IBPS Bank Clerk CWE IInd Sitting Held on 27-11-2011
Test I
Test of Reasoning
1. In a certain code, ‘BUILT’ is written as ‘5#32@’ and ‘TRIBIE’ is written as ‘@935©’. How is “RULE’ written in that code?
(1) 9#2©
(2) 92#©
(3) @2#©
(4) @2#©
(5) None of these
2. How many meaningful English words can be formed, starting with S, with the second, the fourth, the fifth and eighth letters of the word PERISHED, using each letter only once in each word? (to be counted from left)
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
3. The positions of how many digits in the number 837912 will remain unchanged after the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order? (from left to right)
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word STREAMING each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
5. In a certain code, ‘CLEAR’ is written as ‘SBFMD’ and ‘BONDS’ is written as ‘TEOPC’. How is ‘STALE’ written in that code?
(1) DKZSR
(2) BUTFM
(3) TUBMF
(4) FMBUT
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) Study the following arrangement of numbers, letters and symbols carefully and answer the questions given below :
R @ 2 9 T V A Y 5 © # J 1 P 8 Q $ E 3 ⋆ H % 6 W 4 I δ U Z
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) JP ©
(2) EQ⋆
(3) WI%
(4) 9V@
(5) 1#δ
7. Which of the following is the fifth to the right of the nineteenth element from the right end ?
(1) P
(2) V
(3) W
(4) 8
(5) None of these
8. How many such numbers are there in the given arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a symbol?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four
9. If the positions of the last eighteen elements in the given arrangement are reversed, which of the following will be the seventeenth from the left end?
(1) E
(2) P
(3) W
(4) 6
(5) None of these
10. How many such vowels are there in the given arrangement, each of which is either immediately followed by a symbol or immediately preceded by a symbol?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Four
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre not necessarily in the same order. F is fourth to the left of A and second to the right of C. B is second to the left of A, and A is to the immediate right of G. E who is not an immediate neighbour of B is fourth to the left of D.
11. Which of the following is correct?
(1) F is third to the left of B
(2) H is third to the left of D
(3) C is third to the left of B
(4) E is third to the left of F
(5) All are correct
12. What is H’s position with respect to G?
(1) Fifth to the right
(2) Third to the left
(3) Third to the right
(4) Fifth to the left
(5) Fourth to the left
13. Who is second to the right of E?
(1) C
(2) H
(3) G
(4) A
(5) Data inadequate
14. Who is to the immediate right of F?
(1) D
(2) H
(3) B
(4) C
(5) None of these
15. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of A?
(1) EB
(2) GC
(3) EG
(4) ED
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) In the following questions, the symbols ©, δ, $, ⋆ and % are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
‘P δ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’.
‘P ⋆ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.
Now in each of the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?
Given answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true
Given answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true
Given answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II true
Given answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
Given answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II are true
16. Statements R $ J, J % M, M © K
Conclusions I. K © J II. K ⋆ J
17. Statements D δ R, M $ R, M © F
Conclusions I. F $ D II. F $ R
18. Statements H © F, F $ R, R ⋆ K
Conclusions I. R ⋆ H II. K $ F
19. Statements B % D, D ⋆ T, T δ R
Conclusions I. B $ T II. R $ D
20. Statements M % N, N ⋆ A, A $ B
Conclusions I. B ⋆ N II. A $ M
Directions (Q. Nos. 21-25) Each of the questions below consist of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Given answer (1) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
Given answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
Given answer (3) if the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
Given answer (4) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
Given answer (5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
21. Village P is towards which direction of village R?
I. Village R is to the South-East of village T and T is to the North of village P.
II. Village Q is to the South of village P and to the South-West of village R.
22. Who among A, B, C, D and E, each having a different height, is the third tallest?
I. E is shorter than only B.
II. C is taller than only A.
23. How many sister does K have?
I. M is sister of K.
II. K’s mother has three children.
24. In a row of thirty students facing North, what is R’s position from the left end?
I. There are twelve students between R and Q.
II. T is tenth from the right end and there are sixteen students between T and R.
25. How is ‘go’ written in a code language?
I. ‘go over there’ is written as ‘pa da na’ in that code language,
II. ‘go and sit’ is written as ‘sa ka pa’ in that code language.
Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below
Following are the conditions for selecting Accounts Officer in an organization :
The candidate must
(i) be at least 21 yr and not more than 26 yr as on 1.11.2011.
(ii) be a commerce graduate (B. Com.) with at least 55% aggregate marks.
(iii) have work experience of at least 2 yr in the Accounts Department of an organization.
(iv) have secured at least 50% marks in the Selection Process.
In the case of a candidate who fulfils all the conditions except
(a) at (i) above but at least 21 yr old and not more than 28 yr old and has work experience of 5 yr as Accounts Assistant in organization, his/her case is to be referred to GM-Accounts.
(b) at (ii) above, but has secured at least 50% aggregate marks in graduation and has secured at least 55% marks in the selection process, his/her case is to be referred to VP-Accounts.
In each question below, details of one candidate are provided. You have to take one of the following courses of actions based on the condition given above and the information provided in each question and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.11.2011.
Mark answer (1) if the case is to be referred to GM-Accounts
Mark answer (2) if the case is to be referred to VP-Accounts
Mark answer (3) if the candidate is to be selected
Mark answer (4) if the candidate is not to be selected
Mark answer (5) if the data provided are inadequate to take a decision
Now, read the information provided in each question and mark your answer accordingly.
26. Umesh Choksi was born on 25th November, 1989. He has secured 60% aggregate marks in B. Com. and 65% marks in the Selection Process. He has been working in the Accounts Department of an organization for the past 3 yr
27. Pratibha Kale was born on 6th June, 1988. She has secured 60% aggregate marks in B.Com. and 49% marks in the Selection Process. She has been working in the Accounts Department of an organization for the past 3 yr.
28. Arun Patil has secured 55% aggregate marks in graduation. He has been working for past 4 yr in the Accounts Department of an organization. He has secured 50% marks in the Selection Process. He was born on 12th July, 1988.
29. Prabha Dixit was born on 18th April, 1985. She has been working as Accounts Assistant in organization for the past 5 yr. She has secured 60% aggregate marks in B.Com. and 55% marks in the Selection Process.
30. Amul Verma has secured 50% aggregate marks in B.Com. and 60% marks in the Selection Process. He has been working in the Account Department of an organization for past 4 yr. He was born on 2nd January, 1987.
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below
P, Q, R< S, T, V and W are seven friends. Each of them likes a particular fruit, viz. Apple, Banana, Pear, Guava, Orange, Mango and Watermelon and each of them has a favourite city, viz, Mumbai, Pune, Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Hyderabad and Cochin. The choices of fruit and favourite city of the seven friends are necessarily in the same order.
Q likes Mango and his favourite city is Chennai. The one whose favourite city is Pune likes Watermelon. T’s favourite city is Kolkata. R likes Guava and his favourite city is not Mumbai. W’s favourite city is Cochin and he does not like either Banana or Pear. The favourite city of the one who likes Orange is Hyderabad. T does not like Pear. P’s favourite city is neither Pune nor Hyderabad. S does not like Watermelon.
31. Who likes Apple?
(1) W
(2) T
(3) V
(4) P
(5) Data inadequate
32. Which fruit does P like?
(1) Apple
(2) Orange
(3) Pear
(4) Watermelon
(5) None of these
33. Which is R’s favourite city?
(1) Mumbai
(2) Pune
(3) Hyderabad
(4) Delhi
(5) None of these
34. Which of the following combinations of Person-Fruit-City is incorrect?
(1) R-Guava-Kolkata
(2) V-Watermelon-Hyderabad
(3) T-Banana-Cochin
(4) S-Guava-Delhi
(5) All are incorrect
35. Which is V’s favourite city?
(1) Hyderabad
(2) Pune
(3) Mumbai
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 36-40) In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusion numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically commonly follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Given answer (1) if only conclusion I follows
Given answer (2) if only conclusion II follows
Given answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows
Given answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows
Given answer (5) if both conclusions I and II follows
36. Statements Some gears are wheels. All wheels are brakes.
Conclusions
I. No brake is gear. II. At least some gears are brakes.
37. Statements No month is year. no year is second.
Conclusions
I. All months are seconds. II. No second is month.
38. Statements No plane is hill. Some hills are towns.
Conclusions
I. No town is plane. II. Some towns are plane.
39. Statements No plane is hill. Some hills are towns.
Conclusions
I. All metals are gases. II. At least some gases are liquids.
40. Statements Some cities are towns. Some villages are cities.
Conclusions
I. At least some villages are towns. II. No village is a town.
Directions (Q. Nos. 41-50) In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures come after the problem figures if the sequence were continued?
41. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
42. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
43. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
44. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
45. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
46. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
47. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
48. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
49. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
50. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
Test II
Test of English Language
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-65) Read the following passage to answer the given question based on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help yo locate them while answering some of the questions.
A Russian proverb advises us not to buy a house, but the neighbourhood. While till some years ago it was impossible to dictate who lived with you in the same quarters, today when you think of buying a home, you could actually create your own dream neighbourhood – thanks to the Internet and the group buying model.
The group buying model has been applied in different industries, from cars to baby merchandise to pet care products. Now, the trend is catching on in the real estate sector, with many sites as well as broking firms offering group deals on real estate projects in India.
The way it works is simple. Take xx.com for example. This is an online and offline integrated platform which showcases property. It uses social media networks to let buyers know about possible good deals, and leaving it to them to do some viral marketing. Once a large group of buyers is thus formed, xx.com introduces it to the developer and helps negotiate a suitable discount.
Since, the developer doesn’t have to pay for the marketing. it is willing enough to pay these companies a transaction fee which is a percentage of the total value of the deal. For the buyers, it offers the best rates at no fee, thus making it a win-win proposition for all involved.
The developers also benefit by getting substantial cash flow, giving them a good amount of working capital. “In today’s real estate scenario, bulk buying could be the answer to the market slump and the long awaited cash flow,” says the Founder of xxx.com.
Sometimes, the discount size is not to be sneered at. Discounts on group buying vary from 5-30 per cent, the average divergence from market rate being 25-30 per cent
Customer ‘buy-in’ is the model. But is it a temporary fad ?
In a way, the online group buying set-up is similar to the model developers share with speculators, who buy in bulk even before the project gets kick-started and get discounts of 30-40 per cent. They developers as they get away with providing lesser discounts than to speculators.
Some sound a note of caution on the trend. Present conditions are conducive for this business model as group buying works well in a situation where stocks are moving slowly, markets are jittery and there is ample supply. It may not work in a seller’s market.
Another caution is – Very often the builders do not offer the best inventory to the group in terms of location and utility. The buyers have to use their astute judgement to avoid such traps.
51. The discount size on group buying, compared to usual discount to speculators is usually
(1) less
(2) more
(3) equal
(4) unpredictable
(5) much higher
52. Which of the following may be the objective of the passage?
(1) To reveal less discounts being offered by the developers
(2) To highlight the problems of housing industry
(3) To highlight the importance of neighbourhood in one’s life
(4) To provide information on group buying trends of property
(5) To inform the buyers about ample supply of property
53. Group buying of real estate is done
(1) mainly offline
(2) only offline
(3) only through brokers
(4) either online or offline
(5) in a secret manner only
54. com are the
(1) developers
(2) financiers
(3) loan providers
(4) speculators
(5) None of these
55. The group buying model certainly did not start with
(1) cars
(2) real estate
(3) pet care products
(4) baby products
(5) motorcycles
56. Which of the following best describes the meaning of the Russian proverb being quoted?
(1) It is better to rent a house than to buy it
(2) Don’t buy a single flat, buy multiple flats
(3) Fools build houses, wise-people live in them
(4) Buy house after negotiating the deal
(5) None of the above
57. Which of the following one of the question posed in the passage?
(1) Is group-buying model a temporary fad ?
(2) Is the builder offering you the best inventory ?
(3) Should we buy a house or the neighbourhood ?
(4) Are present market conditions conducive for this business ?
(5) Speculators vs Group Buyers ?
58. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?
(1) The buyers, though have to pay higher fee and price, get their dream neighbourhood
(2) The customer ‘buy-in’ model is not dependant on market conditions
(3) Group buying companies don’t buy with the same objective as that of speculators
(4) The builder/developers offer the best available property to the group buyers
(5) The speculators generally pay 30-40 per cent of the property value upfront even before the project gets started
59. In which of the following situations, Customer ‘buy-in’ model may not work ?
(1) Buyer’s market
(2) When markets are booming with ample supply
(3) When there is short supply
(4) When houses are comparatively cheap
(5) It is a mode for all seasons
60. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage ?
(1) The speculators also buy in bulk
(2) Social media network is used for marketing group buying
(3) The group buying companies take a transaction fee from both buyers as well as developers
(4) The speculators get a better deal in terms of discounts as compared to that of other group buying companies
(5) The present conditions, as given in the passage, are not so good for developers of real estate
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-63) :Choose the word(s) which is most nearly the same in meaning of the word/group of words printed in bold, as used in the passage.
61. Dictate
(1) Read
(2) Manipulate
(3) Speak
(4) Wish
(5) Control
62. Catching on
(1) Continue on
(2) Get interested
(3) Enthusiastic about
(4) become popular
(5) Get involved
63. Fad
(1) Period
(2) Trend
(3) Focus
(4) Luxury
(5) Face
Directions (Q. Nos. 64-65) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold, as used in the passage
64. Astute
(1) Intelligent
(2) Sharp
(3) Insider
(4) Statute
(5) Naive
65. Integrated
(1) Inorganic
(2) Refreshed
(3) Isolated
(4) Volatile
(5) Impersonal
Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required; mark (5) as the answer.
66. He behaved though it was his fault, but we knew he was not responsible for it.
(1) even though it was
(2) though it was not
(3) as if it was
(4) despite it was not
(5) No correction required
67. She never felt that it was not of her business to get involved in somebody else’s family matter.
(1) were not of her business
(2) was none of her business
(3) was of not her business
(4) was not of her businesses
(5) No correction required
68. Being born in a certain family is not in our control.
(1) Be born
(2) Taking born
(3) By birth
(4) Being borned
(5) No correction required
69. I was taken back by his sudden comment on this issue.
(1) would be taken back by
(2) was taken backwards by
(3) was taken back for
(4) was taken aback by
(5) No correction required
70. In a matter of seconds, we come to know of what is happening anywhere in the world.
(1) came to know of
(2) come to be known of
(3) come to know off
(4) are coming to know of
(5) No correction required
Directions (Q. Nos. 71-75) In each of the questions, two sentences I and II are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer.
71. I. He is ……. with whatever little he has.
II. They kept the ………… the communication a secret.
(1) happy
(2) matter
(3) gist
(4) content
(5) sense
72. I. It is hard to believe the …..…..of operations involved in this activity.
II. The map is drawn to a ……… of 1 inch to 50 km.
(1) magnitude
(2) size
(3) scale
(4) proportion
(5) significance
73. I. Heavy snow did ………. the rescue efforts.
II. The food was kept in a ….… .
(1) delay
(2) bundle
(3) basket
(4) hamper
(5) holder
74. I. They left ……… after breakfast.
II. It is difficult to find a …………… person for this job.
(1) right
(2) immediately
(3) suitable
(4) best
(5) soon
75. I. He would always do ………… was told by his superiors.
II. He appeared on stage …………… a narrator of the drama.
(1) as
(2) what
(3) about
(4) whatever
(5) always
Directions (Q. Nos. 76-80) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these for words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
76. In our daily life, we frequenely (1) / observe (2) / how disruptive (3) / innovations (4)/ are wiping out businesses. All correct (5)
77. We decided (1) / to look after (2) / the mistake (3) / by just ignoring (4) / it. All correct (5)
78. The accommodation, (1) / though (2) / was in a good locality, (3) / the construction (4) / work was not good. All correct (5)
79. Despite (1) / the obvious (2) / advantages, (3) / is it really worthwhile (4) / to invest in the device ? All correct (5)
80. We also gained (1) / ample (2) / expereince (3) / in the banking (4) / All correct (5)
Directions (Q. Nos. 81-90) Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number of the part with error as your answer. If there is no err, mark (5).
81. To run a company effectively (1) / it is very important (2) / in knowing the strengths and weaknesses (3) / of the employees. (4) / No error (5)
82. The land records (1) / of this district (2) / will computerise (3) / by next year. (4) / No error (5)
83. The Head Office has (1) / issued instructions that (2) / the performance of all Zonal Managers (3) / have to assess by a committee. (4) / No error (5)
84. She has promised to (1) / donate the funds to (2) / establish a library in many (3) / villages in India. (4) / No error (5)
85. We have already (1) /submitted our application (2) /an expect to receive (3) /our licence in thirty days. (4) / No error (5)
86. In order to claim(1) / any tax benefit you (2) / have to submit the Fixed Deposit Receipt (3) /issued from the Bank. (4) / No error (5)
87. During I was in (1) /college I preferred (2) / eating out to (3) / the simple food in the hostel. (4) / No error (5)
88. Banks which do not (1) / meet its priority sector (2) / targets are required (3) /pay high penalties. (4) / No error (5)
89. This year a large number of frauds (1) / have been prevented by (2) / alert clerical staff who insisted (3) / that customers provide valid identity proof. (4) / No error (5)
90. As the price of (1) / gold is higher (2) / you should keep (3) / your jewellery in a locker. (4) / No error (5)
Directions (Q. Nos. 91-100) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
In the 1980s, Japan was regarded as highly developed country.
However in recent years, Japan’s growth has (91) and the recent earthquake and tsunami have (92) devastated the country. As their nation (93) to cope with the disaster, its youth are (94) to meet the challenges. Many young, Japanese have become (95) not only contributing essential items and money, (96) also co-ordinating rescue efforts. Few people (97) that Japan’s young people would bring about its (98) – after all nearly one in ten youth were unemployed, many (99) only part-time and young people were only supposed to have (100) on their minds.
Often it takes a huge crisis to make a society change to achieve its potential.
91.
(1) stop
(2) decrease
(3) drop
(4) declined
(5) fell
92.
(1) too
(2) also
(3) not caused
(4) complete
(5)
93.
(1) competes
(2) efforts
(3) need
(4) struggling
(5) tries
94.
(1) together
(2) started
(3) rising
(4) co-operative
(5) failing
95.
(1) knowledgeable
(2) heroes
(3) volunteer
(4) jobless
(5) powerful
96.
(1) without
(2) even
(3) instead
(4) but
(5) besides
97.
(1) thought
(2) dream
(3) realise
(4) know
(5) perceived
98.
(1) changes
(2) downfall
(3) renewal
(4) reforms
(5) independence
99.
(1) worked
(2) earnings
(3) employee
(4) wages
(5) hire
100.
(1) business
(2) troubles
(3) fun
(4) responsibility
(5) worrys
Test III
Test of Numerical Ability
Directions (Q. Nos. 101-115) What should come in p lace of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
101. 5 × ? = 8042 ÷ 4
(1) 396.1
(2) 6433.6
(3) 10052.5
(4) 402.1
(5) None of these
102. 206 × 71 – 12080 = ?>
(1) 2546
(2) 2654
(3) 2564
(4) 2645
(5) None of these
103. 
(1) 5/22
(2) 9/11
(3) 4/11
(4) 7/22
(5) None of these
104. 
(1) 
(2) (841)2
(3) √22
(4) 22
(5) None of these
105. 
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
(5) None of these
106. 14% of 905 + ? = 287
(1) 158.7
(2) 160.3
(3) 153.1
(4) 162.5
(5) None of these
107. 5 ÷ (22 × 14.5) = ?
(1) 5.5
(2) 6.5
(3) 4.5
(4) 3.5
(5) None of these
108. 6824 + 7864 = ? × 40
(1) 376.4
(2) 359.2
(3) 363.4
(4) 367.2
(5) None of these
109. 10000 ÷ 100 ÷ 10 = ?
(1) 1
(2) 0.1
(3) 1000
(4) 100
(5) None of these
110. (49)2 × (7)8 ÷ (343)3 = (7)?
(1) 3
(2) 13
(3) 7
(4) 9
(5) None of these
111. 7825 – 9236 + 5234 = ? × 25
(1) 152.92
(2) 152.29
(3) 125.29
(4) 125.92
(5) None of these
112. 58% of 450 – ? % of 250 = 181
(1) 44
(2) 40
(3) 32
(4) 38
(5) None of these
113. 7% of 286 = ?
(1) 62.262
(2) 48.266
(3) 64.626
(4) 50.622
(5) None of these
114. 5 × 16.3 × 12.8 = ?
(1) 2861.46
(2) 2168.46
(3) 2816.64
(4) 2186.64
(5) None of these
115. 25 + 52.52 + 5.2 = ?
(1) 578.79
(2) 528.97
(3) 588.97
(4) 582.79
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 116-120) What approximate value should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following questions? (Note You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
116. (12.999)3 = ?
(1) 1800
(2) 1650
(3) 2000
(4) 2500
(5) 2200
117. 50550 ÷ 50 ÷ 5 = ?
(1) 350
(2) 150
(3) 300
(4) 250
(5) 200
118. 0003 ÷ 74.999 = ?
(1) 0.05
(2) 0.2
(3) 1
(4) 0.7
(5) 2
119. 003 × 22.998 + 100.010 = ?
(1) 630
(2) 550
(3) 700
(4) 720
(5) 510
120. 009 + 69.999 + 104.989 = ?
(1) 420
(2) 300
(3) 285
(4) 415
(5) 325
Directions (Q. Nos. 121-125) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
121. 2 14 84 420 1680 5040 ?
(1) 9940
(2) 7680
(3) 10080
(4) 5040
(5) None of these
122. 3 5 8 13 21 34 ?
(1) 72
(2) 47
(3) 55
(4) 64
(5) None of these
123. 1 2 6 21 ? 45 2676
(1) 88
(2) 67
(3) 62
(4) 84
(5) None of these
124. 27 125 ? 729 1331 2197 3375
(1) 512
(2) 447
(3) 216
(4) 343
(5) None of these
125. 10400 2600 650 ? 40625 15625 2.5390625
(1) 185.5
(2) 162.5
(3) 164.75
(4) 156.25
(5) None of these
126. The average of four consecutive odd numbers A< B, C and D respectively is 24. What is the product of B and D?
(1) 483
(2) 675
(3) 621
(4) 525
(5) None of these
127. Swati walks 150 m everyday. How many kilometers will she walk in three weeks?
(1) 2.04
(2) 5.92
(3) 4.18
(4) 3.15
(5) None of these
128. The area of a square is thrice the area of a rectangle. If the area of square is 225 sq cm and the length of the rectangle is 15 cm, what is the difference between the breadth of the rectangle and the side of the square?
(1) 8 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 12 cm
(4) 6 cm
(5) None of these
129. Find the average of the following set of scores :
125, 236, 334, 486, 564, 625, 702, 800
(1) 448
(2) 482
(3) 524
(4) 542
(5) None of these
130. A truck covers a certain distance in 12 h at the speed of 70 km/h. What is the average speed of a car which travels a distance of 120 km more than the truck in the same time?
(1) 76 km/h
(2) 85 km/h
(3) 82 km/h
(4) 78 km/h
(5) None of these
131. The difference between 55% of a number and 14% of the same number is 8610. What is 85% of that number?
(1) 17850
(2) 16820
(3) 18020
(4) 19450
(5) None of these
132. Kirti’s monthly income is two-third of Sneha’s monthly income. Sneha’s annual income is Rs. 432000. What is Kirti’s annual income? (In some cases, monthly income and in some cases annual income is used.)
(1) Rs. 292000
(2) Rs. 263500
(3) Rs. 248200
(4) Rs. 288000
(5) None of these
133. At present, Palash is three times Arnav’s age. After 7 yr, Palash will be twice Arnav’s age, then how many times will Palashs age be in another fourteen years time with respect to Arnav’s age then?
(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1.5
(5) None of these
134. Paresh got 102 marks in Hindi, 118 makrs in Science, 104 marks in Sanskrit, 114 marks in Maths and 96 marks in English. The maximum marks of each subject are 120. How much overall percentage of marks did Paresh get?
(1) 89
(2) 82
(3) 77
(4) 71
(5) None of these
135. Six women alone can complete a piece of work in 10 days, whereas 10 children alone take 15 days to complete the same piece of work. How many days will 6 women and 10 children together take to complete the piece of work?
(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) 4
(5) None of these
136. Suhas sold an item for Rs. 7500 and incurred a loss of 15%. At what price, should he have sold the item to have gained a profit of 25%?
(1) Rs. 13800
(2) Rs. 12500
(3) Rs. 11200
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
137. On Teacher’s Day, sweets were to be equally distributed amongst 540 children. But on that particular ay 135 children remained absent; hence each child got 2 sweets extra. How many sweets was each child originally supposed to get?
(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 10
(4) 6
(5) Cannot be determined
138. Maria earned a profit of 30% on selling an article for Rs. 6110. What was the cost price of the article?
(1) Rs. 5725
(2) Rs. 4080
(3) Rs. 5250
(4) Rs. 4400
(5) None of these
139. In an examination, it is required to get 55% of the aggregate marks to pasts. A student gets 520 marks and a is declared failed by 5% marks. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?
(1) 960
(2) 1250
(3) 1040
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
140. The diameter of a circle is 7.7 cm. What is the circumference of the circle?
(1) 26.4 cm
(2) 24.2 cm
(3) 28.4 cm
(4) 22.2 cm
(5) None of these
141. In how many different ways, can the letters of the word ‘BELIEVE’ be arranged?
(1) 840
(2) 1680
(3) 2520
(4) 5040
(5) None of these
142. The compound interest accrued on an amount at the end of two years at the rate of 16% per annum is
Rs. 3041.28. What is the amount?
(1) Rs. 10500
(2) Rs. 9000
(3) Rs. 7250
(4) Rs. 8800
(5) None of these
143. The simple interest accrued in 9 years on a principle of Rs. 24250 is 162% of the principle. What is the rate of interest per cent per annum?
(1) 22
(2) 16
(3) 18
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
144. A 420 m long train crosses a pole in 70s. What is the speed of the train?
(1) 5 m/s
(2) 7 m/s
(3) 4.5 m/s
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
145. Neela, Saroj and Paulami start running around a circular stadium and complete one round in 10 s, 6s and 14s respectively. In how much time, will they meet again at the starting point?
(1) 3 min, 30 s
(2) 2 min, 28 s
(3) 4 min, 45 s
(4) 1 min, 40 s
(5) None of these
146. A rectangular field has its length and breadth in the ratio of 6 : 5 respectively. A man riding a bicycle, completes one lap of this field along its perimeter at the speed of 19.8 km/h in 2 min. What is the area of the field ?
(1) 19200 sq m
(2) 27000 sq m
(3) 32500 sq m
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
147. Out of the fractions 
what is the sum of the larges and smallest fractions?
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
(5) None of these
148. What will come in place of both the question marks (?) in the following question?
(1) 7
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 12
(5) None of these
149. The average h eight of four girls was recorded as 150 cm. If the average of the h eights of three girls out of the four was 147 cm, what was the height of the fourth girl?
(1) 156 cm
(2) 168 cm
(3) 170 cm
(4) 162 cm
(5) None of these
150. What would be the area of a circle whose circumference is 35.2 cm?
(1) 67.22 sq cm
(2) 75.54 sq cm
(3) 98.56 sq cm
(4) 86.75 sq cm
(5) None of these
Test IV
Test of General Awareness
(With Special Reference to Banking Industry)
151. India has agreed to provide financial help to which of the following countries so that it can also implement its 10th Five Year’s Plan (2008-3) successfully?
(1) Afghanistan
(2) Myanmar
(3) Pakistan
(4) Nepal
(5) Bhutan
152. Which of the following States is a major producer of sugar in India?
(1) Goa
(2) Punjab
(3) Jammu & Kashmir
(4) Himachal Pradesh
(5) Maharashtra
153. A bank branch receives a counterfeit note of Rs. 100 from the customer, which customer wants it back. Which of the following action should be taken by the Bank ?
(1) Will return to customer
(2) Will impound and not return
(3) Will ask for exchange of note
(4) Will replace with genuine note
(5) Will check all the notes in possession with the customer which are not being deposited also
154. Whi9ch of the following is not a mode of foreign capital inflow in India ?
(1) FDI
(2) NRI deposits
(3) Fll
(4) No frills accounts
(5) None of these
155. Exporters in importers in India are required to know ‘FEMA’ rules. What does the letter ‘M’ denote in the term ‘FEMA’?
(1) Money
(2) Material
(3) Mega
(4) Management
(5) Micro
156. China has asked India to suspend operations of ONGC Videsh in South China sea. ONGC Videsh is an organization engaged in
(1) Oil exploration
(2) Fishing and Pearl Culture
(3) Research in Oceanography
(4) development of Ports and Shipyrads
(5) providing technology for converting sea water into potable water
157. In India, which of the following have the highest share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture and allied activities?
(1) Commercial Banks
(2) Cooperative Banks
(3) Private Sector Banks
(4) Microfinance Institutions
(5) Regional Rural Banks
158. Prime Minister of India visited which of the following places in September 2011 to address the General Assembly of the United Nations Organization?
(1) New York
(2) Washington DC
(3) Rome
(4) Vienna
(5) Paris
159. Which of the following banks was not nationalized in 1969 ?
(1) Punjab National Bank
(2) Bank of India
(3) Bank of Maharashtra
(4) Bank of Baroda
(5) Bank of Maharashtra
160. Bad debts mean which of the following?
(1) Amounts owed to a company that are going to be paid within a month
(2) Amounts owed to a company that are not going to be paid
(3) Amounts owed to a company that are going to be paid within 1 year
(4) Amounts owed to a company that are not going to be paid within 3 years
(5) Amounts owed to a company that are going to be paid within 6 months
161. Pakistan has raised objection over the construction of Kishanganga Hydro Power Project being developed in
(1) Rajasthan
(2) Jammu & Kashmir
(3) Gujarat
(4) Punjab
(5) Himachal Pradesh
162. Who among the following is the Leader of t he Opposition in the present Rajya Sabha ?
(1) Sharad Joshi
(2) Ravi Shankar Prasad
(3) Arun Jaitley
(4) AK Antony
(5) None of these
163. Which of the following is not a bank or finance company ?
(1) ABN Amro
(2) HSBC
(3) Lufthansa
(4) BNP Paribas
(5) Barclays
164. What is the maximum permissible limit for investment in PPF account in a financial year?
(1) Rs. 1 lakh
(2) Rs. 70000
(3) Rs. 50000
(4) Rs. 60000
(5) There is no limit
165. In our country, a cheque remains valid for payment for ________ from the date of issue.
(1) 3 months
(2) 6 months
(3) 9 months
(4) 12 months
(5) 18 months
166. The Government of India, has acquired RBI’s stake in one of the major banks of India. Which of the following is the bank?
(1) AXIS Bank
(2) IDBI Bank
(3) ICICI Bank
(4) State Bank of India
(5) None of these
167. Lasith Malinga is a famous player associated with the game of
(1) Hockey
(2) Badminton
(3) Lawn Tennis
(4) Cricket
(5) Football
168. Credit Cards are known as
(1) hard money
(2) easy money
(3) soft money
(4) plastic money
(5) real money
169. Who among the following is the President of Nepal at present and was in news recently?
(1) Ram Baran Yadav
(2) Baburam Bhattarai
(3) Gyandendra Shah
(4) Madhav Kumar Nepal
(5) None of these
170. Which of the following is one of the sites from where rockets are launched by ISRO, the Space Agency of India?
(1) Sriharikota
(2) Tarapore
(3) Guwahati
(4) Trombay
(5) Jaitapur
171. Burhanuddin Rabbani, who died recently, was the former President of
(1) Pakistan
(2) Afghanistan
(3) Iraq
(4) Iran
(5) Bangladesh
172. Which of the following books is written by Salman Rushdie?
(1) The Golden Gate
(2) The God of Small Things
(3) The Immortals
(4) Satanic Verses
(5) Two Lives
173. Sex Ratio (number of females per 1000 males) as per recent data released by the census commission of India is
(1) 930
(2) 980
(3) 976
(4) 941
(5) 990
174. On domestic term deposits, banks in our country generally offer additional rate of interest on term deposits from
(1) minors
(2) married women
(3) government, employees
(4) rural residents
(5) senior citizens
175. Which of the following instruments cannot be transferred from one person to another by endorsement?
(1) Fixed Deposit Receipt
(2) Cheque
(3) Bill of Exchange
(4) Promissory Note
(5) None of these
176. ‘Crossing’ applies to which of the following instruments?
(1) Cheques
(2) Bills
(3) Prommissory Notes
(4) Hundies
(5) Fixed Deposit receipts
177. Which of the following terms is not associated with the game of Football ?
(1) Dead ball
(2) Back pass
(3) Corner kick
(4) Maiden over
(5) Goal line
178. Which of the following is a Development Bank ?
(1) HDFC Bank
(2) National Housing Bank
(3) Central Bank of India
(4) Saraswat Cooperative Bank
(5) HSBC Bank
179. The second Africa-India Forum Summit 2011 was organized in May 2011 in
(1) Sun City
(2) New Delhi
(3) Addis Ababa
(4) Nairobi
(5) Pretoria
180. Which of the following assets can be mortgaged?
(1) Stock
(2) Book Debts
(3) National Savings Certificates
(4) Shares
(5) Land and Building
181. Preshipment packing credit advances are generally given by banks to
(1) farmers
(2) retail Traders
(3) professionals
(4) exporters
(5) transport operators
182. Among th e baks in our country, which of th following is not a foreign bank ?
(1) HSBC
(2) Standard Chartered Bank
(3) BNP Paribas
(4) Citi Bank NA
(5) ING Vyasya Bank
183. India has an extensive Nuclear Energy Pact with which of the following countries which will enable it to build many nuclear power stations in the country?
(1) Russia
(2) USA
(3) Japan
(4) Germany
(5) China
184. Which of the following is the u nit of electric current?
(1) Kelvin
(2) Nike
(3) Candela
(4) Erg
(5) Ampere
185. Which of the following countries is a member of South Asian Association of Regional Cooperation (SAARC) ?
(1) Azerbaijan
(2) Nepal
(3) Qatar
(4) Oman
(5) Vietnam
186. Which of the following is the currency of Iran?
(1) Dinar
(2) Rial
(3) Lari
(4) Rufiyaa
(5) Dirham
187. Which of the following is a foreign bank having offices/branches in India?
(1) Yes Bank
(2) HDFC Bank
(3) IDBI Bank
(4) Karnataka Bank
(5) Standard Chartered bank
188. The Headquarters of the International Court of Justice is located in
(1) Vienna
(2) London
(3) Tokyo
(4) Paris
(5) The Hague
189. What are teaser loans ?
(1) Fixed rate of interest charged by banks
(2) Floating rate of interest charged by banks
(3) Rate of interest in the initial period is very less and increases steeply in later years
(4) Rate of interest in the later years goes down substantially
(5) None of the above
190. Which of the following Awards is given for excellence in the field of Cinema ?
(1) Kalidas Samman
(2) Dadasaheb Phalke Award
(3) Saraswati Samman
(4) Ashok Chakra
(5) Kirti Chakra
191. BCCI is an organization working in the field of
(1) Sports
(2) Science & Technology
(3) Space Research
(4) Social Welfare
(5) World Peace
192. Which of the following is not a Public Sector Undertaking ?
(1) Eastern Coal Fields Ltd.
(2) Cotton Corporation of India Ltd.
(3) Bharat Bhari Udyog Nigam Ltd.
(4) ACC Ltd.
(5) Goa Shipyard Ltd.
193. Who among the following is not a Minister in Union Cabinet ?
(1) Kamal Nath
(2) Sharad Pawar
(3) SM Krishna
(4) Ambika Soni
(5) Mamta Banerjee
194. Amitabh Bacchan was given Best Actor Award in 57th National Film Awards for 2010 for his acting in the film
(1) Baabul
(2) Cheeni Kum
(3) Paa
(4) Buddha Hoga Tera Baap
(5) Bhoothnath
195. Which of the following is not the name of the sensitive index of any global stock exchange ?
(1) Nasdaq
(2) Nikkei
(3) Kospi
(4) Dow Jones
(5) SEBI
196. Who among the following is not a well known author of Indian origin ?
(1) Kiran Desai
(2) Shobha De
(3) Gagan Narang
(4) Chetan Bhagat
(5) Vikram Seth
197. Which of the following Cups/ Trophies is associated with the game of Lawn Tennis ?
(1) Rothmans Trophy
(2) Thomas Cup
(3) Wimbledon Trophy
(4) Deodhar Trophy
(5) Indira Gold Cup
198. Which one of the following aptly describes the business of insurance?
(1) Insurance is about collective bearing of risk
(2) Insurance pays to one person from money collected from another person
(3) Insurance is about disaster management
(4) Insurance is about paying for others’ mistakes
(5) None of the above
199. Which of the following welfare schemes is launched by the Government of India ?
(1) Jeevan Adhar
(2) Komal Jeevan
(3) Mid Day Meal Yojana
(4) Jeevan Amrit
(5) Jeevan Mitra
200. Which of the following Awards was given to VVS Laxman in 2011 by the Government of India ?
(1) Padmashri
(2) Padma Vibhushan
(3) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
(4) Sportsman of the Year
(5) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
Test V
Test of Computer Knowledge
201. The operation of combining two cells into a single cell in Excel is referred to as
(1) join cells
(2) merge cells
(3) merge table
(4) join table
(5) None of these
202. Which of the following can be used to store a large number of files in a small amount of storage space ?
(1) File adjustment
(2) File copying
(3) File reading
(4) File compatibility
(5) File compression
203. In a computer, most processing takes place in
(1) memory
(2) RAM
(3) motherboard
(4) CPU
(5) None of these
204. Data is organized in a worksheet as
(1) charts and diagrams
(2) rows and columns
(3) tables and boxes
(4) graphs
(5) None of these
205. Which of the following is an example of a binary number ?
(1) 6AH1
(2) 100101
(3) 005
(4) ABCD
(5) 23456
206. Spell Check will find errors in which of the following ?
(1) Today is a rainy day
(2) Today is a rainy a day
(3) Is a rainy
(4) Rainy today a day
(5) None of these
207. Which of the following is not a storage medium ?
(1) Hard disk
(2) Flash drive
(3) DVD
(4) CD
(5) Keyboard
208. In Excel, when the contents and attributes of a cell or range of cells have to be erased using the menu, the user must
(1) select the Cells, choose Edit, and select Clear, then All
(2) select the Cells, and click Delete on the keyboard
(3) select the Cells, choose Tools, and select Clear, then Formats
(4) select the Cells, choose Tools, and select Formula Audit, then Delete
(5) None of the above
209. The computer abbreviation KB usually means
(1) Key Block
(2) Kernel Boot
(3) Kilo Byte
(4) Kit Bit
(5) None of these
210. If an Excel Worksheet is to be linked for use in PowerPoint presentation, the following should be clicked
(1) Edit, Past Special
(2) Edit, Paste
(3) Edit, Copy
(4) File, Copy
(5) None of these
211. RAM stands for
(1) Random Access Memory
(2) Ready Application Module
(3) Read Access Memory
(4) Remote Access Machine
(5) None of these
212. Which of the following is the hardware and not the software ?
(1) Excel
(2) Printer driver
(3) Operating system
(4) PowerPoint
(5) Control Unit
213. In Word, which menu would the user select to print a document ?
(1) Tools
(2) File
(3) View
(4) Window
(5) None of these
214. Which of the following is not true about computer files ?
(1) They are collections of the data saved to a storage medium
(2) Every file has a filename
(3) A file extension is established by the user to indicate the date it was created
(4) Usually files contain data
(5) None of the above
215. The common name for a modulator-demodulator is
(1) modem
(2) joiner
(3) networker
(4) connector
(5) demod
216. What do you see when you click the right mouse button ?
(1) The same effect as the left click
(2) A special menu
(3) No effect
(4) A mouse cannot be right clicked
(5) Computer goes to sleep mode
217. In order to choose the front for a sentence in a word document,
(1) select Font in the Format menu
(2) select Font in the Edit menu
(3) select Font in the Tools menu
(4) select Font it he Insert menu
(5) None of these
218. The ALU performs ………… operations.
(1) logarithm-based
(2) ASCII
(3) algorithm-based
(4) arithmetic
(5) None of these
219. Excel is a program that is used to prepare a
(1) Database
(2) Text Document
(3) Spreadsheet
(4) Slide Presentation
(5) None of these
220. …………. consists of volatile chips that temporarily store data or instructions.
(1) CPU
(2) ROM
(3) RMA
(4) RAM
(5) None of these
221. How many kilobytes make a megabyte ?
(1) 128
(2) 1024
(3) 256
(4) 512
(5) 64
222. In order to delete a sentence from a document, you would use
(1) highlight and copy
(2) cut and paste
(3) copy and paste
(4) highlight and delete
(5) select and paste
223. Editing a document that has been created means
(1) saving it
(2) printing it
(3) scanning it
(4) correcting it
(5) None of these
224. In a computer, how many bits does a nibble signify ?
(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 16
(4) 32
(5) 64
225. Which of the following is not true about a compiler ?
(1) Translates instruction of a high level language into machine language
(2) Translates entire source program into machine language program
(3) It is involved in program’s execution
(4) It is a translating program
(5) It is useful to run programs
226. Keyboards, scanners, and microphones are examples of
(1) software programs
(2) input devices
(3) output devices
(4) utilities
(5) None of these
227. In Excel, the contents of the active cell are displayed in the
(1) footer bar
(2) tool bar
(3) task bar
(4) menu bar
(5) formula bar
228. When machine instructions are being executed by a computer, the instruction phase followed by the execution phase, is referred to as
(1) program cycle
(2) machine instruction
(3) execution cycle
(4) task cycle
(5) machine cycle
229. In Windows ME, what does ME stand for ?
(1) Millennium
(2) Micro-Expert
(3) Macro-Expert
(4) Multi-Expert
(5) My-Expert
230. Which of the following refers to the fastest, biggest and most expensive computers?
(1) Notebooks
(2) Personal Computers
(3) Laptops
(4) Supercomputers
(5) PDAs
231. Which is not a basic function of a computer
(1) Accept and process data
(2) Accept input
(3) Process data
(4) Store data
(5) Scan text
232. Which of the following is not a term pertaining to E-mail?
(1) PowerPoint
(2) Inbox
(3) Sender
(4) Receiver
(5) None of these
233. Peripheral devices such as printers and monitors are considered to be
(1) data
(2) software
(3) hardware
(4) information
(5) None of these
234. Which of the following is required to create in HTML document ?
(1) Browser
(2) Internet
(3) Text editor
(4) Search engine
(5) None of these
235. Which language is directly understood by the computer without translation program ?
(1) BASIC language
(2) Assembly language
(3) High level language
(4) C language
(5) Machine language
236. To inert a page break in a Word document, the following options are used
(1) Insert and Copy
(2) Insert and Enter
(3) Insert and Delete
(4) Insert and Page Layout
(5) Insert and Break
237. Which of the following identifies a cell in Excel ?
(1) Formula
(2) Name
(3) Label
(4) Address
(5) None of these
238. This is the part of the computer system that one cannot touch.
(1) Hardware
(2) Printer
(3) Mouse
(4) Scanner
(5) Software
239. A computer’s ROM is
(1) ALU
(2) computer software
(3) operating system
(4) computer hardware
(5) CPU
240. While selecting multiple worksheets in Excel, the following key must also be used when clicking the sheet tab
(1) Shift
(2) Alt
(3) Ctrl
(4) Insert
(5) Esc
241. Which of the following is a p art of the System Unit ?
(1) Monitor
(2) CPU
(3) CD-ROM
(4) Floppy Disk
(5) Printer
242. Restarting a computer that is already on, is referred to as
(1) logging off
(2) cold booting
(3) shutdown
(4) warm booting
(5) shutting off
243. A word processor would be use best to
(1) paint a picture
(2) draw a diagram
(3) type a story
(4) work out income and expenses
(5) None of these
244. The file that is linked with an E-mail and sent to the receiver of the E-mail, is referred to as
(1) annexure
(2) appendage
(3) add-on
(4) attachment
(5) article
245. Which of the following refers to the process of a computer receiving information from a server on the internet ?
(1) Gathering
(2) Uploading
(3) Inputting
(4) Outputting
(5) Downloading
246. A …………. is an example of an input device.
(1) printer
(2) Uploading
(3) Inputting
(4) Outputting
(5) Downloading
247. A hard copy of a document is
(1) printed on the printer
(2) stored on a floppy
(3) stored on a CD
(4) stored in the hard disk
(5) scanned
248. The term ‘host’ with respect to the internet, means
(1) a computer that is a stand alone computer
(2) a computer that is connected to the internet
(3) a computer reserve for use by the host
(4) a large collection of computers
(5) hyperlink
249. The translator program used in assembly language, is called
(1) compiler
(2) assembler
(3) interpreter
(4) translator
(5) operating system
250. A set of instruction s telling the computer what to do, is called
(1) mentor
(2) instructor
(3) compiler
(4) program
(5) None of these
Latest Govt Job & Exam Updates: