv
57. Which of the following has commented on the legal significance of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights thus, “The declaration is merely a statement of principles, not a legally binding instrument; but it has become one of the best known international documents, and it has been often referred to in resolutions of the U.N., the Specialised
Agencies, regional arrangements and other International Organisations, and in national constitutions; legislation and court decision. It is a beacon light for all mankind even though it has been honoured more often in the breach than in the observance” ?
(1) Starke
(2) H. Lauterpacht
(3) Oppenheim
(4) Palmer and Perkins
58. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The Universal Declaration of Human Rights does not define the term ‘Human Rights’. It refers them as “the equal and inalienable rights of all members of the Humanity”.
Reason (R) : The framers of the Indian Constitution were influenced by the concept of Human Rights and guaranteed most of the Human Rights contained in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(4) (A) is wrong, but (R) is true.
59. To which of the following International Conventions on Human Rights, India has become party to such conventions ? Give correct answer with the help of codes given below :
i. Convention on the Political Rights of Women.
ii. Convention on the Right of the Child.
iii. Convention for the Suppression of the Traffic in Person and of exploitation of the prostitution of others.
iv. Convention on International Recovery of Child Support and Other Forms of Family Maintenance.
Codes :
(1) only i
(2) i and iv only
(3) i, ii and iii
(4) i, ii, iii and iv all
60. Match List – I and List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
61. In which among the following cases malice becomes relevant to determine a person’s liability in law of torts. Answer by using codes below :
a. Malice may result in aggravation of damages.
b. In torts of decit and conspiracy one of the essential is malice.
c. When act is lawful, intention can be gathered from past circumstances.
d. Causing of personal comfort by lawful means may turn lawful act into a tort.
Codes :
(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, b, c and d
62. Match List – I (Maxims) with List – II (Cases) and give correct answer by using codes given below :
63. In which of following cases originator of defamatory statement will be liable for the damage resulting from repetitive publication by third persons ? Answer by using codes below :
a. He himself authorized repetition.
b. Repetition was the natural and probable consequence of his act.
c. There was immoral obligation on the person in whose presence the slander was made to repeat it.
d. There was moral obligation on the person in whose absence the slander was made to repeat it.
Codes :
(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) a and d
(4) b and d
64. Which of the following is true in relation to nuisance ?
(1) An action for nuisance is actionable per se and no special damage need to be proved.
(2) It can be committed through the medium of intangible objects.
(3) It is direct interference with the possession of plaintiff.
(4) There is no interference with plaintiff’s use or enjoyment of land.
65. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using codes below :
Assertion (A) : The law takes no cognizance of carelessness in the abstract.
Reason (R) : Cause of action for negligence accrues when damage that is real damage is suffered.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is right explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not right explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
(4) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
66. Which of the following is not correct in relation to the Consumer Protection Act ?
(1) It extends to whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
(2) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may by notification appoint.
(3) This Act shall be in addition to and not in derogation of provisions of any other law for the time being in force.
(4) This Act shall overside the provisions of Sale of Goods Act.
67. What is the period of limitation to file a complaint before the Consumer Dispute Redressal Agencies ?
(1) Within one year from the date of cause of action.
(2) Within two years from the date of cause of action.
(3) Within three years from the date of cause of action.
(4) No limitation period to file a complaint.
68. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using codes below :
Assertion (A) : Salary drawn by a partner from the firm for his services rendered to it has been treated different from his right to get an additional amount in the form of salary as his share of the firm’s profit.
Reason (R) : Because R.M. Chidambaram Pillai Vs. Commissioner of Income tax case laid down above principle.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason for (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(3) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
(4) (R) is right, but (A) is wrong.
69. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
70. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Partner of an erstwhile unregistered partnership firm can bring a suit to enforce a right arising out of a contract falling within the ambit of section 69 of the Indian Partnership Act.
Reason (R) : Because Judgement in case of Loonkaran Sethia Vs. Ivan E. John laid down above judicial principle.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason for (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(3) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
(4) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
71. Which of the following statement is correct according to section 2(9) of the Sale of Goods Act ?
“Mercantile Agent” means a mercantile agent
(1) having in the usual course of business as such seller authority either to sell goods, or to consign goods for the purpose of sale, or to buy goods, or to distribute money for security of goods.
(2) having in the customary business as such agent power either to sell goods, or to mortgage goods for purpose of sale.
(3) having in the customary course of business as such agent authority to sell goods.
(4) having in the normal course of business as such agent authority to confine goods or to raise goods for purpose of the security of money.
72. Which of the following statements are correct. Answer using the codes given below :
a. Ascertainment of goods for sale is done by buyer.
b. Appropriation of goods for sale is done by seller.
c. Distinction between ascertainment of goods and appropriation of goods that former involves “the element of common intention between buyer and seller”, whereas later can be a unilateral act by buyer.
d. Property in goods does not pass to buyer till appropriation.
Codes :
(1) only a, c and d are correct.
(2) only b is correct.
(3) only d is correct.
(4) only c is correct.
73. Which of the following are presumptions as to a negotiable instrument under section 118 of the Negotiable Instruments Act ? Answer using codes given below :
a. Presumption of contractual capacity
b. Presumption of consideration
c. Presumption of maturity of instrument
d. Presumption of date
Codes :
(1) only a and c
(2) only b and d
(3) only a and d
(4) only a and b
74. Which of the following statement is correct ? Answer using codes given below :
a. Doctrine of indoor management apply in case of knowledge of irregularity in company.
b. Doctrine of indoor management does not apply in case of suspicion of irregularity.
c. Doctrine of indoor management apply in case of forgery.
d. Doctrine of indoor management does not apply if the act of an officer of a company is one which would ordinarily be beyond the powers of such an officer.
Codes :
(1) only a is correct.
(2) only b is correct.
(3) only c is correct.
(4) only d is correct.
75. Find answer by using codes given below :
Director may be removed by
a. Other Directors
b. Creditors
c. Central Government
d. Shareholders in a general meeting
Codes :
(1) only a and b are correct.
(2) only b and c are correct.
(3) only c and d are correct.
(4) only d and a are correct.
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